diff --git a/.gitattributes b/.gitattributes index 86da7d48ce8d333db460e5e9e5092d47101f338d..b3769aea08aece1e4b4875e6206f46c1c4760747 100644 --- a/.gitattributes +++ b/.gitattributes @@ -1 +1,3 @@ +images/** filter=lfs diff=lfs merge=lfs -text +data/metadata.jsonl filter=lfs diff=lfs merge=lfs -text images/**/*.png filter=lfs diff=lfs merge=lfs -text diff --git a/README.md b/README.md index 7d7832bc5e3d7167056168543eee0b157e585fb3..a47dbbd95ce1ffa8790a4692a5ad49cd6870f107 100644 --- a/README.md +++ b/README.md @@ -21,7 +21,7 @@ The dataset is designed to be loaded using the Hugging Face `datasets` library: from datasets import load_dataset # Load the evaluation split -dataset = load_dataset("your-username/your-repo-name", split='test') # Replace with your HF repo name +dataset = load_dataset("Reja1/jee-neet-benchmark", split='test') # Replace with your HF repo name # Example: Access the first question example = dataset[0] @@ -80,6 +80,15 @@ This repository contains scripts to run the benchmark evaluation directly: ```bash python src/benchmark_runner.py --config configs/benchmark_config.yaml --output_dir my_custom_results ``` + * To run the benchmark on a specific exam paper, use the `--exam_name` and `--exam_year` arguments. Both must be provided: + ```bash + # Example: Run only NEET 2024 questions + python src/benchmark_runner.py --config configs/benchmark_config.yaml --exam_name NEET --exam_year 2024 + + # Example: Run only NEET 2025 questions (assuming data exists) + python src/benchmark_runner.py --config configs/benchmark_config.yaml --exam_name NEET --exam_year 2025 + ``` + Note: If using exam names with spaces, enclose them in quotes. 6. **Check Results:** * Results for each model will be saved in subdirectories within the `results/` folder (or your custom output directory). * Each model's folder (e.g., `results/provider/modelname_YYYYMMDD_HHMMSS`) will contain: diff --git a/data/metadata.jsonl b/data/metadata.jsonl index e00e00b89f1d44b7eb664f60d75fe0dc1dbf489b..1309d658afc31b188ca4888dba9e99535b80bf6a 100644 --- a/data/metadata.jsonl +++ b/data/metadata.jsonl @@ -1,200 +1,3 @@ -{"image_path": "images/NEET_2024_T3/NEET_2024_T3_001.png", "question_id": "NEET_2024_T3_001", "exam_name": "NEET", 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sha256:6d25d8f3005dbdda11a69be279809fd434f45145cf7327c60b824a8f785745b3 +size 35994 diff --git a/jee_neet_benchmark_dataset.py b/jee-neet-benchmark.py similarity index 82% rename from jee_neet_benchmark_dataset.py rename to jee-neet-benchmark.py index 168840ac804799a3f512f2729329d4b9797342f3..017824fd7f8be4cbbf05c613e673a469ab81475d 100644 --- a/jee_neet_benchmark_dataset.py +++ b/jee-neet-benchmark.py @@ -80,8 +80,30 @@ class JeeNeetBenchmark(datasets.GeneratorBasedBuilder): # Check if metadata file exists if not os.path.exists(metadata_path): + # For debugging, let's list what IS in base_dir (which is the dataset_root when run from Hub) + files_in_base_dir = [] + try: + files_in_base_dir = os.listdir(base_dir) + except Exception as e: + files_in_base_dir = [f"Error listing base_dir: {e}"] + + files_in_data_sub_dir = [] + data_sub_dir_path = os.path.join(base_dir, "data") + if os.path.exists(data_sub_dir_path) and os.path.isdir(data_sub_dir_path): + try: + files_in_data_sub_dir = os.listdir(data_sub_dir_path) + except Exception as e: + files_in_data_sub_dir = [f"Error listing data_sub_dir_path: {e}"] + elif not os.path.exists(data_sub_dir_path): + files_in_data_sub_dir = ["Data subdirectory does not exist at expected path"] + else: + files_in_data_sub_dir = ["Data subdirectory path exists but is not a directory"] + + raise FileNotFoundError( f"Metadata file not found at {metadata_path}. " + f"Base directory (dataset_root): {base_dir}. Files in base_dir: {files_in_base_dir}. " + f"Expected data subdirectory path: {data_sub_dir_path}. Files in data_sub_dir: {files_in_data_sub_dir}. " f"Make sure 'data/metadata.jsonl' exists in your dataset repository. " f"If running locally, you might need to specify the path using --data_dir argument " f"or ensure the script is run from the project root." diff --git a/output.py b/output.py new file mode 100644 index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..91ead1c3b5381246a0eb1951011f80b914477d1b --- /dev/null +++ b/output.py @@ -0,0 +1,66 @@ +import json +import os + +# --- Configuration --- +output_filename = "questions_2025_45.jsonl" # Modified filename for clarity +num_questions = 180 # Changed +exam_name = "NEET" +exam_year = 2025 # Changed +question_type = "MCQ" + +# Construct folder and prefix based on new year and set identifier +set_identifier = "45" # Changed from "T3" +image_folder = f"images/{exam_name}_{exam_year}_{set_identifier}" +question_id_prefix = f"{exam_name}_{exam_year}_{set_identifier}" + +# --- Ensure the image directory path exists (optional, but good practice) --- +# If you actually have images, you might want to uncomment this +# os.makedirs(os.path.dirname(f"{image_folder}/dummy.png"), exist_ok=True) + +# --- Generate the JSONL file --- +print(f"Generating {output_filename}...") + +with open(output_filename, 'w', encoding='utf-8') as f: + for i in range(1, num_questions + 1): + # Determine subject based on question number + if 1 <= i <= 45: # Changed range + subject = "Physics" + elif 46 <= i <= 90: # Changed range + subject = "Chemistry" + elif 91 <= i <= 135: # Changed range + subject = "Botany" + elif 136 <= i <= 180: # Changed range + subject = "Zoology" + else: + # Should not happen with the loop range, but good for robustness + subject = "Unknown" + + # Format question number with leading zeros (e.g., 001, 015, 123) + q_num_padded = f"{i:03d}" + + # Construct image path and question ID + image_path = f"{image_folder}/{question_id_prefix}_{q_num_padded}.png" + question_id = f"{question_id_prefix}_{q_num_padded}" + + # Determine a placeholder correct answer (e.g., cycling 1-4) + # You can replace this with actual logic if needed + correct_answer = [] # Cycles through [1], [2], [3], [4] + + # Create the dictionary for the current question + question_data = { + "image_path": image_path, + "question_id": question_id, + "exam_name": exam_name, + "exam_year": exam_year, + "subject": subject, + "question_type": question_type, + "correct_answer": correct_answer # Stored as a list as in the example + } + + # Convert the dictionary to a JSON string + json_line = json.dumps(question_data, ensure_ascii=False) + + # Write the JSON string as a line in the file + f.write(json_line + "\n") + +print(f"Successfully created {output_filename} with {num_questions} records.") diff --git a/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_20250505_091752/predictions.jsonl b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2024_20250505_091752/predictions.jsonl similarity index 100% rename from results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_20250505_091752/predictions.jsonl rename to results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2024_20250505_091752/predictions.jsonl diff --git a/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_20250505_091752/summary.json b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2024_20250505_091752/summary.json similarity index 100% rename from results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_20250505_091752/summary.json rename to results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2024_20250505_091752/summary.json diff --git a/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_20250505_091752/summary.md b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2024_20250505_091752/summary.md similarity index 100% rename from results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_20250505_091752/summary.md rename to results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2024_20250505_091752/summary.md diff --git a/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/predictions.jsonl b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/predictions.jsonl new file mode 100644 index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..1c5817368d760f8d436716c0283dbb1c228c6905 --- /dev/null +++ b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/predictions.jsonl @@ -0,0 +1,180 @@ +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_001", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The problem asks for the differential equation governing the height y(x) of a liquid surface under the influence of surface tension and gravity. We are given that the tank is very wide in the z-direction, so we can consider it a 2D problem in the x-y plane. The liquid has surface tension S and density \u03c1. The acceleration due to gravity is g. We are also given that for small angles \u03b8, \u03b8(x) \u2248 sin \u03b8(x) \u2248 tan \u03b8(x) = dy/dx.\n\nMethod 1: Pressure Balance\nThe pressure difference across a curved liquid surface is given by the Young-Laplace equation. For a 2D surface (infinite radius of curvature in the z-direction), the pressure difference is \u0394P = S/R, where R is the radius of curvature in the x-y plane.\nThe curvature 1/R is given by (d^2y/dx^2) / (1 + (dy/dx)^2)^(3/2). Since dy/dx = \u03b8(x) is small, (dy/dx)^2 can be neglected compared to 1. So, 1/R \u2248 d^2y/dx^2.\nLet P_atm be the atmospheric pressure above the liquid surface. Let y be the height of the liquid surface. The hydrostatic pressure in the liquid at height y is P_liquid = P_atm - \u03c1gy. This assumes y is measured upwards from a reference level where the pressure is P_atm if the liquid surface were flat.\nThe pressure difference across the surface is S/R. If the surface is concave upwards (as shown in the diagram near the wall, where y is positive), the center of curvature is in the air. Thus, the pressure in the air is greater than the pressure in the liquid by S/R.\nSo, P_atm - P_liquid = S/R.\nSubstituting P_liquid = P_atm - \u03c1gy, we get:\nP_atm - (P_atm - \u03c1gy) = S/R\n\u03c1gy = S/R\nNow, substitute R \u2248 1/(d^2y/dx^2). So,\n\u03c1gy = S * (d^2y/dx^2)\nRearranging this equation, we get:\nd^2y/dx^2 = (\u03c1g/S) * y\n\nMethod 2: Force Balance\nConsider a small element of the liquid surface of length dx along the x-axis and unit width in the z-direction.\nThe weight of this element of liquid is dW = (\u03c1 * Volume) * g = \u03c1 * (y * dx * 1) * g = \u03c1gy dx. This force acts downwards.\nThe net upward force due to surface tension on this element is due to the difference in the vertical component of surface tension at x and x+dx.\nThe vertical component of surface tension force at position x is -S sin\u03b8(x) (acting downwards if \u03b8 > 0 and x increases from left to right).\nThe vertical component of surface tension force at position x+dx is S sin\u03b8(x+dx).\nSo, the net upward surface tension force is S[sin\u03b8(x+dx) - sin\u03b8(x)].\nSince \u03b8 is small, sin\u03b8(x) \u2248 tan\u03b8(x) = dy/dx.\nSo, the net upward force is S * [ (dy/dx)|_(x+dx) - (dy/dx)|_x ].\nUsing the definition of the derivative, this is approximately S * d/dx(dy/dx) * dx = S * (d^2y/dx^2) * dx.\nFor equilibrium, the net upward force due to surface tension must balance the downward force due to gravity:\nS * (d^2y/dx^2) * dx = \u03c1gy * dx\nDividing by dx (and S), we get:\nd^2y/dx^2 = (\u03c1g/S) * y\n\nBoth methods lead to the same differential equation.\nLet's check the options:\n(1) d^2y/dx^2 = (\u03c1g/S) x\n(2) d^2y/dx^2 = (\u03c1g/S) y\n(3) d^2y/dx^2 = \u221a(\u03c1g/S)\n(4) dy/dx = \u221a(\u03c1g/S) x\n\nOur derived equation matches option (2).\n\nFinal check of dimensional consistency:\ny: [L]\nd^2y/dx^2: [L]/[L]^2 = [L]^-1\n\u03c1: [M][L]^-3\ng: [L][T]^-2\nS: [Force/Length] = [M][L][T]^-2 / [L] = [M][T]^-2\n\u03c1g/S: ([M][L]^-3 * [L][T]^-2) / ([M][T]^-2) = ([M][L]^-2[T]^-2) / ([M][T]^-2) = [L]^-2\n(\u03c1g/S) * y: [L]^-2 * [L] = [L]^-1\nSo, d^2y/dx^2 = (\u03c1g/S) y is dimensionally consistent ([L]^-1 = [L]^-1).\n\nTherefore, the correct equation for y(x) is d^2y/dx^2 = (\u03c1g/S) y.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_002", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The focal length of the objective lens is $f_o = 2 \text{ cm}$.The focal length of the eyepiece is $f_e = 4 \text{ cm}$.The tube length of the microscope is $L = 40 \text{ cm}$.The distance of distinct vision is $D = 25 \text{ cm}$.The final image is formed at the near point (distance of distinct vision). So, for the eyepiece, the image distance is $v_e = -D = -25 \text{ cm}$.Using the lens formula for the eyepiece, $1/f_e = 1/v_e - 1/u_e$:$1/4 = 1/(-25) - 1/u_e$$1/u_e = -1/25 - 1/4 = (-4 - 25)/100 = -29/100$So, the object distance for the eyepiece is $u_e = -100/29 \text{ cm}$. The magnitude is $|u_e| = 100/29 \text{ cm}$.The magnification of the eyepiece is $m_e = 1 + D/f_e = 1 + 25/4 = 1 + 6.25 = 7.25 = 29/4$.The tube length $L$ is the distance between the objective lens and the eyepiece. So, $L = v_o + |u_e|$, where $v_o$ is the image distance for the objective lens.$40 = v_o + 100/29$$v_o = 40 - 100/29 = (40 \cdot 29 - 100)/29 = (1160 - 100)/29 = 1060/29 \text{ cm}$.Now, for the objective lens, using the lens formula $1/f_o = 1/v_o - 1/u_o$:$1/2 = 1/(1060/29) - 1/u_o$$1/2 = 29/1060 - 1/u_o$$1/u_o = 29/1060 - 1/2 = (29 - 530)/1060 = -501/1060$So, the object distance for the objective lens is $u_o = -1060/501 \text{ cm}$.The magnification of the objective lens is $m_o = v_o/u_o = (1060/29) / (-1060/501) = -501/29$.The magnitude of the magnification of the objective lens is $|m_o| = 501/29$.The total magnification of the microscope is $M = |m_o| \cdot m_e$.$M = (501/29) \cdot (29/4) = 501/4 = 125.25$.Comparing this value with the given options:(1) 100(2) 125(3) 150(4) 250The calculated value $125.25$ is closest to $125$.The final answer is $\boxed{\text{125}}$. 2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_003", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The condition for an electron to pass undeflected through a region with both electric and magnetic fields is that the net force on the electron is zero. The Lorentz force on a charge q moving with velocity v in an electric field E and magnetic field B is given by:\nF = qE + q(v x B)\n\nFor the electron to not deflect, F = 0.\nSo, qE + q(v x B) = 0\nqE = -q(v x B)\nE = -(v x B)\n\nFrom this equation, we can deduce two things:\n1. The direction of E: Since v x B is a vector perpendicular to both v and B, E must also be perpendicular to both v and B. Therefore, E is perpendicular to B.\n2. The magnitude of E: The magnitude of E is |E| = |-(v x B)| = |v x B|. Since the electron is injected into the magnetic field perpendicular to its direction of motion, the angle between v and B is 90 degrees. So, |v x B| = vB sin(90\u00b0) = vB.\n Therefore, E = vB.\n\nNow, let's calculate the values:\nGiven:\nSpeed of electron, v = c/100\nSpeed of light, c = 3 x 10\u2078 m/s\nSo, v = (3 x 10\u2078 m/s) / 100 = 3 x 10\u2076 m/s.\nMagnitude of magnetic field, B = 9 x 10\u207b\u2074 T.\n\nMagnitude of electric field, E = vB\nE = (3 x 10\u2076 m/s) * (9 x 10\u207b\u2074 T)\nE = 27 x 10\u2076\u207b\u2074 V/m\nE = 27 x 10\u00b2 V/m.\n\nSo, the electric field E must be perpendicular to the magnetic field B, and its magnitude must be 27 x 10\u00b2 V/m.\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) E is perpendicular to B and its magnitude is 27 x 10\u2074 V m\u207b\u00b9. (Magnitude is incorrect)\n(2) E is perpendicular to B and its magnitude is 27 x 10\u00b2 V m\u207b\u00b9. (This matches our findings)\n(3) E is parallel to B and its magnitude is 27 x 10\u00b2 V m\u207b\u00b9. (Direction relationship is incorrect)\n(4) E is parallel to B and its magnitude is 27 x 10\u2074 V m\u207b\u00b9. (Direction relationship and magnitude are incorrect)\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_004", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "Let L be the length of the inclined surfaces and $\\theta = 45^\\circ$ be the angle of inclination.\n\nFor the smooth surface:\nThe acceleration of the body is $a_s = g \\sin\\theta$.\nIf $t_s$ is the time taken to slide down the smooth surface, and the body starts from rest, then $L = \\frac{1}{2} a_s t_s^2$.\nSo, $L = \\frac{1}{2} (g \\sin\\theta) t_s^2$. (Equation 1)\n\nFor the rough surface:\nThe normal force is $N = mg \\cos\\theta$.\nThe frictional force is $f_k = \\mu_k N = \\mu_k mg \\cos\\theta$.\nThe net force down the incline is $F_{net} = mg \\sin\\theta - f_k = mg \\sin\\theta - \\mu_k mg \\cos\\theta$.\nThe acceleration of the body on the rough surface is $a_r = \\frac{F_{net}}{m} = g \\sin\\theta - \\mu_k g \\cos\\theta = g(\\sin\\theta - \\mu_k \\cos\\theta)$.\nIf $t_r$ is the time taken to slide down the rough surface, then $L = \\frac{1}{2} a_r t_r^2$.\nSo, $L = \\frac{1}{2} g(\\sin\\theta - \\mu_k \\cos\\theta) t_r^2$. (Equation 2)\n\nWe are given that $t_r = 2t_s$.\n\nFrom Equation 1, $t_s^2 = \\frac{2L}{g \\sin\\theta}$.\nFrom Equation 2, $t_r^2 = \\frac{2L}{g(\\sin\\theta - \\mu_k \\cos\\theta)}$.\n\nSince $t_r = 2t_s$, we have $t_r^2 = (2t_s)^2 = 4t_s^2$.\nSubstituting the expressions for $t_s^2$ and $t_r^2$:\n$\\frac{2L}{g(\\sin\\theta - \\mu_k \\cos\\theta)} = 4 \\left( \\frac{2L}{g \\sin\\theta} \\right)$.\n\nWe can cancel $\\frac{2L}{g}$ from both sides (assuming $g \\ne 0$ and $L \\ne 0\n$):\n$\\frac{1}{\\sin\\theta - \\mu_k \\cos\\theta} = \\frac{4}{\\sin\\theta}$.\n$\\sin\\theta = 4(\\sin\\theta - \\mu_k \\cos\\theta)$.\n$\\sin\\theta = 4\\sin\\theta - 4\\mu_k \\cos\\theta$.\n$4\\mu_k \\cos\\theta = 4\\sin\\theta - \\sin\\theta$.\n$4\\mu_k \\cos\\theta = 3\\sin\\theta$.\n$\\mu_k = \\frac{3\\sin\\theta}{4\\cos\\theta} = \\frac{3}{4} \\tan\\theta$.\n\nGiven $\\theta = 45^\\circ$, so $\\tan 45^\\circ = 1$.\nTherefore, $\\mu_k = \\frac{3}{4} \\times 1 = \\frac{3}{4} = 0.75$.\n\nThe options are:\n(1) 0.25\n(2) 0.40\n(3) 0.5\n(4) 0.75\n\nThe calculated value $\\mu_k = 0.75$ matches option (4).\nThe single integer number corresponding to the correct option is 4.\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_005", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_006", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Given that a step-by-step derivation is required, and the nodal analysis leads to complex calculations with results not matching the options, it is possible there is a simpler method or a specific property of this circuit that is not immediately obvious, or there might be an error in the problem statement or options. However, if we assume that one of the options is correct and that standard methods should apply, the discrepancy suggests a calculation error or a very specific configuration. Without further information or clarification, providing a rigorous derivation to one of the options is challenging if the calculations do not align.However, if we are forced to choose from the options, and assuming there is a correct answer among them, a common strategy in exams when faced with complex calculations is to re-check the setup and initial simplifications. The initial simplifications of parallel resistors seem correct:R_AE_parallel = (6Ω * 3Ω) / (6Ω + 3Ω) = 18Ω / 9Ω = 2Ω.R_BC_parallel = (1.5Ω * 2.5Ω) / (1.5Ω + 2.5Ω) = 3.75Ω / 4Ω = 15/16 Ω.The nodal analysis equations are:1) 7V_A - 2V_B - 5V_E = 02) -3V_A + 19V_B - 16V_C = 03) -88V_B + 103V_C = 754) -3V_A + 25V_E = 20Current through battery I = 3V_E.Let's assume there might be a simple integer or half-integer value for voltages that satisfies the equations and leads to one of the options.If we assume the answer is 2.0A, then V_E = 2/3 V. As checked in thought process, this does not satisfy all equations.Due to the complexity and the discrepancy, it is not possible to provide a definitive step-by-step derivation that leads to one of the given options without either finding an error in the extensive calculations or discovering a simplification trick. If this were an exam, rechecking calculations or looking for a special condition (like a balanced bridge, which is not apparent here) would be necessary.Given the constraint to choose an option, and lacking a verified derivation leading to one of the options, we cannot confidently select an answer. However, if we assume there is an error in our detailed calculation and refer to common solutions for such problems if available (as sometimes specific problems are known), that might guide the choice. Since no such external verified solution is available here, we acknowledge the difficulty.The final answer is $\boxed{1}$1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_007", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The problem asks for the ratio v/v\u2080, where v\u2080 is the initial horizontal velocity of the bob at its lowest point, and v is the speed of the bob at point P where the string becomes slack. The string makes an angle \u03b8 with the horizontal at point P, and P is above the point of suspension O. The length of the string is l.\n\n1. **Conservation of Mechanical Energy:**\n Let the lowest point be the reference level for potential energy (PE = 0).\n Initial energy at the lowest point: E\u2080 = Kinetic Energy + Potential Energy = (1/2)mv\u2080\u00b2 + 0 = (1/2)mv\u2080\u00b2.\n At point P, the bob is at a height h above the lowest point. From the diagram, the vertical distance of P above O is l sin \u03b8. Since O is at a height l above the lowest point, the total height of P above the lowest point is h = l + l sin \u03b8 = l(1 + sin \u03b8).\n Energy at point P: E_P = Kinetic Energy + Potential Energy = (1/2)mv\u00b2 + mgh = (1/2)mv\u00b2 + mgl(1 + sin \u03b8).\n By conservation of energy, E\u2080 = E_P:\n (1/2)mv\u2080\u00b2 = (1/2)mv\u00b2 + mgl(1 + sin \u03b8)\n Multiplying by 2/m, we get:\n v\u2080\u00b2 = v\u00b2 + 2gl(1 + sin \u03b8) (Equation 1)\n\n2. **Condition for String Slacking:**\n When the string gets slack, the tension T in the string becomes zero.\n At point P, the forces acting on the bob are tension T (along PO) and gravity mg (vertically downwards).\n We need to find the component of gravity along the string. The string OP makes an angle \u03b8 with the horizontal. Therefore, it makes an angle (90\u00b0 - \u03b8) with the vertical.\n The component of gravity mg along the string, directed towards the center O, is mg cos(90\u00b0 - \u03b8) = mg sin \u03b8.\n The net force towards the center O provides the centripetal acceleration mv\u00b2/l:\n T + mg sin \u03b8 = mv\u00b2/l\n When the string slacks, T = 0. So:\n mg sin \u03b8 = mv\u00b2/l\n v\u00b2 = gl sin \u03b8 (Equation 2)\n\n3. **Finding the ratio v/v\u2080:**\n Substitute v\u00b2 from Equation 2 into Equation 1:\n v\u2080\u00b2 = (gl sin \u03b8) + 2gl(1 + sin \u03b8)\n v\u2080\u00b2 = gl sin \u03b8 + 2gl + 2gl sin \u03b8\n v\u2080\u00b2 = 3gl sin \u03b8 + 2gl\n v\u2080\u00b2 = gl(2 + 3 sin \u03b8) (Equation 3)\n\n Now, we need the ratio v/v\u2080.\n (v/v\u2080)\u00b2 = v\u00b2/v\u2080\u00b2\n Substitute v\u00b2 from Equation 2 and v\u2080\u00b2 from Equation 3:\n (v/v\u2080)\u00b2 = (gl sin \u03b8) / (gl(2 + 3 sin \u03b8))\n (v/v\u2080)\u00b2 = sin \u03b8 / (2 + 3 sin \u03b8)\n Therefore,\n v/v\u2080 = (sin \u03b8 / (2 + 3 sin \u03b8))^(1/2)\n\n Comparing this result with the given options:\n (1) (sin \u03b8)^(1/2)\n (2) (1 / (2 + 3 sin \u03b8))^(1/2)\n (3) (cos \u03b8 / (2 + 3 sin \u03b8))^(1/2)\n (4) (sin \u03b8 / (2 + 3 sin \u03b8))^(1/2)\n\n Our derived expression matches option (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_008", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The given logic circuit has two inputs A and B.\nLet's identify the gates:\n1. The top gate takes inputs A and B and is a NOR gate. Its output can be denoted as X1.\n So, X1 = (A + B)'\n\n2. The bottom gate takes inputs B and A (which is the same as A and B) and is a NAND gate. Its output can be denoted as X2.\n So, X2 = (A . B)'\n\n3. The outputs X1 and X2 are then fed into an AND gate. The final output is Y.\n So, Y = X1 . X2\n Y = (A + B)' . (A . B)'\n\nLet's create a truth table for this circuit:\n\n| A | B | A+B | X1 = (A+B)' | A.B | X2 = (A.B)' | Y = X1 . X2 |\n|---|---|-----|-------------|-----|-------------|-------------|\n| 0 | 0 | 0 | 1 | 0 | 1 | 1 . 1 = 1 |\n| 0 | 1 | 1 | 0 | 0 | 1 | 0 . 1 = 0 |\n| 1 | 0 | 1 | 0 | 0 | 1 | 0 . 1 = 0 |\n| 1 | 1 | 1 | 0 | 1 | 0 | 0 . 0 = 0 |\n\nNow let's compare this truth table for Y with the truth tables of the given options:\n\nOption (1): AND gate (Y = A . B)\n| A | B | A.B |\n|---|---|-----|\n| 0 | 0 | 0 |\n| 0 | 1 | 0 |\n| 1 | 0 | 0 |\n| 1 | 1 | 1 |\nThis does not match.\n\nOption (2): NAND gate (Y = (A . B)')\n| A | B | (A.B)' |\n|---|---|--------|\n| 0 | 0 | 1 |\n| 0 | 1 | 1 |\n| 1 | 0 | 1 |\n| 1 | 1 | 0 |\nThis does not match.\n\nOption (3): OR gate (Y = A + B)\n| A | B | A+B |\n|---|---|-----|\n| 0 | 0 | 0 |\n| 0 | 1 | 1 |\n| 1 | 0 | 1 |\n| 1 | 1 | 1 |\nThis does not match.\n\nOption (4): NOR gate (Y = (A + B)')\n| A | B | (A+B)' |\n|---|---|--------|\n| 0 | 0 | 1 |\n| 0 | 1 | 0 |\n| 1 | 0 | 0 |\n| 1 | 1 | 0 |\nThis matches the truth table for Y obtained from the circuit.\n\nAlternatively, using Boolean algebra:\nY = (A + B)' . (A . B)'\nUsing De Morgan's theorem, (A + B)' = A' . B' and (A . B)' = A' + B'.\nSo, Y = (A' . B') . (A' + B')\nDistribute: Y = (A' . B' . A') + (A' . B' . B')\nSince A' . A' = A' and B' . B' = B',\nY = (A' . B') + (A' . B')\nSince X + X = X,\nY = A' . B'\nUsing De Morgan's theorem again, A' . B' = (A + B)'.\nThis is the Boolean expression for a NOR gate.\n\nThus, the output Y of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of a NOR gate.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_009", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The given electric field is E_z = 60 cos (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t) V/m.\nFrom this equation, we can identify the following:\n1. The amplitude of the electric field, E_0 = 60 V/m.\n2. The electric field oscillates along the z-axis.\n3. The wave number, k = 5 rad/m.\n4. The angular frequency, \u03c9 = 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 rad/s.\n5. The term (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t) indicates that the wave is propagating in the negative x-direction.\n\nThe speed of the electromagnetic wave is given by v = \u03c9/k.\nv = (1.5 \u00d7 10^9 rad/s) / (5 rad/m) = 0.3 \u00d7 10^9 m/s = 3 \u00d7 10^8 m/s.\nThis is the speed of light in vacuum, c.\n\nThe amplitude of the magnetic field, B_0, is related to the amplitude of the electric field, E_0, by the equation E_0 / B_0 = c.\nSo, B_0 = E_0 / c = 60 V/m / (3 \u00d7 10^8 m/s) = 20 \u00d7 10^(-8) T = 2 \u00d7 10^(-7) T.\n\nThe direction of the electric field (E), magnetic field (B), and the direction of propagation of the wave (k_wave) are mutually perpendicular. The direction of propagation is given by the direction of the cross product E \u00d7 B.\nThe electric field is along the z-axis (let unit vector be k\u0302).\nThe wave is propagating in the negative x-direction (let unit vector be -\u00ee).\nSo, k\u0302 \u00d7 (direction of B) = -\u00ee.\nLet the magnetic field be B_y \u0135 (along y-axis). Then E \u00d7 B gives (E_z k\u0302) \u00d7 (B_y \u0135) = E_z B_y (k\u0302 \u00d7 \u0135) = E_z B_y (-\u00ee). This is in the -x direction, which matches the direction of propagation.\nTherefore, the magnetic field oscillates along the y-axis.\n\nThe magnetic field and electric field are in phase for a plane electromagnetic wave. Thus, the argument of the cosine function will be the same for both E and B.\nSo, the expression for the magnetic field is B_y = B_0 cos (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t).\nSubstituting the value of B_0:\nB_y = 2 \u00d7 10^(-7) cos (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t) T.\n\nLet's compare this with the given options:\n(1) B_y = 2 \u00d7 10^(-7) cos (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t) T\n(2) B_x = 2 \u00d7 10^(-7) cos (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t) T\n(3) B_z = 60 cos (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t) T\n(4) B_y = 60 sin (5x + 1.5 \u00d7 10^9 t) T\n\nOption (1) matches our derived expression.\nOption (2) has the wrong direction for the magnetic field (x-axis).\nOption (3) has the wrong direction (z-axis) and wrong amplitude for the magnetic field (this is the amplitude of the electric field).\nOption (4) has the wrong amplitude and is a sine function, implying a phase difference, which is generally not the case unless specified.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (1).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_010", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_011", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "To find the potential difference V_A - V_B, we need to sum the potential drops across each component as we traverse from A to B. The current i = 2 A flows from A to B, and it is increasing at a rate of di/dt = 1 A/s.\n\nThe components are an inductor (L = 1 H), a voltage source (5 V), and a resistor (R = 2 \u03a9).\n\n1. **Potential drop across the inductor (V_L):**\n The potential drop across an inductor in the direction of current is given by V_L = L * (di/dt).\n Given L = 1 H and di/dt = 1 A/s.\n So, V_L = 1 H * 1 A/s = 1 V.\n Since the current is increasing, this is a potential drop when moving in the direction of the current.\n\n2. **Potential drop across the voltage source (V_battery):**\n The diagram shows a voltage source of 5 V. The longer line represents the positive terminal, and the shorter line represents the negative terminal. As we move from A to B, we traverse the voltage source from its positive terminal to its negative terminal. Therefore, there is a potential drop of 5 V across the voltage source.\n So, V_battery = 5 V.\n\n3. **Potential drop across the resistor (V_R):**\n The potential drop across a resistor in the direction of current is given by V_R = i * R.\n Given i = 2 A and R = 2 \u03a9.\n So, V_R = 2 A * 2 \u03a9 = 4 V.\n\nThe total potential difference V_A - V_B is the sum of these potential drops:\nV_A - V_B = V_L + V_battery + V_R\nV_A - V_B = 1 V + 5 V + 4 V\nV_A - V_B = 10 V.\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) 5 volt\n(2) 6 volt\n(3) 9 volt\n(4) 10 volt\n\nOur calculated value of 10 V matches option (4).\nTherefore, the correct option is (4). The integer number corresponding to the correct option is 4.\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_012", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_013", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The question describes a combination of four similar thin convex lenses arranged axially in contact.\nLet the power of each individual lens be 'p' and the magnification of each individual lens be 'm'.\n\n1. **Power of the combination:**\n When thin lenses are in contact, the power of the combination (P_combination) is the algebraic sum of the powers of the individual lenses.\n If there are 'n' lenses, P_combination = p\u2081 + p\u2082 + ... + p\u2099.\n In this case, there are four similar lenses, so p\u2081 = p\u2082 = p\u2083 = p\u2084 = p.\n Therefore, P_combination = p + p + p + p = 4p.\n\n2. **Magnification of the combination:**\n When lenses are in contact, the total magnification (M_combination) is the product of the magnifications of the individual lenses.\n If there are 'n' lenses, M_combination = m\u2081 \u00d7 m\u2082 \u00d7 ... \u00d7 m\u2099.\n In this case, there are four similar lenses, so m\u2081 = m\u2082 = m\u2083 = m\u2084 = m.\n Therefore, M_combination = m \u00d7 m \u00d7 m \u00d7 m = m\u2074.\n\nSo, the power of the combination is 4p and the total magnification is m\u2074.\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) 4p and 4m\n(2) p\u2074 and 4m\n(3) 4p and m\u2074\n(4) p\u2074 and m\u2074\n\nComparing our result with the options, option (3) matches: 4p and m\u2074.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_014", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Initial number of moles of oxygen, n₁ = 18.20 moles.Volume of the cylinder, V = 30 litre = 30 × 10⁻³ m³.Temperature, T = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K.Gauge pressure after withdrawal, P_gauge = 11 atmospheric pressure.Atmospheric pressure, P_atm = 1 atm = 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m².So, P_gauge = 11 × 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m² = 11.11 × 10⁵ N/m².Absolute pressure, P_absolute = P_gauge + P_atm = 11 × 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m² + 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m² = (11+1) × 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m² = 12 × 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m² = 12.12 × 10⁵ N/m².Gas constant, R = 100/12 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹.Molecular mass of O₂, M = 32 g/mol = 0.032 kg/mol .Using the ideal gas law, PV = nRT, we can find the final number of moles of oxygen, n₂.n₂ = (P_absolute × V) / (R × T)n₂ = (12.12 × 10⁵ N/m² × 30 × 10⁻³ m³) / ((100/12 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹) × 300 K)n₂ = (12.12 × 30 × 10²) / ((100 × 300) / 12)n₂ = (12.12 × 3000) / (30000 / 12)n₂ = (36360) / (2500)n₂ = 363.6 / 25n₂ = 14.544 moles.Number of moles of oxygen withdrawn, Δn = n₁ - n₂Δn = 18.20 - 14.544 = 3.656 moles.Mass of oxygen withdrawn, m_withdrawn = Δn × Mm_withdrawn = 3.656 moles × 32 g/molm_withdrawn = 116.992 gm_withdrawn = 0.116992 kg.Comparing this value with the given options:(1) 0.125 kg(2) 0.144 kg(3) 0.116 kg(4) 0.156 kgThe calculated value 0.116992 kg is closest to 0.116 kg.Difference from 0.116 kg is |0.116992 - 0.116| = 0.000992 kg.Difference from 0.125 kg is |0.116992 - 0.125| = 0.008008 kg.Standard rounding of 0.116992 kg to three decimal places would be 0.117 kg, which is not an option.However, 0.116 kg is the closest option.The final answer is 0.116 kg0.116 kg ​(3)", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_015", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The given relation between time (t) and position (x) of a moving particle is:\nt = x^2 + x\n\nWe need to find the acceleration (a) of the particle.\nAcceleration is the second derivative of position with respect to time, a = d^2x/dt^2.\nVelocity (v) is the first derivative of position with respect to time, v = dx/dt.\n\nFirst, differentiate the given equation with respect to t:\nd(t)/dt = d(x^2 + x)/dt\n1 = d(x^2)/dt + d(x)/dt\nUsing the chain rule, d(x^2)/dt = (d(x^2)/dx) * (dx/dt) = 2x * (dx/dt) = 2xv.\nAnd d(x)/dt = v.\nSo, 1 = 2xv + v\n1 = v(2x + 1)\nTherefore, the velocity v is:\nv = dx/dt = 1 / (2x + 1) = (2x + 1)^(-1)\n\nNow, we need to find the acceleration, a = dv/dt.\nWe can differentiate v with respect to t using the chain rule:\na = dv/dt = d/dt [(2x + 1)^(-1)]\na = -1 * (2x + 1)^(-1-1) * d(2x + 1)/dt\na = -1 * (2x + 1)^(-2) * [d(2x)/dt + d(1)/dt]\na = -1 * (2x + 1)^(-2) * [2 * dx/dt + 0]\na = -1 * (2x + 1)^(-2) * (2v)\nNow substitute the expression for v = (2x + 1)^(-1) into the equation for a:\na = -1 * (2x + 1)^(-2) * 2 * (2x + 1)^(-1)\na = -2 * (2x + 1)^(-2 - 1)\na = -2 * (2x + 1)^(-3)\na = -2 / (2x + 1)^3\n\nComparing this result with the given options:\n(1) -2 / (x + 2)^3\n(2) -2 / (2x + 1)^3\n(3) +2 / (x + 1)^3\n(4) +2 / (2x + 1)\n\nThe calculated acceleration a = -2 / (2x + 1)^3 matches option (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_016", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The given values are:\nVoltage (V_rms) = 220 V\nFrequency (f) = 50 Hz\nResistance (R) = 20 \u03a9\nCapacitive reactance (X_C) = 25 \u03a9\nInductive reactance (X_L) = 45 \u03a9\n\nFirst, calculate the net reactance (X):\nX = X_L - X_C = 45 \u03a9 - 25 \u03a9 = 20 \u03a9\n\nNext, calculate the impedance (Z) of the series RLC circuit:\nZ = sqrt(R^2 + X^2)\nZ = sqrt((20 \u03a9)^2 + (20 \u03a9)^2)\nZ = sqrt(400 \u03a9^2 + 400 \u03a9^2)\nZ = sqrt(800 \u03a9^2)\nZ = sqrt(400 * 2) \u03a9\nZ = 20 * sqrt(2) \u03a9\n\nNow, calculate the RMS current (I_rms) in the circuit:\nI_rms = V_rms / Z\nI_rms = 220 V / (20 * sqrt(2) \u03a9)\nI_rms = 11 / sqrt(2) A\nTo rationalize the denominator, multiply the numerator and denominator by sqrt(2):\nI_rms = (11 * sqrt(2)) / (sqrt(2) * sqrt(2)) A\nI_rms = (11 * sqrt(2)) / 2 A\nUsing the approximation sqrt(2) \u2248 1.414:\nI_rms = (11 * 1.414) / 2 A\nI_rms = 15.554 / 2 A\nI_rms = 7.777 A\nRounding to one decimal place, I_rms \u2248 7.8 A.\n\nNext, calculate the phase angle (\u03c6) between the current and the voltage:\ntan(\u03c6) = X / R\ntan(\u03c6) = (X_L - X_C) / R\ntan(\u03c6) = 20 \u03a9 / 20 \u03a9\ntan(\u03c6) = 1\n\u03c6 = arctan(1)\n\u03c6 = 45\u00b0\n\nSince X_L > X_C, the circuit is inductive, and the voltage leads the current by 45\u00b0, or the current lags the voltage by 45\u00b0. The phase angle is 45\u00b0.\n\nSo, the current in the circuit is approximately 7.8 A and the phase angle is 45\u00b0.\n\nLet's compare these values with the given options:\n(1) 7.8 A and 30\u00b0\n(2) 7.8 A and 45\u00b0\n(3) 15.6 A and 30\u00b0\n(4) 15.6 A and 45\u00b0\n\nOur calculated values (I_rms = 7.8 A, \u03c6 = 45\u00b0) match option (2).\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\nThe final answer is the integer corresponding to the correct option.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_017", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The Sun rotates around its centre, and its initial period of rotation is T1 = 27 days.\nThe Sun expands to twice its present radius, so if the initial radius is R1, the final radius is R2 = 2R1.\nThere is no external influence, which means the angular momentum of the Sun is conserved.\nWe assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about an axis through its centre is given by I = (2/5)MR^2.\n\nInitial moment of inertia: I1 = (2/5)MR1^2.\nInitial angular velocity: \u03c91 = 2\u03c0/T1.\nInitial angular momentum: L1 = I1\u03c91 = (2/5)MR1^2 * (2\u03c0/T1).\n\nFinal moment of inertia: I2 = (2/5)MR2^2. Since R2 = 2R1, we have I2 = (2/5)M(2R1)^2 = (2/5)M(4R1^2) = 4 * (2/5)MR1^2 = 4I1.\nFinal angular velocity: \u03c92 = 2\u03c0/T2, where T2 is the new period of revolution.\nFinal angular momentum: L2 = I2\u03c92 = (4I1) * (2\u03c0/T2).\n\nSince angular momentum is conserved, L1 = L2.\n(2/5)MR1^2 * (2\u03c0/T1) = (2/5)M(2R1)^2 * (2\u03c0/T2)\nDivide both sides by (2/5)M(2\u03c0):\nR1^2 / T1 = (2R1)^2 / T2\nR1^2 / T1 = 4R1^2 / T2\nDivide both sides by R1^2 (assuming R1 is not zero):\n1 / T1 = 4 / T2\nTherefore, T2 = 4T1.\n\nGiven T1 = 27 days.\nT2 = 4 * 27 days\nT2 = 108 days.\n\nNow, we check the given options:\n(1) 100 days\n(2) 105 days\n(3) 115 days\n(4) 108 days\n\nOur calculated value for T2 is 108 days, which corresponds to option (4).\n\nThe final answer is the integer number corresponding to the correct option. The correct option is (4).\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_018", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The problem states that the flux passing through the orbit of an electron in a uniform magnetic field B is quantized according to the rule \u03a6 = n(h/e), where n is an integer, h is Planck's constant, and e is the magnitude of the electron's charge. We are asked to find the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state. The lowest energy state corresponds to the smallest positive integer value of n, which is n=1.\nSo, for the lowest energy state, the flux is \u03a6 = (1)(h/e) = h/e.\n\nThe magnetic flux is also given by \u03a6 = B * A, where B is the magnetic field strength and A is the area of the orbit.\nTherefore, B * A = h/e.\nThis implies that the area of the orbit is A = h / (eB).\n\nThe magnetic moment M of an orbiting electron is given by M = I * A, where I is the current due to the orbiting electron.\nThe electron is moving in a circular orbit under the influence of the magnetic field. The magnetic force provides the centripetal force:\ne v B = m v^2 / r\nwhere v is the speed of the electron, r is the radius of the orbit, and m is the mass of the electron.\nFrom this equation, we can find the angular frequency \u03c9 = v/r = eB/m.\nThe current I due to the orbiting electron is given by I = e / T, where T is the period of revolution.\nThe period T = 2\u03c0 / \u03c9 = 2\u03c0 / (eB/m) = 2\u03c0m / (eB).\nSo, the current I = e / (2\u03c0m / (eB)) = e^2 B / (2\u03c0m).\n\nNow, substitute the expressions for I and A into the formula for the magnetic moment M:\nM = I * A\nM = (e^2 B / (2\u03c0m)) * (h / (eB))\nM = (e^2 B h) / (2\u03c0m e B)\nThe terms e and B cancel out from the numerator and denominator where possible:\nM = (e * h) / (2\u03c0m)\nM = eh / (2\u03c0m).\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) he / (\u03c0m)\n(2) he / (2\u03c0m)\n(3) heB / (\u03c0m)\n(4) heB / (2\u03c0m)\n\nOur derived expression M = eh / (2\u03c0m) matches option (2).\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$.\nFinal Answer is an integer. The integer corresponding to the correct option (2) is 2.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_019", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "In steady state, the rate of heat flow (H) through each rod is the same.\nLet L be the length and A be the cross-sectional area of each rod. These are identical rods, so L and A are the same for all three rods.\nThe thermal resistance of a rod is given by R_th = L / (kA), where k is the thermal conductivity.\n\nFor the first rod (thermal conductivity 2K):\nThermal resistance R1 = L / (2KA)\nRate of heat flow H1 = (2KA/L) * (3T - T1)\n\nFor the second rod (thermal conductivity K):\nThermal resistance R2 = L / (KA)\nRate of heat flow H2 = (KA/L) * (T1 - T2)\n\nFor the third rod (thermal conductivity 2K):\nThermal resistance R3 = L / (2KA)\nRate of heat flow H3 = (2KA/L) * (T2 - T)\n\nIn steady state, H1 = H2 = H3 = H.\nSo, (2KA/L) * (3T - T1) = (KA/L) * (T1 - T2) = (2KA/L) * (T2 - T).\nLet's simplify by dividing by (KA/L):\n2 * (3T - T1) = 1 * (T1 - T2) = 2 * (T2 - T).\n\nFrom the first equality:\n2 * (3T - T1) = T1 - T2\n6T - 2T1 = T1 - T2\n6T = 3T1 - T2 ...(Equation 1)\n\nFrom the second equality:\nT1 - T2 = 2 * (T2 - T)\nT1 - T2 = 2T2 - 2T\nT1 + 2T = 3T2\nT1 - 3T2 = -2T ...(Equation 2)\n\nNow we have a system of two linear equations with two variables T1 and T2:\n1) 3T1 - T2 = 6T\n2) T1 - 3T2 = -2T\n\nMultiply Equation 1 by 3:\n9T1 - 3T2 = 18T ...(Equation 3)\n\nSubtract Equation 2 from Equation 3:\n(9T1 - 3T2) - (T1 - 3T2) = 18T - (-2T)\n9T1 - 3T2 - T1 + 3T2 = 18T + 2T\n8T1 = 20T\nT1 = (20/8)T = (5/2)T\n\nSubstitute T1 = (5/2)T into Equation 1:\n3 * (5/2)T - T2 = 6T\n(15/2)T - T2 = 6T\nT2 = (15/2)T - 6T\nT2 = (15/2)T - (12/2)T\nT2 = (3/2)T\n\nNow, we need to find the ratio T1/T2:\nT1/T2 = [(5/2)T] / [(3/2)T]\nT1/T2 = (5/2) / (3/2)\nT1/T2 = (5/2) * (2/3)\nT1/T2 = 5/3\n\nThe ratio T1/T2 is 5/3.\nThis corresponds to option (3).\n\nFinal check: From 2 * (3T - T1) = 2 * (T2 - T), we have 3T - T1 = T2 - T, which means T1 + T2 = 4T.\nUsing T1 = (5/2)T and T2 = (3/2)T:\nT1 + T2 = (5/2)T + (3/2)T = (8/2)T = 4T. This is consistent.\n\nThe options are:\n(1) 3/2\n(2) 4/3\n(3) 5/3\n(4) 5/4\n\nThe correct option is (3).\n\nThe final answer is the integer number corresponding to the correct option.\nThe correct option is (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_020", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The initial capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor with air (or vacuum) between the plates is given by C0 = \u03b50A/d, where \u03b50 is the permittivity of free space, A is the area of the plates, and d is the separation between the plates.\n\nTwo dielectric slabs are inserted in the capacitor.\nSlab 1 has dielectric constant K1 and thickness t1 = (3/8)d.\nSlab 2 has dielectric constant K2 and thickness t2 = d/2.\nThe total thickness of the dielectric slabs is t1 + t2 = (3/8)d + d/2 = (3/8)d + (4/8)d = (7/8)d.\nThe remaining space is filled with air (dielectric constant = 1). The thickness of this air gap is t_air = d - (t1 + t2) = d - (7/8)d = (1/8)d.\n\nWhen dielectric slabs are arranged in series, the equivalent capacitance C is given by:\nC = \u03b50A / (t1/K1 + t2/K2 + t_air/1)\nSubstitute the given values:\nC = \u03b50A / ( ((3/8)d)/K1 + (d/2)/K2 + ((1/8)d)/1 )\nC = \u03b50A / ( d * (3/(8K1) + 1/(2K2) + 1/8) )\nWe can write this in terms of C0:\nC = (\u03b50A/d) / (3/(8K1) + 1/(2K2) + 1/8)\nC = C0 / (3/(8K1) + 1/(2K2) + 1/8)\n\nWe are given that the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. So, C = 2 * C0.\nTherefore, 2 * C0 = C0 / (3/(8K1) + 1/(2K2) + 1/8)\nDividing by C0 (assuming C0 is not zero, which is true), we get:\n2 = 1 / (3/(8K1) + 1/(2K2) + 1/8)\nSo, 3/(8K1) + 1/(2K2) + 1/8 = 1/2\n\nWe are also given that K1 = 1.25 K2.\nK1 = (5/4) K2\nSo, K2 = (4/5) K1.\n\nSubstitute K2 = (4/5)K1 into the equation:\n3/(8K1) + 1/(2 * (4/5)K1) + 1/8 = 1/2\n3/(8K1) + 1/((8/5)K1) + 1/8 = 1/2\n3/(8K1) + 5/(8K1) + 1/8 = 1/2\n(3+5)/(8K1) + 1/8 = 1/2\n8/(8K1) + 1/8 = 1/2\n1/K1 + 1/8 = 1/2\n\nNow, solve for K1:\n1/K1 = 1/2 - 1/8\nTo subtract the fractions, find a common denominator, which is 8:\n1/K1 = 4/8 - 1/8\n1/K1 = 3/8\nK1 = 8/3\n\nCalculate the decimal value of K1:\nK1 = 8/3 = 2.666...\n\nNow, compare this value with the given options:\n(1) 2.66\n(2) 2.33\n(3) 1.60\n(4) 1.33\n\nThe calculated value K1 = 2.666... is closest to option (1) 2.66.\nTherefore, the correct option is (1).\nThe question asks for the single integer number corresponding to the correct option.\nSo, the answer is 1.\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_021", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "Let v_b be the speed of the buses and v_g be the speed of the girl.\nWe are given v_g = 60 km/h.\nLet T be the period of the bus service in minutes. So, buses leave every T minutes in either direction.\nThe distance between two consecutive buses moving in the same direction is L. If the buses leave every T minutes, then this distance L is covered by a bus in T minutes.\nSo, L = v_b * (T/60) km, where T is in minutes, so T/60 is in hours.\n\nCase 1: Bus moving in the same direction as the girl (from X to Y).\nThe girl is moving from X to Y with speed v_g. The buses are also moving from X to Y with speed v_b.\nThe relative speed of a bus with respect to the girl is v_rel1 = v_b - v_g.\nThe girl observes a bus passing her every t1 = 30 minutes = 0.5 hours.\nThis means that in time t1, a bus covers the distance L relative to the girl.\nSo, L = (v_b - v_g) * t1\nL = (v_b - 60) * 0.5 --- (Equation 1)\n\nCase 2: Bus moving in the opposite direction to the girl (from Y to X).\nThe girl is moving from X to Y with speed v_g. The buses are moving from Y to X with speed v_b.\nThe relative speed of a bus with respect to the girl is v_rel2 = v_b + v_g.\nThe girl observes a bus passing her every t2 = 10 minutes = 10/60 hours = 1/6 hours.\nThis means that in time t2, the distance L is covered by the combined movement of the girl and the bus towards each other.\nSo, L = (v_b + v_g) * t2\nL = (v_b + 60) * (1/6) --- (Equation 2)\n\nWe also have L = v_b * (T/60) --- (Equation 3)\n\nFrom Equation 1 and Equation 2, we can equate the expressions for L:\n(v_b - 60) * 0.5 = (v_b + 60) * (1/6)\nMultiply by 6 to remove fractions:\n3 * (v_b - 60) = (v_b + 60)\n3v_b - 180 = v_b + 60\n3v_b - v_b = 60 + 180\n2v_b = 240\nv_b = 240 / 2\nv_b = 120 km/h.\n\nNow we can find L using either Equation 1 or Equation 2. Using Equation 1:\nL = (120 - 60) * 0.5\nL = 60 * 0.5\nL = 30 km.\n\nNow use Equation 3 to find T:\nL = v_b * (T/60)\n30 = 120 * (T/60)\n30 = 2 * T\nT = 30 / 2\nT = 15 minutes.\n\nSo, the period of the bus service is T = 15 minutes and the speed of the buses is v_b = 120 km/h.\nLet's check the options:\n(1) 9 min, 40 km/h\n(2) 25 min, 100 km/h\n(3) 10 min, 90 km/h\n(4) 15 min, 120 km/h\n\nOur calculated values (T = 15 min, v_b = 120 km/h) match option (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_022", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The problem describes a uniform rod of mass m = 20 kg and length L = 5 m. It leans against a smooth vertical wall and rests on a rough horizontal floor. The rod makes an angle of 60\u00b0 with the vertical wall. We need to find the friction force exerted by the floor on the rod. We are given g = 10 m/s\u00b2.\n\nFirst, calculate the weight of the rod:\nW = mg = 20 kg * 10 m/s\u00b2 = 200 N.\n\nLet the forces acting on the rod be:\n1. Weight (W) acting downwards at the center of mass (midpoint of the rod).\n2. Normal reaction (N_wall) from the smooth vertical wall, acting horizontally and perpendicular to the wall.\n3. Normal reaction (N_floor) from the rough horizontal floor, acting upwards and perpendicular to the floor.\n4. Friction force (f) from the rough horizontal floor, acting horizontally. Since the rod tends to slip away from the wall, the friction force acts towards the wall.\n\nThe rod is in equilibrium, so the net force and net torque are zero.\n\nResolving forces:\nVertically: N_floor - W = 0 => N_floor = W = 200 N.\nHorizontally: N_wall - f = 0 => N_wall = f.\n\nLet \u03c6 be the angle the rod makes with the vertical wall. So, \u03c6 = 60\u00b0.\nThe angle the rod makes with the horizontal floor is \u03b1 = 90\u00b0 - \u03c6 = 90\u00b0 - 60\u00b0 = 30\u00b0.\n\nTo find the friction force, we can take torques about a convenient point. Let's take torques about the point where the rod touches the floor (let's call this point B).\nThe forces acting are W, N_wall, N_floor, and f.\nThe torques due to N_floor and f about point B are zero, as their lines of action pass through B.\nThe torque due to W about B: The weight W acts at the center of the rod (L/2). The perpendicular distance from B to the line of action of W is (L/2)cos(\u03b1). The torque is W * (L/2)cos(\u03b1) (clockwise).\nThe torque due to N_wall about B: The force N_wall acts at the top end of the rod (point A, on the wall). The perpendicular distance from B to the line of action of N_wall (which is horizontal) is the vertical height of A from B, which is Lsin(\u03b1). The torque is N_wall * Lsin(\u03b1) (counter-clockwise).\n\nFor rotational equilibrium, the sum of torques is zero:\nN_wall * Lsin(\u03b1) - W * (L/2)cos(\u03b1) = 0\nN_wall * Lsin(\u03b1) = W * (L/2)cos(\u03b1)\nN_wall = (W/2) * (cos(\u03b1)/sin(\u03b1))\nN_wall = (W/2) * cot(\u03b1)\n\nSubstitute the values: W = 200 N, \u03b1 = 30\u00b0.\ncot(30\u00b0) = \u221a3.\nN_wall = (200 N / 2) * \u221a3 = 100\u221a3 N.\n\nSince f = N_wall, the friction force f = 100\u221a3 N.\n\nAlternatively, we can use the angle with the vertical wall, \u03c6 = 60\u00b0.\nf = (W/2) * tan(\u03c6)\nf = (200 N / 2) * tan(60\u00b0)\ntan(60\u00b0) = \u221a3.\nf = 100 N * \u221a3 = 100\u221a3 N.\n\nThe options are:\n(1) 100 N\n(2) 100\u221a3 N\n(3) 200 N\n(4) 200\u221a3 N\n\nOur calculated friction force is 100\u221a3 N, which corresponds to option (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$.\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_023", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_024", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Let's analyze the problem step by step using physical principles and dimensional analysis.\n\n1. **Determine the speed of gas v(r) and the exponent 'a'.**\n The excess pressure inside the balloon of radius r due to surface tension S is given by \u0394P = 2S/r. (Assuming a single surface, like a liquid drop, rather than a soap bubble which has two surfaces. Elasticity of the balloon material is ignored as only surface tension S is mentioned).\n This pressure difference drives the gas out. According to Bernoulli's principle (or Torricelli's law), if the gas flows out with speed v, then \u0394P = (1/2)\u03c1v\u00b2, where \u03c1 is the density of the gas.\n So, 2S/r = (1/2)\u03c1v\u00b2.\n This gives v\u00b2 = 4S/(\u03c1r).\n Therefore, v = \u221a(4S/(\u03c1r)) = 2 S^(1/2) \u03c1^(-1/2) r^(-1/2).\n We are given that v(r) depends on r as r^a. So, v(r) \u221d r^a.\n Comparing the derived expression for v with v(r) \u221d r^a, we can write v(r) = C r^a, where C = 2 S^(1/2) \u03c1^(-1/2).\n Thus, the exponent a = -1/2.\n\n2. **Relate the deflation time T to other quantities.**\n The volume of the balloon is V = (4/3)\u03c0r\u00b3.\n The rate of change of volume is dV/dt.\n The volume of gas flowing out per unit time is Av, where A is the area of the outlet.\n So, -dV/dt = Av. (The negative sign indicates that the volume is decreasing).\n We also have dV/dt = (dV/dr) * (dr/dt) = (d/dr (4/3)\u03c0r\u00b3) * (dr/dt) = 4\u03c0r\u00b2 (dr/dt).\n Equating the two expressions for dV/dt (ignoring the sign for now and integrating from R to 0, or handling the sign carefully):\n -4\u03c0r\u00b2 (dr/dt) = Av.\n So, dr/dt = -Av / (4\u03c0r\u00b2).\n Substitute v = C r^a:\n dr/dt = - (A C r^a) / (4\u03c0r\u00b2) = - (AC / (4\u03c0)) r^(a-2).\n To find the time T for the radius to change from R to 0, we integrate:\n dt = - (4\u03c0 / (AC)) r^(2-a) dr.\n T = \u222b\u2080\u1d40 dt = \u222b\u1d3f\u2080 - (4\u03c0 / (AC)) r^(2-a) dr = (4\u03c0 / (AC)) \u222b\u2080\u1d3f r^(2-a) dr.\n T = (4\u03c0 / (AC)) [r^(3-a) / (3-a)]\u2080\u1d3f.\n For the integral to be finite at the lower limit r=0, we must have 3-a > 0. With a = -1/2, 3-a = 3 - (-1/2) = 3.5 = 7/2, which is positive.\n So, T = (4\u03c0 / (AC)) [R^(3-a) / (3-a) - 0] = (4\u03c0 / ((3-a)AC)) R^(3-a).\n Now substitute C = 2 S^(1/2) \u03c1^(-1/2):\n T = (4\u03c0 / ((3-a) A (2 S^(1/2) \u03c1^(-1/2)))) R^(3-a).\n T = (2\u03c0 / (3-a)) A\u207b\u00b9 S^(-1/2) \u03c1^(1/2) R^(3-a).\n We are given T \u221d S^\u03b1 A^\u03b2 \u03c1^\u03b3 R^\u03b4.\n Comparing the exponents, we get:\n \u03b1 = -1/2\n \u03b2 = -1\n \u03b3 = 1/2\n \u03b4 = 3-a\n\n3. **Determine the value of \u03b4.**\n Using a = -1/2, we find \u03b4 = 3 - (-1/2) = 3 + 1/2 = 7/2.\n\n4. **Summarize the determined exponents.**\n a = -1/2\n \u03b1 = -1/2\n \u03b2 = -1\n \u03b3 = 1/2\n \u03b4 = 7/2\n\n5. **Check the given options.**\n Option (1): a = 1/2, \u03b1 = 1/2, \u03b2 = -1, \u03b3 = +1, \u03b4 = 3/2. (Mismatch)\n Option (2): a = -1/2, \u03b1 = -1/2, \u03b2 = -1, \u03b3 = -1/2, \u03b4 = 5/2. (Mismatch, \u03b3 and \u03b4 are wrong)\n Option (3): a = -1/2, \u03b1 = -1/2, \u03b2 = -1, \u03b3 = 1/2, \u03b4 = 7/2. (Matches our derived values)\n Option (4): a = 1/2, \u03b1 = 1/2, \u03b2 = -1/2, \u03b3 = 1/2, \u03b4 = 7/2. (Mismatch)\n\n Thus, option (3) is the correct answer.\n\nAlternatively, using dimensional analysis for T \u221d S^\u03b1 A^\u03b2 \u03c1^\u03b3 R^\u03b4:\n[T] = [S]^\u03b1 [A]^\u03b2 [\u03c1]^\u03b3 [R]^\u03b4\n[M\u2070L\u2070T\u00b9] = (MT\u207b\u00b2)^\u03b1 (L\u00b2)^\u03b2 (ML\u207b\u00b3)^\u03b3 (L)^\u03b4\n[M\u2070L\u2070T\u00b9] = M^(\u03b1+\u03b3) L^(2\u03b2-3\u03b3+\u03b4) T^(-2\u03b1)\nEquating powers of M, L, T:\nM: \u03b1 + \u03b3 = 0 (1)\nT: -2\u03b1 = 1 (2) => \u03b1 = -1/2\nL: 2\u03b2 - 3\u03b3 + \u03b4 = 0 (3)\nFrom (2), \u03b1 = -1/2.\nSubstitute \u03b1 into (1): -1/2 + \u03b3 = 0 => \u03b3 = 1/2.\nLet's check the options based on \u03b1 = -1/2 and \u03b3 = 1/2:\nOption (1): \u03b1 = 1/2, \u03b3 = 1. (No)\nOption (2): \u03b1 = -1/2, \u03b3 = -1/2. (No, \u03b3 is wrong)\nOption (3): \u03b1 = -1/2, \u03b3 = 1/2. (Yes)\nOption (4): \u03b1 = 1/2, \u03b3 = 1/2. (No, \u03b1 is wrong)\nSo, dimensional analysis for T alone restricts the correct option to (3).\nNow, let's verify the values of a, \u03b2, \u03b4 from option (3) with our physical derivation and dimensional consistency.\nOption (3): a = -1/2, \u03b1 = -1/2, \u03b2 = -1, \u03b3 = 1/2, \u03b4 = 7/2.\nOur derived value for 'a' is indeed -1/2.\nOur derived relation \u03b4 = 3-a. For a = -1/2, \u03b4 = 3 - (-1/2) = 7/2. This matches \u03b4 in option (3).\nFinally, check equation (3) for dimensional consistency of L: 2\u03b2 - 3\u03b3 + \u03b4 = 0.\n2(-1) - 3(1/2) + 7/2 = -2 - 3/2 + 7/2 = -4/2 - 3/2 + 7/2 = (-4-3+7)/2 = 0/2 = 0. This is consistent.\n\nBoth methods lead to option (3).\n\nThe single integer number corresponding to the correct option (3) is 3.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_025", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Step 1: Calculate the Least Count (L.C.) of the Vernier callipers.\nGiven:\nSmallest division on Main Scale (1 M.S.D.) = 0.1 cm\n10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) = 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.)\nSo, 1 V.S.D. = (9/10) M.S.D. = 0.9 M.S.D.\nL.C. = 1 M.S.D. - 1 V.S.D.\nL.C. = 1 M.S.D. - 0.9 M.S.D. = 0.1 M.S.D.\nL.C. = 0.1 * (0.1 cm) = 0.01 cm.\n\nStep 2: Determine the Zero Error.\nWhen the jaws of the Vernier callipers are closed, the zero of the V.S. is at x = 0.1 cm on the Main Scale. This means the instrument shows a reading of +0.1 cm when the actual reading should be 0 cm.\nTherefore, the Zero Error (Z.E.) = +0.1 cm.\nThe zero correction is -0.1 cm.\n\nStep 3: Calculate the observed reading.\nMain Scale Reading (M.S.R.) = 5 cm\nCoinciding Vernier division = 8\nVernier Scale Reading (V.S.R.) = Coinciding Vernier division * L.C.\nV.S.R. = 8 * 0.01 cm = 0.08 cm.\nObserved Reading = M.S.R. + V.S.R. = 5 cm + 0.08 cm = 5.08 cm.\n\nStep 4: Calculate the corrected reading.\nCorrected Reading = Observed Reading - Zero Error (with its sign)\nCorrected Reading = 5.08 cm - (+0.1 cm)\nCorrected Reading = 5.08 cm - 0.1 cm\nCorrected Reading = 4.98 cm.\n\nNow, let's check the given options:\n(1) 5.18 cm\n(2) 5.08 cm\n(3) 4.98 cm\n(4) 5.00 cm\n\nThe calculated corrected reading is 4.98 cm, which corresponds to option (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_026", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_027", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "When unpolarized light is incident on a medium at Brewster's angle, the following phenomena occur:\n1. The reflected light is completely polarized, with its electric field vector vibrating perpendicular to the plane of incidence.\n2. The transmitted (refracted) light is partially polarized.\n3. Brewster's angle (\u03b8_B) is given by the formula: tan(\u03b8_B) = n\u2082/n\u2081, where n\u2082 is the refractive index of the medium and n\u2081 is the refractive index of the incident medium.\n4. At Brewster's angle, the reflected ray and the refracted ray are perpendicular to each other. This means \u03b8_B + \u03b8_t = 90\u00b0, where \u03b8_t is the angle of refraction.\n5. The angle of reflection (\u03b8_r) is equal to the angle of incidence (\u03b8_B) according to the law of reflection.\n\nIn this problem:\nThe light is travelling in air, so n\u2081 = 1.\nThe light is incident on a medium of refractive index n\u2082 = 1.73.\nThe light is incident at Brewster's angle.\n\nFirst, let's calculate Brewster's angle, \u03b8_B:\ntan(\u03b8_B) = n\u2082/n\u2081 = 1.73 / 1 = 1.73.\nWe know that tan(60\u00b0) = \u221a3 \u2248 1.732.\nSo, Brewster's angle, \u03b8_B, is approximately 60\u00b0.\n\nSince the angle of incidence is Brewster's angle, the angle of reflection, \u03b8_r, is equal to the angle of incidence:\n\u03b8_r = \u03b8_B \u2248 60\u00b0.\n\nNow, let's evaluate the given options:\n\n(1) reflected light is completely polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 60\u00b0.\n - At Brewster's angle, the reflected light is indeed completely polarized.\n - The angle of reflection is equal to Brewster's angle, which is approximately 60\u00b0.\n - So, this statement is correct.\n\n(2) reflected light is partially polarized and the angle of reflection is close to 30\u00b0.\n - At Brewster's angle, the reflected light is completely polarized, not partially.\n - The angle of reflection is close to 60\u00b0, not 30\u00b0.\n - So, this statement is incorrect.\n\n(3) both reflected and transmitted light are perfectly polarized with angles of reflection and refraction close to 60\u00b0 and 30\u00b0, respectively.\n - The reflected light is completely polarized, but the transmitted light is only partially polarized, not perfectly polarized.\n - The angle of reflection is close to 60\u00b0.\n - Let's find the angle of refraction, \u03b8_t. Since \u03b8_B + \u03b8_t = 90\u00b0, we have \u03b8_t = 90\u00b0 - \u03b8_B = 90\u00b0 - 60\u00b0 = 30\u00b0.\n - So, the angles of reflection and refraction are close to 60\u00b0 and 30\u00b0, respectively. However, the statement about polarization of transmitted light is incorrect.\n - Therefore, this statement is incorrect.\n\n(4) transmitted light is completely polarized with angle of refraction close to 30\u00b0.\n - The transmitted light is partially polarized, not completely polarized.\n - The angle of refraction is close to 30\u00b0.\n - However, the statement about polarization of transmitted light is incorrect.\n - Therefore, this statement is incorrect.\n\nBased on the analysis, option (1) is the correct statement.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_028", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "Initial state:\nCharge on sphere A = q_A = q\nCharge on sphere B = q_B = q\nDistance between centers = r\nForce of repulsion F = k * (q_A * q_B) / r^2 = k * q^2 / r^2\n\nA third identical uncharged conducting sphere C (charge q_C = 0) is brought in contact with sphere A first.\nWhen two identical conducting spheres are brought into contact, the total charge is shared equally between them.\nSo, when C touches A:\nTotal charge = q_A + q_C = q + 0 = q\nNew charge on A, q_A' = q / 2\nNew charge on C, q_C' = q / 2\n\nNext, sphere C (with charge q_C' = q/2) is brought in contact with sphere B (with charge q_B = q).\nTotal charge = q_C' + q_B = q/2 + q = 3q/2\nNew charge on B, q_B' = (3q/2) / 2 = 3q/4\nNew charge on C, q_C'' = (3q/2) / 2 = 3q/4\n\nFinally, sphere C is removed.\nThe charges on spheres A and B are now q_A' = q/2 and q_B' = 3q/4.\nThe distance between them is still r.\nThe new force of repulsion F_new between A and B is:\nF_new = k * (q_A' * q_B') / r^2\nF_new = k * ( (q/2) * (3q/4) ) / r^2\nF_new = k * (3q^2 / 8) / r^2\nF_new = (3/8) * (k * q^2 / r^2)\n\nSince the initial force F = k * q^2 / r^2, we can substitute F into the expression for F_new:\nF_new = (3/8) * F\n\nComparing this with the given options:\n(1) 3F/5\n(2) 2F/3\n(3) F/2\n(4) 3F/8\n\nThe calculated new force is 3F/8, which corresponds to option (4).\nTherefore, the integer number corresponding to the correct option is 4.\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_029", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The initial state of the two chambers are:\nChamber 1: V\u2081 = 2 litres, n\u2081 = 5 moles, p\u2081 = 1 atm.\nChamber 2: V\u2082 = 3 litres, n\u2082 = 4 moles, p\u2082 = 2 atm.\n\nThe partition is a thermal insulator, which means initially the temperatures of the gases in the two chambers can be different. Let T\u2081 and T\u2082 be the initial temperatures. From the ideal gas law, PV = nRT.\nSo, RT\u2081 = p\u2081V\u2081/n\u2081 and RT\u2082 = p\u2082V\u2082/n\u2082.\n\nWhen the partition is removed, the gases mix and occupy the total volume V_final = V\u2081 + V\u2082. The total number of moles is n_final = n\u2081 + n\u2082. The mixture will reach an equilibrium pressure P_final and a common final temperature T_final.\n\nAssuming the container is rigid and thermally isolated from the surroundings, the total internal energy of the system is conserved. For ideal gases, the internal energy U = nC_vT, where C_v is the molar heat capacity at constant volume.\nInitial internal energy U_initial = U\u2081 + U\u2082 = n\u2081C_vT\u2081 + n\u2082C_vT\u2082.\nFinal internal energy U_final = (n\u2081 + n\u2082)C_vT_final.\nAssuming C_v is the same for both gases (as they are both described as \"ideal gas\" without further specification), we can equate U_initial and U_final:\nn\u2081C_vT\u2081 + n\u2082C_vT\u2082 = (n\u2081 + n\u2082)C_vT_final\nDividing by C_v (assuming C_v \u2260 0):\nn\u2081T\u2081 + n\u2082T\u2082 = (n\u2081 + n\u2082)T_final\nMultiply by R (the ideal gas constant):\nn\u2081RT\u2081 + n\u2082RT\u2082 = (n\u2081 + n\u2082)RT_final\nFrom the ideal gas law, pV = nRT, so nRT = pV. Substitute this into the equation:\np\u2081V\u2081 + p\u2082V\u2082 = (n\u2081 + n\u2082)RT_final\nAlso, for the final state of the mixture, P_final V_final = (n\u2081 + n\u2082)RT_final.\nTherefore, we can write:\np\u2081V\u2081 + p\u2082V\u2082 = P_final V_final\nwhere V_final = V\u2081 + V\u2082.\nSo, the equilibrium pressure P_final is given by:\nP_final = (p\u2081V\u2081 + p\u2082V\u2082) / (V\u2081 + V\u2082)\n\nNow, substitute the given values:\np\u2081V\u2081 = (1 atm) \u00d7 (2 L) = 2 atm\u00b7L\np\u2082V\u2082 = (2 atm) \u00d7 (3 L) = 6 atm\u00b7L\nV\u2081 + V\u2082 = 2 L + 3 L = 5 L\n\nP_final = (2 atm\u00b7L + 6 atm\u00b7L) / (5 L)\nP_final = (8 atm\u00b7L) / (5 L)\nP_final = 8/5 atm\nP_final = 1.6 atm\n\nThis value matches option (2).\n\nLet's check the initial temperatures (not strictly needed for the solution but for understanding):\nRT\u2081 = p\u2081V\u2081/n\u2081 = (1 atm \u00d7 2 L) / 5 mol = 0.4 atm\u00b7L/mol\nRT\u2082 = p\u2082V\u2082/n\u2082 = (2 atm \u00d7 3 L) / 4 mol = 6/4 atm\u00b7L/mol = 1.5 atm\u00b7L/mol\nSince RT\u2081 \u2260 RT\u2082, T\u2081 \u2260 T\u2082.\n\nThe final temperature RT_final is given by:\nRT_final = (p\u2081V\u2081 + p\u2082V\u2082) / (n\u2081 + n\u2082) = (2 + 6) / (5 + 4) = 8 / 9 atm\u00b7L/mol.\nAnd indeed, P_final = (n\u2081 + n\u2082)RT_final / V_final = (9 mol) \u00d7 (8/9 atm\u00b7L/mol) / (5 L) = 8/5 atm = 1.6 atm.\n\nThe correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_030", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The Bohr quantization condition states that the angular momentum L is quantized:\nL = mvr = n\u0127\nwhere m is the mass of the particle, v is its speed, r is the radius of the orbit, n is the principal quantum number (n = 1, 2, 3, ...), and \u0127 = h / (2\u03c0) is the reduced Planck constant.\n\nFrom this equation, we can express v in terms of r:\nv = n\u0127 / (mr) (Equation 1)\n\nThe particle is moving in a circular orbit due to a constant force F pulling it towards the origin. This force F acts as the centripetal force:\nF = mv\u00b2 / r\nSo, mv\u00b2 = Fr (Equation 2)\n\nNow we substitute Equation 1 into Equation 2:\nm * (n\u0127 / (mr))\u00b2 = Fr\nm * (n\u00b2\u0127\u00b2 / (m\u00b2r\u00b2)) = Fr\nn\u00b2\u0127\u00b2 / (mr\u00b2) = Fr\n\nMultiply both sides by r\u00b2:\nn\u00b2\u0127\u00b2 / m = Fr\u00b3\n\nNow, solve for r:\nr\u00b3 = n\u00b2\u0127\u00b2 / (Fm)\nr = (\u0127\u00b2 / (Fm))^(1/3) * n^(2/3)\nSince \u0127, F, and m are constants, we can write the proportionality for r as:\nr \u221d n^(2/3)\n\nNow let's find the dependence of v on n. We can use Equation 1: v = n\u0127 / (mr).\nSubstitute the expression for r:\nv = n\u0127 / (m * (\u0127\u00b2 / (Fm))^(1/3) * n^(2/3))\nv = (n / n^(2/3)) * (\u0127 / (m * (\u0127\u00b2 / (Fm))^(1/3)))\nv = n^(1 - 2/3) * (\u0127 / (m * (\u0127\u00b2 / (Fm))^(1/3)))\nv = n^(1/3) * (\u0127 / (m * (\u0127\u00b2 / (Fm))^(1/3)))\nSince \u0127, F, and m are constants, the term in the parenthesis is a constant. So, the proportionality for v is:\nv \u221d n^(1/3)\n\nAlternatively, we can use Equation 2: mv\u00b2 = Fr. So v\u00b2 = Fr/m.\nSubstitute r \u221d n^(2/3):\nv\u00b2 \u221d F * n^(2/3) / m\nSince F and m are constants:\nv\u00b2 \u221d n^(2/3)\nTaking the square root of both sides:\nv \u221d (n^(2/3))^(1/2)\nv \u221d n^((2/3) * (1/2))\nv \u221d n^(1/3)\n\nSo, we have r \u221d n^(2/3) and v \u221d n^(1/3).\nComparing this with the given options:\n(1) r \u221d n^(1/3); v \u221d n^(1/3)\n(2) r \u221d n^(1/3); v \u221d n^(2/3)\n(3) r \u221d n^(2/3); v \u221d n^(1/3)\n(4) r \u221d n^(4/3); v \u221d n^(-1/3)\n\nOption (3) matches our derived dependencies.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_031", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The problem requires us to find the length of a year on Mercury given information about Mars's orbit and year, and the relative sizes of the orbits of Mars and Mercury. We will use Kepler's Third Law of planetary motion, which states that the square of the orbital period (T) of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (R) of its orbit (assuming circular orbits, R is the radius).\nMathematically, T\u00b2 \u221d R\u00b3, or T\u00b2/R\u00b3 = constant.\n\nLet T_Mars be the orbital period of Mars, and R_Mars be the radius of Mars's orbit.\nLet T_Mercury be the orbital period of Mercury, and R_Mercury be the radius of Mercury's orbit.\n\nAccording to Kepler's Third Law:\n(T_Mars)\u00b2 / (R_Mars)\u00b3 = (T_Mercury)\u00b2 / (R_Mercury)\u00b3\n\nWe are given:\n1. The radius of Martian orbit is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. So, R_Mars = 4 * R_Mercury. This implies R_Mars / R_Mercury = 4.\n2. The Martian year (T_Mars) is 687 Earth days.\n\nWe need to find T_Mercury.\nRearranging Kepler's Law to solve for T_Mercury:\n(T_Mercury)\u00b2 = (T_Mars)\u00b2 * (R_Mercury / R_Mars)\u00b3\nT_Mercury = T_Mars * (R_Mercury / R_Mars)^(3/2)\n\nWe know R_Mars / R_Mercury = 4, so R_Mercury / R_Mars = 1/4.\nSubstitute the values:\nT_Mercury = 687 * (1/4)^(3/2)\n\nLet's calculate (1/4)^(3/2):\n(1/4)^(3/2) = ((1/4)^(1/2))^3 = (sqrt(1/4))^3 = (1/2)^3 = 1/8\n\nNow, substitute this back into the equation for T_Mercury:\nT_Mercury = 687 * (1/8)\nT_Mercury = 687 / 8\n\nLet's perform the division:\n687 \u00f7 8:\n68 \u00f7 8 = 8 with a remainder of 4 (since 8 * 8 = 64).\nBring down the 7, making it 47.\n47 \u00f7 8 = 5 with a remainder of 7 (since 8 * 5 = 40).\nSo, 687/8 = 85 with a remainder of 7, which is 85 and 7/8.\nAs a decimal, 7/8 = 0.875.\nTherefore, T_Mercury = 85.875 Earth days.\n\nNow we compare this calculated value with the given options:\n(1) 88 earth days\n(2) 225 earth days\n(3) 172 earth days\n(4) 124 earth days\n\nLet's find the absolute difference between our calculated value (85.875) and each option:\nFor option (1): |88 - 85.875| = 2.125\nFor option (2): |225 - 85.875| = 139.125\nFor option (3): |172 - 85.875| = 86.125\nFor option (4): |124 - 85.875| = 38.125\n\nThe smallest difference is 2.125, which corresponds to option (1) 88 earth days.\nThe term \"about 4 times\" in the problem statement indicates an approximation. If the ratio R_Mars/R_Mercury was slightly different from 4 (e.g., about 3.935, which is consistent with known astronomical values), the calculated Mercury year would be closer to 88 days. Given the options, 88 days is the most appropriate answer.\n\nThe actual orbital period of Mercury is approximately 87.97 Earth days, which rounds to 88 Earth days. The actual ratio of semi-major axes of Mars to Mercury is approximately 1.524 AU / 0.387 AU \u2248 3.938. If we use this ratio:\nT_Mercury = 687 * (1/3.938)^(3/2) = 687 / (3.938)^(3/2) = 687 / (3.938 * sqrt(3.938)) \u2248 687 / (3.938 * 1.9844) \u2248 687 / 7.8149 \u2248 87.91 days. This confirms that 88 days is a very reasonable answer based on more precise data, and the \"about 4 times\" is a rounding of this ratio.\n\nUsing the provided approximation \"about 4 times\" directly, we get 85.875 days. The closest option to this value is 88 days.\n\nThe correct option is (1).\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_032", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The weight of a body on the surface of the Earth is given by W = (G * M * m) / R^2, where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, m is the mass of the body, and R is the radius of the Earth.\nWe are given that W = 48 N.\n\nThe gravitational force experienced by the body at a height h from the surface of the Earth is given by F = (G * M * m) / (R + h)^2.\nWe are given that the height h is equal to one-third the radius of the Earth, so h = R/3.\n\nSubstitute h = R/3 into the formula for F:\nF = (G * M * m) / (R + R/3)^2\nF = (G * M * m) / ( (3R + R)/3 )^2\nF = (G * M * m) / ( (4R)/3 )^2\nF = (G * M * m) / ( 16R^2 / 9 )\nF = (9/16) * ( (G * M * m) / R^2 )\n\nSince W = (G * M * m) / R^2, we can substitute W into the equation for F:\nF = (9/16) * W\n\nWe are given W = 48 N.\nF = (9/16) * 48\nF = 9 * (48 / 16)\nF = 9 * 3\nF = 27 N.\n\nThe options are:\n(1) 16 N\n(2) 27 N\n(3) 32 N\n(4) 36 N\n\nThe calculated gravitational force is 27 N, which corresponds to option (2).\n\nThe final answer is 2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_033", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces.\nLet the length of the original wire be L and its cross-sectional area be A. Then, R = \u03c1L/A, where \u03c1 is the resistivity of the material.\nWhen the wire is cut into 8 equal pieces, the length of each piece is L/8. The cross-sectional area A and resistivity \u03c1 remain the same.\nSo, the resistance of each piece, let's call it r, is given by r = \u03c1(L/8)/A = (1/8) * (\u03c1L/A) = R/8.\n\nFrom these pieces, two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these pieces together in parallel.\nConsider the first set of four pieces connected in parallel. Each piece has resistance r = R/8.\nWhen four resistors of resistance r are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance R_set1 is given by:\n1/R_set1 = 1/r + 1/r + 1/r + 1/r = 4/r\nSo, R_set1 = r/4.\nSubstituting r = R/8, we get R_set1 = (R/8) / 4 = R/32.\n\nSimilarly, for the second set, another four pieces (which are the remaining pieces) are connected in parallel. Each piece has resistance r = R/8.\nThe equivalent resistance of the second set, R_set2, will also be:\nR_set2 = r/4 = (R/8) / 4 = R/32.\n\nThen, these two sets are added in series.\nWhen resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance is the sum of their individual resistances.\nSo, the net effective resistance of the combination, R_net, is:\nR_net = R_set1 + R_set2\nR_net = R/32 + R/32\nR_net = 2 * (R/32)\nR_net = R/16.\n\nNow, let's check the given options:\n(1) R/64\n(2) R/32\n(3) R/16\n(4) R/8\n\nOur calculated net effective resistance is R/16, which corresponds to option (3).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{\\text{R/16}}$\nThe integer number corresponding to the correct option is 3.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_034", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "According to Bohr's model and de Broglie's hypothesis, for an electron orbiting in the nth state, the circumference of the orbit is an integral multiple of the de Broglie wavelength:\n2\u03c0r = n\u03bb\nwhere r is the radius of the nth orbit, n is the principal quantum number, and \u03bb is the de Broglie wavelength.\n\nThe radius of the nth orbit in a hydrogen atom is given by:\nr = n\u00b2a\u2080\nwhere a\u2080 is the Bohr radius.\n\nSubstitute the expression for r into the first equation:\n2\u03c0(n\u00b2a\u2080) = n\u03bb\n\nNow, solve for \u03bb:\n\u03bb = (2\u03c0n\u00b2a\u2080) / n\n\u03bb = 2\u03c0na\u2080\n\nGiven values are:\nn = 2\na\u2080 = 0.052 nm (Bohr radius)\n\nSubstitute these values into the formula for \u03bb:\n\u03bb = 2 * \u03c0 * 2 * a\u2080\n\u03bb = 4 * \u03c0 * a\u2080\n\u03bb = 4 * \u03c0 * (0.052 nm)\n\u03bb = (4 * 0.052) * \u03c0 nm\n\u03bb = 0.208 * \u03c0 nm\n\nNow, we use the value of \u03c0 \u2248 3.14159:\n\u03bb = 0.208 * 3.14159 nm\n\u03bb \u2248 0.65345072 nm\n\nLet's round this value. If we round to three decimal places, \u03bb \u2248 0.653 nm. If we round to two decimal places, \u03bb \u2248 0.65 nm.\n\nNow, let's compare this calculated value with the given options:\n(1) 0.067 nm\n(2) 0.67 nm\n(3) 1.67 nm\n(4) 2.67 nm\n\nWe need to find the option that is \"close to\" our calculated value of 0.65345 nm.\n- Distance to option (1): |0.65345 - 0.067| = 0.58645 nm\n- Distance to option (2): |0.65345 - 0.67| = |-0.01655| = 0.01655 nm\n- Distance to option (3): |0.65345 - 1.67| = |-1.01655| = 1.01655 nm\n- Distance to option (4): |0.65345 - 2.67| = |-2.01655| = 2.01655 nm\n\nThe calculated value 0.65345 nm is closest to 0.67 nm.\nThe question explicitly states \"is close to\", implying that an exact match might not be necessary due to rounding or approximations used in generating the options or input values.\n\nIf we use \u03c0 \u2248 22/7:\n\u03bb = 0.208 * (22/7) nm\n\u03bb = (0.208 * 22) / 7 nm\n\u03bb = 4.576 / 7 nm\n\u03bb \u2248 0.653714 nm\nThis value is also closest to 0.67 nm. The difference is |0.653714 - 0.67| \u2248 0.016286 nm.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_035", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The potential energy U of an electric dipole with dipole moment p in a uniform electric field E is given by:\nU = -p \u22c5 E = -pE cos(\u03b8)\nwhere \u03b8 is the angle between the dipole moment p and the electric field E.\n\nGiven:\nDipole moment, p = 5 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2076 Cm\nMagnitude of the electric field, E = 4 \u00d7 10\u2075 N/C\n\nInitially, the dipole is aligned with the direction of the uniform electric field.\nSo, the initial angle, \u03b8\u2081 = 0\u00b0.\nThe initial potential energy, U\u2081 = -pE cos(\u03b8\u2081)\nU\u2081 = -(5 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2076) \u00d7 (4 \u00d7 10\u2075) \u00d7 cos(0\u00b0)\nU\u2081 = -(20 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2076\u207a\u2075) \u00d7 1\nU\u2081 = -20 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9 J\nU\u2081 = -2.0 J\n\nThe dipole is then rotated through an angle of 60\u00b0 with respect to the electric field.\nSo, the final angle, \u03b8\u2082 = 60\u00b0.\nThe final potential energy, U\u2082 = -pE cos(\u03b8\u2082)\nU\u2082 = -(5 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2076) \u00d7 (4 \u00d7 10\u2075) \u00d7 cos(60\u00b0)\nWe know that cos(60\u00b0) = 1/2 = 0.5.\nU\u2082 = -(20 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9) \u00d7 (1/2)\nU\u2082 = -2.0 \u00d7 (1/2) J\nU\u2082 = -1.0 J\n\nThe change in the potential energy of the dipole is \u0394U = U\u2082 - U\u2081.\n\u0394U = (-1.0 J) - (-2.0 J)\n\u0394U = -1.0 J + 2.0 J\n\u0394U = 1.0 J\n\nComparing this result with the given options:\n(1) 0.8 J\n(2) 1.0 J\n(3) 1.2 J\n(4) 1.5 J\n\nThe calculated change in potential energy is 1.0 J, which corresponds to option (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_036", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "(2)", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_037", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "For a photon, the energy E is given by:\nE = hc / \u03bb_photon\nwhere h is Planck's constant and c is the speed of light.\nSo, the de Broglie wavelength of the photon is:\n\u03bb_photon = hc / E\n\nFor an electron of mass m and energy E (which is kinetic energy), the de Broglie wavelength \u03bb_electron is given by:\n\u03bb_electron = h / p\nwhere p is the momentum of the electron.\nThe kinetic energy E of the electron is related to its momentum p by the formula:\nE = p^2 / (2m)\nFrom this, we can find the momentum p:\np^2 = 2mE\np = sqrt(2mE)\nSo, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is:\n\u03bb_electron = h / sqrt(2mE)\n\nNow, we need to find the ratio (\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron):\n(\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron) = (hc / E) / (h / sqrt(2mE))\n(\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron) = (hc / E) * (sqrt(2mE) / h)\nWe can cancel out h from the numerator and the denominator:\n(\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron) = (c / E) * sqrt(2mE)\nWe can rewrite this expression as:\n(\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron) = c * (sqrt(2mE) / E)\nSince E = sqrt(E^2), we can write:\n(\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron) = c * (sqrt(2mE) / sqrt(E^2))\n(\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron) = c * sqrt(2mE / E^2)\n(\u03bb_photon / \u03bb_electron) = c * sqrt(2m / E)\n\nNow let's compare this result with the given options:\n(1) sqrt(E / 2m)\n(2) c * sqrt(2mE)\n(3) c * sqrt(2m / E)\n(4) (1/c) * sqrt(E / 2m)\n\nOur calculated ratio matches option (3).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_038", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The photoelectric current ($I$) is directly proportional to the intensity of incident light ($L$), provided the frequency of light is greater than the threshold frequency and the applied potential is sufficient to collect all emitted electrons. This means $I \\propto L$. Graph A shows a linear relationship between photoelectric current and intensity of light, passing through the origin. This is consistent with the laws of photoelectric effect. Thus, Graph A is correct.\n\nPhotoelectric emission occurs only if the frequency of incident light ($f$) is greater than or equal to the threshold frequency ($f_0$). Below the threshold frequency ($f < f_0$), the photoelectric current is zero. Above the threshold frequency ($f > f_0$), for a given intensity of light, the photoelectric current (saturation current) is constant and does not depend on the frequency of light. Increasing the frequency further only increases the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons, but not the number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time (which determines the current), as long as the intensity (number of incident photons per unit time) is constant.\n\nGraph B shows photoelectric current as constant and independent of intensity, which is incorrect. Photoelectric current increases with intensity.\n\nGraph C shows photoelectric current as directly proportional to the frequency of light, starting from zero frequency. This is incorrect because there is a threshold frequency below which no current flows, and above the threshold, the current is generally independent of frequency for constant intensity.\n\nGraph D shows that the photoelectric current is zero until a certain frequency (threshold frequency) is reached, and then it increases linearly with frequency. The existence of a threshold frequency is correctly depicted. However, the linear increase in current with frequency above the threshold is generally incorrect for constant intensity. The current should be constant above the threshold frequency.\n\nBased on the standard understanding of the photoelectric effect:\n- Graph A is correct.\n- Graph B is incorrect.\n- Graph C is incorrect.\n- Graph D is incorrect in its depiction of current increasing linearly with frequency above the threshold (it should be constant for constant intensity).\n\nTherefore, only Graph A is a correct representation among the given graphs.\nLooking at the options:\n(1) A only\n(2) A and C\n(3) A and D\n(4) B and D\n\nSince only A is correct according to standard physics principles, option (1) is the correct answer.\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_039", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The problem asks for the ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis.\n\nLet the radius of the smaller sphere be R and its mass be M_s.\nLet the radius of the larger sphere be 2R and its mass be M_L.\nSince both spheres are made of the same material (implied by \"cut from\"), their densities are the same. Let the density be \u03c1.\nVolume of smaller sphere, V_s = (4/3)\u03c0R^3. So, M_s = \u03c1 * (4/3)\u03c0R^3.\nVolume of larger sphere, V_L = (4/3)\u03c0(2R)^3 = (4/3)\u03c0(8R^3) = 8 * (4/3)\u03c0R^3 = 8V_s.\nSo, M_L = 8M_s. Let M_s = m, then M_L = 8m.\n\nThe Y-axis passes through the center of the larger sphere.\nThe smaller sphere of radius R is cut from the larger sphere. From the figure, the center of the smaller sphere is at a distance R from the center of the larger sphere, along the X-axis. So, its center is at (R, 0, 0) if the center of the larger sphere is at the origin (0, 0, 0).\n\nMoment of inertia of the smaller sphere (mass m, radius R) about the Y-axis:\nThe moment of inertia of the smaller sphere about an axis passing through its own center is I_cm,s = (2/5)mR^2.\nUsing the parallel axis theorem, the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere about the Y-axis (which is at a distance d=R from its center) is:\nI_s = I_cm,s + md^2 = (2/5)mR^2 + mR^2 = (2/5 + 1)mR^2 = (7/5)mR^2.\n\nMoment of inertia of the original larger sphere (mass 8m, radius 2R) about the Y-axis (which passes through its center):\nI_L = (2/5)M_L(2R)^2 = (2/5)(8m)(2R)^2 = (2/5)(8m)(4R^2) = (64/5)mR^2.\n\nThe moment of inertia of the rest part of the sphere is the moment of inertia of the larger sphere minus the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere (both about the Y-axis):\nI_rest = I_L - I_s = (64/5)mR^2 - (7/5)mR^2 = (64 - 7)/5 * mR^2 = (57/5)mR^2.\n\nThe required ratio is the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere:\nRatio = I_s / I_rest = [(7/5)mR^2] / [(57/5)mR^2] = (7/5) / (57/5) = 7/57.\n\nComparing this result with the given options:\n(1) 7/8\n(2) 7/40\n(3) 7/57\n(4) 7/64\n\nThe calculated ratio 7/57 matches option (3).\nTherefore, the correct option is 3.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_040", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_041", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Let the initial pressure of both gases be P.\nLet the amount of heat supplied to each gas be Q.\nLet the change in internal energy for each gas be \u0394U.\nLet the radii of the pistons be r_A and r_B, respectively.\nLet the displacements of the pistons be d_A = 16 cm and d_B = 9 cm, respectively.\n\nAccording to the first law of thermodynamics, for a process at constant pressure:\nQ = \u0394U + W\nwhere W is the work done by the gas.\nFor gas A: Q_A = \u0394U_A + W_A\nFor gas B: Q_B = \u0394U_B + W_B\n\nWe are given that Q_A = Q_B = Q (equal amount of heat supplied).\nWe are also given that \u0394U_A = \u0394U_B = \u0394U (change in internal energy is the same).\n\nTherefore, Q = \u0394U + W_A and Q = \u0394U + W_B.\nThis implies that W_A = W_B.\n\nThe work done by a gas at constant pressure P is given by W = P\u0394V, where \u0394V is the change in volume.\nThe change in volume is given by the area of the piston multiplied by the displacement of the piston.\nArea of piston A = \u03c0r^2.\nSo, \u0394V = \u03c0r^2 * d.\nTherefore, W = P * \u03c0r^2 * d.\n\nFor gas A: W_A = P * \u03c0 * (r_A)^2 * d_A\nFor gas B: W_B = P * \u03c0 * (r_B)^2 * d_B\n\nSince W_A = W_B, we have:\nP * \u03c0 * (r_A)^2 * d_A = P * \u03c0 * (r_B)^2 * d_B\n\nSince P and \u03c0 are the same for both, we can cancel them out:\n(r_A)^2 * d_A = (r_B)^2 * d_B\n\nWe are given d_A = 16 cm and d_B = 9 cm. Substituting these values:\n(r_A)^2 * 16 = (r_B)^2 * 9\n\nWe need to find the ratio r_A / r_B. Rearranging the equation:\n(r_A)^2 / (r_B)^2 = 9 / 16\n(r_A / r_B)^2 = 9 / 16\n\nTaking the square root of both sides:\nr_A / r_B = \u221a(9 / 16)\nr_A / r_B = \u221a9 / \u221a16\nr_A / r_B = 3 / 4\n\nNow, let's check the options:\n(1) 4/3\n(2) 3/4\n(3) 2/\u221a3\n(4) \u221a3/2\n\nThe calculated ratio r_A / r_B = 3/4 matches option (2).\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\nThe final answer is the integer number corresponding to the correct option.\nThe correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_042", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The physical quantity P is related to four observations a, b, c, and d as follows:\nP = a\u00b3b\u00b2 / (c\u221ad)\n\nThe\npercentage errors of measurement in a, b, c, and d are:\nPercentage error in a = (\u0394a/a) \u00d7 100% = 1%\nPercentage error in b = (\u0394b/b) \u00d7 100% = 3%\nPercentage error in c = (\u0394c/c) \u00d7 100% = 2%\nPercentage error in d = (\u0394d/d) \u00d7 100% = 4%\n\nThe formula for the percentage error in P can be derived from the formula for P.\nIf P = a^x * b^y / (c^z * d^w), then the fractional error in P is given by:\n\u0394P/P = |x| (\u0394a/a) + |y| (\u0394b/b) + |z| (\u0394c/c) + |w| (\u0394d/d)\nMultiplying by 100, we get the percentage error in P:\n(\u0394P/P) \u00d7 100% = |x| (\u0394a/a) \u00d7 100% + |y| (\u0394b/b) \u00d7 100% + |z| (\u0394c/c) \u00d7 100% + |w| (\u0394d/d) \u00d7 100%\n\nIn this case, P = a\u00b3b\u00b2 / (c\u221ad) = a\u00b3b\u00b2c\u207b\u00b9d\u207b\u00b9\u141f\u00b2.\nSo, x = 3, y = 2, z = 1 (since c = c\u00b9), and w = 1/2 (since \u221ad = d\u00b9\u141f\u00b2).\n\nTherefore, the percentage error in P is:\n(\u0394P/P) \u00d7 100% = 3 \u00d7 (percentage error in a) + 2 \u00d7 (percentage error in b) + 1 \u00d7 (percentage error in c) + (1/2) \u00d7 (percentage error in d)\n(\u0394P/P) \u00d7 100% = 3 \u00d7 (1%) + 2 \u00d7 (3%) + 1 \u00d7 (2%) + (1/2) \u00d7 (4%)\n(\u0394P/P) \u00d7 100% = 3% + 6% + 2% + (4/2)%\n(\u0394P/P) \u00d7 100% = 3% + 6% + 2% + 2%\n(\u0394P/P) \u00d7 100% = (3 + 6 + 2 + 2)%\n(\u0394P/P) \u00d7 100% = 13%\n\nThe percentage error in the quantity P is 13%.\nThis corresponds to option (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_043", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Let I_unpolarized be the intensity of unpolarized light incident on the first polaroid.\nThe intensity of polarized light after passing through the first polaroid is given as I0. So, I0 = I_unpolarized / 2 if the incident light is unpolarized. However, the problem states \"I0 is the intensity or polarised light after passing through the first polaroid\", so we start with I0 as the intensity of light incident on the second polaroid.\n\nLet the polarization axis of the first polaroid (P1) be at an angle of 0\u00b0.\nThe third polaroid (P3) is crossed with the first polaroid, so its polarization axis is at an angle of 90\u00b0 with respect to P1.\nA second polaroid sheet (P2) is placed between P1 and P3. Its polarization axis is at an angle of 22.5\u00b0 from the polarization axis of one of the polaroids.\nLet's assume the polarization axis of P2 is at an angle \u03b8 = 22.5\u00b0 with respect to the polarization axis of P1.\nSo, the angle of P2 is 22.5\u00b0.\n\nThe intensity of light after passing through P1 is I0.\nThe intensity of light after passing through P2 is given by Malus's Law:\nI2 = I0 * cos^2(\u03b8)\nHere, \u03b8 is the angle between the polarization axis of P1 and P2, which is 22.5\u00b0.\nSo, I2 = I0 * cos^2(22.5\u00b0).\n\nThe light from P2 then passes through P3. The polarization axis of P3 is at 90\u00b0. The polarization axis of P2 is at 22.5\u00b0.\nThe angle between the polarization axis of P2 and P3 is \u03b8' = |90\u00b0 - 22.5\u00b0| = 67.5\u00b0.\nThe intensity of light after passing through P3 is:\nI3 = I2 * cos^2(\u03b8')\nI3 = (I0 * cos^2(22.5\u00b0)) * cos^2(67.5\u00b0).\n\nWe know that cos(67.5\u00b0) = cos(90\u00b0 - 22.5\u00b0) = sin(22.5\u00b0).\nSo, I3 = I0 * cos^2(22.5\u00b0) * sin^2(22.5\u00b0).\nWe use the trigonometric identity: sin(2\u03b1) = 2sin(\u03b1)cos(\u03b1).\nTherefore, sin(\u03b1)cos(\u03b1) = (1/2)sin(2\u03b1).\nSquaring both sides, sin^2(\u03b1)cos^2(\u03b1) = (1/4)sin^2(2\u03b1).\nIn our case, \u03b1 = 22.5\u00b0. So, 2\u03b1 = 2 * 22.5\u00b0 = 45\u00b0.\nI3 = I0 * (1/4)sin^2(45\u00b0).\nWe know that sin(45\u00b0) = 1/\u221a2.\nSo, sin^2(45\u00b0) = (1/\u221a2)^2 = 1/2.\nTherefore, I3 = I0 * (1/4) * (1/2) = I0/8.\n\nAlternatively, we can calculate the values:\ncos^2(22.5\u00b0) = (1 + cos(45\u00b0))/2 = (1 + 1/\u221a2)/2 = (\u221a2 + 1)/(2\u221a2).\ncos^2(67.5\u00b0) = (1 + cos(135\u00b0))/2 = (1 - 1/\u221a2)/2 = (\u221a2 - 1)/(2\u221a2).\nI3 = I0 * [(\u221a2 + 1)/(2\u221a2)] * [(\u221a2 - 1)/(2\u221a2)]\nI3 = I0 * [(\u221a2 + 1)(\u221a2 - 1)] / [(2\u221a2)(2\u221a2)]\nI3 = I0 * [(2 - 1)] / [4 * 2]\nI3 = I0 * (1/8) = I0/8.\n\nIf the polaroid sheet P2 is placed at 22.5\u00b0 from the polarization axis of the third polaroid (P3, which is at 90\u00b0), then the axis of P2 is at 90\u00b0 - 22.5\u00b0 = 67.5\u00b0 with respect to P1.\nIn this case, \u03b8 = 67.5\u00b0 and \u03b8' = |90\u00b0 - 67.5\u00b0| = 22.5\u00b0.\nI3 = I0 * cos^2(67.5\u00b0) * cos^2(22.5\u00b0), which gives the same result I0/8.\n\nThe options are:\n(1) I0/2\n(2) I0/4\n(3) I0/8\n(4) I0/16\n\nThe calculated intensity is I0/8, which corresponds to option (3).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$.\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_044", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The problem describes two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs with spring constants k1 and k2, respectively. They oscillate vertically. Their maximum speeds are the same. We need to find the ratio of the amplitude of mass Q (AQ) to the amplitude of mass P (AP), i.e., (AQ/AP).\n\nLet m be the mass of each point mass (since they are identical).\nFor mass P, the spring constant is k1 and its amplitude is AP.\nThe angular frequency of oscillation for mass P is given by \u03c9P = \u221a(k1/m).\nThe maximum speed of mass P is given by vP_max = AP * \u03c9P.\nSo, vP_max = AP * \u221a(k1/m).\n\nFor mass Q, the spring constant is k2 and its amplitude is AQ.\nThe angular frequency of oscillation for mass Q is given by \u03c9Q = \u221a(k2/m).\nThe maximum speed of mass Q is given by vQ_max = AQ * \u03c9Q.\nSo, vQ_max = AQ * \u221a(k2/m).\n\nIt is given that their maximum speeds are the same:\nvP_max = vQ_max\nAP * \u221a(k1/m) = AQ * \u221a(k2/m)\n\nWe can cancel out \u221am from both sides since m \u2260 0:\nAP * \u221ak1 = AQ * \u221ak2\n\nWe need to find the ratio AQ/AP.\nDivide both sides by AP:\n\u221ak1 = (AQ/AP) * \u221ak2\nNow, divide both sides by \u221ak2:\n\u221ak1 / \u221ak2 = AQ/AP\nSo, AQ/AP = \u221a(k1/k2).\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) k2/k1\n(2) k1/k2\n(3) \u221a(k2/k1)\n(4) \u221a(k1/k2)\n\nOur result is AQ/AP = \u221a(k1/k2), which matches option (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_045", "subject": "Physics", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_046", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The Rydberg formula for the wavelength of absorbed or emitted light during an electronic transition in a hydrogen-like atom is given by:\n1/\u03bb = R * Z^2 * (1/n1^2 - 1/n2^2)\nwhere R is the Rydberg constant, Z is the atomic number (for Hydrogen, Z=1), n1 is the principal quantum number of the initial state, and n2 is the principal quantum number of the final state. For absorption, the electron moves from a lower energy level to a higher energy level, so n1 < n2.\n\nFor the first transition from n=2 to n=3:\nn1 = 2, n2 = 3\n1/\u03bb1 = R * (1^2) * (1/2^2 - 1/3^2)\n1/\u03bb1 = R * (1/4 - 1/9)\n1/\u03bb1 = R * ( (9 - 4) / (4 * 9) )\n1/\u03bb1 = R * (5 / 36)\nSo, \u03bb1 = 36 / (5R)\n\nFor the second transition from n=4 to n=6:\nn1 = 4, n2 = 6\n1/\u03bb2 = R * (1^2) * (1/4^2 - 1/6^2)\n1/\u03bb2 = R * (1/16 - 1/36)\nTo subtract the fractions, find a common denominator. The least common multiple of 16 and 36 is 144.\n1/16 = 9/144\n1/36 = 4/144\nSo, 1/16 - 1/36 = (9 - 4) / 144 = 5 / 144\n1/\u03bb2 = R * (5 / 144)\nSo, \u03bb2 = 144 / (5R)\n\nWe need to find the ratio of the wavelengths, \u03bb1 / \u03bb2:\n\u03bb1 / \u03bb2 = [36 / (5R)] / [144 / (5R)]\n\u03bb1 / \u03bb2 = (36 / (5R)) * ((5R) / 144)\n\u03bb1 / \u03bb2 = 36 / 144\n\nNow simplify the fraction 36 / 144.\nWe can divide both the numerator and the denominator by common factors.\nDivide by 36:\n36 / 36 = 1\n144 / 36 = 4\nSo, \u03bb1 / \u03bb2 = 1 / 4.\n\nAlternatively, one could calculate the ratio of (1/\u03bb1) to (1/\u03bb2) and then take the reciprocal:\n(1/\u03bb1) / (1/\u03bb2) = [R * (5/36)] / [R * (5/144)]\n(1/\u03bb1) / (1/\u03bb2) = (5/36) / (5/144)\n(1/\u03bb1) / (1/\u03bb2) = (5/36) * (144/5)\n(1/\u03bb1) / (1/\u03bb2) = 144 / 36\n(1/\u03bb1) / (1/\u03bb2) = 4\nSo, \u03bb2 / \u03bb1 = 4.\nTherefore, \u03bb1 / \u03bb2 = 1/4.\n\nThe ratio of the wavelengths is 1/4. This corresponds to option (4).\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_047", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The problem asks to identify the true statements among the given options and then choose the correct combination.\n\n**Statement A: Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.**\n* Gallium (Ga) has a melting point of 29.76 \u00b0C (302.91 K). This is a low melting point for a metal (it can melt in your hand).\n* Cesium (Cs) has a melting point of 28.44 \u00b0C (301.59 K). This is also a very low melting point.\n* The premise \"Ga that has a very high melting point\" is false. Gallium is known for its low melting point.\n* Therefore, statement A is **False**.\n\n**Statement B: On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same.**\n* According to the NCERT textbook (which is standard for NEET):\n * Electronegativity of Nitrogen (N) on Pauling scale = 3.0\n * Electronegativity of Chlorine (Cl) on Pauling scale = 3.0\n* Since these values are given as the same (3.0) in NCERT, the statement \"electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same\" is **False**. (Note: More precise or different scales might show slight differences, e.g., revised Pauling: N=3.04, Cl=3.16. However, NEET generally follows NCERT simplified values.)\n\n**Statement C: Ar, K+, Cl-, Ca2+ and S2- are all isoelectronic species.**\n* Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons.\n * Ar (Atomic number Z=18) has 18 electrons.\n * K (Z=19), so K+ has 19 - 1 = 18 electrons.\n * Cl (Z=17), so Cl- has 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.\n * Ca (Z=20), so Ca2+ has 20 - 2 = 18 electrons.\n * S (Z=16), so S2- has 16 + 2 = 18 electrons.\n* All these species have 18 electrons.\n* Therefore, statement C is **True**.\n\n**Statement D: The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si > Al > Mg > Na.**\n* These elements are in the 3rd period. The general trend is increasing ionization enthalpy across a period. However, there are exceptions due to electronic configurations.\n * Na: [Ne] 3s1\n * Mg: [Ne] 3s2 (stable, filled s-orbital)\n * Al: [Ne] 3s2 3p1 (electron in p-orbital is easier to remove than from filled s-orbital of Mg)\n * Si: [Ne] 3s2 3p2\n* The correct order of first ionization enthalpies is Na < Al < Mg < Si.\n * Values (approx. kJ/mol): Na (496) < Al (578) < Mg (738) < Si (787).\n* The given order is Si > Al > Mg > Na.\n * Si (787) > Al (578) is true.\n * Al (578) > Mg (738) is false.\n * Mg (738) > Na (496) is true.\n* Since the \"Al > Mg\" part is false, the entire stated order is incorrect.\n* Therefore, statement D is **False**.\n\n**Statement E: The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.**\n* Li, Rb, and Cs are alkali metals (Group 1). Atomic radius increases down a group.\n* The order of elements down Group 1 is Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs.\n* So, the atomic radii are in the order Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs.\n* This means Cs has the largest atomic radius among them. Thus, Cs > Rb and Cs > Li.\n* Therefore, statement E is **True**.\n\nSummary of true/false statements based on standard NEET-level knowledge (NCERT):\nA: False\nB: False (as N and Cl are both 3.0 on Pauling scale per NCERT)\nC: True\nD: False\nE: True\n\nThe true statements are C and E.\n\nNow, let's choose the correct option from the given choices:\n(1) A, B and E only (A and B are false)\n(2) C and E only (C is true, E is true)\n(3) C and D only (D is false)\n(4) A, C and E only (A is false)\n\nOption (2) correctly lists the true statements C and E.\n\nThe final answer is the integer corresponding to the correct option, which is 2.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_048", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The question asks to match the ions in List-I with their respective group numbers in qualitative cation analysis from List-II.\n\nList-I (Ion):\nA. Co\u00b2\u207a\nB. Mg\u00b2\u207a\nC. Pb\u00b2\u207a\nD. Al\u00b3\u207a\n\nList-II (Group Number in Cation Analysis):\nI. Group-I\nII. Group-III\nIII. Group-IV\nIV. Group-VI\n\nLet's determine the group for each ion:\n\nA. Co\u00b2\u207a (Cobalt ion):\nCobalt belongs to Group IV of cation analysis. The group reagent is H\u2082S gas in an ammoniacal (basic) solution. Co\u00b2\u207a precipitates as cobalt sulfide (CoS).\nSo, A (Co\u00b2\u207a) matches with III (Group-IV).\n\nB. Mg\u00b2\u207a (Magnesium ion):\nMagnesium belongs to Group VI of cation analysis. There is no common group reagent for all Group VI ions. Mg\u00b2\u207a is specifically precipitated as magnesium ammonium phosphate (MgNH\u2084PO\u2084) by adding ammonium phosphate ((NH\u2084)\u2082HPO\u2084) in the presence of ammonium chloride (NH\u2084Cl) and ammonium hydroxide (NH\u2084OH).\nSo, B (Mg\u00b2\u207a) matches with IV (Group-VI).\n\nC. Pb\u00b2\u207a (Lead ion):\nLead belongs to Group I of cation analysis. The group reagent is dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl). Pb\u00b2\u207a precipitates as lead(II) chloride (PbCl\u2082). It is worth noting that PbCl\u2082 is somewhat soluble in hot water, so Pb\u00b2\u207a can also be found and precipitated as PbS in Group II (reagent H\u2082S in acidic solution). However, since Group I is an option, it is the primary classification.\nSo, C (Pb\u00b2\u207a) matches with I (Group-I).\n\nD. Al\u00b3\u207a (Aluminium ion):\nAluminium belongs to Group III of cation analysis. The group reagent is ammonium hydroxide (NH\u2084OH) in the presence of ammonium chloride (NH\u2084Cl). Al\u00b3\u207a precipitates as aluminium hydroxide (Al(OH)\u2083).\nSo, D (Al\u00b3\u207a) matches with II (Group-III).\n\nSummarizing the matches:\nA \u2192 III (Co\u00b2\u207a is in Group-IV)\nB \u2192 IV (Mg\u00b2\u207a is in Group-VI)\nC \u2192 I (Pb\u00b2\u207a is in Group-I)\nD \u2192 II (Al\u00b3\u207a is in Group-III)\n\nNow, let's check the given options:\n(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-IV (Correct)\n - C-II (Incorrect: C should be I, D is II)\n - D-I (Incorrect: D should be II, C is I)\n\n(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-IV (Correct)\n - C-I (Correct)\n - D-II (Correct)\nThis option matches all our determined pairings.\n\n(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-II (Incorrect: B should be IV)\n - C-IV (Incorrect: C should be I)\n - D-I (Incorrect: D should be II)\n\n(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-II (Incorrect: B should be IV)\n - C-I (Correct)\n - D-IV (Incorrect: D should be II)\n\nThe correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_049", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_050", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The energy of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit for a hydrogen-like species is given by the formula:\nE_n = -R_H * (Z\u00b2/n\u00b2)\nwhere R_H is the Rydberg constant for hydrogen, Z is the atomic number of the species, and n is the principal quantum number.\n\nThe radius of the nth Bohr orbit for a hydrogen-like species is given by the formula:\nr_n = a\u2080 * (n\u00b2/Z)\nwhere a\u2080 is the Bohr radius.\n\nGiven values:\nR_H = 2.18 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J\na\u2080 = 52.9 pm\n\nWe need to calculate the energy and radius for the first Bohr orbit, so n = 1.\n\nFor He\u207a ion:\nAtomic number (Z) for Helium (He) is 2.\nEnergy for the first Bohr orbit (n=1) of He\u207a:\nE\u2081(He\u207a) = -R_H * (Z\u00b2/n\u00b2) = -(2.18 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J) * (2\u00b2/1\u00b2) = -(2.18 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J) * (4/1)\nE\u2081(He\u207a) = -(2.18 \u00d7 4) \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J = -8.72 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J\n\nRadius for the first Bohr orbit (n=1) of He\u207a:\nr\u2081(He\u207a) = a\u2080 * (n\u00b2/Z) = (52.9 pm) * (1\u00b2/2) = 52.9 pm / 2\nr\u2081(He\u207a) = 26.45 pm \u2248 26.4 pm\n\nFor Li\u00b2\u207a ion:\nAtomic number (Z) for Lithium (Li) is 3.\nEnergy for the first Bohr orbit (n=1) of Li\u00b2\u207a:\nE\u2081(Li\u00b2\u207a) = -R_H * (Z\u00b2/n\u00b2) = -(2.18 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J) * (3\u00b2/1\u00b2) = -(2.18 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J) * (9/1)\nE\u2081(Li\u00b2\u207a) = -(2.18 \u00d7 9) \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J = -19.62 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J\n\nRadius for the first Bohr orbit (n=1) of Li\u00b2\u207a:\nr\u2081(Li\u00b2\u207a) = a\u2080 * (n\u00b2/Z) = (52.9 pm) * (1\u00b2/3) = 52.9 pm / 3\nr\u2081(Li\u00b2\u207a) = 17.633... pm \u2248 17.6 pm\n\nNow let's check the given options:\n\nOption (1):\nE_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = -19.62 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J (Correct)\nr_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = 17.6 pm (Correct)\nE_n(He\u207a) = -8.72 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J (Correct)\nr_n(He\u207a) = 26.4 pm (Correct)\n\nOption (2):\nE_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = -8.72 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J (Incorrect)\nr_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = 26.4 pm (Incorrect)\nE_n(He\u207a) = -19.62 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2078 J (Incorrect)\nr_n(He\u207a) = 17.6 pm (Incorrect)\n\nOption (3):\nE_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = -19.62 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2076 J (Incorrect, power of 10 is wrong)\nr_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = 17.6 pm (Correct)\nE_n(He\u207a) = -8.72 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2076 J (Incorrect, power of 10 is wrong)\nr_n(He\u207a) = 26.4 pm (Correct)\n\nOption (4):\nE_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = -8.72 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2076 J (Incorrect)\nr_n(Li\u00b2\u207a) = 17.6 pm (Correct)\nE_n(He\u207a) = -19.62 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u2076 J (Incorrect)\nr_n(He\u207a) = 17.6 pm (Incorrect)\n\nComparing our calculated values with the options, Option (1) matches all the calculated values.\n\nFinal Answer is Option (1).\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_051", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "To determine which of the given species are paramagnetic, we need to find the number of unpaired electrons in the central metal atom. Paramagnetic species have unpaired electrons.\n\nA. [NiCl4]^(2-)\nOxidation state of Ni: Let it be x. Then x + 4(-1) = -2, so x = +2.\nElectronic configuration of Ni (Z=28) is [Ar] 3d^8 4s^2.\nElectronic configuration of Ni^(2+) is [Ar] 3d^8.\nCl^- is a weak field ligand. The complex is tetrahedral (coordination number 4).\nFor a 3d^8 system with a weak field ligand in a tetrahedral field, the electrons are distributed as follows:\nThe d-orbitals split into e and t2 sets. In tetrahedral geometry, e is lower in energy than t2. For d^8 configuration, it will be e^4 t2^4.\nAlternatively, we can think of filling the 5 d-orbitals without pairing until necessary (Hund's rule).\n3d: \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191 \u2191\nThere are 2 unpaired electrons. So, [NiCl4]^(2-) is paramagnetic.\n\nB. Ni(CO)4\nCO is a neutral ligand. So, the oxidation state of Ni is 0.\nElectronic configuration of Ni(0) is [Ar] 3d^8 4s^2.\nCO is a strong field ligand. In metal carbonyls, the s-electrons of the metal often shift to the d-orbitals. So, the configuration of Ni becomes 3d^10.\nNi(CO)4 is tetrahedral (sp^3 hybridization).\n3d: \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193\nThere are 0 unpaired electrons. So, Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic.\n\nC. [Ni(CN)4]^(2-)\nOxidation state of Ni: Let it be x. Then x + 4(-1) = -2, so x = +2.\nElectronic configuration of Ni^(2+) is [Ar] 3d^8.\nCN^- is a strong field ligand. For a d^8 metal with a strong field ligand and coordination number 4, the complex is usually square planar (dsp^2 hybridization).\nIn a square planar complex, the d-orbital splitting leads to pairing of electrons.\nThe 3d^8 configuration will be (dxz)^2 (dyz)^2 (dz^2)^2 (dxy)^2 (dx^2-y^2)^0.\n3d: \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 __\nAll 8 electrons are paired up in the lower energy d-orbitals.\nThere are 0 unpaired electrons. So, [Ni(CN)4]^(2-) is diamagnetic.\n\nD. [Ni(H2O)6]^(2+)\nH2O is a neutral ligand. So, the oxidation state of Ni is +2.\nElectronic configuration of Ni^(2+) is [Ar] 3d^8.\nH2O is a weak field ligand. The complex is octahedral (coordination number 6, sp^3d^2 hybridization).\nIn an octahedral field with a weak ligand, the electrons are distributed according to Hund's rule in t2g and eg orbitals.\nFor 3d^8, the configuration is (t2g)^6 (eg)^2.\nt2g: \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193\neg: \u2191 \u2191\nThere are 2 unpaired electrons. So, [Ni(H2O)6]^(2+) is paramagnetic.\n\nE. Ni(PPh3)4\nPPh3 (triphenylphosphine) is a neutral ligand. So, the oxidation state of Ni is 0.\nElectronic configuration of Ni(0) is [Ar] 3d^8 4s^2.\nPPh3 is a strong field ligand. It causes pairing of electrons and shifting of s electrons to d orbitals. So the configuration becomes 3d^10.\nNi(PPh3)4 is tetrahedral (sp^3 hybridization).\n3d: \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193 \u2191\u2193\nThere are 0 unpaired electrons. So, Ni(PPh3)4 is diamagnetic.\n\nBased on the analysis:\nA. [NiCl4]^(2-) is paramagnetic.\nB. Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic.\nC. [Ni(CN)4]^(2-) is diamagnetic.\nD. [Ni(H2O)6]^(2+) is paramagnetic.\nE. Ni(PPh3)4 is diamagnetic.\n\nThe paramagnetic species are A and D.\nTherefore, the correct option is (3) A and D only.\n\nFinal check:\nA. [NiCl4]^(2-): Ni^(2+), 3d^8, weak field, tetrahedral. 2 unpaired electrons. Paramagnetic.\nB. Ni(CO)4: Ni(0), 3d^10 (due to s->d shift and CO being strong field). 0 unpaired electrons. Diamagnetic.\nC. [Ni(CN)4]^(2-): Ni^(2+), 3d^8, strong field, square planar (dsp^2). 0 unpaired electrons. Diamagnetic.\nD. [Ni(H2O)6]^(2+): Ni^(2+), 3d^8, weak field, octahedral. (t2g)^6 (eg)^2. 2 unpaired electrons. Paramagnetic.\nE. Ni(PPh3)4: Ni(0), 3d^10 (due to s->d shift and PPh3 being strong field). 0 unpaired electrons. Diamagnetic.\n\nSo, A and D are paramagnetic. Option (3) is correct.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_052", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Statement I: \"Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.\"\nNitrogen (N) belongs to Group 15 of the periodic table. It forms a hydride called ammonia, with the chemical formula NH3.\nArsenic (As) also belongs to Group 15, located below nitrogen and phosphorus. Elements in Group 15 generally form hydrides with the formula EH3.\nThus, arsenic forms a hydride called arsine, with the chemical formula AsH3.\nTherefore, Statement I is correct.\n\nStatement II: \"Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.\"\nAntimony (Sb) is also a Group 15 element. Group 15 elements can exhibit various oxidation states, including +3 and +5.\nOxides of Group 15 elements in the +5 oxidation state have the general formula E2O5 or E4O10 (for phosphorus).\nNitrogen forms N2O5 (dinitrogen pentoxide).\nPhosphorus forms P2O5 (or P4O10, phosphorus pentoxide).\nArsenic forms As2O5 (arsenic pentoxide).\nAntimony can also form an oxide in the +5 oxidation state, which is antimony pentoxide, with the chemical formula Sb2O5. While the stability of the +5 oxidation state decreases down the group due to the inert pair effect, antimony pentoxide (Sb2O5) is a known compound. For example, it can be formed by the oxidation of antimony or antimony trioxide with nitric acid.\nTherefore, the statement \"Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide\" is incorrect.\n\nConclusion:\nStatement I is correct.\nStatement II is incorrect.\n\nBased on this analysis, we choose the option that reflects this:\n(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (Incorrect)\n(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (Incorrect)\n(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (Correct)\n(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (Incorrect)\n\nThe correct option is (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_053", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Main group elements are elements whose outermost electrons are in s or p orbitals. These are elements of the s-block and p-block.\n\nLet's analyze each electronic configuration:\n\nA. [Ne]3s\u00b9\nThe noble gas core is [Ne]. The outermost electron is in the 3s orbital. Since the differentiating electron is in an s-orbital, this element belongs to the s-block. s-block elements are main group elements. This is Sodium (Na).\n\nB. [Ar]3d\u00b3 4s\u00b2\nThe noble gas core is [Ar]. The outermost shell is n=4, containing 4s\u00b2 electrons. However, the differentiating electrons are entering the 3d subshell (inner d-orbital). This element belongs to the d-block (transition elements). Transition elements are not main group elements. This is Vanadium (V).\n\nC. [Kr]4d\u00b9\u20705s\u00b25p\u2075\nThe noble gas core is [Kr]. The outermost shell is n=5, containing 5s\u00b2 and 5p\u2075 electrons. The differentiating electron is in a p-orbital. This element belongs to the p-block. p-block elements are main group elements. This is Iodine (I).\n\nD. [Ar]3d\u00b9\u20704s\u00b9\nThe noble gas core is [Ar]. The outermost shell is n=4, containing a 4s\u00b9 electron. However, the 3d subshell is completely filled (3d\u00b9\u2070). This element is Copper (Cu), which belongs to Group 11 of the d-block (transition elements). Although the outermost electron is in an s-orbital, it is classified as a transition element due to the filling of the d-orbitals in the series and its characteristic properties. Transition elements are not main group elements.\n\nE. [Rn]5f\u20766d\u00b27s\u00b2\nThe noble gas core is [Rn]. The outermost shell is n=7, with 7s\u00b2 electrons. However, the differentiating electrons are entering the 5f or 6d subshells. The presence of 5f\u2076 indicates that it is an f-block element (specifically, an actinide). f-block elements (inner transition elements) are not main group elements. If 5f is being filled, it's an f-block element. If 6d is being filled after 5f is filled or before, it's a d-block or f-block. In this case, with 5f\u2076, it's an actinide.\n\nBased on this analysis:\n- A is a main group element.\n- B is not a main group element (d-block).\n- C is a main group element.\n- D is not a main group element (d-block).\n- E is not a main group element (f-block).\n\nTherefore, the electronic configurations that belong to main group elements are A and C.\n\nNow, let's choose the correct option:\n(1) B and E only - Incorrect.\n(2) A and C only - Correct.\n(3) D and E only - Incorrect.\n(4) A, C and D only - Incorrect.\n\nThe correct option is (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_054", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The question asks which of the following laws Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain.\n\n1. **Law of conservation of mass:** Dalton's theory postulates that atoms are indivisible and are neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. This is consistent with the law of conservation of mass. So, Dalton's theory could explain this.\n\n2. **Law of constant proportion (or definite proportions):** Dalton's theory states that atoms of different elements combine in fixed, simple whole-number ratios to form compounds. This explains why a given compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass. So, Dalton's theory could explain this.\n\n3. **Law of multiple proportion:** Dalton's theory, by proposing that atoms combine in simple whole-number ratios, directly leads to the law of multiple proportions. If two elements form more than one compound, the different masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element are in a simple ratio of whole numbers. So, Dalton's theory could explain this.\n\n4. **Law of gaseous volume (Gay-Lussac's Law of Combining Volumes):** This law states that when gases combine or are produced in a chemical reaction, they do so in a simple ratio by volume, provided all volumes are measured at the same temperature and pressure. Dalton's theory, which focused on atoms and their masses, could not explain why gases combine in simple ratios by volume. For example, Dalton could not easily explain why 1 volume of hydrogen reacts with 1 volume of chlorine to give 2 volumes of hydrogen chloride. If atoms were the combining units and if equal volumes contained equal numbers of atoms, then H + Cl -> HCl should result in 1 volume of H + 1 volume of Cl -> 1 volume of HCl, which contradicts the experimental observation of 2 volumes of HCl. This discrepancy was later resolved by Avogadro's hypothesis, which introduced the concept of molecules and stated that equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain an equal number of molecules. Dalton's atomic theory did not initially incorporate the idea of molecules or the relationship between volumes of gases and the number of particles. Thus, Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain the Law of gaseous volume.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_055", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "To determine the oxidation states of the underlined elements in the given compounds:\n\n1. **KO\u2082**: The underlined element is **K**.\n * Potassium (K) is an alkali metal (Group 1). In its compounds, potassium always exhibits an oxidation state of +1.\n * Alternatively, in superoxides like KO\u2082, the superoxide ion is O\u2082\u207b. If the oxidation state of an oxygen atom is x, then 2x = -1, so x = -1/2 for each oxygen atom.\n * For the compound KO\u2082, let the oxidation state of K be y. Then y + 2(-1/2) = 0, which gives y - 1 = 0, so y = +1.\n * Thus, the oxidation state of K in KO\u2082 is **+1**.\n\n2. **H\u2082O\u2082**: The underlined element is **O**.\n * This is hydrogen peroxide.\n * Hydrogen (H) generally has an oxidation state of +1 when bonded to non-metals.\n * Let the oxidation state of oxygen be x.\n * In H\u2082O\u2082, the sum of oxidation states is zero: 2(+1) + 2(x) = 0\n * 2 + 2x = 0\n * 2x = -2\n * x = -1\n * Thus, the oxidation state of O in H\u2082O\u2082 is **-1**.\n\n3. **H\u2082SO\u2084**: The underlined element is **S**.\n * This is sulfuric acid.\n * Hydrogen (H) has an oxidation state of +1.\n * Oxygen (O) generally has an oxidation state of -2 (it is not a peroxide or superoxide here).\n * Let the oxidation state of sulfur be y.\n * In H\u2082SO\u2084, the sum of oxidation states is zero: 2(+1) + y + 4(-2) = 0\n * +2 + y - 8 = 0\n * y - 6 = 0\n * y = +6\n * Thus, the oxidation state of S in H\u2082SO\u2084 is **+6**.\n\nThe oxidation states of the underlined elements K in KO\u2082, O in H\u2082O\u2082, and S in H\u2082SO\u2084 are +1, -1, and +6, respectively.\n\nComparing this with the given options:\n(1) +1, -1, and +6\n(2) +2, -2, and +6\n(3) +1, -2, and +4\n(4) +4, -4, and +6\n\nThe correct option is (1).\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_056", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "For a first-order reaction, the relationship between half-life (t\u2081/\u2082) and the rate constant (k) is given by:\nt\u2081/\u2082 = ln(2) / k\nGiven t\u2081/\u2082 = 1 minute, so k = ln(2) / 1 min = ln(2) min\u207b\u00b9.\n\nThe integrated rate law for a first-order reaction is:\nln([A]\u2080 / [A]) = kt\nwhere [A]\u2080 is the initial concentration and [A] is the concentration at time t.\n\nIf the reaction is 99.9% complete, it means that 0.1% of the reactant remains.\nSo, [A] = 0.001 * [A]\u2080.\nTherefore, [A]\u2080 / [A] = [A]\u2080 / (0.001 * [A]\u2080) = 1 / 0.001 = 1000.\n\nSubstituting this into the integrated rate law:\nln(1000) = kt\nWe need to find t.\nt = ln(1000) / k\n\nSubstitute k = ln(2) / t\u2081/\u2082:\nt = ln(1000) / (ln(2) / t\u2081/\u2082)\nt = (ln(1000) / ln(2)) * t\u2081/\u2082\n\nWe know that ln(1000) = ln(10\u00b3) = 3 * ln(10).\nSo, t = (3 * ln(10) / ln(2)) * t\u2081/\u2082.\n\nGiven t\u2081/\u2082 = 1 minute.\nt = (3 * ln(10) / ln(2)) * 1 minute.\n\nWe can use the approximate values: ln(10) \u2248 2.303 and ln(2) \u2248 0.693.\nt \u2248 (3 * 2.303) / 0.693 minutes\nt \u2248 6.909 / 0.693 minutes\nt \u2248 9.9697 minutes\n\nAlternatively, we know that number of half-lives (n) for a certain fraction remaining ([A]/[A]\u2080) is given by:\n[A]/[A]\u2080 = (1/2)\u207f\nIn this case, [A]/[A]\u2080 = 0.001 = 1/1000.\nSo, (1/2)\u207f = 1/1000\n2\u207f = 1000\nTaking log base 2 of both sides:\nn = log\u2082(1000)\nWe know 2\u00b9\u2070 = 1024. So, n is slightly less than 10.\nMore precisely, n = log(1000) / log(2) = 3 log(10) / log(2). If using natural log, n = ln(1000) / ln(2).\nUsing the values from before, n \u2248 9.9697.\nThen t = n * t\u2081/\u2082 \u2248 9.9697 * 1 minute \u2248 9.9697 minutes.\n\nThis value is closest to 10 minutes.\nIf we consider 10 half-lives, then t = 10 * t\u2081/\u2082 = 10 * 1 minute = 10 minutes.\nAfter 10 half-lives, the fraction remaining is (1/2)\u00b9\u2070 = 1/1024.\nPercentage completion = (1 - 1/1024) * 100% = (1023/1024) * 100% \u2248 0.999023 * 100% = 99.9023%.\nThis is very close to 99.9% completion.\n\nThe options are:\n(1) 2 minutes\n(2) 4 minutes\n(3) 5 minutes\n(4) 10 minutes\n\nThe calculated time is approximately 9.97 minutes, which is closest to 10 minutes.\n\nFinal Answer should be the integer option number. Option (4) is 10 minutes.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_057", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_058", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "To determine which of the given compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers, we will analyze each option.\nCis-trans isomerism (also known as geometrical isomerism) occurs in:\n1. Alkenes where each carbon atom of the double bond is attached to two different groups.\n2. Cycloalkanes where there are at least two substituents on different carbon atoms of the ring.\n\nLet's examine each option:\n\n(1) Pent-1-ene:\nThe structure of Pent-1-ene is CH2=CH-CH2-CH2-CH3.\nThe first carbon atom of the double bond (C1) is attached to two hydrogen atoms (H, H). Since these are identical groups, Pent-1-ene cannot exhibit cis-trans isomerism.\n\n(2) 2-Methylhex-2-ene:\nThe structure of 2-Methylhex-2-ene is CH3-C(CH3)=CH-CH2-CH2-CH3.\nThe double bond is between C2 and C3.\nCarbon 2 (C2) is attached to two methyl groups (-CH3, -CH3).\nCarbon 3 (C3) is attached to a hydrogen atom (-H) and a propyl group (-CH2-CH2-CH3).\nFor cis-trans isomerism in an alkene, each carbon of the double bond must have two different groups attached to it. Since C2 is attached to two identical methyl groups, 2-Methylhex-2-ene cannot exhibit cis-trans isomerism.\n\n(3) 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane:\nCyclopropane is a three-membered ring. In 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane, both methyl groups are attached to the same carbon atom (C1). For cis-trans isomerism in cycloalkanes, there must be at least two substituent groups on different carbon atoms of the ring. Since both substituents are on the same carbon, 1,1-Dimethylcyclopropane cannot exhibit cis-trans isomerism.\n\n(4) 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane:\nCyclohexane is a six-membered ring. In 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane, there are two methyl groups, one on carbon 1 (C1) and one on carbon 2 (C2). Since the methyl groups are on different carbon atoms, and there is restricted rotation around the C-C bonds in the ring, 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane can exist as cis and trans isomers.\nIn the cis isomer, both methyl groups are on the same side of the plane of the ring (e.g., both pointing \"up\" or both pointing \"down\").\nIn the trans isomer, the methyl groups are on opposite sides of the plane of the ring (e.g., one pointing \"up\" and one pointing \"down\").\n\nTherefore, 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane can exist as cis-trans isomers.\n\nThe correct option is (4).\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_059", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "Let's analyze each statement regarding the ionization of phosphoric acid (H3PO4).\nPhosphoric acid ionizes in three steps:\n1. H3PO4(aq) \u21cc H\u207a(aq) + H2PO4\u207b(aq) with ionization constant Ka\u2081\n2. H2PO4\u207b(aq) \u21cc H\u207a(aq) + HPO4\u00b2\u207b(aq) with ionization constant Ka\u2082\n3. HPO4\u00b2\u207b(aq) \u21cc H\u207a(aq) + PO4\u00b3\u207b(aq) with ionization constant Ka\u2083\n\nThe overall ionization reaction is:\nH3PO4(aq) \u21cc 3H\u207a(aq) + PO4\u00b3\u207b(aq) with overall ionization constant K\n\nStatement A: log K = log Ka\u2081 + log Ka\u2082 + log Ka\u2083\nThe overall ionization constant K is the product of the individual ionization constants:\nK = Ka\u2081 \u00d7 Ka\u2082 \u00d7 Ka\u2083\nTaking the logarithm on both sides:\nlog K = log (Ka\u2081 \u00d7 Ka\u2082 \u00d7 Ka\u2083)\nUsing the property of logarithms, log(xyz) = log x + log y + log z:\nlog K = log Ka\u2081 + log Ka\u2082 + log Ka\u2083\nTherefore, statement A is true.\n\nStatement B: H3PO4 is a stronger acid than H2PO4\u207b and HPO4\u00b2\u207b.\nFor polyprotic acids, the acidity decreases with successive removal of protons. This is because it is more difficult to remove a positive proton from an increasingly negatively charged species.\nThus, H3PO4 is the strongest acid among the three, H2PO4\u207b is a weaker acid than H3PO4 but stronger than HPO4\u00b2\u207b, and HPO4\u00b2\u207b is the weakest acid.\nSo, H3PO4 is indeed stronger than H2PO4\u207b and HPO4\u00b2\u207b.\nTherefore, statement B is true.\n\nStatement C: Ka\u2081 > Ka\u2082 > Ka\u2083\nSince the acidity decreases with each successive ionization step, the ionization constants also decrease accordingly. A stronger acid has a larger Ka value.\nTherefore, Ka\u2081 (for the first ionization) > Ka\u2082 (for the second ionization) > Ka\u2083 (for the third ionization).\nTherefore, statement C is true.\n\nStatement D: Ka\u2081 = (Ka\u2082 + Ka\u2083) / 2\nThis statement suggests an arithmetic mean relationship, which is generally not true for ionization constants of polyprotic acids. As established in statement C, Ka\u2081 is significantly larger than Ka\u2082 and Ka\u2083. For example, for phosphoric acid at 25\u00b0C:\nKa\u2081 \u2248 7.5 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b3\nKa\u2082 \u2248 6.2 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2078\nKa\u2083 \u2248 4.2 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u00b3\nLet's check if Ka\u2081 = (Ka\u2082 + Ka\u2083) / 2:\n(Ka\u2082 + Ka\u2083) / 2 = (6.2 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2078 + 4.2 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b9\u00b3) / 2 \u2248 (6.2 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2078) / 2 = 3.1 \u00d7 10\u207b\u2078\nComparing this with Ka\u2081 = 7.5 \u00d7 10\u207b\u00b3, it is clear that Ka\u2081 \u2260 (Ka\u2082 + Ka\u2083) / 2.\nTherefore, statement D is false.\n\nSo, statements A, B, and C are true.\nWe need to choose the option that states A, B and C only are true.\nOption (1) A and B only\nOption (2) A and C only\nOption (3) B, C and D only\nOption (4) A, B and C only\n\nThe correct option is (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_060", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_061", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The degree of dissociation (\u03b1) of a weak electrolyte is given by the ratio of its molar conductivity (\u039bm) at a given concentration to its molar conductivity at infinite dilution (\u039bom).\nThe formula is:\n\u03b1 = \u039bm / \u039bom\n\nGiven:\nMolar conductivity (\u039bm) = 90 S cm2 mol-1\nThe monobasic weak acid dissociates into a cation (H+) and an anion (A-).\nThe limiting molar conductivity of the cation (\u039bo+) = \u039boH+ = 349.6 S cm2 mol-1\nThe limiting molar conductivity of the anion (\u039bo-) = \u039boA- = 50.4 S cm2 mol-1\n\nFirst, we need to calculate the molar conductivity at infinite dilution (\u039bom) for the weak acid. According to Kohlrausch's law of independent migration of ions:\n\u039bom (acid) = \u039bocation + \u039boanion\n\u039bom = \u039boH+ + \u039boA-\n\u039bom = 349.6 S cm2 mol-1 + 50.4 S cm2 mol-1\n\u039bom = 400.0 S cm2 mol-1\n\nNow, we can calculate the degree of dissociation (\u03b1):\n\u03b1 = \u039bm / \u039bom\n\u03b1 = 90 S cm2 mol-1 / 400.0 S cm2 mol-1\n\u03b1 = 90 / 400\n\u03b1 = 9 / 40\n\nTo convert the fraction to a decimal:\n9 \u00f7 40 = 0.225\n\nComparing this value with the given options:\n(1) 0.115\n(2) 0.125\n(3) 0.225\n(4) 0.215\n\nThe calculated degree of dissociation is 0.225, which corresponds to option (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_062", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Statement I: \"A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.\"\nA bond order of zero indicates that the number of electrons in bonding molecular orbitals is equal to the number of electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals. This means there is no net attraction between the atoms, and the molecule is generally unstable and will not exist under normal conditions, or will have a very weak van der Waals interaction. For example, He\u2082, Ne\u2082 have bond order zero and are not stable molecules. Therefore, Statement I is false.\n\nStatement II: \"As bond order increases, the bond length increases.\"\nBond order is directly proportional to bond strength and inversely proportional to bond length. A higher bond order means more electrons are shared between the two atoms, resulting in a stronger attraction and a shorter distance between the nuclei. For example:\n- Carbon-carbon single bond (C-C, bond order 1) has a bond length of approximately 154 pm.\n- Carbon-carbon double bond (C=C, bond order 2) has a bond length of approximately 134 pm.\n- Carbon-carbon triple bond (C\u2261C, bond order 3) has a bond length of approximately 120 pm.\nThus, as bond order increases, bond length decreases. Therefore, Statement II is false.\n\nSince both Statement I and Statement II are false, we look for the option that reflects this.\nOption (1): Both statement I and Statement II are true. (Incorrect)\nOption (2): Both statement I and Statement II are false. (Correct)\nOption (3): Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (Incorrect)\nOption (4): Statement I is true but Statement II is true. (Incorrect, and also internally inconsistent as per the analysis of individual statements) Actually, the option should be Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Looking at the OCR, option (4) reads: \"Statement I is true but Statement II is true\". This seems like a typo in the question or options as generally options cover all combinations. However, let's re-evaluate. The option as written states \"Statement I is true but Statement II is true\". This is the same as option (1). Let's assume the options provided are exactly as they are.\n\nGiven our analysis:\nStatement I is false.\nStatement II is false.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2) \"Both statement I and Statement II are false\".\n\nThe integer corresponding to the correct option is 2.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_063", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1, 2], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_064", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Let's analyze each molecule to determine its hybridization and shape.\n\nA. XeO3\nXenon (Xe) has 8 valence electrons. Each oxygen (O) forms a double bond with Xenon. So, there are 3 Xe=O bonds, which means 3 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds.\nNumber of lone pairs on Xe = (Valence electrons of Xe - 2 * Number of oxygen atoms) / 2\n= (8 - 2 * 3) / 2 = (8 - 6) / 2 = 2 / 2 = 1 lone pair.\nTotal electron pairs around Xe = Number of sigma bonds + Number of lone pairs = 3 + 1 = 4.\nSo, the hybridization is sp3.\nWith 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair, the shape is pyramidal.\nTherefore, A matches with II (sp3; pyramidal).\n\nB. XeF2\nXenon (Xe) has 8 valence electrons. Each fluorine (F) is monovalent and forms a single bond with Xenon. So, there are 2 Xe-F bonds, which means 2 sigma bonds.\nNumber of lone pairs on Xe = (Valence electrons of Xe - Number of fluorine atoms) / 2\n= (8 - 2) / 2 = 6 / 2 = 3 lone pairs.\nTotal electron pairs around Xe = Number of sigma bonds + Number of lone pairs = 2 + 3 = 5.\nSo, the hybridization is sp3d.\nWith 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs, the electron geometry is trigonal bipyramidal. The lone pairs occupy the equatorial positions to minimize repulsion, resulting in a linear molecular shape.\nTherefore, B matches with I (sp3d; linear).\n\nC. XeOF4\nXenon (Xe) has 8 valence electrons. Oxygen forms a double bond (1 sigma, 1 pi) and each fluorine forms a single bond. So, there is 1 Xe=O bond and 4 Xe-F bonds. This means there are 1 + 4 = 5 sigma bonds.\nNumber of lone pairs on Xe = (Valence electrons of Xe - 2 * Number of oxygen atoms - Number of fluorine atoms) / 2\n= (8 - 2 * 1 - 4) / 2 = (8 - 2 - 4) / 2 = 2 / 2 = 1 lone pair.\nTotal electron pairs around Xe = Number of sigma bonds + Number of lone pairs = 5 + 1 = 6.\nSo, the hybridization is sp3d2.\nWith 5 bond pairs and 1 lone pair, the electron geometry is octahedral. The lone pair can occupy one of the positions, resulting in a square pyramidal molecular shape.\nTherefore, C matches with IV (sp3d2; square pyramidal).\n\nD. XeF6\nXenon (Xe) has 8 valence electrons. Each fluorine forms a single bond with Xenon. So, there are 6 Xe-F bonds, which means 6 sigma bonds.\nNumber of lone pairs on Xe = (Valence electrons of Xe - Number of fluorine atoms) / 2\n= (8 - 6) / 2 = 2 / 2 = 1 lone pair.\nTotal electron pairs around Xe = Number of sigma bonds + Number of lone pairs = 6 + 1 = 7.\nSo, the hybridization is sp3d3.\nWith 6 bond pairs and 1 lone pair, the electron geometry is pentagonal bipyramidal or capped octahedral. Due to the lone pair, the shape is distorted octahedral.\nTherefore, D matches with III (sp3d3; distorted octahedral).\n\nMatching the lists:\nA - II\nB - I\nC - IV\nD - III\n\nNow let's check the options:\n(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. This matches our derived matches.\n(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV.\n(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I.\n(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III.\n\nOption (1) is the correct answer.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_065", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_066", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Let's analyze each item in List-I and match it with the correct type of solution in List-II.\n\n**A. Humidity:**\nHumidity refers to the amount of water vapor in the air. Water vapor is water in its gaseous state, but when we talk about a solution type in this context, we consider the water as the dispersed phase (liquid droplets or molecules) in the air (gas) which is the dispersion medium. So, humidity is an example of a **liquid in gas** solution.\nTherefore, **A matches II**.\n\n**B. Alloys:**\nAlloys are mixtures of two or more metals, or a metal and another element. For example, brass is an alloy of copper (solid) and zinc (solid). Steel is an alloy of iron (solid) and carbon (solid). Thus, alloys are generally **solid in solid** solutions.\nTherefore, **B matches I**.\n\n**C. Amalgams:**\nAmalgams are alloys of mercury with one or more other metals. Mercury is a liquid at room temperature. The other metals are typically solids. For example, dental amalgam is an alloy of mercury (liquid) with silver, tin, and copper (solids). So, amalgams are examples of a **liquid in solid** solution, where the liquid (mercury) is dissolved in a solid.\nTherefore, **C matches IV**.\n\n**D. Smoke:**\nSmoke consists of fine solid particles (like soot or ash) dispersed in a gas (usually air). So, smoke is an example of a **solid in gas** solution (more precisely, a colloid or aerosol of solid in gas).\nTherefore, **D matches III**.\n\nNow let's check the given options:\n1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III\n * A-II (Humidity - Liquid in gas) - Correct\n * B-IV (Alloys - Liquid in solid) - Incorrect (Alloys are Solid in solid)\n2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III\n * A-II (Humidity - Liquid in gas) - Correct\n * B-I (Alloys - Solid in solid) - Correct\n * C-IV (Amalgams - Liquid in solid) - Correct\n * D-III (Smoke - Solid in gas) - Correct\n3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II\n * A-III (Humidity - Solid in gas) - Incorrect (Humidity is Liquid in gas)\n4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV\n * A-III (Humidity - Solid in gas) - Incorrect (Humidity is Liquid in gas)\n\nOption (2) correctly matches all the items.\n\nFinal check:\nA. Humidity -> Liquid in gas (II)\nB. Alloys -> Solid in solid (I)\nC. Amalgams -> Liquid in solid (IV)\nD. Smoke -> Solid in gas (III)\n\nOption (2) states: A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III. This matches our analysis.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_067", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_068", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Step 1: Analyze the question and the provided options.\nThe question asks to identify which of the given substances (A, B, C, D, E) have an equal number of atoms.\nWe need to calculate the total number of atoms for each substance.\nThe total number of atoms can be calculated using the formula:\nNumber of atoms = (Mass / Molar mass) \u00d7 Avogadro's number \u00d7 Number of atoms per molecule.\nLet NA be Avogadro's number.\n\nStep 2: Calculate the number of atoms for each substance.\n\nA. 212 g of Na\u2082CO\u2083 (s) [molar mass = 106 g]\nNumber of moles of Na\u2082CO\u2083 = Mass / Molar mass = 212 g / 106 g/mol = 2 mol.\nNumber of atoms in one molecule of Na\u2082CO\u2083 = 2 (Na) + 1 (C) + 3 (O) = 6 atoms.\nTotal number of atoms in A = 2 mol \u00d7 6 atoms/molecule \u00d7 NA = 12 NA atoms.\n\nB. 248 g of Na\u2082O (s) [molar mass = 62 g]\nNumber of moles of Na\u2082O = Mass / Molar mass = 248 g / 62 g/mol = 4 mol.\nNumber of atoms in one molecule of Na\u2082O = 2 (Na) + 1 (O) = 3 atoms.\nTotal number of atoms in B = 4 mol \u00d7 3 atoms/molecule \u00d7 NA = 12 NA atoms.\n\nC. 240 g of NaOH (s) [molar mass = 40 g]\nNumber of moles of NaOH = Mass / Molar mass = 240 g / 40 g/mol = 6 mol.\nNumber of atoms in one molecule of NaOH = 1 (Na) + 1 (O) + 1 (H) = 3 atoms.\nTotal number of atoms in C = 6 mol \u00d7 3 atoms/molecule \u00d7 NA = 18 NA atoms.\n\nD. 12 g of H\u2082(g) [molar mass = 2 g]\nNumber of moles of H\u2082 = Mass / Molar mass = 12 g / 2 g/mol = 6 mol.\nNumber of atoms in one molecule of H\u2082 = 2 atoms (H).\nTotal number of atoms in D = 6 mol \u00d7 2 atoms/molecule \u00d7 NA = 12 NA atoms.\n\nE. 220 g of CO\u2082(g) [molar mass = 44 g]\nNumber of moles of CO\u2082 = Mass / Molar mass = 220 g / 44 g/mol = 5 mol.\nNumber of atoms in one molecule of CO\u2082 = 1 (C) + 2 (O) = 3 atoms.\nTotal number of atoms in E = 5 mol \u00d7 3 atoms/molecule \u00d7 NA = 15 NA atoms.\n\nStep 3: Compare the number of atoms.\nA = 12 NA atoms\nB = 12 NA atoms\nC = 18 NA atoms\nD = 12 NA atoms\nE = 15 NA atoms\n\nSubstances with an equal number of atoms are A, B, and D (all have 12 NA atoms).\n\nStep 4: Choose the correct answer from the options given below.\n(1) A, B, and C only (12 NA, 12 NA, 18 NA) - Incorrect\n(2) A, B, and D only (12 NA, 12 NA, 12 NA) - Correct\n(3) B, C, and D only (12 NA, 18 NA, 12 NA) - Incorrect\n(4) B, D, and E only (12 NA, 12 NA, 15 NA) - Incorrect\n\nThe correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_069", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_070", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_071", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "**Step-by-step analysis:**\n\n**Statement I: Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.**\n* **Paramagnetism:** Materials that are weakly attracted to an external magnetic field. This arises from the presence of unpaired electrons, whose magnetic moments align with the external field.\n* **Ferromagnetism:** Materials that exhibit a strong attraction to magnetic fields and can be magnetized themselves. In ferromagnetic materials, the magnetic moments of adjacent atoms or ions align spontaneously in domains, even in the absence of an external magnetic field, due to strong exchange interactions. This cooperative alignment of spins leads to a much stronger magnetic effect than paramagnetism. Therefore, ferromagnetism can indeed be considered an extreme or enhanced form of paramagnetism where the interactions between magnetic dipoles are very strong and lead to spontaneous ordering.\n* **Conclusion for Statement I:** Statement I is true.\n\n**Statement II: The number of unpaired electrons in a Cr\u00b2\u207a ion (Z=24) is the same as that of a Nd\u00b3\u207a ion (Z=60).**\n* **Cr\u00b2\u207a ion (Z=24):**\n * Chromium (Cr) has atomic number Z=24.\n * Electronic configuration of Cr (neutral atom): [Ar] 3d\u2075 4s\u00b9 (due to stability of half-filled d-subshell).\n * To form Cr\u00b2\u207a, two electrons are removed. The electrons are removed from the outermost shell first. So, one electron from 4s and one electron from 3d (specifically, from the 3d\u2075 configuration).\n * Electronic configuration of Cr\u00b2\u207a: [Ar] 3d\u2074.\n * In the 3d subshell, there are 5 orbitals. According to Hund's rule, the 4 electrons will occupy separate orbitals with parallel spins.\n * Number of unpaired electrons in Cr\u00b2\u207a = 4.\n\n* **Nd\u00b3\u207a ion (Z=60):**\n * Neodymium (Nd) has atomic number Z=60. It is a lanthanide.\n * Electronic configuration of Nd (neutral atom): [Xe] 4f\u2074 6s\u00b2. (The filling order for lanthanides is generally 6s, then 4f, though with some exceptions, this is the standard configuration for Nd).\n * To form Nd\u00b3\u207a, three electrons are removed. Generally, electrons are removed from the outermost shells first. So, two electrons from 6s and one electron from 4f.\n * Electronic configuration of Nd\u00b3\u207a: [Xe] 4f\u00b3.\n * In the 4f subshell, there are 7 orbitals. According to Hund's rule, the 3 electrons will occupy separate orbitals with parallel spins.\n * Number of unpaired electrons in Nd\u00b3\u207a = 3.\n\n* **Comparison:**\n * Number of unpaired electrons in Cr\u00b2\u207a = 4.\n * Number of unpaired electrons in Nd\u00b3\u207a = 3.\n * Since 4 \u2260 3, the number of unpaired electrons is not the same.\n* **Conclusion for Statement II:** Statement II is false.\n\n**Overall Conclusion:**\n* Statement I is true.\n* Statement II is false.\n\n**Matching with options:**\n* (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true - Incorrect.\n* (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false - Incorrect.\n* (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false - Correct.\n* (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true - Incorrect.\n\nThe correct option is (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_072", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Let's analyze each mixture and determine the appropriate method of separation.\n\nA. CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 (Chloroform and Aniline)\n - Chloroform (boiling point \u2248 61 \u00b0C) and Aniline (boiling point \u2248 184 \u00b0C).\n - These are two miscible liquids.\n - The difference in their boiling points is 184 - 61 = 123 \u00b0C, which is significant (greater than 25-30 \u00b0C).\n - Therefore, simple distillation can be used to separate them.\n - So, A matches with IV (Simple distillation).\n\nB. Crude oil in petroleum industry\n - Crude oil is a mixture of many hydrocarbons with boiling points that are close to each other.\n - To separate these components, fractional distillation is used, which separates fractions based on different boiling point ranges.\n - So, B matches with III (Fractional distillation).\n\nC. Glycerol from spent-lye\n - Glycerol (boiling point \u2248 290 \u00b0C) is obtained from spent-lye in soap manufacturing.\n - Glycerol decomposes at its normal boiling point.\n - To purify glycerol, distillation under reduced pressure (vacuum distillation) is employed. This lowers the boiling point of glycerol, allowing it to distill without decomposition.\n - So, C matches with I (Distillation under reduced pressure).\n\nD. Aniline-water\n - Aniline is an organic compound that is steam volatile and immiscible (or sparingly soluble) with water.\n - Steam distillation is a separation process used to purify or isolate temperature-sensitive materials, like natural aromatic compounds, or to separate organic compounds that are immiscible with water and are steam volatile.\n - So, D matches with II (Steam distillation).\n\nMatching summary:\nA \u2192 IV\nB \u2192 III\nC \u2192 I\nD \u2192 II\n\nNow, let's check the given options:\n(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II\n(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I\n(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II\n(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I\n\nOur derived matches (A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II) correspond exactly to option (1).\n\nFinal Answer is option (1).\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_073", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The given reaction is A(g) <=> 2B(g).\nThe backward reaction rate constant (kb) is higher than the forward reaction rate constant (kf) by a factor of 2500.\nThis means kb = 2500 * kf.\n\nThe equilibrium constant in terms of concentrations, Kc, is given by the ratio of the forward rate constant to the backward rate constant:\nKc = kf / kb\nSubstituting the given relationship:\nKc = kf / (2500 * kf)\nKc = 1 / 2500\nKc = 0.0004\n\nWe need to find Kp for the reaction. The relationship between Kp and Kc is:\nKp = Kc * (RT)^(\u0394n)\nwhere:\nR is the ideal gas constant = 0.0831 L atm mol^-1 K^-1\nT is the temperature in Kelvin = 1000 K\n\u0394n is the change in the number of moles of gaseous products and gaseous reactants.\n\u0394n = (moles of gaseous products) - (moles of gaseous reactants)\nFor the reaction A(g) <=> 2B(g):\nMoles of gaseous products = 2 (from 2B(g))\nMoles of gaseous reactants = 1 (from A(g))\nSo, \u0394n = 2 - 1 = 1.\n\nNow, we can calculate Kp:\nKp = Kc * (RT)^(\u0394n)\nKp = (1/2500) * (0.0831 * 1000)^1\nKp = (1/2500) * (83.1)\nKp = 83.1 / 2500\n\nTo calculate 83.1 / 2500:\n83.1 / 2500 = 83.1 / (25 * 100) = (83.1 / 25) / 100\nFirst, calculate 83.1 / 25:\n83.1 \u00f7 25 = 3.324\nSo, Kp = 3.324 / 100\nKp = 0.03324\n\nNow let's compare this value with the given options:\n(1) 83.1\n(2) 2.077 \u00d7 10^5\n(3) 0.033\n(4) 0.021\n\nOur calculated value Kp = 0.03324 is closest to option (3) 0.033.\n\nFinal Answer is 3.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_074", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_075", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The compound is 2-methylbutane.CH3 (1)|CH3 (1)-CH (2)-CH2 (3)-CH3 (4)We will consider monochlorination at each unique position and then check for stereoisomers.Position 1: Chlorination of one of the two equivalent methyl groups attached to C2.The product is 1-chloro-2-methylbutane:CH3|Cl-CH2-CH-CH2-CH3The carbon atom C2 (the one with the methyl group and a hydrogen) is bonded to H, CH3, CH2Cl, and CH2CH3. These are four different groups, so C2 is a chiral center. Thus, this constitutional isomer exists as a pair of enantiomers (R and S).Number of stereoisomers = 2.Position 2: Chlorination of the tertiary hydrogen at C2.The product is 2-chloro-2-methylbutane:CH3|CH3-C(Cl)-CH2-CH3The carbon atom C2 (the one with the chlorine) is bonded to two CH3 groups, Cl, and CH2CH3. Since it has two identical methyl groups, it is not a chiral center.Number of stereoisomers = 1.Position 3: Chlorination of one of the hydrogens at C3.The product is 2-chloro-3-methylbutane (or 3-chloro-2-methylbutane, let's number to give Cl the lowest number, so 2-chloro-3-methylbutane):CH3-CH(Cl)-CH(CH3)-CH3The carbon atom C2 (with Cl) is bonded to H, Cl, CH3, and CH(CH3)2. These are four different groups, so C2 is a chiral center.The carbon atom C3 (with CH3) is bonded to H, CH3, CH3, and CH(Cl)CH3. So C3 is bonded to two methyl groups, H, and CH(Cl)CH3. C3 is also a chiral center as it is bonded to H, CH3 (one of the methyls), another CH3, and CH(Cl)CH3. No, let's be careful here.The structure is:CH3|CH3-CH-CHCl-CH3Let's number the longest chain:1 2 3 4CH3-CH(Cl)-CH(CH3)-CH3C2 is bonded to H, Cl, CH3 (C1), and CH(CH3)CH3 (C3 and the methyl on C3). So C2 is chiral.C3 is bonded to H, CH3 (the methyl attached to C3), CH3 (C4), and CH(Cl)CH3 (C2 and C1). So C3 is chiral.This molecule has two chiral centers.Possible stereoisomers are (R,R), (S,S), (R,S), (S,R).Are (R,S) and (S,R) meso compounds? Let's check.The groups on C2 are H, Cl, CH3, -CH(CH3)2.The groups on C3 are H, CH3, CH3, -CH(Cl)CH3. Let's redraw it.CH3-CH(Cl)-CH(CH3)-CH3The two chiral carbons are C2 and C3.For C2: -H, -Cl, -CH3, -CH(CH3)CH3For C3: -H, -CH3, -CH3, -CH(Cl)CH3Wait, the methyl groups at C3 are distinct. One is the methyl group directly attached to C3 (as part of the CH(CH3)CH3 from the perspective of C2) and the other is the terminal methyl (C4).Let's redraw the molecule:CH3 (a)|CH3(b)-CH(Cl)(c)-CH(d)(H)-CH3(e)Chiral center at C(c): groups are H, Cl, CH3(b), CH(d)(CH3(a))CH3(e). These are different.Chiral center at C(d): groups are H, CH3(a), CH3(e), CH(Cl)(c)CH3(b). These are different.So, there are two chiral centers.This structure is 2-chloro-3-methylbutane.It has two chiral centers, C2 and C3.The four groups attached to C2 are H, Cl, CH3, CH(CH3)2.The four groups attached to C3 are H, CH3, CH3, CH(Cl)CH3.Since the molecule is not symmetrical in a way that would lead to a meso compound (the two chiral centers are not identically substituted, e.g., C2 has Cl, C3 does not), all four stereoisomers (2^2 = 4) are distinct if both are chiral.However, let's re-examine the structure of 2-chloro-3-methylbutane: CH3-CH(Cl)-CH(CH3)-CH3.The groups at C2 are H, Cl, CH3, and -CH(CH3)2.The groups at C3 are H, CH3, CH3, and -CH(Cl)CH3.Are these two chiral centers?C2 is chiral (H, Cl, methyl, isopropyl).C3 is chiral (H, methyl, methyl, chloroethyl). No, this is wrong. C3 is bonded to H, a methyl group, another methyl group, and the CH(Cl)CH3 group. So C3 is -CH(CH3)2. C3 is not chiral.The molecule is CH3-CH(Cl)-CH(CH3)-CH3. Let's be more systematic.The carbon with Cl is C2: CH3-CH(Cl)-CH(CH3)-CH3. Groups are -H, -Cl, -CH3, -CH(CH3)2. So C2 is chiral.The carbon C3 is CH(CH3)2. This is part of the CH(CH3)2 group attached to C2.The structure of 2-chloro-3-methylbutane is:CH3|CH3-CH-Cl|CH-CH3|CH3No,.The final answer is 66 ​4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_076", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_077", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_078", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The reaction involves a starting material with a ketone group and a nitrile group reacting with excess Grignard reagent (CH3MgBr) followed by acidic workup (H3O+).\n\n1. **Reaction with the ketone group:**\n A ketone reacts with one equivalent of Grignard reagent to form a tertiary alcohol after hydrolysis.\n Ph-CO-CH2-CH2-CN + CH3MgBr \u2192 Ph-C(O-MgBr)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CN\n Ph-C(O-MgBr)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CN + H3O+ \u2192 Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CN\n\n2. **Reaction with the nitrile group:**\n A nitrile reacts with one equivalent of Grignard reagent to form an imine salt, which upon hydrolysis yields a ketone.\n R-CN + CH3MgBr \u2192 R-C(CH3)=N-MgBr\n R-C(CH3)=N-MgBr + H3O+ \u2192 R-CO-CH3 + NH3 (after tautomerization of imine R-C(CH3)=NH to R-CO-CH3)\n In this case, after the ketone group has reacted, the molecule is Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CN. So, R = Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-.\n Thus, the nitrile group -CN reacts with CH3MgBr and upon hydrolysis, forms -CO-CH3.\n So, after reaction of the ketone and one equivalent of CH3MgBr with the nitrile (followed by hydrolysis), the intermediate product would be Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CO-CH3. This corresponds to option (2).\n\n3. **Reaction of the newly formed ketone with excess Grignard reagent:**\n Since excess CH3MgBr is used, the ketone formed from the nitrile group (Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CO-CH3) will further react with another equivalent of CH3MgBr to form a tertiary alcohol.\n Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CO-CH3 + CH3MgBr \u2192 Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-C(O-MgBr)(CH3)2\n Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-C(O-MgBr)(CH3)2 + H3O+ \u2192 Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-C(OH)(CH3)2\n\nTherefore, the major product of the reaction with excess CH3MgBr is Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-C(OH)(CH3)2.\nThis matches option (3).\n\nLet's examine the options:\n(1) Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CN: Only the ketone reacted. Incorrect, as excess CH3MgBr will also react with the nitrile.\n(2) Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-CO-CH3: Ketone reacted, and nitrile reacted with one equivalent of CH3MgBr to form a ketone. Incorrect, as excess CH3MgBr will react with this newly formed ketone.\n(3) Ph-C(OH)(CH3)-CH2-CH2-C(OH)(CH3)2: Ketone reacted to form a tertiary alcohol, and nitrile reacted with two equivalents of CH3MgBr (via ketone intermediate) to form a tertiary alcohol. This is the expected product with excess Grignard reagent.\n(4) Ph-CO-CH2-CH2-CO-CH3: Original ketone unreacted, nitrile converted to ketone. Incorrect, as the original ketone is reactive towards Grignard reagent.\n\nThus, the correct option is (3).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_079", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_080", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The question asks to match the processes/catalysts in List-I with their corresponding chemical species/catalysts in List-II.\n\nLet's analyze each item in List-I:\n\nA. Haber process: This is the industrial process for the synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen. The catalyst commonly used is iron (Fe), often promoted with K2O, Al2O3, or CaO.\nFrom List-II, I. Fe catalyst. So, A matches with I.\n\nB. Wacker oxidation: This process involves the oxidation of alkenes to aldehydes or ketones using a palladium catalyst. Specifically, palladium(II) chloride (PdCl2) is used as the primary catalyst, often with a co-catalyst like copper(II) chloride (CuCl2) to reoxidize the palladium.\nFrom List-II, II. PdCl2. So, B matches with II.\n\nC. Wilkinson catalyst: This is a homogeneous catalyst used for the hydrogenation of alkenes. Its chemical formula is chlorotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium(I), which is [(PPh3)3RhCl].\nFrom List-II, III. [(PPh3)3RhCl]. So, C matches with III.\n\nD. Ziegler catalyst (more accurately, Ziegler-Natta catalyst): This catalyst is used for the polymerization of alkenes, particularly for producing stereoregular polymers like polyethylene and polypropylene. It typically consists of a transition metal halide (e.g., TiCl4, TiCl3) and an organoaluminum compound (e.g., triethylaluminium Al(C2H5)3, or trimethylaluminium Al(CH3)3).\nFrom List-II, IV. TiCl4 with Al(CH3)3. So, D matches with IV.\n\nSo the correct pairings are:\nA - I\nB - II\nC - III\nD - IV\n\nNow let's check the given options:\n(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III: C and D are incorrectly matched.\n(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV: A, B, and C are incorrectly matched.\n(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV: All matches are correct.\n(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II: B and D are incorrectly matched.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (3).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_081", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "To determine the nature of the solution, we need to calculate the ideal vapour pressure using Raoult's Law and compare it with the observed vapour pressure.\n\nGiven:\nNumber of moles of liquid X, nX = 5 moles\nNumber of moles of liquid Y, nY = 10 moles\nTotal number of moles, n_total = nX + nY = 5 + 10 = 15 moles\n\nMole fraction of X, \u03c7X = nX / n_total = 5 / 15 = 1/3\nMole fraction of Y, \u03c7Y = nY / n_total = 10 / 15 = 2/3\n\nVapour pressure of pure X, P\u00b0X = 63 torr\nVapour pressure of pure Y, P\u00b0Y = 78 torr\n\nAccording to Raoult's Law, for an ideal solution, the total vapour pressure (P_ideal) is given by:\nP_ideal = \u03c7X * P\u00b0X + \u03c7Y * P\u00b0Y\n\nSubstitute the values:\nP_ideal = (1/3) * 63 + (2/3) * 78\nP_ideal = 21 + (2 * 78) / 3\nP_ideal = 21 + 156 / 3\nP_ideal = 21 + 52\nP_ideal = 73 torr\n\nThe observed vapour pressure of the solution (P_observed) is given as 70 torr.\n\nNow, compare P_observed with P_ideal:\nP_observed = 70 torr\nP_ideal = 73 torr\n\nSince P_observed < P_ideal (70 torr < 73 torr), the solution shows a negative deviation from Raoult's Law.\n\nLet's evaluate the given options:\n(1) The solution shows positive deviation. This is incorrect because P_observed < P_ideal.\n(2) The solution shows negative deviation. This is correct because P_observed < P_ideal.\n(3) The solution is ideal. This is incorrect because P_observed \u2260 P_ideal.\n(4) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes. This (\u0394V_mix > 0) is characteristic of positive deviation. For negative deviation, \u0394V_mix < 0 (volume is less than the sum of individual volumes). So this option is incorrect.\n\nTherefore, the correct statement is that the solution shows negative deviation.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_082", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_083", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the suitable reagent for the conversion of methyl benzoate to benzaldehyde.\nThe starting material is an ester (methyl benzoate, C6H5COOCH3).\nThe product is an aldehyde (benzaldehyde, C6H5CHO).\nThis is a partial reduction of an ester to an aldehyde.\n\nLet's analyze each option:\n\n(1) (i) LiAlH4, (ii) H+/H2O\nLiAlH4 (Lithium Aluminium Hydride) is a strong reducing agent. It reduces esters to primary alcohols.\nC6H5COOCH3 + LiAlH4 -> C6H5CH2OH + CH3OH (after workup)\nSo, LiAlH4 will reduce methyl benzoate to benzyl alcohol, not benzaldehyde. Thus, option (1) is incorrect.\n\n(2) (i) AlH(iBu)2 (ii) H2O\nAlH(iBu)2 is DIBAL-H (Diisobutylaluminium hydride). DIBAL-H is a selective reducing agent. At low temperatures (typically -78 \u00b0C), DIBAL-H can reduce esters to aldehydes. The reaction is usually followed by hydrolysis (H2O workup).\nC6H5COOCH3 + DIBAL-H -> C6H5CHO (after workup)\nThis is a known method for converting esters to aldehydes. Thus, option (2) is a plausible correct answer.\n\n(3) (i) NaBH4, (ii) H+/H2O\nNaBH4 (Sodium Borohydride) is a milder reducing agent than LiAlH4. It typically reduces aldehydes and ketones to alcohols. It does not usually reduce esters, or if it does, it's very slow and harsh conditions might be needed, leading to the alcohol in some cases. So, NaBH4 is generally not used for reducing esters to aldehydes. Thus, option (3) is incorrect.\n\n(4) (i) H2/Pd-BaSO4\nH2/Pd-BaSO4 is known as Lindlar's catalyst, which is used for the partial hydrogenation of alkynes to cis-alkenes. This reagent combination is also used in the Rosenmund reduction, which converts acyl chlorides to aldehydes.\nRCOCl + H2/Pd-BaSO4 -> RCHO\nHowever, the starting material here is an ester, not an acyl chloride. Rosenmund reduction is not applicable to esters. Thus, option (4) is incorrect.\n\nBased on the analysis, DIBAL-H (AlH(iBu)2) is the appropriate reagent for the conversion of an ester to an aldehyde.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_084", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_085", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The problem asks for the standard heat of formation of Ba\u00b2\u207a(aq).\nWe are given the following data:\n1. Standard heat of formation of SO\u2084\u00b2\u207b(aq), \u0394H_f\u00b0(SO\u2084\u00b2\u207b, aq) = -216 kcal/mol\n2. Standard heat of crystallization of BaSO\u2084(s), \u0394H_cryst\u00b0(BaSO\u2084, s) = -4.5 kcal/mol\n3. Standard heat of formation of BaSO\u2084(s), \u0394H_f\u00b0(BaSO\u2084, s) = -349 kcal/mol\n\nThe process of crystallization of BaSO\u2084(s) can be represented by the following reaction:\nBa\u00b2\u207a(aq) + SO\u2084\u00b2\u207b(aq) \u2192 BaSO\u2084(s)\n\nThe enthalpy change for this reaction is the standard heat of crystallization, \u0394H_cryst\u00b0(BaSO\u2084, s).\n\u0394H_cryst\u00b0(BaSO\u2084, s) = -4.5 kcal/mol\n\nWe can also express the enthalpy change of this reaction in terms of the standard heats of formation of the reactants and products:\n\u0394H_cryst\u00b0(BaSO\u2084, s) = \u0394H_f\u00b0(BaSO\u2084, s) - [\u0394H_f\u00b0(Ba\u00b2\u207a, aq) + \u0394H_f\u00b0(SO\u2084\u00b2\u207b, aq)]\n\nLet \u0394H_f\u00b0(Ba\u00b2\u207a, aq) be denoted by X.\nSubstitute the given values into the equation:\n-4.5 = (-349) - [X + (-216)]\n-4.5 = -349 - X + 216\n-4.5 = -133 - X\n\nNow, solve for X:\nX = -133 - (-4.5)\nX = -133 + 4.5\nX = -128.5 kcal/mol\n\nTherefore, the standard heat of formation of Ba\u00b2\u207a(aq) is -128.5 kcal/mol.\n\nComparing this value with the given options:\n(1) -128.5\n(2) -133.0\n(3) +133.0\n(4) +220.5\n\nThe calculated value matches option (1).\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_086", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The molecular formula is C4H8O.\nFirst, calculate the degree of unsaturation (DBE):\nDBE = (2C + 2 - H)/2 = (2*4 + 2 - 8)/2 = (8 + 2 - 8)/2 = 2/2 = 1.\nA DBE of 1 indicates the presence of one ring (since we are looking for cyclic ethers) or one double bond.\n\nWe need to find all cyclic ethers. Oxygen must be part of the ring.\n\nPossible ring sizes:\n1. Three-membered ring (oxirane derivatives): The ring is C2O. The remaining two carbons (C2H4 part) must be substituents.\n a. 2-Ethyloxirane:\n O\n / \\\n CH2-CH-CH2CH3\n The carbon atom marked with CH is chiral (attached to H, O-in-ring, CH2-in-ring, and CH2CH3).\n So, there are 2 stereoisomers (a pair of enantiomers).\n b. 2,2-Dimethyloxirane:\n O\n / \\\n CH2-C(CH3)2\n There are no chiral centers. So, there is 1 isomer.\n c. 2,3-Dimethyloxirane:\n O\n / \\\n CH(CH3)-CH(CH3)\n There are two chiral centers.\n - cis-2,3-dimethyloxirane: This is a meso compound (achiral). 1 stereoisomer.\n - trans-2,3-dimethyloxirane: This exists as a pair of enantiomers (R,R and S,S). 2 stereoisomers.\n So, for 2,3-dimethyloxirane, there are 1 + 2 = 3 stereoisomers.\n Total for 3-membered rings = 2 + 1 + 3 = 6 isomers.\n\n2. Four-membered ring (oxetane derivatives): The ring is C3O. The remaining one carbon (CH3 part) must be a substituent.\n a. 2-Methyloxetane:\n O---CH(CH3)\n | |\n CH2---CH2\n The carbon atom attached to the methyl group (C-2) is chiral.\n So, there are 2 stereoisomers (a pair of enantiomers).\n b. 3-Methyloxetane:\n O---CH2\n | |\n CH2---CH(CH3)\n The carbon atom attached to the methyl group (C-3) is chiral.\n So, there are 2 stereoisomers (a pair of enantiomers).\n Total for 4-membered rings = 2 + 2 = 4 isomers.\n\n3. Five-membered ring (tetrahydrofuran derivative): The ring is C4O. There are no remaining carbons for substituents.\n a. Tetrahydrofuran (THF):\n O\n / \\\n CH2 CH2\n | |\n CH2-CH2\n There are no chiral centers. So, there is 1 isomer.\n Total for 5-membered rings = 1 isomer.\n\nTotal number of possible isomers (structural and stereoisomers) = Sum of isomers from all cases.\nTotal isomers = 6 (from 3-membered rings) + 4 (from 4-membered rings) + 1 (from 5-membered ring) = 11 isomers.\n\nThe options are: (1) 6, (2) 8, (3) 10, (4) 11.\nThe calculated total number of isomers is 11.\n\nFinal Answer Check:\n- 2-Ethyloxirane: 2 stereoisomers.\n- 2,2-Dimethyloxirane: 1 isomer.\n- 2,3-Dimethyloxirane: 3 stereoisomers (1 meso, 2 enantiomers).\n- 2-Methyloxetane: 2 stereoisomers.\n- 3-Methyloxetane: 2 stereoisomers.\n- Tetrahydrofuran: 1 isomer.\nTotal = 2 + 1 + 3 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 11.\n\nThe correct option is (4).\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_087", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Let's analyze each statement:\n\nA. H2O > NH3 > CHCl3 - dipole moment\nH2O has a bent structure and a high electronegativity difference between O and H, along with two lone pairs on oxygen. Its dipole moment is approximately 1.85 D.\nNH3 has a pyramidal structure with one lone pair on nitrogen. Its dipole moment is approximately 1.47 D.\nCHCl3 (chloroform) has a tetrahedral geometry. The three C-Cl bonds are polar, and the C-H bond is also polar. The vector sum of these bond dipoles results in a net dipole moment. The dipole moment of CHCl3 is approximately 1.04 D.\nThus, the order of dipole moments is H2O (1.85 D) > NH3 (1.47 D) > CHCl3 (1.04 D).\nSo, statement A is correct.\n\nB. XeF4 > XeO3 > XeF2 - number of lone pairs on central atom\nFor XeF4: Xenon (Xe) is the central atom. Xe has 8 valence electrons. It forms 4 single bonds with 4 fluorine atoms.\nNumber of electrons used in bonding = 4.\nNumber of lone pair electrons on Xe = 8 - 4 = 4.\nNumber of lone pairs on Xe = 4/2 = 2.\nFor XeO3: Xenon (Xe) is the central atom. Xe has 8 valence electrons. It forms 3 double bonds with 3 oxygen atoms (each oxygen forms a double bond to satisfy its octet and Xe's expanded octet).\nNumber of electrons used in bonding = 3 \u00d7 2 \u00d7 2 = 6 (since each oxygen forms a double bond, contributing 2 electrons per oxygen from Xe, and there are 3 oxygen atoms means 6 bonding electrons from Xenon are involved. Or, more simply, number of valence electrons - number of bonding electrons).\nAlternatively, Xe forms three double bonds with oxygen atoms, so it uses 6 valence electrons for bonding. Remaining electrons = 8 - 6 = 2. So, number of lone pairs on Xe = 2/2 = 1.\nFor XeF2: Xenon (Xe) is the central atom. Xe has 8 valence electrons. It forms 2 single bonds with 2 fluorine atoms.\nNumber of electrons used in bonding = 2.\nNumber of lone pair electrons on Xe = 8 - 2 = 6.\nNumber of lone pairs on Xe = 6/2 = 3.\nSo, the number of lone pairs on the central atom are: XeF4 (2), XeO3 (1), XeF2 (3).\nThe given order is XeF4 (2) > XeO3 (1) > XeF2 (3). This is incorrect because 1 is not greater than 3.\nSo, statement B is incorrect.\n\nC. O-H > C-H > N-O - bond length\nTypical bond lengths for single bonds are:\nO-H bond length (e.g., in H2O) is approximately 96 pm.\nC-H bond length (e.g., in CH4) is approximately 109 pm.\nN-O single bond length (e.g., in NH2OH) is approximately 146 pm.\nThe given order is O-H > C-H > N-O, which means 96 pm > 109 pm > 146 pm. This is incorrect.\nThe correct order of bond lengths is N-O > C-H > O-H (for single bonds).\nSo, statement C is incorrect.\n\nD. N2 > O2 > H2 - bond enthalpy\nN2 has a triple bond (N\u2261N). Bond enthalpy \u2248 945 kJ/mol.\nO2 has a double bond (O=O). Bond enthalpy \u2248 498 kJ/mol.\nH2 has a single bond (H-H). Bond enthalpy \u2248 436 kJ/mol.\nSo, the order of bond enthalpies is N2 (945 kJ/mol) > O2 (498 kJ/mol) > H2 (436 kJ/mol).\nThe given order N2 > O2 > H2 is correct.\nSo, statement D is correct.\n\nTherefore, statements A and D are correct.\n\nChoose the correct answer from the options given below:\n(1) A, D only\n(2) B, D only\n(3) A, C only\n(4) B, C only\n\nSince A and D are correct, option (1) is the correct answer.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_088", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The given reaction is:\nN\u2082(g) + O\u2082(g) \u21cc 2NO(g)\nThe enthalpy change for the reaction is \u0394H = +180.7 kJ mol\u207b\u00b9. This positive value indicates that the reaction is endothermic.\n\nWe need to determine the conditions that will lead to a higher yield of NO. We will use Le Chatelier's principle.\n\nA. Effect of Temperature:\nSince the reaction is endothermic (\u0394H > 0), an increase in temperature will shift the equilibrium in the direction that absorbs heat, which is the forward reaction (formation of NO). Therefore, a higher temperature will favor a higher yield of NO. So, statement A is correct.\nConversely, a lower temperature would shift the equilibrium towards the exothermic direction (reverse reaction), decreasing the yield of NO. So, statement B is incorrect.\n\nC. Effect of Concentration of N\u2082:\nAccording to Le Chatelier's principle, increasing the concentration of a reactant will shift the equilibrium towards the products to consume the added reactant. N\u2082 is a reactant. Therefore, a higher concentration of N\u2082 will shift the equilibrium to the right, increasing the yield of NO. So, statement C is correct.\n\nD. Effect of Concentration of O\u2082:\nSimilarly, O\u2082 is also a reactant. Increasing the concentration of O\u2082 will shift the equilibrium to the right, increasing the yield of NO. So, statement D is correct.\n\nTherefore, the conditions that favor a higher yield of NO are:\n- Higher temperature (A)\n- Higher concentration of N\u2082 (C)\n- Higher concentration of O\u2082 (D)\n\nSo, statements A, C, and D are correct.\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) A, D only\n(2) B, C only\n(3) B, C, D only\n(4) A, C, D only\n\nOption (4) correctly lists all the conditions that favor a higher yield of NO.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_089", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The unit of the rate constant (s\u207b\u00b9) indicates that this is a first-order reaction.\nFor a first-order reaction, the integrated rate law is given by:\nt = (2.303/k) * log\u2081\u2080([A\u2080]/[A])\nwhere:\nt = time\nk = rate constant\n[A\u2080] = initial concentration of the reactant\n[A] = concentration of the reactant at time t\n\nGiven values:\nk = 0.03 s\u207b\u00b9\n[A\u2080] = 7.2 mol L\u207b\u00b9\n[A] = 0.9 mol L\u207b\u00b9\nlog\u2081\u2080(2) = 0.301\n\nFirst, calculate the ratio of initial to final concentration:\n[A\u2080]/[A] = 7.2 / 0.9 = 72 / 9 = 8\n\nNow, substitute this into the integrated rate_law equation:\nt = (2.303 / 0.03) * log\u2081\u2080(8)\n\nWe need to find log\u2081\u2080(8). Since 8 = 2\u00b3, we have:\nlog\u2081\u2080(8) = log\u2081\u2080(2\u00b3) = 3 * log\u2081\u2080(2)\nGiven log\u2081\u2080(2) = 0.301, so:\nlog\u2081\u2080(8) = 3 * 0.301 = 0.903\n\nNow substitute this value back into the equation for t:\nt = (2.303 / 0.03) * 0.903\n\nLet's perform the calculation:\nt = (2.303 * 0.903) / 0.03\nNumerator: 2.303 * 0.903 = 2.079609\nSo, t = 2.079609 / 0.03\nt = 207.9609 / 3\nt = 69.3203 s\n\nAlternatively, using the half-life method:\nThe concentration changes from 7.2 mol L\u207b\u00b9 to 0.9 mol L\u207b\u00b9. The reduction factor is 7.2 / 0.9 = 8.\nSince 8 = 2\u00b3, this means the reaction has proceeded for 3 half-lives.\nThe half-life (t\u2081/\u2082) for a first-order reaction is given by:\nt\u2081/\u2082 = ln(2) / k\nWe know that ln(2) = 2.303 * log\u2081\u2080(2).\nGiven log\u2081\u2080(2) = 0.301, so:\nln(2) = 2.303 * 0.301 = 0.693203\n\nNow, calculate t\u2081/\u2082:\nt\u2081/\u2082 = 0.693203 / k\nt\u2081/\u2082 = 0.693203 / 0.03 s\u207b\u00b9\nt\u2081/\u2082 = 69.3203 / 3 s\nt\u2081/\u2082 = 23.1067... s \u2248 23.1 s\n\nThe total time taken for 3 half-lives is:\nt = 3 * t\u2081/\u2082\nt = 3 * 23.1067... s\nt = 69.3201... s\n\nRounding to one decimal place, t \u2248 69.3 s.\n\nComparing this with the given options:\n(1) 69.3 s\n(2) 23.1 s\n(3) 210 s\n(4) 21.0 s\n\nThe calculated time is 69.3 s, which matches option (1).\n\nFinal Answer is option (1). The integer number corresponding to this option is 1.\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_090", "subject": "Chemistry", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "Lassaigne's test, also known as the sodium fusion test, is used to detect the presence of nitrogen, sulfur, and halogens in an organic compound. The organic compound is fused with metallic sodium in a fusion tube. This converts the elements present in the organic compound into ionic forms.\n\nLet's examine each reaction:\n\n(1) Na + C + N \u2192 NaCN (upon heating)\n This reaction shows the formation of sodium cyanide when an organic compound containing both carbon and nitrogen is fused with sodium. Sodium cyanide is then tested for the presence of nitrogen (e.g., by forming Prussian blue). This is a fundamental reaction in Lassaigne's test for nitrogen.\n\n(2) 2Na + S \u2192 Na\u2082S (upon heating)\n This reaction shows the formation of sodium sulfide when an organic compound containing sulfur is fused with sodium. Sodium sulfide is then tested for the presence of sulfur (e.g., by reaction with sodium nitroprusside to give a violet color, or with lead acetate to give a black precipitate of lead sulfide). This is a fundamental reaction in Lassaigne's test for sulfur.\n\n(3) Na + X \u2192 NaX (upon heating) (where X = Cl, Br, I)\n This reaction shows the formation of sodium halide when an organic compound containing a halogen (X) is fused with sodium. The sodium halide is then tested for the presence of halogens (e.g., by silver nitrate test after acidification with nitric acid). This is a fundamental reaction in Lassaigne's test for halogens.\n\n(4) 2CuO + C \u2192 2Cu + CO\u2082 (upon heating)\n This reaction shows the oxidation of carbon by copper(II) oxide to produce copper and carbon dioxide. This reaction is used to test for the presence of carbon in an organic compound (e.g., in Liebig's method, where CO\u2082 is detected by passing it through limewater). However, this is not a reaction that occurs during the sodium fusion step of Lassaigne's test. Lassaigne's test specifically involves fusion with sodium metal. This reaction is a separate test for carbon.\n\nTherefore, the reaction that does NOT belong to \"Lassaigne's test\" is reaction (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_091", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_092", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a technique used to amplify a specific segment of DNA. The process involves repeated cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension. In each cycle, the amount of DNA is ideally doubled.\n\nLet's consider the number of DNA molecules at each cycle:\nInitial number of DNA molecules = 1 (assuming we start with one copy for simplicity to find the amplification factor)\nAfter 1 cycle: 1 * 2 = 2 molecules = 2^1\nAfter 2 cycles: 2 * 2 = 4 molecules = 2^2\nAfter 3 cycles: 4 * 2 = 8 molecules = 2^3\nAfter n cycles: 2^n molecules\n\nIf we start with an initial number of DNA molecules, say N_0, then after n cycles, the number of DNA molecules will be N_0 * 2^n.\nThe question asks for the equation that PCR amplifies DNA following. The options are given in terms of 'N' and 'n'. Conventionally, 'n' is used to denote the number of cycles.\n\nLet's examine the given options:\n(1) N^2: This represents a quadratic growth, which is not characteristic of PCR. If N represents the number of cycles, then the amplification is not N^2.\n(2) 2^n: This represents exponential growth, where 'n' is the number of cycles. This is the correct representation of amplification in PCR.\n(3) 2n + 1: This represents linear growth, which is not characteristic of PCR.\n(4) 2N^2: This is also not the correct representation of exponential amplification in PCR.\n\nTherefore, the equation that describes the amplification of DNA in PCR is 2^n, where n is the number of cycles. This represents the number of copies produced from a single template molecule after n cycles.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_093", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The question asks for potential drawbacks in the adoption of the IVF method. Let's analyze each statement:\n\nA. High fatality risk to mother: IVF procedures are generally considered safe. While there are risks like Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS) or complications from egg retrieval, these are usually manageable and high fatality risk is not a common drawback. So, statement A is generally considered incorrect.\n\nB. Expensive instruments and reagents: IVF is a costly procedure. The equipment, medications, laboratory procedures, and skilled personnel contribute to the high cost. This is a significant drawback for many individuals. So, statement B is a valid drawback.\n\nC. Husband/wife necessary for being donors: This statement is not entirely accurate. While IVF is commonly used by heterosexual couples, it can also be utilized by single individuals or same-sex couples using donor gametes. Moreover, if it refers to the need for gametes from both partners in a couple, it's a requirement for having a biological child together, not necessarily a drawback of the method itself, unless one partner is infertile which would necessitate a donor. Thus, this statement is questionable as a general drawback.\n\nD. Less adoption of orphans: It is argued that the availability and success of IVF might lead some couples, who might have otherwise adopted, to pursue biological children. This could potentially lead to fewer adoptions. This can be considered a societal drawback. So, statement D is a plausible drawback.\n\nE. Not available in India: This statement is incorrect. IVF is widely available in India, with numerous clinics across the country.\n\nF. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive: The success rate of IVF is not 100%. Embryo development can be arrested, or embryos may fail to implant after transfer. The possibility of embryo loss is a significant concern and a drawback of the procedure. So, statement F is a valid drawback.\n\nNow let's evaluate the options:\n(1) B, D, F only.\n B - Expensive (Correct drawback)\n D - Less adoption (Plausible societal drawback)\n F - Embryo does not survive (Correct drawback)\n This option includes three plausible drawbacks.\n\n(2) A, C, D, F only.\n A - High fatality risk (Incorrect)\n Therefore, this option is incorrect.\n\n(3) A, B, C, D only.\n A - High fatality risk (Incorrect)\n Therefore, this option is incorrect.\n\n(4) A, B, C, E, F only.\n A - High fatality risk (Incorrect)\n E - Not available in India (Incorrect)\n Therefore, this option is incorrect.\n\nSince options (2), (3), and (4) all contain at least one definitively incorrect statement (A or E), option (1) is the most likely correct answer. This means that the exam considers B, D, and F as potential drawbacks of IVF.\n\nLet's reconfirm B, D, and F:\nB. Expensive instruments and reagents - Economic drawback.\nD. Less adoption of orphans - Societal drawback.\nF. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive - Procedural limitation/drawback related to success rate.\nThese are all reasonable points to consider as drawbacks.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (1).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$.\nAnalyzing the question, statements, and options, the most reasonable answer is (1).\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_094", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog.\n\nLet's analyze the options in the context of vertebrate circulatory systems, specifically frogs.\n\n(1) Aorta: The aorta is a major artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. In frogs, after some mixing of blood in the ventricle, the conus arteriosus and truncus arteriosus distribute blood. The systemic arches (which are part of the aortic system) carry mixed or largely oxygenated blood to the body. So, aorta carries blood *from* the heart to the body, and it's generally oxygenated or mixed. This is incorrect.\n\n(2) Pulmonary artery: Arteries generally carry blood away from the heart. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs (or pulmocutaneous artery to lungs and skin in frogs). So, it carries deoxygenated blood, but it carries it *from* the heart to the lungs, not from the body to the heart. This is incorrect.\n\n(3) Pulmonary vein: Veins generally carry blood towards the heart. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart (specifically, to the left atrium in frogs). So, it carries blood *to* the heart, but it is oxygenated blood from the lungs. This is incorrect.\n\n(4) Vena cava: The vena cavae (plural of vena cava) are large veins that carry deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart. In frogs, there are two anterior vena cavae (precavals) and one posterior vena cava (postcaval) that collect deoxygenated blood from the different parts of the body and deliver it to the sinus venosus, which then opens into the right atrium. Thus, the vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart. This is correct.\n\nTherefore, the correct answer is Vena cava. This corresponds to option (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_095", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the statement that refers to Reductionist Biology.\nReductionism in biology is the approach of understanding complex biological systems or phenomena by breaking them down into their constituent parts and studying these simpler or more fundamental components. The idea is that the properties of the whole can be explained by the sum of the properties of its parts. This often involves looking at the molecular, cellular, and ultimately, the physico-chemical level.\n\nLet's evaluate the given options:\n\n(1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.\nThis approach involves understanding biological processes in terms of physical laws and chemical reactions. For example, explaining muscle contraction through the interaction of proteins, ATP hydrolysis, and ion gradients. This is a hallmark of reductionist biology, as it seeks to explain life at its most fundamental physical and chemical levels.\n\n(2) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.\nPhysiology studies the functions and mechanisms of living organisms. While physiology can employ reductionist methods (e.g., studying the function of a single enzyme or ion channel), it can also be studied at higher levels of organization (e.g., organ systems, whole organism) and can sometimes incorporate holistic perspectives. So, while related, \"physiological approach\" is not as precise in defining reductionism as option (1).\n\n(3) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.\nThis focuses on the chemical components and reactions within living organisms (biochemistry). This is certainly a part of reductionist biology, but reductionism also encompasses physical principles (e.g., thermodynamics, mechanics, electricity in nerve impulses). So, \"chemical approach\" is a subset of the broader \"physico-chemical approach.\"\n\n(4) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.\nBehavioural biology studies the actions and reactions of organisms in response to internal or external stimuli. While some aspects of behaviour can be analyzed reductionistically (e.g., by looking at neural circuits or genetic influences), the study of behaviour often involves considering the organism as a whole interacting with its environment, which can be more holistic.\n\nConsidering the options, the \"physico-chemical approach\" is the most comprehensive and accurate description of reductionist biology. It emphasizes understanding life based on the fundamental principles of physics and chemistry. Modern molecular biology, for instance, is largely reductionist, seeking to explain biological phenomena at the level of molecules and their interactions, which are governed by physico-chemical laws.\n\nTherefore, the statement that best refers to Reductionist Biology is the physico-chemical approach.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_096", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Statement I: \"In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.\"\nThis statement is consistent with the RNA world hypothesis. RNA can store genetic information and also act as an enzyme (ribozyme), fulfilling both roles required for early life. The presence of the 2'-hydroxyl group in ribose makes RNA more reactive and less stable than DNA. Thus, Statement I is correct.\n\nStatement II: \"DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.\"\nThis statement is also correct. It is widely accepted that DNA evolved from RNA. DNA is more stable than RNA, partly due to the deoxyribose sugar (lacking the reactive 2'-OH group) and the use of thymine instead of uracil (which can be formed by deamination of cytosine, leading to mutations if not repaired). The double-stranded structure of DNA provides redundancy and a template for repair mechanisms, contributing to its suitability as a repository of genetic information. The complementary nature of the strands is crucial for these repair mechanisms. Thus, Statement II is correct.\n\nSince both Statement I and Statement II are correct, the most appropriate answer is option (1).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_097", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the type of ecological interaction exemplified by epiphytes growing on a mango branch.\n\nLet's define the given options:\n1. **Commensalism**: A relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.\n2. **Mutualism**: A relationship between two organisms where both organisms benefit.\n3. **Predation**: A relationship where one organism (the predator) kills and eats another organism (the prey).\n4. **Amensalism**: A relationship where one organism is harmed or inhibited, and the other organism is unaffected.\n\nNow let's consider the relationship between epiphytes and a mango branch.\nEpiphytes are plants that grow on other plants (the host) for physical support. They typically do not derive nutrients from the host plant, nor do they harm it significantly. They use the host plant to gain access to sunlight, moisture, and nutrients from the air and rain. Examples include orchids and bromeliads growing on trees.\n\nIn the case of epiphytes growing on a mango branch:\n* The epiphyte benef\u00edcios by getting a place to grow, often higher up in the canopy, which provides better access to sunlight and air circulation.\n* The mango tree (host) is generally not affected by the presence of the epiphyte, as long as the epiphyte population is not so dense as to cause excessive shading or mechanical stress. In a typical commensal relationship, the host is considered unaffected.\n\nTherefore, the epiphyte benefits, and the mango branch is neither harmed nor benefited. This fits the definition of commensalism.\n\nLet's re-evaluate the options based on this understanding:\n(1) **Commensalism**: One benefits (epiphyte), the other is unaffected (mango tree). This matches our analysis.\n(2) **Mutualism**: Both benefit. The mango tree does not significantly benefit from the epiphyte. So, this is incorrect.\n(3) **Predation**: One kills and eats the other. This is clearly not predation.\n(4) **Amensalism**: One is harmed, the other is unaffected. The mango tree is generally not harmed in a typical epiphyte relationship. So, this is incorrect.\n\nThus, epiphytes growing on a mango branch is an example of commensalism.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_098", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_099", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_100", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.\nThis statement is generally true for most ecosystems on Earth. Producers, typically photosynthetic organisms like plants and algae, convert solar energy into chemical energy in the form of organic matter. This organic matter then forms the base of the food web, providing energy for all other organisms in the ecosystem. While some ecosystems, like those around hydrothermal vents, rely on chemosynthesis, solar energy is the predominant primary energy source for the vast majority of ecosystems. So, Statement I is correct.\n\nStatement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).\nPrimary productivity refers to the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophs to organic substances.\nGross Primary Productivity (GPP) is the total rate of photosynthesis, or the total rate at which producers convert solar energy into chemical energy in the form of organic matter.\nNet Primary Productivity (NPP) is the rate at which producers accumulate biomass, which is the GPP minus the rate of energy loss through respiration by the producers (R). So, NPP = GPP - R.\nTherefore, the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is GPP, not NPP. NPP is the organic matter available to consumers after the producers have met their own respiratory needs.\nThus, Statement II is incorrect.\n\nCombining the analysis of both statements:\nStatement I is correct.\nStatement II is incorrect.\n\nNow we evaluate the given options:\n(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (False)\n(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. (False)\n(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (True)\n(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct. (False)\n\nTherefore, the most appropriate answer is option (3).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_101", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The question asks to match the items in List-I with the descriptions in List-II.\n\nList-I:\nA. Emphysema\nB. Angina Pectoris\nC. Glomerulonephritis\nD. Tetany\n\nList-II:\nI. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid\nII. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface\nIII. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle\nIV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney\n\nLet's match each item:\nA. Emphysema is a chronic respiratory disease where the alveolar walls are damaged, leading to a decrease in the respiratory surface area. So, A matches with II.\n\nB. Angina Pectoris is a condition characterized by acute chest pain. This pain occurs when the heart muscle doesn't get enough oxygen-rich blood. So, B matches with III.\n\nC. Glomerulonephritis is a kidney disorder characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli, which are tiny structures in the kidneys that filter blood. So, C matches with IV.\n\nD. Tetany is a condition characterized by involuntary muscle contractions or spasms, often caused by low levels of calcium (Ca++) in the body fluid. So, D matches with I.\n\nSummarizing the matches:\nA - II\nB - III\nC - IV\nD - I\n\nNow let's check the given options:\n(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II\n - A-III is incorrect (Emphysema is II, not III)\n\n(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV\n - A-III is incorrect (Emphysema is II, not III)\n\n(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I\n - A-II is correct.\n - B-IV is incorrect (Angina Pectoris is III, not IV)\n\n(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I\n - A-II (Emphysema - Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface) is correct.\n - B-III (Angina Pectoris - Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle) is correct.\n - C-IV (Glomerulonephritis - Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney) is correct.\n - D-I (Tetany - Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid) is correct.\n\nAll matches in option (4) are correct.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is 4.\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_102", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.\nThis statement is true. Wind and water are abiotic pollinating agents. Flowers pollinated by these agents do not need to attract insects or other animals. Therefore, they are typically inconspicuous, not brightly coloured, and lack nectar and fragrance, as these features are adaptations for attracting biotic pollinators.\n\nReason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.\nThis statement is also true. Pollination by wind (anemophily) and water (hydrophily) is a chance event. To compensate for the uncertainty and high wastage of pollen grains during transit, these plants produce a very large quantity of pollen. This increases the probability of pollen landing on a receptive stigma.\n\nNow, we need to determine if Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).\nAssertion (A) describes the characteristics of flowers (lack of colour and nectar). The reason for these characteristics is that these flowers do not need to attract animal pollinators, so investing energy in producing attractive features like bright colours and nectar would be wasteful.\nReason (R) describes another adaptation of these flowers (production of enormous pollen). The reason for producing a large amount of pollen is to overcome the inefficiency and randomness of abiotic pollination and to ensure that at least some pollen grains reach the stigma.\n\nWhile both statements are true and pertain to wind and water pollinated flowers, the production of enormous amounts of pollen (R) is not the direct reason why these flowers are not colourful and do not produce nectar (A). The lack of colour and nectar is due to the absence of a need to attract biotic pollinators. The production of copious pollen is a strategy to ensure pollination success given the abiotic mode of pollen transfer.\n\nTherefore, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A).\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (False, R is not the correct explanation of A)\n(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (True)\n(3) A is true but R is false. (False, R is true)\n(4) A is false but R is true. (False, A is true)\n\nThe correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_103", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_104", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "Let's analyze Statement I: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary.\"\n- The symbol \u2295 represents actinomorphic symmetry (radial symmetry), not zygomorphic symmetry. Zygomorphic symmetry is usually represented by % or sometimes \u2193 or \u2191. So, the first part of Statement I is incorrect.\n- The symbol G\u0332 (G underlined) represents an inferior ovary. This means the ovary is below the other floral whorls, and the line is drawn above the G ( G\u0305 ) or the G is underlined. However, some conventions might use G\u0332 where the line indicates the position of other floral parts above the ovary. Let's recheck standard notation.\n - Superior ovary: G or G_ (G with a line beneath it indicating the position of other floral parts)\n - Inferior ovary: G\u0305 (G with a line above it) or (G) (G enclosed in a circle) or G\u0332 when the line indicates the floral parts are above the G. Textbooks can vary, but a common convention for inferior ovary is G\u0305 or G with a line above it. If G\u0332 means the line is above the G, then it is inferior. However, G with a line below it usually means superior. Let's assume the question means G with a line *under* it represents the position *of* the ovary relative to the line. So if the line is under G, G is above the line, making it superior. If the line were above G, or if G is below the line, it would be inferior. The notation G\u0332 typically means the carpels are superior and the line is below G, indicating the position of insertion of other floral whorls.\n Let's assume G\u0332 specifically means inferior ovary as stated in the question text. However, the first part of Statement I (\u2295 for zygomorphic) is definitely incorrect. Thus, Statement I as a whole is incorrect.\n\nLet's analyze Statement II: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.\"\n- The symbol \u2295 represents actinomorphic symmetry. This part is correct.\n- The symbol G (without any line) or G_ (G with a line beneath it) represents a superior ovary. So, G standing for superior ovary is correct. For example, G(n) or G_n refers to a superior ovary.\n- Therefore, Statement II is correct.\n\nSummary of correctness:\nStatement I: Incorrect (\u2295 is actinomorphic, not zygomorphic). Even if G\u0332 is considered inferior, the first part makes the whole statement incorrect.\nStatement II: Correct (\u2295 is actinomorphic, and G represents superior ovary).\n\nLet's reconfirm the symbols:\nActinomorphic: \u2295 or *\nZygomorphic: % or \u2193 or \u2191 or Z\nSuperior ovary: G or G_ (G with a line below it)\nInferior ovary: G\u0305 (G with a line above it) or (G) or sometimes G\u0332 if the line represents the level of other whorls relative to the ovary. However, G\u0332 (G underlined) is standard for superior ovary. Let's clarify G\u0332. If the line below G represents the torus from which other floral parts arise, then G is superior. If G is below the line, it's inferior.\n\nLet's assume common conventions:\n\u2295 = Actinomorphic\n% = Zygomorphic\nG = Superior ovary (typically)\nG_ = Superior ovary (line below G)\nG\u0305 = Inferior ovary (line above G)\nG\u0332 = Can be ambiguous, but if it means the ovary is under the line, it's inferior. If it means the line is under G, it's superior.\n\nLet's go with the provided text literally for the G part, if the symbol part is clear.\nStatement I: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower...\" This is false. \u2295 is actinomorphic. \"...and G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary.\" Let's assume G\u0332 means inferior ovary for the sake of argument, even if G\u0305 is more standard. But since the first part is false, Statement I is false.\n\nStatement II: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower...\" This is true. \"...and G stands for superior ovary.\" This is true. G without any adornment, or with a line below it G_, indicates superior ovary.\n\nSo, Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.\n\nThis corresponds to option (4).\n\nLet's double check the meaning of G\u0332.\nNCERT textbook symbolism:\nActinomorphic: \u2295\nZygomorphic: %\nSuperior ovary: G (with a line below it: G_)\nInferior ovary: G (with a line above it: G\u0305)\nHalf-inferior ovary: G\u2014 (G with a line in the middle)\n\nBased on NCERT:\nStatement I: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower...\" (False, \u2295 is actinomorphic). \"...and G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary.\" (False, G\u0332 is superior ovary). So, Statement I is incorrect on both counts.\n\nStatement II: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower...\" (True). \"...and G stands for superior ovary.\" (True, G often implies superior, or G_ is superior). So, Statement II is correct.\n\nTherefore, Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.\nThis means option (4) is the correct answer.\n\nLet\u2019s reconfirm the standard symbols used in floral formulas:\nSymmetry:\nActinomorphic (radial symmetry): \u2295 or *\nZygomorphic (bilateral symmetry): % or \u2193 or X or Z\n\nPosition of Ovary:\nSuperior ovary: G or G_n (G with a line below it, n is the number of carpels)\nInferior ovary: G\u0305n (G with a line above it) or (G)n (G enclosed in a circle)\nHalf-inferior ovary: G\u2014n (G with a line through the middle)\n\nRevisiting Statement I: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary.\"\n- \"\u2295 stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower\" is FALSE. \u2295 stands for actinomorphic.\n- \"G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary.\" According to standard notation (e.g., NCERT), G_ (G with a line below it) stands for SUPERIOR ovary. So, \"G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary\" is also FALSE.\nThus, Statement I is incorrect.\n\nRevisiting Statement II: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.\"\n- \"\u2295 stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower\" is TRUE.\n- \"G stands for superior ovary.\" G alone, or G_, signifies a superior ovary. So, this is TRUE.\nThus, Statement II is correct.\n\nConclusion: Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.\nThis matches option (4).\n\nLet's consider the possibility that G\u0332 in Statement I could be interpreted differently in some contexts, but given the common standards, especially those relevant to NEET (which often follows NCERT), G\u0332 is superior. However, even if we were to assume G\u0332 meant inferior for the sake of argument for that part of the statement, the first part of Statement I (\u2295 for zygomorphic) is unequivocally false. Therefore, Statement I is definitely incorrect.\n\nStatement II seems robustly correct based on standard symbols.\n\nSo, the conclusion remains: Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.\nOption (1): Both statement I and statement II are correct - False.\nOption (2): Both statement I and statement II are incorrect - False.\nOption (3): Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect - False.\nOption (4): Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct - True.\n\nThe correct option is 4.\n\nFinal check of the question and options. The question asks to choose the most appropriate answer.\nStatement I: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary.\"\nPart 1: \u2295 for zygomorphic. This is incorrect. \u2295 is for actinomorphic.\nPart 2: G\u0332 for inferior ovary. If G\u0332 means G with a line below it, it represents superior ovary. So this is incorrect.\nTherefore, Statement I is incorrect.\n\nStatement II: \"In a floral formula \u2295 stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.\"\nPart 1: \u2295 for actinomorphic. This is correct.\nPart 2: G for superior ovary. This is correct. G (by itself) or G_ (G with a line below) represents superior ovary.\nTherefore, Statement II is correct.\n\nSo, Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.\nThis corresponds to option (4).\n\nThe reasoning seems consistent and based on standard biological conventions for floral formulas.\n\nThe final answer is option (4).\n\nThe final answer should be the integer number corresponding to the correct option.\nOption (1) corresponds to 1.\nOption (2) corresponds to 2.\nOption (3) corresponds to 3.\nOption (4) corresponds to 4.\n\nSince option (4) is correct, the integer is 4.\n\n4\n\nThe prompt asks for the single integer number.\nThe options are:\n(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct\n(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect\n(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect\n(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct\n\nMy analysis:\nStatement I is INCORRECT.\nStatement II is CORRECT.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (4).\nThe integer corresponding to option (4) is 4.\n\nThe symbol G\u0332 (G with a line below it) is typically used for superior ovary. The symbol for inferior ovary is G\u0305 (G with a line above it). So, the second part of Statement I is also incorrect. Therefore, Statement I is doubly incorrect.\nStatement II: \u2295 stands for actinomorphic (correct). G stands for superior ovary (correct). So Statement II is correct.\nThus, option (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct, is the correct choice.\n\nFinal confirmation:\nStatement I:\n\u2295 for zygomorphic: False (\u2295 is actinomorphic)\nG\u0332 for inferior ovary: False (G\u0332 is superior ovary)\nSince both parts are false, Statement I is False.\n\nStatement II:\n\u2295 for actinomorphic: True\nG for superior ovary: True (G or G_)\nSince both parts are true, Statement II is True.\n\nConclusion: Statement I is False, Statement II is True.\nOption (4) states: Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct. This matches our findings.\n\nThe integer corresponding to option (4) is 4.\n\nThe problem only asks for the integer number as the answer.\nSo the answer is 4.\n\nConsider any ambiguity. The symbol G\u0332 might be ambiguous if the line is intended to represent the position of other whorls relative to the ovary, and G is written *above* the line. But the standard typographic representation G_ means G is superior. If the question *meant* that the other floral parts are inserted above the ovary, then G is inferior and the line would be above G if it represents the insertion point, or G would be written below the line. However, G underlined (G\u0332) is very commonly used to denote superior ovary. Given the clarity of the \u2295 symbol error in Statement I, Statement I is definitively incorrect regardless of G\u0332 interpretation.\n\nStatement II uses G for superior ovary. This is standard. G without any line, or G with a line below it, denotes superior ovary.\n\nSo the analysis holds.\n\nThe integer is 4.\n\nThe final answer must be enclosed in tags.\nThe answer is 4.\n\nDouble-check the question image and text.\nQuestion 104. Given below are two statements:\nStatement I: In a floral formula \u2295 stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G\u0332 stands for inferior ovary.\nStatement II: In a floral formula \u2295 stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary.\nIn the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:\n(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct\n(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect\n(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect\n(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct\n\nThe analysis has been done carefully.\n\n\u2295: Actinomorphic (radial symmetry)\n%: Zygomorphic (bilateral symmetry)\nK: Calyx (sepals)\nC: Corolla (petals)\nP: Perianth (tepals)\nA: Androecium (stamens)\nG: Gynoecium (carpels)\nG_: Superior ovary\nG\u0305: Inferior ovary\nG-: Half-inferior ovary\nBr: Bracteate\nEbr: Ebracteate\nBrl: Bracteolate\nEbrl: Ebracteolate\n\u2642: Staminate flower (male)\n\u2640: Pistillate flower (", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_105", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_106", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the human chromosome with the highest number of genes. Let's consider the options:\n\n(1) Chromosome X: Chromosome X is a sex chromosome. It is significantly larger than the Y chromosome and contains a substantial number of genes, estimated to be around 800-900.\n\n(2) Chromosome Y: Chromosome Y is the other sex chromosome and is one of the smallest human chromosomes. It has the fewest genes, estimated to be around 50-60.\n\n(3) Chromosome 1: Chromosome 1 is the largest human chromosome. As a general rule, larger chromosomes tend to have more genes. Chromosome 1 is known to have the highest number of genes among all human chromosomes, estimated to be over 2000 (the exact number can vary slightly depending on the annotation, but it is consistently the highest).\n\n(4) Chromosome 10: Chromosome 10 is an autosomal chromosome. It is smaller than Chromosome 1 and has fewer genes. The estimated number of genes on Chromosome 10 is around 700-800.\n\nComparing these, Chromosome 1 has the highest number of genes.\n\nFinal Answer is Chromosome 1. This corresponds to option (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_107", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_108", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the phytohormone that promotes nutrient mobilization and helps in the delay of leaf senescence. Let's consider the roles of the given phytohormones:\n\n(1) **Ethylene:** Ethylene is primarily involved in fruit ripening, senescence, and abscission. It generally promotes senescence, not delays it.\n\n(2) **Abscisic acid (ABA):** ABA is a stress hormone that promotes stomatal closure, dormancy, and senescence. It promotes leaf senescence and abscission.\n\n(3) **Gibberellin:** Gibberellins promote stem elongation, seed germination, and flowering. While they can sometimes delay senescence in certain contexts, they are not as prominently known for nutrient mobilization and delaying leaf senescence as cytokinins.\n\n(4) **Cytokinin:** Cytokinins are known to promote cell division, delay senescence (the Richmond-Lang effect), and promote nutrient mobilization towards the regions where they are present. By mobilizing nutrients to the leaves, cytokinins help maintain their metabolic activity and delay their aging. This directly addresses both aspects mentioned in the question: nutrient mobilization and delay of leaf senescence.\n\nBased on the functions of phytohormones, cytokinin is the hormone that promotes nutrient mobilization, which in turn helps in the delay of leaf senescence.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_109", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_110", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_111", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The life cycle of a pteridophyte involves an alternation of generations between a diploid sporophyte and a haploid gametophyte. Let's trace the sequence of events from the given options:\n\nB. Meiosis in spore mother cells: The mature sporophyte (the dominant plant body in pteridophytes) bears sporangia. Within the sporangia, spore mother cells undergo meiosis to produce haploid spores. This is the beginning of the gametophytic generation.\n\nA. Prothallus stage: The haploid spores germinate to form a free-living, inconspicuous, multicellular gametophyte called the prothallus.\n\nD. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte: The prothallus (gametophyte) bears the sex organs. Antheridia are the male sex organs that produce antherozoids (male gametes), and archegonia are the female sex organs that produce the egg (female gamete).\n\nE. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water: Pteridophytes require water for fertilization. The antherozoids are motile and swim through water to reach the archegonia.\n\nC. Fertilisation: Fertilization occurs when an antherozoid fuses with the egg inside the archegonium to form a diploid zygote. The zygote develops into a new sporophyte, thus completing the life cycle.\n\nSo, the correct sequence of the given stages is:\n1. B (Meiosis in spore mother cells)\n2. A (Prothallus stage - development from spore)\n3. D (Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte)\n4. E (Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water)\n5. C (Fertilisation)\n\nThis sequence is B -> A -> D -> E -> C.\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) B, A, D, E, C\n(2) B, A, E, C, D\n(3) D, E, C, A, B\n(4) E, D, C, B, A\n\nOption (1) matches the determined correct sequence.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_112", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The question asks about the factors that regulate cardiac activities of the heart. Let's analyze each statement:\n\nA. Nodal tissue: The heart is myogenic, meaning its rhythmic contraction is initiated by specialized muscle tissue within the heart itself. The sinoatrial (SA) node acts as the primary pacemaker, and other nodal tissues (like the AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers) are involved in conducting the impulse. This is intrinsic regulation of cardiac activity. So, statement A is correct.\n\nB. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata: The cardiovascular control center located in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem regulates heart rate and contractility via the autonomic nervous system. Sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and contractility, while parasympathetic stimulation (via the vagus nerve) decreases heart rate. This is extrinsic neural regulation. So, statement B is correct.\n\nC. Adrenal medullary hormones: The adrenal medulla secretes hormones like adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). These hormones, particularly epinephrine, are released into the bloodstream during stress (fight-or-flight response) and can increase heart rate, force of contraction, and thus cardiac output. This is extrinsic hormonal regulation. So, statement C is correct.\n\nD. Adrenal cortical hormones: The adrenal cortex secretes hormones such as glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol) and mineralocorticoids (e.g., aldosterone).\n - Mineralocorticoids like aldosterone primarily regulate salt and water balance, which affects blood volume and blood pressure. While blood pressure influences cardiac workload, aldosterone's effect on cardiac *activity* (rate, contractility) is indirect and long-term.\n - Glucocorticoids like cortisol have various metabolic effects and can play a permissive role in the cardiovascular system, for example, by sensitizing blood vessels and the heart to the effects of catecholamines. However, their role in the direct, moment-to-moment regulation of cardiac activities like heart rate and contractility is not as prominent or direct as that of adrenal medullary hormones or neural control. In the context of primary regulators of cardiac activity, adrenal cortical hormones are usually not listed alongside the others.\n\nConsidering the primary and direct regulators of cardiac activity as typically taught:\n1. Intrinsic regulation by nodal tissue (myogenic nature).\n2. Extrinsic regulation by the autonomic nervous system (controlled by the medulla oblongata).\n3. Extrinsic regulation by hormones, especially from the adrenal medulla (catecholamines).\n\nBased on this, statements A, B, and C are clearly correct. Statement D, referring to adrenal cortical hormones, is less directly involved in the regulation of cardiac *activities* (like heart rate and contractility) compared to A, B, and C.\n\nNow let's look at the options:\n(1) A, B and C Only.\n(2) A, B, C and D\n(3) A, C and D Only\n(4) A, B and D Only\n\nGiven that A, B, and C are definitively correct and D is less directly involved in regulating immediate cardiac activities, option (1) appears to be the most accurate choice. NCERT textbooks emphasize the roles of nodal tissue, the neural center in the medulla, and adrenal medullary hormones in regulating cardiac activity. Adrenal cortical hormones are not typically highlighted in this specific context of direct regulation of heart activity.\n\nTherefore, the correct answer includes A, B, and C.\n\nFinal check:\n- Nodal tissue (SA node, AV node): Yes, fundamental for heart's rhythm.\n- Neural centre in medulla oblongata (ANS): Yes, modulates heart rate and contractility.\n- Adrenal medullary hormones (epinephrine, norepinephrine): Yes, increases heart rate and contractility.\n- Adrenal cortical hormones (cortisol, aldosterone): Less direct. Aldosterone affects blood volume/pressure. Cortisol can have permissive effects. Not primary regulators of beat-to-beat cardiac activity.\n\nThus, A, B, and C are the most appropriate regulators to include.\n\nOption (1) states A, B and C Only. This aligns with our analysis.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_113", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "1. **Analyze Azotobacter (A):** Azotobacter is a genus of free-living, aerobic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria. So, Azotobacter *can* fix nitrogen.\n\n2. **Analyze Oscillatoria (B):** Oscillatoria is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria. Many cyanobacteria, including some species of Oscillatoria, are capable of nitrogen fixation. So, Oscillatoria *can* fix nitrogen.\n\n3. **Analyze Anabaena (C):** Anabaena is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria that are known for their nitrogen-fixing abilities, often occurring in specialized cells called heterocysts. So, Anabaena *can* fix nitrogen.\n\n4. **Analyze Volvox (D):** Volvox is a genus of colonial green algae. Green algae (Chlorophyta) are eukaryotic organisms and generally do not possess the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen. Nitrogen fixation is primarily a prokaryotic process. So, Volvox *cannot* fix nitrogen.\n\n5. **Analyze Nostoc (E):** Nostoc is another genus of cyanobacteria that forms colonies and is well-known for its nitrogen-fixing capabilities, also often involving heterocysts. So, Nostoc *can* fix nitrogen.\n\nThe question asks which of the following organisms *cannot* fix nitrogen. From the analysis above, Volvox (D) is the organism that cannot fix nitrogen.\n\nNow, we need to choose the correct option from the given choices:\n(1) A only\n(2) D only\n(3) B only\n(4) E only\n\nSince D (Volvox) is the only organism listed that cannot fix nitrogen, the correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_114", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_115", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_116", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_117", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The question describes a chemical reaction catalyzed by an enzyme:\nS-G + S# \u2192 S + S#-G\n\nWhere:\n- S is a substrate.\n- S# is another substrate.\n- G is a group other than hydrogen.\n\nIn this reaction, the group G is initially attached to substrate S (forming S-G). After the reaction, group G is attached to substrate S# (forming S#-G), and substrate S is left alone. This means that the group G has been transferred from S to S#.\n\nNow let's consider the classes of enzymes provided as options:\n\n1. **Hydrolase:** Hydrolases catalyze the hydrolysis of a chemical bond, meaning they break a bond by adding a water molecule. The given reaction does not explicitly show the involvement of water in breaking or forming bonds in this manner.\n\n2. **Lyase:** Lyases catalyze the cleavage of C-C, C-O, C-N, and other bonds by elimination, leaving double bonds or rings, or conversely adding groups to double bonds. The reaction shown is a transfer of a group, not a cleavage leading to a double bond or addition across a double bond.\n\n3. **Transferase:** Transferases catalyze the transfer of a functional group (e.g., a methyl group, acyl group, amino group, or phosphate group) from one molecule (the donor) to another molecule (the acceptor). In the given reaction, the group G is transferred from S (donor) to S# (acceptor). This fits the definition of a transferase.\n\n4. **Ligase:** Ligases catalyze the joining of two molecules with the formation of new chemical bonds (e.g., C-O, C-S, C-N, C-C bonds), usually with the concomitant hydrolysis of a high-energy phosphate bond in ATP or another nucleotide. The reaction shown is a transfer of a group, not the joining of two separate molecules to form a larger one.\n\nBased on the definition, the enzyme catalyzing the transfer of group G from substrate S to substrate S# belongs to the class **Transferase**.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_118", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_119", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The life cycle of bryophytes includes the following stages in sequence:\n1. The haploid spores germinate to form a gametophyte. The gametophyte is the dominant, free-living, photosynthetic phase.\n2. The gametophyte attaches to the substratum (B).\n3. The gametophyte bears antheridia (male sex organs) and archegonia (female sex organs).\n4. Antheridia produce biflagellate antherozoids (male gametes). Archegonia produce a single egg (female gamete).\n5. Antherozoids are released into water (E) where they swim to the archegonium.\n6. Fusion of an antherozoid with the egg (fertilization) occurs inside the archegonium, resulting in the formation of a diploid zygote (A).\n7. The zygote develops into a multicellular sporophyte (D). The sporophyte is not free-living but is attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.\n8. Some cells of the sporophyte undergo reduction division (meiosis) to produce haploid spores (C).\n9. These spores are dispersed, and upon germination, they develop into new gametophytes, thus completing the life cycle.\n\nSo the correct sequence of the given events is:\nB. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.\nE. Release of antherozoids into water.\nA. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.\nD. Formation of sporophyte.\nC. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.\n\nThis sequence is B, E, A, D, C.\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) D, E, A, C, B\n(2) B, E, A, C, D\n(3) B, E, A, D, C\n(4) D, E, A, B, C\n\nOption (3) matches our derived sequence.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_120", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.\nThis statement is **correct**. CT scans and MRI are widely used imaging techniques for detecting and staging cancers in various internal organs.\n\nB. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.\nThis statement is **incorrect**. Chemotherapeutic drugs are designed to kill cancerous (rapidly dividing) cells. While they can also damage healthy, rapidly dividing non-cancerous cells (leading to side effects), their primary purpose is to target cancer cells, not to specifically kill non-cancerous cells.\n\nC. $\\alpha$-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.\nThis statement is **correct**. Alpha-interferon is a type of immunotherapy. It is a cytokine that can stimulate the activity of certain immune cells, such as natural killer cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes, to help the body fight cancer.\n\nD. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.\nThis statement is **incorrect**. Chemotherapeutic drugs are cytotoxic agents that directly kill cancer cells or inhibit their growth. Biological response modifiers (BRMs) are substances that modify the body's biological response to cancer, often by stimulating the immune system. While some treatments might combine chemotherapy with BRMs, chemotherapeutic drugs themselves are generally not classified as BRMs. Alpha-interferon, mentioned in statement C, is an example of a BRM.\n\nE. In the case of leukaemia blood cells counts are decreased.\nThis statement is **incorrect** as a general statement for all blood cells or as the defining characteristic. Leukaemia is a cancer of blood-forming tissues, including bone marrow, and typically involves the overproduction of abnormal white blood cells. While the proliferation of these abnormal cells can crowd out and lead to a decrease in normal red blood cells (anemia) and platelets (thrombocytopenia), and even normal white blood cells, the hallmark of leukaemia is often a very high count of abnormal white blood cells. So, stating \"blood cells counts are decreased\" is misleading and not universally true for all blood cell types, and especially not for the cancerous cells themselves.\n\nBased on the analysis:\nStatement A is correct.\nStatement B is incorrect.\nStatement C is correct.\nStatement D is incorrect.\nStatement E is incorrect.\n\nTherefore, the correct statements are A and C.\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) B and D only - Incorrect\n(2) D and E only - Incorrect\n(3) C and D only - Incorrect\n(4) A and C only - Correct\n\nThe correct option is (4).\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_121", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "List-I:\nA. Centromere\nB. Cilium\nC. Cristae\nD. Cell membrane\n\nList-II:\nI. Mitochondrion\nII. Cell division\nIII. Cell movement\nIV. Phospholipid Bilayer\n\nLet's match each item from List-I to the appropriate item in List-II:\n\nA. Centromere: The centromere is the constricted region of a chromosome that holds the two sister chromatids together. During cell division, spindle fibers attach to the centromere (more specifically, to the kinetochore, which is a protein complex assembled on the centromere) to separate the sister chromatids. Therefore, centromere is associated with **II. Cell division**.\n\nB. Cilium: Cilia are hair-like organelles that extend from the surface of many animal cells. Their primary function is either to move the cell itself or to move substances over or around the cell. Therefore, cilium is associated with **III. Cell movement**.\n\nC. Cristae: Cristae are the folds in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. These folds increase the surface area of the inner membrane, which is where the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis occur during cellular respiration. Therefore, cristae are a characteristic feature of **I. Mitochondrion**.\n\nD. Cell membrane: The cell membrane (plasma membrane) is a biological membrane that separates the interior of all cells from the outside environment. The fundamental structure of the cell membrane is the phospholipid bilayer, which forms a stable barrier between two aqueous compartments. Therefore, cell membrane is associated with **IV. Phospholipid Bilayer**.\n\nSo, the correct matches are:\nA - II\nB - III\nC - I\nD - IV\n\nNow let's check the given options:\n(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV\nThis option matches A with Mitochondrion, which is incorrect.\n\n(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III\nThis option matches A with Cell division (correct), B with Mitochondrion (incorrect).\n\n(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I\nThis option matches A with Phospholipid Bilayer (incorrect).\n\n(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV\nThis option matches:\nA - II (Centromere - Cell division) - Correct\nB - III (Cilium - Cell movement) - Correct\nC - I (Cristae - Mitochondrion) - Correct\nD - IV (Cell membrane - Phospholipid Bilayer) - Correct\n\nAll matches in option (4) are correct.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (4).\n\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_122", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Step-by-step derivation:\n1. **Analyze List-I and List-II:**\n * List-I contains different types of pigments: Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls, and Carotenoids.\n * List-II contains various colors: Yellow-green, Yellow, Blue-green, and Yellow to Yellow-orange.\n\n2. **Match each pigment in List-I with its characteristic color from List-II:**\n * **A. Chlorophyll a:** This pigment is primarily responsible for the blue-green color observed in chromatograms of leaf pigments. So, A matches III (Blue-green).\n * **B. Chlorophyll b:** This pigment appears yellow-green in a chromatogram. So, B matches I (Yellow-green).\n * **C. Xanthophylls:** These are accessory pigments and are yellow in color. So, C matches II (Yellow).\n * **D. Carotenoids:** These are also accessory pigments and range in color from yellow to yellow-orange (and even orange or red, though \"yellow to yellow-orange\" is provided). So, D matches IV (Yellow to Yellow-orange).\n\n3. **Consolidate the correct matches:**\n * A - III\n * B - I\n * C - II\n * D - IV\n\n4. **Compare these matches with the given options:**\n * **(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I**\n * A-III: Correct (Chlorophyll a - Blue-green)\n * B-IV: Incorrect (Chlorophyll b is Yellow-green (I), not Yellow to Yellow-orange (IV))\n * **(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV**\n * A-III: Correct (Chlorophyll a - Blue-green)\n * B-I: Correct (Chlorophyll b - Yellow-green)\n * C-II: Correct (Xanthophylls - Yellow)\n * D-IV: Correct (Carotenoids - Yellow to Yellow-orange)\n This option has all correct matches.\n * **(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III**\n * A-I: Incorrect (Chlorophyll a is Blue-green (III), not Yellow-green (I))\n * **(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II**\n * A-I: Incorrect (Chlorophyll a is Blue-green (III), not Yellow-green (I))\n\n5. **Identify the correct option number:** Option (2) is the one with all correct matches.\n\nTherefore, the single integer number corresponding to the correct option is 2.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_123", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the correct statements about human pregnancy. Let's analyze each statement:\n\nStatement A: \"In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.\"\nThis statement refers to the end of the first trimester. By this time, most major organ systems have formed. For example, limbs and external genital organs are well-developed. This statement is generally considered correct.\n\nStatement B: \"In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.\"\nBy the end of 8 weeks (the end of the second month), significant organ development has occurred and the embryo is now called a fetus. However, the statement \"major organ systems are formed\" is more accurately associated with the end of the first trimester (12 weeks). While organogenesis is largely complete by 8 weeks in terms of laying down the basic structures, further development and maturation occur. If statement A is considered correct and more precise, then statement B would be less accurate or incorrect in comparison. Textbooks like NCERT specify that by the end of 12 weeks, most of the major organ systems are formed.\n\nStatement C: \"In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.\"\nThe heart begins to form and beat around the 4th week of gestation, which is after one month. So, this statement is correct.\n\nStatement D: \"In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.\"\nThe end of the second month is approximately 8 weeks. By this time, limbs and digits are developed. So, this statement is correct.\n\nStatement E: \"In human pregnancy the appearance of hair usually observed in the fifth month.\"\nHair on the head and body (lanugo) typically appears during the fifth month of gestation. So, this statement is correct.\n\nBased on the analysis, statements A, C, D, and E are correct. Statement B is incorrect as the formation of major organ systems is more comprehensively completed by the end of 12 weeks (statement A).\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) A and E Only - Incorrect, as C and D are also correct.\n(2) B and C Only - Incorrect, as B is incorrect and A, D, E are correct.\n(3) B, C, D and E Only - Incorrect, as B is incorrect and A is correct.\n(4) A, C, D and E Only - This option includes all the statements we identified as correct.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (4).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_124", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_125", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the correct diagram showing the transport processes in the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubules of the nephron.\nArrows pointing upwards from the tubule lumen represent reabsorption into the blood.\nArrows pointing downwards into the tubule lumen represent secretion from the blood.\n\nLet's analyze the functions of the Proximal Tubule (P) and Distal Tubule (D):\n\n**Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT):**\n* **Reabsorption:** Major site for reabsorption.\n * Reabsorbs about 65-70% of filtered Na+, Cl-, K+, and water.\n * Reabsorbs nearly all filtered glucose and amino acids.\n * Reabsorbs a significant amount of HCO3-.\n* **Secretion:**\n * Secretes H+ ions (important for HCO3- reabsorption and acid-base balance).\n * Secretes NH3 (ammonia).\n * Secretes organic acids and bases (e.g., drugs).\n\n**Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT):**\n* **Reabsorption:**\n * Reabsorbs Na+ and Cl- (about 5-10% of filtered load).\n * Reabsorbs Ca2+ (regulated by parathyroid hormone).\n * Late DCT and collecting duct: Reabsorbs Na+ (regulated by aldosterone) and water (regulated by ADH). Reabsorbs HCO3-.\n* **Secretion:**\n * Secretes K+ ions (regulated by aldosterone).\n * Secretes H+ ions (important for acid-base balance).\n\nNow let's evaluate each option:\n\n**Option (1):**\n* **P:**\n * Reabsorption: HCO3- (up), NaCl (up) - Correct.\n * Secretion: H+ (down) - Correct. H2O (down) - Incorrect. Water is reabsorbed (should be up arrow) in PCT.\n* **D:**\n * Reabsorption: NaCl (up), H2O (up), HCO3- (up) - Correct.\n * Secretion: K+ (down), H+ (down) - Correct.\n *Since P is incorrect, option (1) is incorrect.*\n\n**Option (2):**\n* **P:**\n * Reabsorption: HCO3- (up), NaCl (up), H2O (up) - Correct.\n * Secretion: H+ (down), NH3 (down) - Correct.\n* **D:**\n * Reabsorption: NaCl (up), H2O (up), HCO3- (up) - Correct (water and NaCl reabsorption here are conditional/regulated).\n * Secretion: K+ (down), H+ (down) - Correct.\n *This option appears correct for both P and D.*\n\n**Option (3):**\n* **P:**\n * Reabsorption: HCO3- (up), NaCl (up), H2O (up) - Correct.\n * Secretion: H+ (down), NH3 (down) - Correct.\n* **D:**\n * Reabsorption: H2O (up), HCO3- (up) - Correct.\n * Secretion: NaCl (down) - Incorrect. NaCl is reabsorbed in DCT (should be up arrow). H+ (down) - Correct.\n *Since D is incorrect (NaCl secretion), option (3) is incorrect.*\n\n**Option (4):**\n* **P:**\n * Reabsorption: NaCl (up), HCO3- (up) - Correct.\n * Secretion: H+ (down) - Correct. H2O (down) - Incorrect. Water is reabsorbed (should be up arrow).\n* **D:**\n * Reabsorption: NaCl (up) - Correct. NH3 (up) - Incorrect. NH3 is primarily secreted or synthesized in tubular cells and secreted, not reabsorbed as a major process in DCT.\n * Secretion: K+ (down) - Correct. H2O (down) - Incorrect. Water is reabsorbed if ADH is present (should be up arrow).\n *Since P (H2O secretion) and D (NH3 reabsorption and H2O secretion) are incorrect, option (4) is incorrect.*\n\nBased on the analysis, Option (2) accurately depicts the major transport processes in both the proximal and distal tubules.\n\nFinal check:\nOption (2) shows for P: Reabsorption of HCO3-, NaCl, H2O; Secretion of H+, NH3. All are correct.\nOption (2) shows for D: Reabsorption of NaCl, H2O, HCO3-; Secretion of K+, H+. All are correct.\n\nTherefore, option (2) is the correct answer.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_126", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.\nLet's analyze the labeled parts:\nA: This represents the impellers or agitators, which are mounted on a central shaft and rotate to mix the contents of the bioreactor. Impellers are primarily for mixing and oxygen transfer, but the topmost impeller or a specially designed impeller can also act as a mechanical foam breaker by physically disrupting the foam.\nB: This is an outlet at the top of the bioreactor, likely for exhaust gases. It is not a foam breaker.\nC: This is a port on the side of the bioreactor, probably for adding nutrients, acid/base for pH control, or taking samples. It is not a foam breaker.\nD: This is an outlet at the bottom of the bioreactor, typically used for harvesting the product or removing spent medium. It is not a foam breaker.\n\nFoam formation is common in bioreactors due to aeration and agitation of proteinaceous media. Excessive foam can cause problems like overflow, contamination, and reduced working volume. Therefore, foam control systems are essential. Mechanical foam breakers are commonly used, which are often rotating devices that physically break the foam bubbles. In many stirred tank bioreactors, the agitator system itself, particularly the uppermost impellers, can be designed or positioned to break foam. Given the options, A (impellers) is the most plausible part that functions as a foam breaker.\n\nLooking at the options:\n(1) A\n(2) B\n(3) D\n(4) C\n\nBased on the function of the parts, A (impellers) is the component that can act as a foam breaker. The other options are inlets/outlets and do not serve this purpose.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_127", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "**Step-by-step analysis:**\n\n1. **Analyze Assertion (A):** \"A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.\"\n * A mature angiosperm embryo sac (Polygonum type) consists of:\n * **Egg apparatus** at the micropylar end: 1 egg cell and 2 synergids (total 3 cells, each with 1 nucleus = 3 nuclei).\n * **Antipodal cells** at the chalazal end: 3 antipodal cells (total 3 cells, each with 1 nucleus = 3 nuclei).\n * **Central cell**: A large central cell containing 2 polar nuclei.\n * Total number of cells = 1 (egg) + 2 (synergids) + 3 (antipodals) + 1 (central cell) = 7 cells.\n * Total number of nuclei = 1 (in egg) + 2 (in synergids) + 3 (in antipodals) + 2 (polar nuclei in central cell) = 8 nuclei.\n * Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.\n\n2. **Analyze Reason (R):** \"The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.\"\n * The egg apparatus, as described above, consists of one egg cell and two synergid cells. It is located at the micropylar end of the embryo sac.\n * The two polar nuclei are located within the large central cell, not within the egg apparatus.\n * Therefore, Reason (R) is false.\n\n3. **Evaluate the options:**\n * **(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.** This is incorrect because R is false.\n * **(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.** This is incorrect because R is false.\n * **(3) A is true but R is false.** This matches our analysis (A is true, R is false).\n * **(4) A is false but R is true.** This is incorrect because A is true and R is false.\n\n4. **Determine the correct option number:**\n The correct statement is \"A is true but R is false\", which corresponds to option (3).\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_128", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_129", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the post-transcriptional events in a eukaryotic cell. Let's analyze each statement:\n\nA. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.\nThis statement is incorrect. Splicing of pre-mRNA occurs in the nucleus. After processing (including splicing, capping, and polyadenylation), the mature mRNA is transported to the cytoplasm.\n\nB. Removal of introns and joining of exons.\nThis process is known as splicing. Splicing is a major post-transcriptional modification that occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells to convert pre-mRNA (hnRNA) into mature mRNA. So, statement B is correct.\n\nC. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.\nThis refers to 5' capping, where a 7-methylguanosine cap is added to the 5' end of the pre-mRNA. This is a crucial post-transcriptional modification that protects the mRNA from degradation, facilitates its export from the nucleus, and aids in ribosome binding during translation initiation. So, statement C is correct.\n\nD. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.\nThis refers to polyadenylation, where a poly-A tail (a string of adenine nucleotides) is added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA. This modification is important for mRNA stability, export from the nucleus, and translation. So, statement D is correct.\n\nE. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.\nThis event occurs in various post-transcriptional processes. For example, during splicing, snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs) base pair with sequences in the pre-mRNA. Also, miRNAs (microRNAs) and siRNAs (small interfering RNAs) base pair with target mRNAs to regulate gene expression (RNA interference). Furthermore, tRNAs and rRNAs fold into specific secondary and tertiary structures through intramolecular base pairing during their maturation, which is a post-transcriptional process. So, statement E is also a correct description of a post-transcriptional event.\n\nSo, B, C, D, and E are all correct statements describing post-transcriptional events. Now let's look at the options:\n(1) A, B, C only - Incorrect because A is incorrect.\n(2) B, C, D only - This includes three major mRNA processing events.\n(3) B, C, E only - This omits D (polyadenylation), which is a key mRNA processing event.\n(4) C, D, E only - This omits B (splicing), which is a key mRNA processing event for genes with introns.\n\nSince B, C, D, and E are all correct, ideally there should be an option that includes all of them. However, such an option is not available. We need to choose the best option among the given choices. Options (3) and (4) are clearly deficient as they omit essential mRNA processing steps (polyadenylation and splicing, respectively). Option (2) includes the three major processing steps of pre-mRNA: splicing (B), capping (C), and polyadenylation (D).\n\nGiven the options, it is likely that the question is primarily focused on the canonical processing steps that convert pre-mRNA into mature mRNA. B, C, and D represent these steps. While E is also a post-transcriptional event (and indeed, base pairing is involved in splicing), it's possible that in the context of these options, (2) is considered the most appropriate answer by focusing on the direct modifications of the pre-mRNA molecule itself. The \"only\" in option (2) suggests that this is the intended set.\n\nIf we must choose, option (2) seems to be the most reasonable choice as it covers the main, universally recognized post-transcriptional modifications of pre-mRNA. The other options either include incorrect statements or omit essential correct statements.\n\nLet's assume the question aims to identify the most prominent post-transcriptional modifications leading to mature mRNA. These are capping, splicing and polyadenylation. Thus B, C, and D are correct. Option (2) states B, C, D only. This is the most suitable option.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_130", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Polygenic inheritance describes a trait that is controlled by multiple genes, often with an additive effect. This leads to a continuous range of phenotypes, rather than the discrete categories seen in simple Mendelian inheritance. Let's analyze the options:\n\n(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern: Mendelian inheritance typically refers to traits determined by a single gene with distinct alleles, resulting in predictable ratios of discrete phenotypes (e.g., 3:1 for a monohybrid cross). While individual genes contributing to a polygenic trait are inherited according to Mendelian principles (segregation and independent assortment), the overall pattern of inheritance for the polygenic trait itself, with its continuous variation, is not what is typically referred to as a Mendelian inheritance pattern.\n\n(2) Non-Mendelian inheritance pattern: This category includes patterns of inheritance that do not follow the simple rules of Mendelian genetics. Polygenic inheritance is a classic example of non-Mendelian inheritance because it involves multiple genes influencing a single trait, and often environmental factors also play a role, leading to a continuous distribution of phenotypes (e.g., a bell-shaped curve). Other examples of non-Mendelian inheritance include incomplete dominance, codominance, epistasis, and mitochondrial inheritance.\n\n(3) Autosomal dominant pattern: This is a specific type of Mendelian inheritance where a single dominant gene on an autosome determines the trait. This is not characteristic of polygenic traits, which are controlled by multiple genes.\n\n(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern: This is another specific type of Mendelian inheritance where a single recessive gene on the X chromosome determines the trait. This is also not characteristic of polygenic traits.\n\nConsidering the options, polygenic inheritance, due to the involvement of multiple genes and the resulting continuous variation in phenotype, is best described as a non-Mendelian inheritance pattern. The phenotypic ratios observed in polygenic inheritance are not the simple ratios predicted by Mendel for single-gene traits.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_131", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_132", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The question asks to arrange the characteristics of Whittaker's Kingdoms in increasing order of complexity of body organization. Let's identify the Kingdoms and their level of organization based on the given characteristics:\n\nA. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.\n - This describes Kingdom Fungi.\n - Level of organization: Multicellular, with loose tissues or thallus organization.\n\nB. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.\n - This describes Kingdom Animalia.\n - Level of organization: Tissue, organ, and organ system level.\n\nC. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.\n - This describes Kingdom Monera.\n - Level of organization: Unicellular, prokaryotic. This is the simplest level.\n\nD. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.\n - This describes Kingdom Plantae.\n - Level of organization: Tissue and organ level.\n\nE. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.\n - This describes Kingdom Protista.\n - Level of organization: Unicellular or colonial or simple multicellular, eukaryotic, cellular level.\n\nNow, let's arrange these in increasing order of complexity of body organization:\n\n1. **C (Kingdom Monera):** Prokaryotes, unicellular. This is the least complex.\n2. **E (Kingdom Protista):** Eukaryotes, mostly unicellular, some colonial or simple multicellular. Cellular level of organization. This is more complex than Monera (prokaryotic unicellular) because Protista are eukaryotic.\n3. **A (Kingdom Fungi):** Multicellular (mostly) eukaryotes, with cell wall made of chitin, heterotrophic. Body organization is multicellular with loose tissues or thallus. This is generally considered more complex than unicellular or colonial protists.\n4. **D (Kingdom Plantae):** Multicellular eukaryotes, autotrophic, with tissue and organ level of organization. This is more complex than Fungi.\n5. **B (Kingdom Animalia):** Multicellular eukaryotes, heterotrophic, with tissue, organ, and organ system level of organization. This is generally considered the most complex.\n\nSo, the increasing order of complexity is C < E < A < D < B.\n\nLet's match this order with the given options:\n(1) A, C, E, B, D\n(2) C, E, A, D, B\n(3) A, C, E, D, B\n(4) C, E, A, B, D\n\nThe order we derived is C, E, A, D, B. This matches option (2).\n\nFinal check:\nC: Monera - Prokaryotic, unicellular.\nE: Protista - Eukaryotic, mostly unicellular or simple multicellular (cellular level).\nA: Fungi - Eukaryotic, multicellular (mostly) with loose tissues or thallus organization.\nD: Plantae - Eukaryotic, multicellular with tissues and organs.\nB: Animalia - Eukaryotic, multicellular with tissues, organs, and organ systems.\n\nThis order C < E < A < D < B represents increasing complexity.\n\nOption (2) is C, E, A, D, B. This is the correct order.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_133", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_134", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_135", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Rationale review:\nThe question asks for neoplastic characteristics of cells.\nA. A mass of proliferating cell: True. Neoplasia involves abnormal proliferation leading to a mass (tumor).\nB. Rapid growth of cells: True. Neoplastic cells often exhibit uncontrolled and rapid proliferation.\nC. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue: This is a characteristic of malignant neoplasms (cancer).\nD. Those confined to original location: This is a characteristic of benign neoplasms.\n\nNeoplasia encompasses both benign and malignant tumors.\nCharacteristics A and B are common to all neoplasms.\nCharacteristic C is specific to malignant neoplasms.\nCharacteristic D is specific to benign neoplasms.\n\nLet's evaluate the given options:\n(1) A, B only: These are fundamental characteristics common to all neoplasms.\n(2) A, B, C only: These are characteristics of malignant neoplasms.\n(3) A, B, D only: These are characteristics of benign neoplasms.\n(4) B, C, D only: This option omits A, which is a fundamental characteristic (mass formation). So, (4) is incorrect.\n\nThe term \"neoplastic characteristics\" can be interpreted in different ways. If it refers to characteristics common to all neoplastic cells, then (1) would be the best answer. However, comprehensive definitions of neoplasia often include the potential for malignant behavior (invasion and metastasis) as key features of the overall process of neoplasia, especially in clinical contexts. For example, as stated by DeVita, Hellman, and Rosenberg's \"Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology\", neoplasia is characterized by excessive proliferation, poor differentiation, and the ability to invade locally and metastasize. This definition supports including invasion (C) as a neoplastic characteristic.\n\nGiven the options, and considering that malignancy is a critical aspect of neoplasia, option (2) which includes A, B, and C (characteristics of malignant neoplasia) is often considered a comprehensive description of significant neoplastic characteristics. In the context of NEET, which is a medical entrance exam, the focus is often on clinically significant aspects, and cancer (malignant neoplasia) is of prime importance. Therefore, option (2) is a strong candidate.\n\nLet's consider if (1) is a better choice. While A and B are common to all neoplasms, they might be seen as too limited, not capturing the full spectrum or significance of neoplasia.\nComparing (2) and (3), (2) describes malignant aspects, and (3) describes benign aspects. Malignant neoplasia is generally considered more severe and is a major focus of study.\n\nConsidering the authoritative definition mentioned which includes the ability to invade, option (2) seems to be the most appropriate choice representing a significant and comprehensive set of neoplastic characteristics.\n\nLet's go with option (2).\n\nFinal check.\nA - Mass of proliferating cells. Essential for neoplasm.\nB - Rapid growth of cells. Essential for neoplasm (uncontrolled proliferation).\nC - Invasion and damage to surrounding tissue. Key feature of malignant neoplasm.\n\nOption (2) lists A, B, and C. This describes a malignant neoplasm. Given that neoplasia encompasses malignant conditions, and these are often the focus, this option is plausible.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_136", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_137", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Let's analyze each item in List I and match it with the appropriate item in List II.\n\nA. Adenosine: Adenosine is a nucleoside. A nucleoside is composed of a nitrogenous base (adenine in this case) linked to a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose). So, Adenosine is a nucleoside. This matches with III.\n\nB. Adenylic acid: Adenylic acid is also known as adenosine monophosphate (AMP). It is a nucleotide. A nucleotide is composed of a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and one or more phosphate groups. So, Adenylic acid is a nucleotide. This matches with II.\n\nC. Adenine: Adenine is a purine, which is a type of nitrogenous base. It is one of the fundamental components of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). So, Adenine is a nitrogen base. This matches with I.\n\nD. Alanine: Alanine is one of the 20 common amino acids that are the building blocks of proteins. So, Alanine is an amino acid. This matches with IV.\n\nSo, the correct matches are:\nA - III (Adenosine - Nucleoside)\nB - II (Adenylic acid - Nucleotide)\nC - I (Adenine - Nitrogen base)\nD - IV (Alanine - Amino acid)\n\nNow let's check the given options.\n(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I\n A-III is correct.\n B-IV (Adenylic acid - Amino acid) is incorrect.\n C-II (Adenine - Nucleotide) is incorrect.\n D-I (Alanine - Nitrogen base) is incorrect.\n\n(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I\n A-III is correct.\n B-II is correct.\n C-IV (Adenine - Amino acid) is incorrect.\n D-I (Alanine - Nitrogen base) is incorrect.\n\n(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV\n A-III (Adenosine - Nucleoside) is correct.\n B-II (Adenylic acid - Nucleotide) is correct.\n C-I (Adenine - Nitrogen base) is correct.\n D-IV (Alanine - Amino acid) is correct.\n All matches are correct.\n\n(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV\n A-II (Adenosine - Nucleotide) is incorrect.\n B-III (Adenylic acid - Nucleoside) is incorrect.\n C-I is correct.\n D-IV is correct.\n\nTherefore, option (3) is the correct answer.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_138", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "**Step-by-step analysis:**\n\n**Statement A: The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.**\n* In human females, oogenesis (female gametogenesis) begins during fetal development. Primordial germ cells differentiate into oogonia, which then develop into primary oocytes. These primary oocytes enter meiosis I and arrest in prophase I before birth.\n* In human males, spermatogenesis (male gametogenesis) begins at puberty.\n* Since female meiosis I starts in the fetal stage and male meiosis I starts at puberty, the reductive division (meiosis) in females starts significantly earlier.\n* Therefore, Statement A is **true**.\n\n**Statement B: The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.**\n* In males, after the completion of meiosis I, secondary spermatocytes are formed, which quickly undergo meiosis II to form spermatids. The process is continuous and relatively rapid.\n* In females, the primary oocyte completes meiosis I just before ovulation, forming a secondary oocyte and the first polar body. The secondary oocyte then begins meiosis II but arrests in metaphase II. Meiosis II is only completed if fertilization occurs. If fertilization does not occur, the secondary oocyte degenerates without completing meiosis II. Even if fertilization occurs, there is an arrest period.\n* Thus, the period from the completion of meiosis I to the completion of meiosis II is typically much shorter and more continuous in males than in females, where there's a significant arrest phase during meiosis II, and completion is conditional.\n* Therefore, Statement B is **true**.\n\n**Statement C: The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.**\n* The primary oocyte develops from an oogonium.\n* The primary oocyte then undergoes the first meiotic division (meiosis I) to produce a large secondary oocyte and a small first polar body.\n* So, the first polar body is formed as a *result* of the first meiotic division of the primary oocyte, not during the formation of the primary oocyte itself. The formation of the primary oocyte precedes the formation of the first polar body.\n* Therefore, Statement C is **false**.\n\n**Statement D: Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.**\n* The LH surge triggers ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum from the ruptured ovarian follicle.\n* The corpus luteum secretes progesterone (and some estrogen), which is essential for the maintenance and further development of the endometrium, preparing it for implantation.\n* Disintegration of the endometrium and the onset of menstrual bleeding occur when the corpus luteum degenerates (if fertilization does not occur), leading to a sharp decline in progesterone and estrogen levels.\n* Therefore, the LH surge leads to events that *support* the endometrium initially, not its disintegration.\n* Therefore, Statement D is **false**.\n\n**Summary of statements:**\n* A: True\n* B: True\n* C: False\n* D: False\n\n**Evaluating the options:**\n(1) A and B are true. (This matches our findings)\n(2) A and C are true. (C is false)\n(3) B and D are true. (D is false)\n(4) B and C are true. (C is false)\n\nThe correct option is (1).\n\nThe final answer is the integer corresponding to the correct option.\nOption (1) is correct.\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_139", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The question asks about the lifestyle of all living members of the class Cyclostomata.\nThe class Cyclostomata includes jawless fishes, specifically lampreys and hagfishes.\n\nLet's consider the options:\n(1) Free living: This means they do not rely on a host. Many cyclostomes are parasitic, so this option is incorrect.\n(2) Endoparasite: This means they live inside the host. Cyclostomes, particularly lampreys, attach to the exterior of their hosts or enter through body openings to feed on blood and tissues, but they are not typically considered endoparasites in the sense of living within the host's internal organs or tissues.\n(3) Symbiotic: This is a very broad term. Parasitism is a form of symbiosis. While true that they are symbiotic (in a parasitic relationship), the question is likely looking for a more specific description of their lifestyle, especially if a more specific option is available and accurate.\n(4) Ectoparasite: This means they live on the outer surface of the host. Lampreys are well-known for being ectoparasites on other fish, attaching with their sucker-like mouth and feeding on the host's blood and tissues. Hagfishes are primarily scavengers, feeding on dead or dying fish, but they can also attack and feed on living fish, sometimes burrowing into their bodies. Some sources might describe this behavior as a form of ectoparasitism or predation.\n\nAccording to the NCERT textbook (Class 11 Biology, Chapter 4: Animal Kingdom), a key resource for NEET, under the description of Class Cyclostomata, it is stated: \"All living members of the class Cyclostomata are ectoparasites on some fishes.\" This statement is quite definitive. Given that NEET questions are generally based on NCERT content, this statement is crucial.\n\nTherefore, based on the information from NCERT, all living members of the class Cyclostomata are considered ectoparasites.\n\nLet's confirm this. Lampreys are definitely ectoparasites as adults. Hagfishes are mostly scavengers, but they are also known to prey on live fish and invertebrates and can burrow into the bodies of their prey/hosts. The generalization in NCERT that all are ectoparasites likely refers to the parasitic nature observed in the group, especially exemplified by lampreys, and perhaps a broader interpretation of ectoparasitism for hagfishes, or it simplifies the complex feeding habits for the scope of the textbook. Regardless, following the NCERT statement is the safest approach for a NEET question.\n\nComparing the options, ectoparasite is the most specific and widely accepted description for at least a significant portion of cyclostomes (lampreys), and if NCERT states it for all, then that is the expected answer.\n\nThus, option (4) is the correct answer.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_140", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Assertion (A) states that the primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver them to intracellular targets and outside the cell. This is a correct statement. The Golgi apparatus is involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles.\n\nReason (R) states that vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. This is also a correct statement. The Golgi apparatus has a distinct polarity, with a cis face (entry face) that receives vesicles from the ER, and a trans face (exit face) from which vesicles bud off. Materials move through the Golgi cisternae from the cis to the trans face, undergoing modification and processing along the way.\n\nNow, we need to determine if Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).\nAssertion (A) describes the function of the Golgi apparatus. Reason (R) describes the mechanism or process by which the Golgi apparatus carries out this function. The movement of materials from the ER, fusion with the cis face, modification within the Golgi, and release from the trans face are all integral parts of how the Golgi packages and delivers materials. Therefore, Reason (R) explains how the Golgi apparatus performs its primary function stated in Assertion (A).\n\nThus, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (1).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_141", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_142", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_143", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the statement that is NOT correct. Let's analyze each statement about antibodies:\n\n(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains. This is a correct statement. A typical antibody molecule (e.g., IgG) is a Y-shaped protein composed of four polypeptide chains: two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains.\n\n(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds. This is also a correct statement. The polypeptide chains in an antibody molecule are linked by disulfide bonds. Specifically, there are interchain disulfide bonds linking the heavy chains to each other and linking each heavy chain to a light chain. There are also intrachain disulfide bonds within each chain that help to form the domain structure.\n\n(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules. The antigen-binding site is formed by the variable regions of both the heavy and light chains. These variable regions are located at the N-terminal end of the polypeptide chains. The C-terminal region of the antibody molecule forms the constant region, which is involved in effector functions like binding to Fc receptors or complement. Therefore, this statement is NOT correct.\n\n(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules. This is a correct statement. Each polypeptide chain (heavy and light) has a variable region (V) at its N-terminus and a constant region (C) at its C-terminus. The antigen-binding site is formed by the variable regions (N-terminal). The constant regions are at the C-terminal end of the chains.\n\nBased on the analysis, statement (3) is incorrect. The antigen binding site is located at the N-terminal region of the antibody molecule.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_144", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_145", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The problem describes a dihybrid cross involving two genes, R and Y, which follow independent assortment.\nThe parental generation (P) is RRYY (round yellow seeds) and rryy (wrinkled green seeds).\nThis means that the allele R for round shape is dominant over r for wrinkled shape, and the allele Y for yellow color is dominant over y for green color.\n\nFirst, let's determine the genotype of the F1 generation.\nP: RRYY x rryy\nGametes from RRYY are RY.\nGametes from rryy are ry.\nF1 generation: RrYy (all individuals are heterozygous for both genes).\nThe phenotype of the F1 generation will be round and yellow, as R and Y are dominant.\n\nNext, we need to find the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation, which is obtained by self-crossing the F1 generation:\nF1 x F1: RrYy x RrYy\n\nSince the genes assort independently, we can consider the segregation of each gene separately.\nFor gene R (shape): Rr x Rr\nThe possible genotypes are RR, Rr, Rr, rr in the ratio 1:2:1.\nThe possible phenotypes are Round (RR, Rr) and wrinkled (rr).\nPhenotypic ratio for shape: 3 Round : 1 wrinkled.\n\nFor gene Y (color): Yy x Yy\nThe possible genotypes are YY, Yy, Yy, yy in the ratio 1:2:1.\nThe possible phenotypes are Yellow (YY, Yy) and green (yy).\nPhenotypic ratio for color: 3 Yellow : 1 green.\n\nTo find the combined phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation, we use the product rule (since the genes assort independently). We list all possible combinations of phenotypes:\n1. Round and Yellow: (Probability of Round) x (Probability of Yellow) = (3/4) x (3/4) = 9/16\n2. Round and Green: (Probability of Round) x (Probability of Green) = (3/4) x (1/4) = 3/16\n3. Wrinkled and Yellow: (Probability of Wrinkled) x (Probability of Yellow) = (1/4) x (3/4) = 3/16\n4. Wrinkled and Green: (Probability of Wrinkled) x (Probability of Green) = (1/4) x (1/4) = 1/16\n\nSo, the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation is 9 (Round Yellow) : 3 (Round Green) : 3 (Wrinkled Yellow) : 1 (Wrinkled Green).\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1 (This is a monohybrid genotypic ratio, or phenotypic ratio in incomplete/codominance)\n(2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1 (This is a monohybrid phenotypic ratio with complete dominance)\n(3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (This is the classic dihybrid phenotypic ratio with independent assortment and complete dominance)\n(4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7 (This is a modified dihybrid ratio, often due to gene interaction like epistasis)\n\nThe calculated phenotypic ratio matches option (3).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_146", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_147", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_148", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_149", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the term for the protein portion of an enzyme.\nLet's define the given options:\n1. **Cofactor:** A non-protein chemical compound or metallic ion that is required for an enzyme's activity. Cofactors can be inorganic ions or organic molecules called coenzymes.\n2. **Coenzyme:** A type of cofactor that is an organic, non-protein molecule. Coenzymes often bind loosely to the enzyme.\n3. **Apoenzyme:** The protein part of an enzyme, which is catalytically inactive without its cofactor.\n4. **Prosthetic group:** A type of cofactor that is tightly and often covalently bound to the enzyme.\n\nAn enzyme may consist solely of protein, or it may be a complex of protein and a non-protein component. When an enzyme requires a non-protein component for its activity, the complete active enzyme is called a **holoenzyme**. The holoenzyme is made up of the protein part, called the **apoenzyme**, and the non-protein part, called the **cofactor**.\n\nThe question specifically asks for the **protein portion** of an enzyme. Based on the definitions, the protein portion of an enzyme is called the apoenzyme.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (3) Apoenzyme.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_150", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "Productivity in an ecosystem refers to the rate at which biomass is produced. It is often expressed in terms of mass per unit area per unit time, or energy per unit area per unit time.\n\nLet's analyze each option:\n(1) gm\u207b\u00b2: This represents grams per square meter. This is a unit of biomass density or standing crop, not productivity because it lacks the time component. For example, the total biomass of plants in an area at a given time.\n\n(2) KCal m\u207b\u00b2: This represents kilocalories per square meter. This is a unit of energy density or standing crop in terms of energy, not productivity because it lacks the time component. For example, the total energy content of biomass in an area at a given time.\n\n(3) KCal m\u207b\u00b3: This represents kilocalories per cubic meter. This is a unit of energy per unit volume. While some aquatic ecosystems might consider volume, terrestrial ecosystems typically use area. More importantly, it is missing the time component for productivity.\n\n(4) (KCal m\u207b\u00b2)yr\u207b\u00b9: This represents kilocalories per square meter per year. This unit has energy (KCal), area (m\u207b\u00b2), and time (yr\u207b\u00b9). This is a valid unit for productivity. Productivity is a rate, so it must include a time dimension. It can be expressed as the rate of biomass production (e.g., g m\u207b\u00b2 yr\u207b\u00b9) or the rate of energy fixation (e.g., kJ m\u207b\u00b2 yr\u207b\u00b9 or KCal m\u207b\u00b2 yr\u207b\u00b9).\n\nThus, (KCal m\u207b\u00b2)yr\u207b\u00b9 is the correct unit for the productivity of an ecosystem.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_151", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_152", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Step-by-step derivation:\n\n1. **Analyze the legend and symbols:**\n * Square: Male; Circle: Female\n * White: Unaffected; Black: Affected\n * Circle with a dot: Carrier female (unaffected)\n * \"Unaffected female\" is a plain white circle.\n * The question defines a carrier as \"having no disease and has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene\". This is consistent with heterozygous genotype for a recessive trait.\n\n2. **Determine the mode of inheritance:**\n * **Recessive vs. Dominant:** The existence of \"Carrier female\" who is unaffected (white with a dot, not black) implies the disease is recessive. If it were dominant, a carrier (heterozygote) would be affected.\n * So, the trait is recessive. Let 'A' be the dominant (normal) allele and 'a' be the recessive (disease) allele.\n * Affected individuals: aa (autosomal) or XaXa/XaY (X-linked).\n * Carrier individuals (unaffected): Aa (autosomal) or XAXa (X-linked female).\n * Unaffected non-carriers: AA (autosomal) or XAXA/XAY (X-linked, XAY male is not a carrier in the typical sense of heterozygosity but matches definition if A is normal allele).\n\n * **Autosomal Recessive (AR) vs. X-linked Recessive (XR):**\n Let's examine the F0 generation and their F1 offspring who become parents.\n F0 parents: Unaffected Male x Affected Female.\n F1 individuals who mate: Unaffected Male x Carrier Female.\n\n If XR:\n F0 Parents: Unaffected Male (XAY) x Affected Female (XaXa).\n All their male offspring (sons) must receive Xa from the mother and Y from the father, so their genotype would be XaY, making them affected.\n All their female offspring (daughters) must receive Xa from the mother and XA from the father, so their genotype would be XAXa, making them carrier females.\n The F1 generation shows an Unaffected Male mating with a Carrier Female.\n If these F1 individuals are the offspring of the F0 couple:\n - The F1 Carrier Female (XAXa) is consistent with being a daughter of F0(XAY) x F0(XaXa).\n - The F1 Unaffected Male (XAY) is NOT consistent with being a son of F0(XAY) x F0(XaXa), because sons should be XaY (affected).\n Therefore, X-linked recessive inheritance is ruled out, assuming the F1 individuals are children of the F0 couple shown, which is the standard interpretation of such a pedigree chart.\n\n If AR:\n F0 Parents: Unaffected Male (A_) x Affected Female (aa).\n F1 individuals who mate: Unaffected Male x Carrier Female.\n Let's determine the genotype of F1 parents from F2 generation.\n F1 parents (let's call them P1-F1 Male and P2-F1 Female) have offspring in F2.\n One F2 offspring is an Affected Male (F2-AM, genotype aa).\n For an 'aa' child to be born:\n - Mother P2-F1 (Carrier Female) must contribute an 'a' allele. Her genotype is Aa (consistent with carrier status).\n - Father P1-F1 (Unaffected Male) must also contribute an 'a' allele. Since he is unaffected, his genotype must be Aa.\n So, the F1 parents are: P1-F1 (Aa, Unaffected Male) and P2-F1 (Aa, Carrier Female).\n Now, let's check if these F1 individuals (both Aa) can be offspring of F0: Unaffected Male (A_) x Affected Female (aa).\n Mother F0 (aa) passes 'a' to her offspring. Father F0 (A_) passes 'A' to these Aa offspring.\n So, F0 Unaffected Male must have at least one 'A' allele.\n If F0 Unaffected Male is AA: Mating F0(AA) x F0(aa) -> All F1 offspring are Aa. This is consistent with F1 son being Aa and F1 daughter being Aa.\n If F0 Unaffected Male is Aa: Mating F0(Aa) x F0(aa) -> 1/2 F1 offspring are Aa, 1/2 are aa. It is possible to have an Aa son and an Aa daughter. This is also consistent.\n Thus, Autosomal Recessive inheritance is consistent with the entire pedigree.\n\n3. **Determine genotypes of the F2 parents who produce the F3 generation:**\n The F2 parents are F2-CF2 (Carrier Female) and F2-AM (Affected Male).\n Based on autosomal recessive inheritance:\n - F2-CF2 (Carrier Female) has genotype Aa.\n - F2-AM (Affected Male) has genotype aa.\n\n4. **Calculate the probability for the F3 child:**\n The mating is between F2-CF2 (Aa) and F2-AM (aa).\n Cross: Aa x aa\n Possible gametes from Aa parent: 1/2 A, 1/2 a.\n Possible gametes from aa parent: all a.\n Offspring genotypes in F3:\n - A (from Aa) + a (from aa) -> Aa (Probability = 1/2 * 1 = 1/2)\n - a (from Aa) + a (from aa) -> aa (Probability = 1/2 * 1 = 1/2)\n\n The question asks for the probability of a child in F3 generation \"having no disease AND being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene)\".\n - Genotype Aa: individuals are unaffected (no disease) and are carriers (one disease allele 'a', one normal allele 'A'). This matches the requirement. Probability = 1/2.\n - Genotype aa: individuals are affected (have the disease).\n\n So, the probability of an F3 child having no disease and being a carrier is 1/2.\n\n5. **Select the correct option:**\n The calculated probability is 1/2.\n The given options are:\n (1) 1/4\n (2) 1/2\n (3) 1/8\n (4) Zero\n The correct option is (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_153", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "**Step-by-step analysis:**\n\n1. **Analyze Assertion (A):** \"Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.\"\n * The tapetum is the innermost nutritive layer of the anther wall. Its cells are known to be metabolically very active.\n * Metabolically active cells typically have dense cytoplasm (rich in ribosomes, ER, mitochondria, etc.).\n * Tapetal cells often become multinucleate (due to nuclear divisions without cytokinesis, i.e., free nuclear division or endomitosis) or polyploid (due to endomitosis or nuclear fusion). This increases the amount of DNA and thus the capacity for protein synthesis and other metabolic activities related to nourishment.\n * So, Assertion (A) is true.\n\n2. **Analyze Reason (R):** \"Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.\"\n * The primary function of the tapetum is to provide nutrition to the developing microspore mother cells and subsequently to the developing microspores (pollen grains).\n * Having more than one nucleus (or being polyploid) allows for a greater rate of synthesis of enzymes, proteins, and other substances required for nourishment. This enhances the metabolic capacity of the cell.\n * Therefore, the presence of multiple nuclei contributes to the increased efficiency of the tapetum in its nutritive role.\n * So, Reason (R) is true.\n\n3. **Evaluate if R is the correct explanation of A:**\n * Assertion A states two characteristics: dense cytoplasm and more than one nucleus.\n * Reason R explains the functional significance of having more than one nucleus \u2013 it increases nourishing efficiency.\n * The dense cytoplasm is also indicative of high metabolic activity, which is necessary for nourishment. The multinucleate condition further supports this high metabolic demand for producing and secreting nutritive substances.\n * Thus, the reason (increased nourishing efficiency) is a direct consequence and explanation for why tapetal cells have more than one nucleus (and by extension, are metabolically very active, leading to dense cytoplasm). The multinucleate condition (part of A) is an adaptation that enhances the tapetum's ability to nourish (as stated in R).\n\n Therefore, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A), particularly in relation to the multinucleate condition which is a key feature mentioned for its functional role.\n\n4. **Match with the given options:**\n * (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.\n * (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.\n * (3) A is true but R is false.\n * (4) A is false but R is true.\n\n Based on the analysis, option (1) is the correct choice.\n\nFinal Answer Check:\nAssertion: Tapetum cells have dense cytoplasm and are multinucleate. This is a known fact.\nReason: Multinucleate condition increases efficiency of nourishing microspore mother cells. This is also true, as more nuclei allow for increased gene expression and metabolic activity required for producing and secreting nutrients.\nThe reason directly explains the biological significance of the multinucleate characteristic mentioned in the assertion.\n\nTherefore, option (1) is correct.\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_154", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The development of a mature female gametophyte (embryo sac) in an angiosperm plant from the megaspore mother cell (MMC) involves the following steps:\n\n1. **Formation of Megaspores:** The diploid (2n) megaspore mother cell undergoes one meiotic division. Meiosis consists of Meiosis I and Meiosis II, collectively considered as a single meiotic event that results in four haploid (n) megaspores.\n * So, **1 meiotic division** occurs.\n\n2. **Development of the Functional Megaspore:** In most angiosperms (Polygonum type, which is the most common), three of the four megaspores degenerate. The remaining one megaspore becomes the functional megaspore.\n\n3. **Formation of the Embryo Sac (Female Gametophyte):** The nucleus of the functional megaspore undergoes three successive mitotic divisions without immediate cell wall formation (free nuclear divisions).\n * **First mitotic division:** The functional megaspore nucleus divides to form two nuclei. These two nuclei move to opposite poles of the developing embryo sac.\n * **Second mitotic division:** Each of these two nuclei divides again, resulting in four nuclei (two at each pole).\n * **Third mitotic division:** Each of these four nuclei divides once more, resulting in a total of eight nuclei (four at each pole).\n\n After these three mitotic divisions, cell walls are laid down, organizing the eight nuclei into a 7-celled, 8-nucleate embryo sac. This comprises:\n * An egg apparatus (one egg cell and two synergids) at the micropylar end.\n * Three antipodal cells at the chalazal end.\n * One large central cell with two polar nuclei (which may fuse to form a secondary nucleus).\n\nTherefore, the total number of divisions required from the megaspore mother cell for the development of a mature female gametophyte is:\n* 1 meiotic division (of the megaspore mother cell)\n* 3 mitotic divisions (of the functional megaspore nucleus)\n\nLet's match this with the given options:\n(1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis\n(2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis\n(3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis\n(4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis\n\nThe correct option is (3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_155", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_156", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_157", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Statement I: \"Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.\"\nFig fruits are pollinated by fig wasps. Female wasps enter the fig to lay their eggs. In some species of figs, especially the ones commonly eaten, the female wasp often dies inside the fig after laying eggs and pollinating the flowers. The fig then produces an enzyme called ficin which digests the wasp's body. Therefore, commercially grown figs often contain remnants of wasps, making them \"non-vegetarian\" in the sense that they contain animal matter. So, Statement I is generally considered correct.\n\nStatement II: \"Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.\"\nThis statement describes a classic example of mutualism. The fig tree provides a place for the fig wasp to lay its eggs and for its larvae to develop (inside the ovules of some flowers, which develop into galls). In return, the fig wasp pollinates the flowers of the fig tree, enabling it to produce seeds. This is a highly specific and co-evolved relationship. So, Statement II is correct.\n\nSince both Statement I and Statement II are correct, we need to choose the option that reflects this.\n\n(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct\n(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect\n(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect\n(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct\n\nBased on the analysis, option (1) is the correct choice because both statements are correct.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "incorrect", "marks_awarded": -1} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_158", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_159", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "159. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?\n(1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits. This is a characteristic of angiosperms. In angiosperms, the ovules are enclosed within the ovary, and after fertilization, the ovary develops into a fruit, and the ovules develop into seeds. So, the seeds are enclosed in fruits. This is incorrect for gymnosperms.\n(2) Seeds are naked. Gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after fertilization. The seeds that develop post-fertilization are not covered, i.e., are naked. This is the defining characteristic of gymnosperms. The term \"gymnosperm\" literally means \"naked seed\". This statement is correct.\n(3) Seeds are absent. Gymnosperms are seed-bearing plants. They belong to the group Spermatophyta (seed plants). Plants like bryophytes and pteridophytes are non-seed bearing. So, this statement is incorrect.\n(4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction. Flowers are the reproductive structures of angiosperms. Gymnosperms have reproductive structures called cones or strobili. While these structures serve a reproductive function, they are not considered true flowers evolutionarily or structurally. So, this statement is incorrect.\n\nBased on the analysis, the characteristic feature of gymnosperms is that their seeds are naked.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_160", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_161", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The question asks why insulin cannot be given orally to diabetic patients.\nLet's analyze each option:\n\n(1) Human body will elicit strong immune response: Insulin is a protein. While historically, animal-derived insulins (e.g., from pigs or cows) could elicit immune responses, modern insulin is often human insulin produced by recombinant DNA technology or insulin analogs designed to be very similar to human insulin. The main issue with oral administration is not primarily an immune response.\n\n(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract: Insulin is a polypeptide hormone (a protein). Proteins, when taken orally, are subjected to the digestive enzymes in the stomach (e.g., pepsin) and small intestine (e.g., trypsin, chymotrypsin). These enzymes break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which are then absorbed. If insulin is broken down, it loses its specific three-dimensional structure, which is essential for its biological activity (binding to insulin receptors and lowering blood glucose). Therefore, orally administered insulin would be inactivated by digestion before it could be absorbed into the bloodstream in its active form. This is a well-established reason.\n\n(3) Because of structural variation: This option is vague. If it refers to variations in manufacturing, it's a quality control issue, not a fundamental reason against oral administration. If it refers to a structural characteristic that prevents oral absorption, it's indirectly related to its protein nature and susceptibility to digestion or poor absorption even if not digested. However, the primary issue is digestion.\n\n(4) Its bioavailability will be increased: Bioavailability is the fraction of an administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged. If insulin is digested in the GI tract, its bioavailability as an active hormone will be virtually zero, not increased. This statement is incorrect.\n\nBased on the analysis, the primary reason insulin cannot be given orally is that it is a protein and will be broken down by digestive enzymes in the GI tract, losing its activity. Thus, option (2) is the correct answer.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_162", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The task is to match the plant groups in List-I with their respective examples in List-II.\n\nLet's analyze each item from List-I and find its correct match from List-II:\n\nA. Pteridophyte:\n Pteridophytes are vascular plants that reproduce via spores. Examples include ferns, horsetails, and clubmosses.\n Looking at List-II:\n I. Salvia: Salvia is a genus of flowering plants, so it is an Angiosperm.\n II. Ginkgo: Ginkgo biloba is a Gymnosperm.\n III. Polytrichum: Polytrichum is a genus of mosses, so it is a Bryophyte.\n IV. Salvinia: Salvinia is a genus of aquatic ferns, so it is a Pteridophyte.\n Thus, A matches with IV.\n\nB. Bryophyte:\n Bryophytes are non-vascular land plants. They include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.\n Looking at List-II:\n I. Salvia: Angiosperm.\n II. Ginkgo: Gymnosperm.\n III. Polytrichum: A common moss, which is a Bryophyte.\n IV. Salvinia: Pteridophyte.\n Thus, B matches with III.\n\nC. Angiosperm:\n Angiosperms are flowering plants. Their seeds are enclosed within an ovary (usually a fruit).\n Looking at List-II:\n I. Salvia: A genus of flowering plants (e.g., sage), so it is an Angiosperm.\n II. Ginkgo: Gymnosperm.\n III. Polytrichum: Bryophyte.\n IV. Salvinia: Pteridophyte.\n Thus, C matches with I.\n\nD. Gymnosperm:\n Gymnosperms are seed-producing plants that include conifers, cycads, Ginkgo, and gnetophytes. Their seeds are \"naked,\" meaning they are not enclosed within an ovary.\n Looking at List-II:\n I. Salvia: Angiosperm.\n II. Ginkgo: Ginkgo biloba is a well-known Gymnosperm.\n III. Polytrichum: Bryophyte.\n IV. Salvinia: Pteridophyte.\n Thus, D matches with II.\n\nSo, the correct matches are:\nA - IV (Pteridophyte - Salvinia)\nB - III (Bryophyte - Polytrichum)\nC - I (Angiosperm - Salvia)\nD - II (Gymnosperm - Ginkgo)\n\nNow let's check the given options:\n(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I\n A-III (Pteridophyte - Polytrichum) - Incorrect.\n(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II\n A-IV (Pteridophyte - Salvinia) - Correct.\n B-III (Bryophyte - Polytrichum) - Correct.\n C-I (Angiosperm - Salvia) - Correct.\n D-II (Gymnosperm - Ginkgo) - Correct.\n This option matches all our derived correct pairs.\n\n(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II\n A-III (Pteridophyte - Polytrichum) - Incorrect.\n\n(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I\n A-IV (Pteridophyte - Salvinia) - Correct.\n B-III (Bryophyte - Polytrichum) - Correct.\n C-II (Angiosperm - Ginkgo) - Incorrect.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_163", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The question asks who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides.\n\nLet's evaluate the contributions of the scientists listed:\n\n1. **George Gamow:** A physicist who, in 1954, proposed that since there are 20 common amino acids and only 4 nucleotide bases, a code consisting of at least three bases per amino acid would be necessary. He reasoned that a singlet code (4^1 = 4 combinations) or a doublet code (4^2 = 16 combinations) would be insufficient, whereas a triplet code (4^3 = 64 combinations) would provide enough combinations to code for all 20 amino acids. This was a theoretical proposition.\n\n2. **Francis Crick:** Along with James Watson, he discovered the double helix structure of DNA. Later, Crick, Sydney Brenner, Leslie Barnett, and Richard Watts-Tobin performed experiments (frameshift mutations) in 1961 that provided strong evidence that the genetic code is indeed a triplet code, read in a non-overlapping manner from a fixed starting point. While Crick was instrumental in experimentally confirming the triplet nature and understanding other properties of the code, Gamow made the initial theoretical proposal.\n\n3. **Jacques Monod:** Known for his work with Fran\u00e7ois Jacob on the regulation of gene expression, particularly the lac operon model. This is not directly related to proposing the triplet nature of the genetic code.\n\n4. **Franklin Stahl:** Known for the Meselson-Stahl experiment (with Matthew Meselson), which demonstrated the semi-conservative replication of DNA. This is not related to the proposal of the triplet code.\n\nThe question specifically asks who *proposed* that the genetic code should be made up of three nucleotides. Based on scientific history, George Gamow was the one who first made this theoretical proposal.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (1) George Gamow.\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_164", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "A. **The Evil Quartet** refers to the four major causes of biodiversity losses. These are:\n 1. Habitat loss and fragmentation\n 2. Over-exploitation\n 3. Alien species invasions\n 4. Co-extinctions\n So, A matches with **III. Causes of biodiversity losses**.\n\nB. **Ex situ conservation** is the conservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats. Examples include zoological parks, botanical gardens, wildlife safari parks, gene banks, and cryopreservation.\n So, B matches with **I. Cryopreservation** (as cryopreservation is a method of ex situ conservation).\n\nC. **Lantana camara** is a well-known example of an invasive alien species that has threatened native biodiversity in many parts of the world.\n So, C matches with **II. Alien species invasion**.\n\nD. **Dodo** is an extinct flightless bird that was endemic to the island of Mauritius. Its extinction is a classic example of biodiversity loss due to human activities.\n So, D matches with **IV. Extinction**.\n\nLet's summarize the correct matches:\nA - III\nB - I\nC - II\nD - IV\n\nNow let's check the given options:\n(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-II (Incorrect, Ex situ conservation is Cryopreservation (I), not Alien species invasion (II))\n - C-I (Incorrect, Lantana camara is Alien species invasion (II), not Cryopreservation (I))\n - D-IV (Correct)\n\n(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-I (Correct)\n - C-II (Correct)\n - D-IV (Correct)\n This option matches all our derived correct pairs.\n\n(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-IV (Incorrect, Ex situ conservation is Cryopreservation (I), not Extinction (IV))\n - C-II (Correct)\n - D-I (Incorrect, Dodo is Extinction (IV), not Cryopreservation (I))\n\n(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I\n - A-III (Correct)\n - B-II (Incorrect, Ex situ conservation is Cryopreservation (I), not Alien species invasion (II))\n - C-IV (Incorrect, Lantana camara is Alien species invasion (II), not Extinction (IV))\n - D-I (Incorrect, Dodo is Extinction (IV), not Cryopreservation (I))\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2).\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_165", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_166", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_167", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_168", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "Gemmae are specialized structures found in some bryophytes, like liverworts (e.g., Marchantia) and mosses. These are small, multicellular, green structures that are produced in gemma cups on the thallus or stem. When gemmae detach from the parent plant and land on a suitable substrate, they can germinate and develop into a new, genetically identical individual. This process is a form of vegetative or asexual reproduction.\n\nLet's evaluate the given options:\n(1) Sexual reproduction in bryophytes involves the fusion of gametes (sperm and egg) to form a zygote, which develops into a sporophyte. Gemmae are not gametes or involved in fertilization.\n(2) Asexual reproduction is the production of new individuals without the fusion of gametes. Gemmae are indeed structures for asexual reproduction, allowing for the propagation of the gametophyte.\n(3) Nutrient absorption in bryophytes is primarily carried out by the entire surface of the gametophyte, especially by rhizoids for anchorage and some absorption. Gemmae are not primarily for nutrient absorption.\n(4) Gaseous exchange in bryophytes occurs across the moist surfaces of the plant body. Some bryophytes (like mosses) may have stomata on their sporophytes for gaseous exchange. Gemmae are not specialized for gaseous exchange.\n\nThus, gemmae help in asexual reproduction.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_169", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "The question asks about the Renal portal system in frogs and what it connects.\nA portal system is a venous system that begins in capillaries in one organ or part of the body and ends in capillaries in another organ or part of the body before the blood is returned to the heart.\nThe Renal portal system is found in fish, amphibians, reptiles, and birds, but is absent in mammals.\nIn frogs, the Renal portal system consists of veins that collect blood from the hind limbs and lower part of the body (posterior region) and carry it to the kidneys. In the kidneys, these veins break up into capillaries which then reunite to form renal veins that carry blood to the postcaval vein (inferior vena cava) and then to the heart. This system allows for the filtration of blood from the posterior part of the body by the kidneys before it enters the general circulation.\n\nLet's evaluate the options:\n(1) Liver and intestine: This describes the Hepatic portal system. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the intestine (and other digestive organs) to the liver.\n(2) Liver and kidney: There isn't a direct portal system linking the liver and kidney in this manner. Blood from the liver (hepatic vein) goes to the heart, and then blood is supplied to the kidney via the renal artery.\n(3) Kidney and intestine: This is not the primary connection of the Renal portal system. While waste products from the intestine might eventually be processed by the kidney, the portal system itself doesn't directly link the intestine to the kidney in the way defined by the Renal portal system.\n(4) Kidney and lower part of body: This is the correct description. The Renal portal system collects blood from the lower parts of the body (hind limbs, pelvic region, tail in some species) and transports it to the kidneys.\n\nTherefore, the Renal portal system in frog links the kidney and the lower part of the body.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{4}$\n4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_170", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "Statement I: \"In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.\"\nEnergy from the sun is captured by producers (e.g., plants through photosynthesis). This energy is then transferred to consumers when they eat the producers (primary consumers) or other consumers (secondary, tertiary consumers). This flow of energy is indeed unidirectional. Energy flows from the sun to producers, then to various levels of consumers. It does not flow back from consumers to producers, or from producers back to the sun in a significant way that powers the ecosystem. At each step, some energy is lost as heat. So, Statement I is correct.\n\nStatement II: \"Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.\"\nThe second law of thermodynamics states that in any energy transfer or transformation, some energy is converted into a form that is unusable (typically heat), and the total entropy (disorder) of an isolated system tends to increase. Ecosystems are open systems (they receive energy from the sun), but they are still subject to the laws of thermodynamics. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next is not 100% efficient; a significant amount of energy (around 90%) is lost as heat at each transfer. This loss of energy and increase in entropy is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics, not an exemption from it. Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.\n\nBased on this analysis:\nStatement I is correct.\nStatement II is incorrect.\n\nNow let's look at the options:\n(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (False)\n(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (False)\n(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (True)\n(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (False)\n\nThe correct option is (3).\n\nFinal Answer is the integer corresponding to the correct option.\nOption (1) -> 1\nOption (2) -> 2\nOption (3) -> 3\nOption (4) -> 4\n\nThe correct option is 3.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_171", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_172", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the enzyme(s) that are NOT essential for gene cloning from the given list. Let's evaluate each enzyme's role in gene cloning:\n\nA. **Restriction enzymes**: These are crucial for cutting DNA at specific recognition sites. This allows for the insertion of a desired gene into a vector. Thus, restriction enzymes are essential.\n\nB. **DNA ligase**: This enzyme is responsible for joining DNA fragments together by forming phosphodiester bonds. After cutting the vector and the gene of interest with restriction enzymes, DNA ligase is used to ligate the gene into the vector. Thus, DNA ligase is essential.\n\nC. **DNA mutase**: Mutases are enzymes that induce mutations in DNA. While mutagenesis can be a tool in genetic engineering to study gene function or create altered proteins, it is not an essential step for the basic process of gene cloning, which involves isolating, inserting, and replicating a gene. Thus, DNA mutase is NOT essential for general gene cloning.\n\nD. **DNA recombinase**: Recombinases are enzymes that catalyze site-specific recombination events between DNA molecules. While some advanced cloning techniques (e.g., Gateway cloning) utilize recombinases, they are not essential for traditional gene cloning methods that rely on restriction enzymes and ligase. For general gene cloning, DNA recombinase is NOT essential.\n\nE. **DNA polymerase**: DNA polymerase is involved in DNA synthesis. It is essential for several steps that can be part of gene cloning:\n * Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is often used to amplify the gene of interest before cloning.\n * After the recombinant DNA is introduced into a host cell, DNA polymerase is responsible for replicating the plasmid (and thus the cloned gene) as the host cell divides.\n * In some cases, like creating blunt ends or filling in overhangs after restriction digestion, DNA polymerase might be used.\n Thus, DNA polymerase is essential.\n\nBased on this analysis, the enzymes that are NOT essential for general gene cloning are DNA mutase (C) and DNA recombinase (D).\n\nNow let's look at the given options:\n(1) C and D only\n(2) A and B only\n(3) D and E only\n(4) B and C only\n\nOption (1) states that C (DNA mutase) and D (DNA recombinase) are not essential. This aligns with our analysis.\n\nLet's verify why other options are incorrect:\n(2) A and B only: Restriction enzymes (A) and DNA ligase (B) are essential.\n(3) D and E only: DNA polymerase (E) is essential.\n(4) B and C only: DNA ligase (B) is essential.\n\nTherefore, the correct answer is that DNA mutase (C) and DNA recombinase (D) are not essential for general gene cloning.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_173", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "Let's analyze each statement regarding plant growth and development:\n\nA. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.\nParthenocarpy is the development of fruit without prior fertilization. Auxins are plant hormones that can induce parthenocarpy in certain plants, such as tomatoes and cucumbers. This statement is **correct**.\n\nB. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.\nPlant growth regulators (PGRs), also known as plant hormones, include groups like auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, ethylene, and abscisic acid.\n- Auxins, gibberellins, and cytokinins are generally considered growth-promoting hormones.\n- Abscisic acid is generally considered a growth-inhibiting hormone (e.g., induces dormancy, promotes stomatal closure).\n- Ethylene can have both promoting effects (e.g., fruit ripening, flower senescence) and inhibiting effects (e.g., inhibition of stem elongation under certain conditions, senescence).\nThus, PGRs collectively play roles in both promoting and inhibiting growth. This statement is **correct**.\n\nC. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.\n- Differentiation is the process whereby cells become specialized in structure and function.\n- Dedifferentiation is the process by which mature, differentiated cells revert to a meristematic state, losing their specialized features and regaining the capacity for cell division.\n- Redifferentiation is the process by which these dedifferentiated cells then differentiate again into new types of specialized cells.\nIn processes like wound healing or tissue culture, differentiated cells (e.g., parenchyma) dedifferentiate to form callus, and then cells from the callus can redifferentiate to form various plant organs. Therefore, dedifferentiation is indeed a prerequisite for redifferentiation. This statement is **correct**.\n\nD. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.\nAbscisic acid (ABA) is primarily known as a plant growth inhibitor. It plays a crucial role in responses to stress, inducing dormancy in seeds and buds, and promoting stomatal closure. While it can have some promotive effects in specific contexts (e.g., embryogenesis, root growth under certain water stress conditions), its overall and dominant role is inhibitory. The statement that it is a plant growth promoter is generally considered incorrect in the context of its primary functions. This statement is **incorrect**.\n\nE. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.\nApical dominance is the phenomenon whereby the main, central stem of the plant is dominant over (i.e., grows more strongly than) other side stems; on a branch, the main stem of the branch is further dominant over its own side branchlets. This is caused by auxins produced in the apical bud that inhibit the growth of the lateral (axillary) buds. Therefore, apical dominance *inhibits* or suppresses the growth of lateral buds, it does not promote it. This statement is **incorrect**.\n\nSo, the correct statements are A, B, and C.\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) A, B, C only\n(2) A, C, E only (E is incorrect)\n(3) A, D, E only (D and E are incorrect)\n(4) B, D, E only (D and E are incorrect)\n\nThe option that lists all correct statements is (1).\n\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_174", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the factor important for the termination of transcription.\nLet's review the roles of the given factors in transcription:\n\n1. **\u03b1 (alpha) factor:** In prokaryotes, the RNA polymerase core enzyme consists of subunits \u03b1, \u03b2, \u03b2', and \u03c9. The \u03b1 subunits are involved in enzyme assembly and interaction with regulatory proteins, and can also be involved in promoter recognition, but not directly in termination.\n\n2. **\u03c3 (sigma) factor:** In prokaryotes, the sigma factor is essential for the initiation of transcription. It binds to the core RNA polymerase to form the holoenzyme, which then recognizes and binds to the promoter sequence on the DNA. Once transcription is initiated, the sigma factor usually dissociates.\n\n3. **\u03c1 (rho) factor:** In prokaryotes, there are two main mechanisms of transcription termination: rho-dependent termination and rho-independent termination. The rho factor is a protein (an ATP-dependent helicase) that is involved in rho-dependent termination. It binds to the nascent RNA transcript at a specific rho utilization (rut) site and moves along the RNA towards the 3' end. When it catches up with the RNA polymerase paused at a termination site, it causes the dissociation of the RNA transcript, RNA polymerase, and DNA template.\n\n4. **\u03b3 (gamma) factor:** The gamma factor is not a standard, well-known factor directly and primarily responsible for transcription termination in the general context of molecular biology (like rho or sigma for their respective roles). While there might be gamma subunits in various complexes, it is not a key factor for termination like rho.\n\nConsidering the options, the rho factor (\u03c1) is a well-established factor involved in the termination of transcription in prokaryotes.\n\nTherefore, the correct answer is (3) \u03c1 (rho).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{3}$\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_175", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [3], "predicted_answer": [3], "raw_response": "The statement to be evaluated is: \"Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.\"\nWe need to determine the correctness of this statement for respiration in water and on land.\n\nLet's break the statement into two parts:\nPart 1: Respiration in water: \"Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity.\"\nPart 2: Respiration on land: \"on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.\"\n\nWe will refer to the information typically found in standard biology textbooks, particularly NCERT, which is the primary reference for the NEET exam.\n\nAccording to NCERT (Class 11 Biology, Chapter on Structural Organisation in Animals - Frog):\n1. General statement about respiratory surfaces: \"Gaseous exchange occurs through skin, lining of buccal cavity and lungs.\"\n2. Respiration in water: \"In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration). Dissolved oxygen in the water is exchanged through the skin by diffusion.\"\n3. Respiration on land: \"On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs. The respiration by lungs is called pulmonary respiration.\"\n4. During aestivation and hibernation: \"gaseous exchange takes place through skin.\"\n\nNow let's evaluate Part 1 and Part 2 of the given statement:\n\nPart 1: \"Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity.\"\n* NCERT explicitly states that in water, \"skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ\". It does not mention the buccal cavity as a respiratory organ in water. While the buccal cavity is a respiratory surface as per the general statement, its role in water is superseded by the specific statement about skin. Therefore, if we strictly follow NCERT, the inclusion of \"buccal cavity\" for respiration in water makes this part of the statement potentially false. So, Part 1 is likely considered false based on NCERT's emphasis.\n\nPart 2: \"on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.\"\n* NCERT states, \"On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.\" This matches Part 2 of the statement. So, Part 2 is true.\n\nBased on this analysis:\n* The part of the statement concerning respiration in water (\"by skin and buccal cavity\") is false (because NCERT emphasizes only skin for water respiration).\n* The part of the statement concerning respiration on land (\"by skin, buccal cavity and lungs\") is true.\n\nNow let's match this with the given options:\n(1) The statement is true for water but false for land. (Incorrect, as we found it false for water and true for land)\n(2) The statement is true for both the environment. (Incorrect, as we found it false for water)\n(3) The statement is false for water but true for land. (This matches our analysis: false for water part, true for land part)\n(4) The statement is false for both the environment. (Incorrect, as we found it true for land)\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (3).\n\nFinal check for any ambiguity. Sometimes, general biological knowledge might suggest some minor buccal respiration in water. However, for exams like NEET, sticking to the details provided in the prescribed textbook (NCERT) is crucial. NCERT's specific demarcation of respiratory organs for water (skin only) versus land (skin, buccal cavity, lungs) is key here.\n\n3", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_176", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_177", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The question asks to identify the microbes that are NOT involved in the preparation of household products from the given list. Let's analyze each microbe:\n\nA. Aspergillus niger: This fungus is used for the industrial production of citric acid. Citric acid is used as a food preservative and flavoring agent, and can be found in many processed foods and also used in households. However, the direct use of Aspergillus niger in household preparations is not common. The production of citric acid using Aspergillus niger is an industrial process. So, it can be considered as not directly involved in the preparation of household products by the microbe itself in a domestic setting.\n\nB. Lactobacillus: Species of Lactobacillus are commonly used in households for the preparation of curd (yogurt) from milk, and in the fermentation of batter for idli and dosa. These are typical household products. So, Lactobacillus IS involved.\n\nC. Trichoderma polysporum: This fungus is a source of cyclosporin A, which is an immunosuppressive drug used in organ transplantation. Drugs are not considered household products in the context of food preparation or common household items. So, Trichoderma polysporum is NOT involved in the preparation of household products.\n\nD. Saccharomyces cerevisiae: This yeast, also known as baker's yeast or brewer's yeast, is widely used in households for baking bread and for the fermentation of beverages like beer and wine (home brewing). Bread is a common household product. So, Saccharomyces cerevisiae IS involved.\n\nE. Propionibacterium shermanii: This bacterium is used in the ripening of Swiss cheese, contributing to its characteristic flavor and large holes (due to CO2 production). Cheese is a household food product. So, Propionibacterium shermanii IS involved.\n\nBased on this analysis, the microbes NOT involved in the preparation of household products are:\n- Aspergillus niger (A): because it's primarily used in industrial production of citric acid, not directly in household preparations using the microbe itself.\n- Trichoderma polysporum (C): because it produces a medicinal drug, not a household product.\n\nThe microbes involved in household products are Lactobacillus (B), Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D), and Propionibacterium shermanii (E).\n\nSo, the microbes NOT involved are A and C.\nLet's look at the options:\n(1) A and B only - B is involved.\n(2) A and C only - Both A and C are considered not involved.\n(3) C and D only - D is involved.\n(4) C and E only - E is involved.\n\nTherefore, the correct option is (2) A and C only.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$.\n\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_178", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [1], "predicted_answer": [1], "raw_response": "To match List-I with List-II:\nA. Progesterone: Progesterone is a steroid hormone primarily secreted by the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure within the ovary. Therefore, Progesterone (A) matches with Corpus luteum (IV).\n\nB. Relaxin: Relaxin is a hormone produced by the ovary (specifically the corpus luteum) and the placenta during pregnancy. Given the options, Ovary (II) is a correct source. Also, Corpus luteum (IV) is a correct source.\n\nC. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH): MSH is secreted by the pars intermedia of the pituitary gland. Therefore, Melanocyte stimulating hormone (C) matches with Pars intermedia (I).\n\nD. Catecholamines: Catecholamines, such as adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine), are hormones produced by the adrenal medulla. Therefore, Catecholamines (D) matches with Adrenal Medulla (III).\n\nBased on these individual matches:\nA - IV (Progesterone - Corpus luteum)\nC - I (Melanocyte stimulating hormone - Pars intermedia)\nD - III (Catecholamines - Adrenal Medulla)\n\nThese matches are very specific and standard. Now let's consider B (Relaxin). The remaining option in List-II that makes overall sense with A-IV is II (Ovary). Relaxin is indeed produced by the ovary (specifically the corpus luteum).\n\nSo, the complete set of matches is:\nA - IV\nB - II\nC - I\nD - III\n\nLet's check the given options:\n(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III: This matches our derived set of matches. All individual pairings are correct. Progesterone from Corpus luteum is a primary association. Relaxin from Ovary is also correct (as corpus luteum is part of the ovary).\n(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I: Here C-III (MSH - Adrenal Medulla) is incorrect, and D-I (Catecholamines - Pars intermedia) is incorrect.\n(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III: Here A-II (Progesterone - Ovary) is generally correct, and B-IV (Relaxin - Corpus luteum) is also correct. C-I and D-III are correct. However, A-IV (Progesterone - Corpus luteum) is a more specific and prominent association. If this is chosen, then B-II is the corresponding match.\n(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I: Here A-III (Progesterone - Adrenal Medulla) is incorrect. C-IV (MSH - Corpus luteum) is incorrect. D-I (Catecholamines - Pars intermedia) is incorrect.\n\nComparing options (1) and (3):\nOption (1): Progesterone - Corpus luteum (A-IV), Relaxin - Ovary (B-II).\nOption (3): Progesterone - Ovary (A-II), Relaxin - Corpus luteum (B-IV).\n\nThe corpus luteum is primarily known for progesterone secretion. So, A-IV is a very strong and specific match. If we fix A-IV, then B-II (Relaxin - Ovary) follows as the remaining plausible match from the options provided, and it is also physiologically correct.\n\nTherefore, option (1) is the most appropriate set of matches.\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{1}$\n1", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_179", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [4], "predicted_answer": [4], "raw_response": "4", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 2, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} +{"question_id": "NEET_2025_45_180", "subject": "Biology", "ground_truth": [2], "predicted_answer": [2], "raw_response": "The Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population is described by the differential equation:\ndN/dt = rN * ((K-N)/K)\n\nWhere:\ndN/dt = rate of change of population size N with respect to time t\nr = intrinsic rate of natural increase (per capita growth rate)\nN = population size\nK = carrying capacity (maximum population size that the environment can sustain)\n(K-N)/K = environmental resistance factor, which modifies the exponential growth rate. As N approaches K, this factor approaches 0, and the growth rate slows down. If N = K, then (K-N)/K = 0, and dN/dt = 0, meaning the population growth stops.\n\nLet's examine each option:\n\n(1) dN/dt = r * ((K-N)/K)\nThis equation is incorrect because the growth rate is proportional to the population size N. In this equation, the term N is missing on the right-hand side.\n\n(2) dN/dt = rN * ((K-N)/K)\nThis equation is the standard form of the Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation. It correctly incorporates the intrinsic rate of increase (r), the current population size (N), and the environmental resistance term ((K-N)/K).\n\n(3) dN/dt = rN * ((N-K)/N)\nThis equation has several issues. First, the term in the parenthesis is (N-K)/N. If N < K (population is below carrying capacity), then N-K is negative, which would imply a decrease in population, which is not what logistic growth describes for populations below carrying capacity. Also, the denominator in the resistance term is N instead of K.\n\n(4) dN/dt = N * ((r-K)/K)\nThis equation is incorrect. The term (r-K)/K is not the correct representation of environmental resistance. The intrinsic rate of increase (r) is multiplied by N and the resistance factor ((K-N)/K) in the correct equation.\n\nTherefore, the correct equation representing the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population is given by option (2).\n\nThe final answer is $\\boxed{2}$\n2", "parse_successful": true, "api_call_successful": true, "error": null, "attempt": 1, "evaluation_status": "correct", "marks_awarded": 4} diff --git a/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/summary.json b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/summary.json new file mode 100644 index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..be94a96003fa333bd1c66ce666980ad0eaef4d87 --- /dev/null +++ b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/summary.json @@ -0,0 +1,34 @@ +{ + "model_name": "google/gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25", + "exam_name": "NEET", + "exam_year": "2025", + "timestamp": "20250506_195634", + "total_questions_in_dataset": 180, + "overall_score": 680, + "overall_correct": 172, + "overall_incorrect": 8, + "overall_skipped": 0, + "overall_api_parse_failures": 6, + "total_questions_processed": 180, + "unmapped_section_questions": 0, + "section_breakdown": { + "Biology": { + "score": 340, + "correct": 86, + "incorrect": 4, + "skipped": 0 + }, + "Chemistry": { + "score": 170, + "correct": 43, + "incorrect": 2, + "skipped": 0 + }, + "Physics": { + "score": 170, + "correct": 43, + "incorrect": 2, + "skipped": 0 + } + } +} \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/summary.md b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/summary.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..2c524fa7cf3def69708b2ed693feecadc7aa91dc --- /dev/null +++ b/results/google_gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25_NEET_2025_20250506_195634/summary.md @@ -0,0 +1,22 @@ +# Benchmark Results: google/gemini-2.5-pro-preview-03-25 +**Exam Name:** NEET +**Exam Year:** 2025 +**Timestamp:** 20250506_195634 +**Total Questions in Dataset:** 180 + +--- + +## NEET Scoring Results +**Overall Score:** **680 / 720** +- **Correct Answers (+4):** 172 +- **Incorrect Answers (-1):** 8 +- **Skipped Questions (0):** 0 +- **API/Parse Failures (-1):** 6 +- **Total Questions Processed:** 180 + +### Section Breakdown +| Section | Score | Correct | Incorrect | Skipped | +|---------------|-------|---------|-----------|---------| +| Biology | 340 | 86 | 4 | 0 | +| Chemistry | 170 | 43 | 2 | 0 | +| Physics | 170 | 43 | 2 | 0 | \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/src/benchmark_runner.py b/src/benchmark_runner.py index 48347d16d01a1e08b681420918162a6f3613462e..3ad342243beaed205fd22d04a942ddef6b5c4bcd 100644 --- a/src/benchmark_runner.py +++ b/src/benchmark_runner.py @@ -63,19 +63,25 @@ def generate_markdown_summary(summary: Dict[str, Any], filepath: str): try: md_content = [] model_name = summary.get("model_name", "N/A") + exam_name = summary.get("exam_name", "N/A") + exam_year = summary.get("exam_year", "N/A") timestamp = summary.get("timestamp", "N/A") - total_questions = summary.get("total_questions_in_dataset", "N/A") + total_questions_in_dataset = summary.get("total_questions_in_dataset", 0) # Use 0 as default for calculation md_content.append(f"# Benchmark Results: {model_name}") + if exam_name and exam_name not in ["N/A", "All_Exams"]: # Only display if a specific exam was targeted + md_content.append(f"**Exam Name:** {exam_name}") + if exam_year and exam_year not in ["N/A", "All_Years"]: # Only display if a specific year was targeted + md_content.append(f"**Exam Year:** {exam_year}") md_content.append(f"**Timestamp:** {timestamp}") - md_content.append(f"**Total Questions in Dataset:** {total_questions}") + md_content.append(f"**Total Questions in Dataset:** {total_questions_in_dataset if total_questions_in_dataset > 0 else 'N/A'}") md_content.append("\n---\n") - # Check if NEET results are present + # Check if NEET results are present (or any dataset with overall_score and section_breakdown) if "overall_score" in summary and "section_breakdown" in summary: total_processed = summary.get("total_questions_processed", 0) - # Assuming standard NEET: 200 questions, 4 marks each. Adjust if needed. - max_score = 200 * 4 # Calculate max possible score based on standard NEET + # Dynamically calculate max_score based on questions in the dataset used for this run + max_score = total_questions_in_dataset * 4 if total_questions_in_dataset > 0 else "N/A" overall_score = summary.get('overall_score', 'N/A') correct_count = summary.get('overall_correct', 'N/A') incorrect_count = summary.get('overall_incorrect', 'N/A') @@ -97,17 +103,24 @@ def generate_markdown_summary(summary: Dict[str, Any], filepath: str): md_content.append("| Section | Score | Correct | Incorrect | Skipped |") md_content.append("|---------------|-------|---------|-----------|---------|") section_breakdown = summary.get("section_breakdown", {}) - sections = [ - "Physics_A", "Physics_B", "Chemistry_A", "Chemistry_B", - "Botany_A", "Botany_B", "Zoology_A", "Zoology_B" - ] - for section_name in sections: - stats = section_breakdown.get(section_name, {}) + + # Dynamically get section names (subjects) from the breakdown, sorted for consistent order + sorted_section_names = sorted(section_breakdown.keys()) + if not sorted_section_names and section_breakdown: # If keys exist but sorting failed (e.g. mixed types) + logging.warning("Could not sort section names for Markdown summary; using unsorted.") + sorted_section_names = list(section_breakdown.keys()) + + for section_name in sorted_section_names: + stats = section_breakdown.get(section_name, {}) # Should always find it score = stats.get('score', 'N/A') correct = stats.get('correct', 'N/A') incorrect = stats.get('incorrect', 'N/A') skipped = stats.get('skipped', 'N/A') - md_content.append(f"| {section_name.replace('_', ' '):<13} | {score:<5} | {correct:<7} | {incorrect:<9} | {skipped:<7} |") + display_section_name = section_name.replace('_', ' ') # Basic formatting + md_content.append(f"| {display_section_name:<13} | {score:<5} | {correct:<7} | {incorrect:<9} | {skipped:<7} |") + if not sorted_section_names: + md_content.append("| No section data available | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A |") + # Fallback or alternative for simple accuracy elif "accuracy_on_parsed" in summary: @@ -134,7 +147,7 @@ def generate_markdown_summary(summary: Dict[str, Any], filepath: str): logging.error(f"Unexpected error generating or saving markdown summary to {filepath}: {e}") -def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None = None, output_dir_override: str | None = None): +def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None = None, output_dir_override: str | None = None, exam_name_filter: str | None = None, exam_year_filter: str | None = None): """Runs the benchmark evaluation loop with incremental saving and retries.""" # Determine models to run @@ -157,22 +170,56 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None # as the script is copied to a cache and needs to know where the actual data is. dataset = load_dataset(dataset_path, split='test', data_files={'test': 'data/metadata.jsonl'}, data_dir='.', trust_remote_code=True) dataset = dataset.cast_column("image", HFImage(decode=True)) # Ensure images are loaded as PIL - logging.info(f"Dataset loaded successfully from path: {dataset_path}. Number of questions: {len(dataset)}") + logging.info(f"Dataset loaded successfully from path: {dataset_path}. Original number of questions: {len(dataset)}") except Exception as e: logging.error(f"Failed to load dataset from path '{dataset_path}': {e}") logging.error("Ensure the path is correct and 'jee_neet_benchmark_dataset.py' exists.") return + # Filter dataset if exam_name_filter and exam_year_filter are provided + if exam_name_filter and exam_year_filter: + try: + filter_year_int = int(exam_year_filter) + logging.info(f"Filtering dataset for exam_name: '{exam_name_filter}' and exam_year: {filter_year_int}") + + original_count = len(dataset) + dataset = dataset.filter( + lambda example: example['exam_name'] == exam_name_filter and \ + example['exam_year'] == filter_year_int + ) + filtered_count = len(dataset) + logging.info(f"Filtered dataset size: {filtered_count} questions (from {original_count}).") + + if filtered_count == 0: + logging.warning(f"No questions found matching exam_name '{exam_name_filter}' and exam_year {filter_year_int}. Benchmark run will be empty for these filters.") + except ValueError: + logging.error(f"Invalid --exam_year provided: '{exam_year_filter}'. Must be an integer. No filtering will be applied.") + except Exception as e: + logging.error(f"An error occurred during dataset filtering: {e}. No filtering will be applied.") + elif exam_name_filter or exam_year_filter: # If only one is provided + logging.warning("To filter by exam, both --exam_name and --exam_year must be provided. No filtering will be applied.") + total_questions = len(dataset) + if total_questions == 0: + logging.warning("No questions to process after filtering. Skipping model benchmarks.") + return # --- Main Loop: Iterate through models --- for model_id in models_to_run: - logging.info(f"--- Starting benchmark for model: {model_id} ---") + logging.info(f"--- Starting benchmark for model: {model_id} (Processing {total_questions} questions) ---") # Create timestamped output directory for this model run timestamp = datetime.datetime.now().strftime("%Y%m%d_%H%M%S") safe_model_name = model_id.replace('/', '_') - model_output_dir = os.path.join(base_output_dir, f"{safe_model_name}_{timestamp}") + dir_name_parts = [safe_model_name] + if exam_name_filter: + dir_name_parts.append(exam_name_filter.replace('/', '_')) # Sanitize exam name + if exam_year_filter: + dir_name_parts.append(str(exam_year_filter)) + dir_name_parts.append(timestamp) + + model_output_dir_name = "_".join(dir_name_parts) + model_output_dir = os.path.join(base_output_dir, model_output_dir_name) os.makedirs(model_output_dir, exist_ok=True) predictions_path = os.path.join(model_output_dir, "predictions.jsonl") summary_path = os.path.join(model_output_dir, "summary.json") @@ -207,6 +254,8 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None model_identifier=model_id, api_key=api_key, image=image, # Pass image for initial call + exam_name=exam_name_filter, # Pass exam_name + exam_year=exam_year_filter, # Pass exam_year max_tokens=config.get("max_tokens", 100), request_timeout=config.get("request_timeout", 60) ) @@ -217,7 +266,7 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None raw_response_attempt1 = raw_response # --- Re-prompt Logic --- - if api_success_attempt1 and not parse_success_attempt1: + if api_success_attempt1 and not parse_success_attempt1 and raw_response_attempt1 is not None: logging.warning(f"Question {question_id}: Initial parse failed. Attempting re-prompt.") try: # Second API call (re-prompt) @@ -251,13 +300,25 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None "attempt": 1 # Revert attempt count as re-prompt failed }) else: - # Initial API call was successful and parsed correctly, or API failed initially - result_data.update({ + # Initial API call was successful and parsed correctly, or API failed initially, + # or re-prompt was skipped due to empty initial response. + current_error = result_data.get("error") # Preserve existing error if any from re-prompt failure + api_actually_successful = api_success_attempt1 + + if api_success_attempt1 and raw_response_attempt1 is None and parsed_answer is None: + # This case specifically handles when initial call was "successful" (no exception) + # but returned no content, and thus re-prompt was skipped. + current_error = "Initial API call returned empty content. Re-prompt skipped." + # Consider if api_call_successful should be False for scoring if empty means failure + # For now, we keep it as True if no exception occurred during the API call itself. + + result_data.update({ "predicted_answer": parsed_answer, "raw_response": raw_response_attempt1, - "parse_successful": parse_success_attempt1, - "api_call_successful": True, # API call was successful - "attempt": 1 + "parse_successful": parse_success_attempt1, # This would be False if parsed_answer is None + "api_call_successful": api_actually_successful, + "error": current_error, + "attempt": 1 # Remains attempt 1 if re-prompt didn't occur or failed }) # Append final result (from initial success or re-prompt attempt) @@ -314,6 +375,8 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None model_identifier=model_id, api_key=api_key, image=image, # Pass image for this retry + exam_name=exam_name_filter, # Pass exam_name + exam_year=exam_year_filter, # Pass exam_year max_tokens=config.get("max_tokens", 100), request_timeout=config.get("request_timeout", 60) ) @@ -323,7 +386,7 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None raw_response_attempt2 = raw_response # --- Re-prompt Logic (within API Retry Pass) --- - if api_success_attempt2 and not parse_success_attempt2: + if api_success_attempt2 and not parse_success_attempt2 and raw_response_attempt2 is not None: logging.warning(f"Question {question_id}: API Retry succeeded, but parse failed. Attempting re-prompt.") try: # Third API call (re-prompt after API retry) @@ -356,13 +419,20 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None "attempt": 2 # Revert attempt count }) else: - # API retry succeeded and parsed correctly - result_data.update({ + # API retry succeeded and parsed correctly, or re-prompt was skipped. + current_error_retry = result_data.get("error") # Preserve error from re-prompt failure + api_actually_successful_retry = api_success_attempt2 + + if api_success_attempt2 and raw_response_attempt2 is None and parsed_answer is None: + current_error_retry = "API retry call returned empty content. Re-prompt skipped." + + result_data.update({ "predicted_answer": parsed_answer, "raw_response": raw_response_attempt2, - "parse_successful": parse_success_attempt2, - "api_call_successful": True, - "attempt": 2 + "parse_successful": parse_success_attempt2, # False if parsed_answer is None + "api_call_successful": api_actually_successful_retry, + "error": current_error_retry, + "attempt": 2 # Remains attempt 2 if re-prompt didn't occur or failed }) except Exception as e: @@ -388,12 +458,19 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None if is_neet_dataset: logging.info("Detected NEET dataset. Applying NEET scoring.") - evaluation_summary = calculate_neet_scores(model_results) + evaluation_summary = calculate_neet_scores(model_results) # model_results modified in-place + + # Determine exam name and year for summary + summary_exam_name = exam_name_filter if exam_name_filter else "All_Exams" + summary_exam_year = exam_year_filter if exam_year_filter else "All_Years" + summary = { "model_name": model_id, + "exam_name": summary_exam_name, + "exam_year": summary_exam_year, "timestamp": timestamp, - "total_questions_in_dataset": total_questions, - **evaluation_summary # Merge NEET score details + "total_questions_in_dataset": total_questions, # This is total in dataset *before* model processing + **evaluation_summary # Merge NEET score details (includes total_questions_processed) } logging.info(f"NEET Score: {summary.get('overall_score')}") logging.info(f"Correct: {summary.get('overall_correct')}, Incorrect: {summary.get('overall_incorrect')}, Skipped: {summary.get('overall_skipped')}, API/Parse Failures: {summary.get('overall_api_parse_failures')}") @@ -437,14 +514,21 @@ def run_benchmark(config: dict, api_key: str, models_override: list[str] | None logging.warning(f"No valid list predictions were generated for model {model_id} for accuracy calculation.") + # Determine exam name and year for summary + summary_exam_name = exam_name_filter if exam_name_filter else "All_Exams" + summary_exam_year = exam_year_filter if exam_year_filter else "All_Years" + summary = { "model_name": model_id, + "exam_name": summary_exam_name, + "exam_year": summary_exam_year, "timestamp": timestamp, - "total_questions_in_dataset": total_questions, + "total_questions_in_dataset": total_questions, # This is total in dataset *before* model processing "total_processed_attempts": len(model_results), # Includes retries "successful_api_calls": sum(1 for res in model_results if res.get("api_call_successful")), "successful_parses": sum(1 for res in model_results if res.get("parse_successful")), "accuracy_on_parsed": accuracy # Accuracy based only on successfully parsed non-skipped answers + # Note: total_questions_processed is part of evaluation_summary for NEET, handle for non-NEET if needed } logging.info(f"Accuracy (on successfully parsed non-skipped): {accuracy:.4f}") @@ -494,6 +578,18 @@ if __name__ == "__main__": type=str, help="Override the base output directory specified in the config file." ) + parser.add_argument( + "--exam_name", + type=str, + default=None, # Optional + help="Filter dataset by specific exam name (e.g., NEET, JEE). Requires --exam_year." + ) + parser.add_argument( + "--exam_year", + type=str, # Keep as str for initial parsing, convert to int later + default=None, # Optional + help="Filter dataset by specific exam year (e.g., 2024). Requires --exam_name." + ) args = parser.parse_args() try: @@ -502,7 +598,14 @@ if __name__ == "__main__": # Load configuration config = load_config(args.config) # Run the benchmark - run_benchmark(config, api_key, args.models, args.output_dir) + run_benchmark( + config, + api_key, + args.models, + args.output_dir, + args.exam_name, # Pass new argument + args.exam_year # Pass new argument + ) except (ValueError, FileNotFoundError, yaml.YAMLError) as e: logging.error(f"Setup failed: {e}") except Exception as e: diff --git a/src/evaluation.py b/src/evaluation.py index 0aafc4e9cc962140863b3c048dd11283624a0266..ece31cd8d22b098ac0e4816be0b47bfafbbc5950 100644 --- a/src/evaluation.py +++ b/src/evaluation.py @@ -56,21 +56,18 @@ def calculate_accuracy(predictions: List[Optional[List[int]]], ground_truths: Li return accuracy -def get_neet_section(subject: str, question_num: int) -> Optional[str]: - """Determines the NEET section based on subject and question number.""" - if subject == "Physics": - if 1 <= question_num <= 35: return "Physics_A" - if 36 <= question_num <= 50: return "Physics_B" - elif subject == "Chemistry": - if 51 <= question_num <= 85: return "Chemistry_A" - if 86 <= question_num <= 100: return "Chemistry_B" - elif subject == "Botany": - if 101 <= question_num <= 135: return "Botany_A" - if 136 <= question_num <= 150: return "Botany_B" - elif subject == "Zoology": - if 151 <= question_num <= 185: return "Zoology_A" - if 186 <= question_num <= 200: return "Zoology_B" - return None # Not a standard NEET question number/subject +def get_neet_section(subject: str, question_num: int) -> Optional[str]: # question_num is effectively unused by this revised logic + """ + Returns the subject name directly as the section identifier. + This makes the section reporting dynamic based on the 'subject' field from metadata. + """ + if subject and isinstance(subject, str) and subject.strip(): # Ensure subject is a non-empty string + return subject.strip() # Return the subject name as is + else: + # Log if subject is missing or invalid, helps in debugging data issues. + # question_num is included in log for context, though not used for determination. + logging.warning(f"Invalid or missing subject ('{subject}') for question_num '{question_num}'. Cannot determine section.") + return None def calculate_neet_scores(results: List[Dict[str, Any]]) -> Dict[str, Any]: @@ -94,21 +91,30 @@ def calculate_neet_scores(results: List[Dict[str, Any]]) -> Dict[str, Any]: # Initialize overall and section counters overall_stats = {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0, "api_parse_failures": 0} + + # Dynamically discover subjects from the results and initialize section_stats + # Filter out None or empty subjects before creating the set + valid_subjects_from_data = [r.get("subject") for r in results if r.get("subject") and isinstance(r.get("subject"), str) and r.get("subject").strip()] + if not valid_subjects_from_data and results: # If results exist but no valid subjects found + logging.warning("No valid subjects found in results data to initialize section_stats, though results were provided.") + + unique_subjects = sorted(list(set(s.strip() for s in valid_subjects_from_data))) + section_stats = { - "Physics_A": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, - "Physics_B": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, - "Chemistry_A": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, - "Chemistry_B": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, - "Botany_A": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, - "Botany_B": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, - "Zoology_A": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, - "Zoology_B": {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0}, + subj: {"score": 0, "correct": 0, "incorrect": 0, "skipped": 0} + for subj in unique_subjects } + + if not unique_subjects and results: # Log if results are present but no sections could be initialized + logging.warning("section_stats is empty because no unique, valid subjects were found in the results.") + unmapped_questions = 0 for result in results: question_id = result.get("question_id") - subject = result.get("subject") + # Use the subject directly from the result item for section mapping. + # This 'subject' variable will be passed to get_neet_section. + subject = result.get("subject") pred = result.get("predicted_answer") truth = result.get("ground_truth") api_success = result.get("api_call_successful", False) # Default to False if missing @@ -157,7 +163,8 @@ def calculate_neet_scores(results: List[Dict[str, Any]]) -> Dict[str, Any]: # API and parsing succeeded, compare answers sorted_pred = sorted(pred) sorted_truth = sorted(truth) - if sorted_pred == sorted_truth: + # Check if any of the predicted answers are in the ground truth + if any(p_ans in sorted_truth for p_ans in sorted_pred): is_correct = True current_score_change = 4 evaluation_status = "correct" diff --git a/src/llm_interface.py b/src/llm_interface.py index 1f7cebd95090f3aba4d225a2023a8744504d2734..d751a29ca3d0bcad763f981f225ffb6c8a2af88c 100644 --- a/src/llm_interface.py +++ b/src/llm_interface.py @@ -68,14 +68,16 @@ It is crucial that your response contains ONLY the tag with the single return messages -def construct_initial_prompt(base64_image: str) -> list: +def construct_initial_prompt(base64_image: str, exam_name: str, exam_year: str) -> list: """Constructs the initial message list with image for the OpenRouter API call.""" - # Original prompt for the first attempt - prompt_text = """You are an expert at analyzing exam questions and extracting the correct answer option(s). + # Updated prompt for the first attempt + prompt_text = f"""You are an expert at analyzing exam questions from the {exam_name} {exam_year} exam and extracting the correct answer option. +This exam uses positive marking for correct answers and may use negative marking for incorrect answers, so accuracy is crucial. +Please think step-by-step to solve the problem. Examine the provided image of a multiple-choice question carefully. 1. Analyze the question and the provided options. -2. Determine the single correct integer number corresponding to the correct option. +2. Reason through the problem to determine the single correct integer number corresponding to the correct option. 3. Format your final answer by enclosing ONLY the single integer number within tags. Examples: @@ -106,6 +108,8 @@ def get_openrouter_prediction( api_key: str, image: Image.Image | None = None, # Image is now optional previous_raw_response: str | None = None, # Added for re-prompting + exam_name: str | None = None, # New parameter + exam_year: str | None = None, # New parameter max_tokens: int = 100, request_timeout: int = 60 ) -> tuple[list[int] | str | None, str | None]: # Allow predicted_answer to be "SKIP" @@ -117,8 +121,8 @@ def get_openrouter_prediction( api_key (str): The OpenRouter API key. image (Image.Image | None): The question image (for initial prompt). Default None. previous_raw_response (str | None): The raw response from a previous failed parse attempt (for re-prompt). Default None. - model_identifier (str): The OpenRouter model identifier (e.g., "openai/gpt-4o"). - api_key (str): The OpenRouter API key. + exam_name (str | None): The name of the exam (e.g., "NEET", "JEE"). Required if 'image' is provided. + exam_year (str | None): The year of the exam. Required if 'image' is provided. max_tokens (int): Max tokens for the response. request_timeout (int): Timeout for the API request in seconds. @@ -135,9 +139,11 @@ def get_openrouter_prediction( if image is not None and previous_raw_response is None: # Initial prompt with image - logging.debug("Constructing initial prompt with image.") + if not exam_name or not exam_year: + raise ValueError("'exam_name' and 'exam_year' must be provided when 'image' is specified for an initial prompt.") + logging.debug(f"Constructing initial prompt with image for {exam_name} {exam_year}.") base64_image = encode_image_to_base64(image) - messages = construct_initial_prompt(base64_image) + messages = construct_initial_prompt(base64_image, exam_name, exam_year) elif image is None and previous_raw_response is not None: # Re-prompt based on previous response logging.debug("Constructing re-prompt based on previous response.") @@ -216,10 +222,35 @@ if __name__ == '__main__': test_model = "anthropic/claude-3-haiku" # Example model print(f"\nTesting prediction with model: {test_model}") - parsed_ans, raw_resp = get_openrouter_prediction(dummy_image, test_model, api_key) + # Example with image, requiring exam_name and exam_year + parsed_ans, raw_resp = get_openrouter_prediction( + model_identifier=test_model, + api_key=api_key, + image=dummy_image, + exam_name="DUMMY_EXAM", + exam_year="2024" + ) print(f"Model: {test_model}") - print(f"Parsed Answer: {parsed_ans}") + print(f"Parsed Answer (Initial): {parsed_ans}") + print(f"Raw Response (Initial): {raw_resp}") + + # Example re-prompt (does not need image, exam_name, or exam_year) + if raw_resp: # Only attempt re-prompt if there was an initial response + print(f"\nTesting re-prompt for model: {test_model}") + reprompt_ans, reprompt_raw_resp = get_openrouter_prediction( + model_identifier=test_model, + api_key=api_key, + previous_raw_response="1 2 This is some extra text." # Example bad response + ) + print(f"Parsed Answer (Re-prompt): {reprompt_ans}") + print(f"Raw Response (Re-prompt): {reprompt_raw_resp}") + else: + print("\nSkipping re-prompt test as initial response was empty.") + + except ValueError as e: + print(f"Setup Error: {e}") + except Exception as e: print(f"Raw Response: {raw_resp}") except ValueError as e: diff --git a/src/utils.py b/src/utils.py index efdc65e97840ecd690f4f46cf126cbd991e91219..04e99c1823b21ec12c49195371b092db316b829d 100644 --- a/src/utils.py +++ b/src/utils.py @@ -62,7 +62,7 @@ def parse_llm_answer(response_text: str) -> list[int] | str | None: if match: extracted_content = match.group(1).strip() - logging.warning(f"DEBUG_PARSE: Raw extracted content: {match.group(1)!r}, Stripped: {extracted_content!r}") # Added minimal log + logging.debug(f"DEBUG_PARSE: Raw extracted content: {match.group(1)!r}, Stripped: {extracted_content!r}") # Changed to debug if not extracted_content: logging.warning(f"Found tag but content is empty.") return None # Empty content within tags @@ -75,7 +75,7 @@ def parse_llm_answer(response_text: str) -> list[int] | str | None: for ans_str in potential_answers: if not ans_str: continue # Skip empty strings resulting from trailing commas etc. try: - logging.warning(f"DEBUG_PARSE: Attempting int conversion on: {ans_str!r}") # Added minimal log + logging.debug(f"DEBUG_PARSE: Attempting int conversion on: {ans_str!r}") # Changed to debug # Attempt to convert to integer parsed_answers.append(int(ans_str)) except ValueError: