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https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=214967 | A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. He was running a marathon but became confused halfway through the race. He arrives unable to coherently answer questions and is not sure where he is. He has a history of a seizure disorder. His temperature is 105°F (40.6°C), blood pressure is 116/68 mmHg, pulse is 167/min, respirations are 29/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a confused man who is moving all 4 extremities and is protecting his airway. During the exam, he develops a tonic-clonic seizure, which lasts 1 minute and then terminates on its own. The patient is given intravenous fluids, and basic laboratory studies are drawn and pending. A urine dipstick is positive for red blood cells. Which of the following is most likely to be seen on laboratory testing? | Hyperkalemia | Hyperphosphatemia | Hyperuricemia | Hypocalcemia | D | Hypocalcemia | This patient is presenting after running a marathon with hyperthermia and altered mental status suggestive of heatstroke. In the setting of his recent exertion, tonic-clonic seizure, and urine dipstick positive for red blood cells, he is likely suffering from rhabdomyolysis, which most commonly causes hypocalcemia.
Rhabdomyolysis occurs when there is a breakdown of the muscle cells. It can occur with exertion (such as marathon running or weight lifting), seizures (from prolonged and intense contraction of the muscles), cocaine use, lightning strikes, electrical injuries, and crush injuries. Damage to muscle cells most commonly causes hypocalcemia from the deposition of calcium in necrotic muscle cells as well as calcium sequestration by the muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include perioral numbness and tetany, altered mental status, and seizure. ECG manifestations of hypocalcemia include QT prolongation. There is no treatment needed for hypocalcemia in rhabdomyolysis unless it is severe or is causing symptoms such as seizure or ECG changes. The management of rhabdomyolysis involves aggressive IV fluid administration titrated to urine output in order to prevent myoglobin nephrotoxicity. Myoglobin causes the classic false-positive finding of red blood cells on urine dipstick given the cross-reactivity of myoglobin and hemoglobin on this test.
Giannoglou et al. review the pathophysiology and diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The authors find that hypocalcemia is the most common electrolyte derangement seen in rhabdomyolysis. The authors recommend carefully monitoring ionized calcium in patients with rhabdomyolysis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte derangement that occurs in rhabdomyolysis and can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias. Initial ECG findings suggestive of hyperkalemia include peaked T waves and QRS widening. The management of hyperkalemia involves the administration of calcium chloride to stabilize cardiac membranes followed by insulin, albuterol, and bicarbonate. Severe/refractory hyperkalemia can be treated with dialysis, but this is usually not needed in rhabdomyolysis. Hyperkalemia is less common when compared to hypocalcemia in rhabdomyolysis and does not cause seizures.
Answer B: Hyperphosphatemia is common in rhabdomyolysis and occurs secondary to the release of phosphorus from damaged muscle cells. Hyperphosphatemia does not usually require treatment in rhabdomyolysis, though phosphate restriction and phosphate binders can be administered. Hyperphosphatemia can rarely lead to seizures, though this is uncommon.
Answer C: Hyperuricemia is possible in rhabdomyolysis, occurs secondary to the release of purines from injured muscle cells, and is worsened by acute kidney injury which is common in rhabdomyolysis. The treatment of hyperuricemia in rhabdomyolysis involves IV fluids, rasburicase, and allopurinol (which works slowly).
Answer E: Hyponatremia may occur after running a marathon where the individual sweats out sodium, chloride, and water but rehydrates with only water. While this is possible in this patient and his seizure could reflect a hyponatremic seizure (which usually would not spontaneously resolve and requires hypertonic saline), there is concrete evidence of rhabdomyolysis with the positive urine dipstick for red blood cells.
Bullet Summary:
Rhabdomyolysis can cause hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia (the most common electrolyte disturbance). | Hyponatremia |
https://bit.ly/3PAgPQX | A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. He was found by his roommate to be disoriented this morning. He had complained of a right-sided headache for the past 5 days. He has a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection being treated with bictegravir, emtricitabine, and tenofovir. His last CD4 cell count was 500/mm^3. He does not smoke tobacco and drinks alcohol socially. His temperature is 104.2°F (40.1°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Examination reveals 3/5 strength to right shoulder abduction and elbow flexion/extension and 4/5 strength to right hip flexion/extension. The remainder of the strength exam on the right and left sides is normal. Neck flexion does not elicit pain, and there are no tongue lacerations. During the exam, the patient’s eyes are seen to roll backward with repeated flexion/extension of his extremities and loss of urine. This stops after 1 minute. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Bacterial meningitis | Fungal meningitis | Brain abscess | Epilepsy | C | Brain abscess | This HIV-positive patient presents with fever, unilateral headache, altered mental status, focal neurological deficits (3/5 strength to right shoulder abduction, elbow flexion/extension, hip flexion/extension), and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, suggestive of a brain abscess.
A brain abscess typically presents in patients with underlying risk factors for infection, such as positive HIV status or bacterial endocarditis with hematogenous bacterial seeding. Patients present with fever, unilateral headache, altered mental status, focal neurological deficits, and fevers. Work-up consists of blood cultures, CT scan, and confirmatory magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast, showing a focal, hyperintense lesion with restricted diffusion. Treatment is with empiric broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy (e.g., vancomycin, metronidazole, and cefepime for gram-positive, gram-negative, and Pseudomonas coverage in immunocompromised patients) and surgical drainage.
Brouwer et al. review the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of brain abscesses. They discuss the importance of rapid initiation of antimicrobial therapy in these patients.
Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1 & 5: Bacterial or fungal meningitis can present with fever, headache, focal neurological deficits, and seizures but patients typically have meningeal signs such as pain with neck flexion. Cryptococcal meningitis is commonly seen in HIV-positive patients with CD4 counts < 100/mm^3.
Answer C: Cytomegalovirus encephalitis can present with fever, altered mental status, headache, and focal neurological deficits in patients with HIV infection. It typically presents in patients with severe immunodeficiency, often with CD4 cell count < 50/mm^3. This patient’s CD4 cell count is 500/mm^3, making this less likely than an abscess.
Answer D: Epilepsy is a primary neurological disorder that can cause generalized tonic-clonic seizures but would not explain this patient’s fever or unilateral headache. While Todd paralysis (focal weakness after a seizure) can occur after seizures, this patient’s focal weakness predates his seizure. A primary seizure disorder is not diagnosed when seizures occur secondary to another process.
Bullet Summary:
Brain abscess presents with fever, altered mental status, unilateral headache, seizures, and focal neurological deficits in patients with risk factors for infection (for example HIV, bacterial endocarditis). | nan |
https://bit.ly/44eJlxH | A 3-day-old boy is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit for failure to pass meconium. The patient is otherwise doing well and feeding every 2 hours. He is urinating 8-10 times per day. The patient has had 2 episodes of vomiting that were described as green in color. He was born at 39 weeks gestation to a 38-year-old G3P3 mother. The pregnancy was uncomplicated, and the patient’s mother received routine prenatal care. She declined prenatal testing. One of the patient’s older siblings has Down syndrome. The patient's temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 48/32 mmHg, pulse is 164/min, and respirations are 48/min. On physical exam, the patient is in no acute distress. His abdomen is firm, non-tender, and distended with hypoactive bowel sounds. A digital rectal exam fails to relieve the obstruction. An abdominal radiograph is performed and the result can be seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Abdominal CT | Contrast enema | Rectal suction biopsy | Sweat testing | B | Contrast enema | This patient presents with delayed passage of meconium, bilious emesis, unsuccessful disimpaction on digital rectal exam, and dilated loops of bowel on abdominal radiograph which suggests a diagnosis of meconium ileus. The most appropriate next step in management is an enema with water-soluble contrast which may be both diagnostic and therapeutic.
Meconium ileus presents with bilious emesis and failure to pass meconium in the first 48 hours of life. Abdominal radiography typically shows dilated loops of the small intestine proximal to the obstruction. Enema with water-soluble contrast (Gastrografin) is both diagnostic and therapeutic, as the contrast not only visualizes a microcolon but also relieves the obstruction via the osmotic pull of water into the lumen of the colon. Surgery may be necessary if the contrast enema fails. Patients should also be evaluated for underlying conditions such as cystic fibrosis.
Adams and Stanton review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of neonatal bowel obstruction. They discuss how malrotation, jejunoileal atresia, duodenal atresia, and colonic atresia are common causes of this finding. They recommend surgical management of these conditions.
Figure/Illustration A is an abdominal radiograph demonstrating dilated loops of bowel and a “soap bubble” appearance of meconium mixed with bowel gas in the right lower quadrant (red circle). These findings are classically seen in patients with meconium ileus.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: An abdominal radiograph would be faster but less accurate than an abdominal CT. The use of CT should also be restricted in the pediatric population due to the radiation exposure involved.
Answer C: Rectal suction biopsy is the most accurate test to diagnose Hirschsprung disease, which may present like meconium ileus with bilious vomiting, delayed passage of meconium, and dilated loops of bowel on an abdominal radiograph. A digital rectal exam typically temporarily relieves the intestinal obstruction in Hirschsprung disease and produces an expulsion of gas and stool called the “squirt sign.”
Answer D: Sweat testing is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis, which is strongly associated with meconium ileus. An enema with water-soluble contrast would be the best next step to both confirm the diagnosis and relieve the obstruction. The patient should subsequently undergo sweat testing.
Answer E: Upper gastrointestinal series is the diagnostic test of choice for intestinal malrotation which may also present with bilious vomiting. Malrotation is less likely to present with delayed passage of meconium, and an abdominal radiograph would more likely demonstrate a midgut volvulus. Treatment is with surgical derotation.
Bullet Summary:
Patients with meconium ileus should undergo an enema with water-soluble contrast (Gastrografin) to both confirm the diagnosis and relieve the obstruction. | Upper gastrointestinal series |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216576 | A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a 2 day history of progressively worsening fatigue and shortness of breath. His past medical history is significant for previous myocardial infarction, a 30-pack-year smoking history, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and poorly controlled hypertension. The patient’s only home medication is omeprazole. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 30/min, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Physical exam is significant for a jugular venous pressure of 15 cm, an S3 heart sound, bibasilar crackles, and 2+ pitting edema to the knees bilaterally. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. His neurological exam is nonfocal and he walks with a steady gait. An arterial blood gas shows the following:
pH: 7.56 (normal 7.35-7.45)
pCO2: 25 mmHg (normal 35-45 mmHg)
HCO3: 29 mEq/L (normal 22-26 mEq/L)
pO2: 62 mmHg (normal 80-100 mmHg)
SaO2: 87% (normal 95-100%)
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? | Sacubitril and valsartan | Furosemide | Ivabradine | Metoprolol | B | Furosemide | This patient with multiple risk factors for heart failure (previous myocardial infarction, smoking history, hypertension), worsening fatigue, shortness of breath, respiratory alkalosis, and signs of fluid overload (S3 heart sound, elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), bibasilar crackles, peripheral edema) most likely has acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). The most appropriate initial management for patients in ADHF is a loop diuretic such as furosemide.
Heart failure (HF) is a condition in which the heart does not pump effectively and can be due to either difficulty with relaxation in diastole or contraction in systole or a combination of both. Risk factors for this condition include myocardial infarction, diabetes mellitus, valvular disease, cigarette smoking, hypertension, and obesity. Left-sided HF leads to decreased forward flow into the systemic circulation and increased congestion in the pulmonary circulation which clinically manifests as shortness of breath, pulmonary edema, and crackles on lung exam. Early pulmonary edema leads to a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch which causes hypoxia. Hypoxia leads to a compensatory increase in the respiratory rate, which leads to hypocapnia and respiratory alkalosis. The most appropriate initial treatment for patients in ADHF is a loop diuretic such as furosemide, which helps alleviate fluid overload. Other treatments for acute exacerbations may include nitroglycerin (in hypertensive patients) and BIPAP.
Yancy et al. discuss the most recent ACC/AHA guidelines for the management of heart failure. They review current testing and treatment regimens. Acute episodes may be managed with loop diuretics to reduce volume overload and improve symptoms.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Ivabradine inhibits the funny current, an electrical current that leads to spontaneous depolarization in pacemaker cells, leading to decreased heart rate. It reduces the risk of hospitalization in patients with chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). However, it should not be started in ADHF due to lack of mortality benefit and should be held in ADHF patients with severe decompensation due to decreased heart rate leading to decreased cardiac output.
Answer C: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that reduces mortality when used in patients with chronic HFrEF. However, beta-blockers can worsen decompensated HFrEF due to negative inotropy and should not be started in ADHF.
Answer D: Sacubitril and valsartan is a combination angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI) that improves mortality in patients with chronic HFrEF. ARNIs, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) should not be started in ADHF due to concern for hypotension and worsening renal function. However, either an ARNI, ACE inhibitor or ARB should be started prior to discharge.
Answer E: Spironolactone is a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist that reduces mortality in chronic HFrEF. However, high-dose spironolactone does not improve outcomes as first-line therapy in ADHF (Anstrom et al. JAMA Cardiology 2017).
Bullet Summary:
Patients with acute decompensated heart failure present with fatigue, dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, respiratory alkalosis on arterial blood gas, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=108988 | An 82-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in his right eye starting 2 days ago. When it started, he felt like a “curtain was pulled down” over his right eye but wasn't able to seek care immediately because it was snowing outside and he didn't want to travel in inclement weather. A review of systems is significant for occasional palpitations and presyncope. The patient’s medications include aspirin and carvedilol. He reports that he is a smoker with a 50-pack-year history. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. Physical exam reveals 20/800 vision in the right eye. A fundoscopic exam of the right eye is shown in Figure A. Physical and fundoscopic examinations of the left eye are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Start retinal photocoagulation | Continue aspirin and start statin therapy | Administer tissue plasma activator | Start timolol drops | B | Continue aspirin and start statin therapy | This patient with a history of atrial fibrillation is presenting with acute-onset, painless, monocular vision loss and a fundoscopic exam positive for retinal whitening. This suggests a diagnosis of central retinal artery occlusion and management should focus on control of underlying risk factors given that he is 2 days out from the event.
Symptoms of central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) include sudden, painless, complete, and normally unilateral vision loss. A fundoscopic exam can show pallor of the optic disc, diffuse ischemic whitening of the retina, cherry-red macula, retinal edema, and constricted/bloodless retinal arterioles. The center of the macula appears red because the photoreceptor layer at the fovea is perfused by the posterior choroidal vasculature rather than the central retinal artery. Treatment involves surgical decompression of the retinal anterior chamber, ideally within 1 hour of the occlusion. Tissue plasminogen activator should be administered if the patient presents within an acceptable time frame. If surgical intervention is not readily available, additional steps with minimal evidence to support their use include ocular massage (to dislodge the embolus) and either carbogen therapy or hyperbaric oxygen. Chronic management includes control of underlying risk factors with aspirin and statin therapy.
Dattilo et al. review the evidence regarding the treatment of central retinal artery occlusion. They discuss how treatments have not been particularly effective in the treatment of this disorder. They recommend engaging in secondary prevention of vascular events by controlling risk factors.
Figure/Illustration A is a fundoscopic photograph showing retinal pallor surrounding the superior temporal arcade (red circle). This finding is characteristically seen in central retinal artery occlusion.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Administering ranibizumab is not appropriate because this medication is an anti-VEGF antibody, which can be used to treat wet age-related macular degeneration. Symptoms of wet age-related macular degeneration include acute visual distortion and loss of central vision that occurs over months. A fundoscopic exam would show neovascularization.
Answer B: Administration of tissue plasma activator has not been shown to be beneficial in central retinal artery occlusion if the event has occurred several days ago. This medication is used in patients who sustain an ischemic stroke within 4.5 hours of developing symptoms. A stroke in the posterior lobe can present with cortical hemianopsia.
Answer D: Retinal photocoagulation is used to treat diabetic retinopathy. In diabetic retinopathy, symptoms of painless vision loss present gradually. A retinal exam would show retinal hemorrhage and possibly neovascularization.
Answer E: Timolol is a beta-blocker used to treat glaucoma. Assessment of the optic disk would show an enlarged cup-to-disk ratio. Glaucoma can present with pain and pressure in the affected eye. Acute angle closure glaucoma would present with a rock-hard eye and may lead to permanent vision loss if not treated promptly.
Bullet Summary:
Chronic management of central retinal artery occlusion involves control of underlying risk factors with aspirin and statin therapy. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3rJPzaL | A 65-year-old woman presents to her family doctor to reestablish care since losing her insurance. She has not had time for regular check-ups. She exercises 3-4 times a week and consumes red meat sparingly. She drank and smoked cigarettes socially with coworkers but never at home or on vacation. She wakes up with achy wrists and elbows that she suspects is from years of using a computer keyboard. She completed menopause at age 52. Her family history is notable for coronary artery disease on her father's side and colon cancer on her mother's side. She last had a colonoscopy 5 years ago that revealed no abnormal findings. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 125/83 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Her physical exam is grossly unremarkable. What diagnostic test should this patient receive? | Chest radiograph | Mammography | Colonoscopy | Vitamin D level | B | Mammography | This vignette describes an otherwise healthy elderly woman seeking to establish primary care. Among the answer choices, mammography is the most appropriate diagnostic test to recommend.
Mammography is a screening tool for breast cancer that becomes most effective in postmenopausal patients because of less glandular breast tissue compared to younger patients. According to the United States Preventive Services Task Force, all women aged 50-74 should have mammograms every 1-2 years. It is controversial whether screening mammography should begin as early as age 40. Women with 1st-degree relatives with breast cancer should begin screening 10 years before the age of the family member's diagnosis.
Seely and Alhassan review the evidence regarding the screening methods used for breast cancer. They discuss how screening every 1-2 years decreases breast cancer mortality. They recommend using judicious mixed modal methods of screening.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Routine chest radiography for lung cancer screening in low-risk patients is not recommended by the USPSTF. Chest imaging can be used to screen for lung cancer in patients with a significant smoking history.
Answer B: Colonoscopy for colon cancer screening is recommended every 10 years starting at age 50. This patient already had a colonoscopy 5 years ago so she does not need another exam at this time.
Answer D: Pelvic ultrasound for ovarian cancer screening is not currently recommended by the USPSTF. Ovarian cancer detection should also be performed in patients who are symptomatic.
Answer E: Vitamin D level for osteoporosis screening is not recommended. DEXA scans would be more appropriate for testing bone density.
Bullet Summary
According to the United States Preventive Services Task Force, all women aged 50-74 should have mammograms every 1-2 years. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3Q5BZZe | A girl presents to her pediatrician for a well-child visit. Her mother reports that she is eating well at home and sleeping well throughout the night. She can jump and walk up and down stairs with both feet on each step. In the doctor’s office, the patient builds a 6-cube tower and imitates a circle. She seems to have a vocabulary of over 50 words that she uses in 2-word sentences. The patient enjoys playing near other children and sometimes argues over toys with her older brother. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 92/56 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 23/min. On physical exam, she appears well developed and well nourished, and she is following along her growth curves. The child is assessed as developmentally normal. Which of the following is an additional milestone associated with this child’s age? | Cuts with scissors | Turns pages in book | Follows two-step commands | Points to one body part | C | Follows two-step commands | This patient is able to walk up and down stairs, can build a 6 cube tower, has a 50+ word vocabulary, and uses 2-word phrases, which suggests she is 2 years of age. Another milestone at 2 years of age is following 2-step commands.
In the gross motor category, a child at 2 years of age should be able to jump and walk up and down stairs with both feet on each step. In the fine motor category, the child should be able to copy a line or circle and build a tower of 6 cubes. In the language category, the child should be using over 50 words and putting them together in 2-word phrases. In the social category, a child should be participating in parallel play. In the receptive language category, a child should be able to follow a 2-step command. Persistent developmental delays should prompt investigation for correctable causes such as hearing loss.
Scharf et al. review the evidence regarding the use of developmental milestones in assessing children. They discuss how early identification of delays can allow for referral to required services. They recommend paying special attention to sensory function to avoid missing a correctable hearing deficit.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Balancing on 1 foot is a milestone at 3 years of age. A 2-year-old child would not be expected to maintain balance in that position.
Answer B: Cutting with scissors is a milestone at 3 years and 6 months of age. A 2-year-old child would not be expected to be able to hold or use scissors correctly.
Answer D: Pointing to one body part is a milestone at 15 months of age. A 2-year-old child should be able to point to 5-6 body parts.
Answer E: Turning pages in a book is a milestone at 16 months of age. It would not be considered a milestone for a 2-year-old child.
Bullet Summary:
At 2 years of age, a child should be able to walk up and down stairs, build a tower of 6 cubes, use a vocabulary of over 50 words in 2-word phrases, and follow a 2-step command. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216617 | A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pressure and diaphoresis. His symptoms started at work when he was lifting boxes. He states that he currently feels crushing pressure over his chest. He is given aspirin and an ECG is performed in triage, as seen in Figure A. His past medical history is notable for diabetes and obesity. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. His temperature is 97.9°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 155/99 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals an uncomfortable, diaphoretic man. His heart and breath sounds are unremarkable. A repeat ECG in the emergency department is performed, also seen in Figure A. The patient’s chest pain is worse when the ECG in the emergency department is taken, compared to the one taken in triage. He is given nitroglycerin, with minimal improvement in his symptoms. A troponin level is drawn. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Repeat ECG in 10 minutes | Cardiac catheterization | Heparin | Chest radiograph | A | Repeat ECG in 10 minutes | This patient is presenting with a pattern of chest pain (pressure and diaphoresis) that is highly concerning for an acute myocardial infarction. This patient initially has ST depressions (in triage) followed by ST segment normalization and possibly hyperacute T waves which raises concern for an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) requiring frequent ECGs to determine if a STEMI evolves.
A STEMI presents with crushing substernal chest pain, diaphoresis, chest pressure, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain among many other possible presentations. When a patient presents with symptoms concerning for a STEMI, aspirin should be administered and an ECG should be performed. Early in a myocardial infarction, ST depressions with hyperacute T waves may be present. As the infarction evolves, the T waves may become more acute and the ST segment will begin to elevate. There may be a brief period of pseudonormalization where the ST segment appears to be normal. If the patient appears better, this can be reassuring. However, ongoing chest pain in the setting of these findings raises concern for pseudonormalization of the ST segment (an ST segment that is going to continue to rise). Nitroglycerin can be administered to see if the patient can become chest pain-free, and serial ECGs should be performed to determine if a STEMI is present. If symptoms resolve and the ECG is stable, this is reassuring and medical optimization and an elective catheterization may be performed. If the ECG evolves into a STEMI, then cardiac catheterization is indicated emergently.
Daga et al. discuss STEMI and its workup. They note the ECG manifestations, and the pathophysiology in addition to the appropriate workup of acute coronary syndrome. They recommend aspirin and catheterization in an acute STEMI.
Figure/Illustration A demonstrates an initial ECG with ST depression (blue arrows) followed by pseudonormalization of the ST segment (green arrows) and possibly hyperacute T waves (black arrows), which are concerning for ischemia.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Cardiac catheterization may be required in this patient; however, if the patient’s chest pain improves or if the troponin is negative, it is unlikely he is having an acute myocardial infarction requiring immediate catheterization. Repeating the ECG will allow for triaging of the patient and will aid in determining if emergency cardiac catheterization is needed.
Answer B: Chest radiography is appropriate in the workup of chest pain as it can rule out diagnoses such as pneumothorax or may suggest diagnoses such as an aortic dissection (type A) if there is a widened mediastinum. In this patient, the ST segment changes and characteristic history make acute coronary syndrome a more likely diagnosis, and while a chest radiograph should be performed at some point, repeating the ECG is a more dire initial step in management.
Answer C: CK-MB level could be helpful in determining if a myocardial infarction has occurred as it elevates rapidly and also decreases fairly rapidly. This makes it useful when diagnosing a new myocardial infarction after a recent infarction as the troponin may still be elevated from the previous infarction. This patient has no history of recent myocardial infarction, and a repeat ECG is more dire to determine if this patient needs emergent intervention. Of note, the decision for emergent catheterization should not wait on cardiac biomarkers.
Answer D: Heparin should not be given empirically to patients in chest pain. It does not necessarily decrease mortality but does increase the risk of bleeding. It is often given to patients with an NSTEMI.
Bullet Summary:
Pseudonormalization occurs when an ST depression begins to elevate and appears normal in the setting of a myocardial infarction, requiring close monitoring and serial ECGs to ensure that a ST elevation myocardial infarction does not occur. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=215044 | A 47-year-old woman presents to the clinic with 3 weeks of increased thirst and urination. She has a history of obesity, hypertension, and depression for which she takes losartan and sertraline. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 148/90 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 15/min. Physical exam is unremarkable, including no costovertebral or suprapubic tenderness to palpation. Laboratory studies are performed and show:
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 21 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 38 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Glucose: 215 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test for nephropathy in this patient? | Creatinine clearance | Hemoglobin A1c | Oral glucose tolerance test | Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio | D | Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio | This patient with a history of obesity and hypertension presenting with polyuria and polydipsia in the setting of an elevated random blood glucose (> 200 mg/dL) likely has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio is the most appropriate early test for diabetic nephropathy.
Early detection of diabetic nephropathy is key to management, as the complication eventually leads to overt kidney disease and renal failure. The diagnosis of diabetic nephropathy is based on > 30 mg/g of albuminuria for > 3 months. Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should be screened annually with a random urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio starting at diagnosis. Elevation of urine albumin warrants treatment with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers. Blood pressure control slows the progression of diabetic nephropathy. Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic nephropathy should be started on a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor. Patients with persistent albuminuria despite both ACE/ARB and SGLT2 inhibitor therapy should be started on the nonsteroidal selective mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA) finerenone.
Bakris et al. study the efficacy of finerenone, a nonsteroidal selective MRA, in the treatment of patients with albuminuria in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and type 2 diabetes. The authors found in a randomized control trial that finerenone reduced the incidence of a composite outcome of kidney failure. The authors recommend the use of finerenone in patients with persistent albuminuria despite optimal medical therapy to prevent risks of CKD progression and cardiovascular events.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Creatinine clearance changes over the time course of diabetic nephropathy and can be normal or elevated (due to glomerular hyperfiltration) in early diabetic nephropathy. Therefore, it is an unreliable test for early diabetic nephropathy compared to the more sensitive urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio.
Answer B: Hemoglobin A1c is a test that reflects the average blood glucose over the past 2 to 3 months. While this test provides information on a patient's glycemic control, it does not directly assess the presence or extent of diabetic nephropathy.
Answer C: Oral glucose tolerance test is the test of choice for diagnosing gestational diabetes. It does not play a role in the detection of diabetic nephropathy.
Answer E: Urine protein dipstick is a useful test to detect proteinuria. This test is insensitive to low levels of albumin. Therefore, it is considered an inferior test to urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio in the diagnosis of diabetic nephropathy.
Bullet Summary:
Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio testing is the most sensitive test to detect moderately elevated levels of urinary albumin excretion, a known byproduct of diabetic nephropathy. | Urine protein dipstick |
https://bit.ly/3M2S7YO | A 26-year-old medical student presents to occupational health after sustaining a needlestick injury. She was drawing blood from an HIV-positive patient when she stuck herself percutaneously while capping the needle. She immediately washed the puncture wound with saline. The medical student has had a negative HIV serology from the beginning of medical school 2 years ago. She is monogamous with one male partner and denies any intravenous drug use. The source patient was recently diagnosed with HIV and has a CD4 count of 550 cells/µL. His most recent viral load is 1,800,000 copies/mL, and he was started on HAART 3 days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Immediately initiate triple antiretroviral therapy | Perform genotype testing on source patient and initiate antiretroviral therapy tailored to results | Repeat HIV serology and initiate triple antiretroviral therapy if negative | Repeat HIV serology and initiate triple antiretroviral therapy if positive | E | Repeat HIV serology and initiate triple antiretroviral therapy immediately | This medical student has sustained a hollow-bore needlestick injury. The most appropriate next step is to repeat HIV serology and immediately initiate triple antiretroviral therapy with tenofovir, emtricitabine, and raltegravir.
Healthcare exposures to HIV are divided into 2 categories based on the level of contact with the source patient. If the healthcare worker’s mucous membrane or nonintact skin comes into contact with an HIV-positive patient’s blood, semen, or vaginal secretions, immediate prophylaxis is recommended. This category also includes all needlestick exposures. If the healthcare worker’s mucous membrane or nonintact skin comes into contact with an HIV-positive patient’s urine, feces, or bodily secretions, prophylaxis is not recommended. If the source patient’s HIV status is unknown, it should be assumed that the patient is HIV positive until testing proves otherwise. The triple antiretroviral drug combination of tenofovir, emtricitabine, and raltegravir is favored due to the low incidence of side effects. Prophylactic treatment should be initiated immediately (ideally within 1-2 hours) and continued for 4 weeks at which time the healthcare worker’s serology should be repeated.
Parikh et al. studied technologies for monitoring HIV infection. They discuss how high throughput methods are required in order to surveil for infection on a population level. They recommend using next-generation sequencing methods to improve surveillance methods.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Immediately initiating triple antiretroviral therapy is appropriate after drawing the medical student’s HIV serology. The patient’s serology at the time of exposure must be established to compare to future testing. Despite her previous negative serology and low-risk lifestyle, it would still be best to repeat the testing at the same time prophylactic treatment is initiated.
Answer B: Perform genotype testing on source patient and initiate antiretroviral therapy tailored to results is incorrect because this option would delay the initiation of prophylaxis. Empiric treatment with a triple antiretroviral drug combination is appropriate for all patients with high-risk exposure.
Answer C: Waiting to hear that the medical student’s HIV serology is negative would delay the initiation of prophylaxis. Triple antiretroviral drug treatment should be initiated without waiting for the results. Empiric treatment of all patients with high-risk exposure is recommended in all cases.
Answer D: Waiting for the results of the medical student’s serology would delay treatment for her exposure. If her serology is already positive, she will need to be treated past the 4-week period of prophylaxis. Even though she does not engage in high-risk behaviors, a positive serology would demonstrate that she was already infected with HIV.
Bullet Summary:
After a needlestick injury from a HIV-positive source patient, a healthcare worker’s HIV serology should be drawn and they should be immediately initiated on triple antiretroviral drug therapy. | Repeat HIV serology and initiate triple antiretroviral therapy immediately |
https://bit.ly/3N81HdG | A 71-year-old man arrives to the emergency room appearing cyanotic and having weak, shallow respirations. He is brought in by his home care nurse, who reports that the patient has a history of myasthenia gravis and frequent urinary tract infections. The patient was in his normal state of health until 5 days ago when he developed a urinary tract infection. He was receiving gentamicin infusions for his infections. This morning, he experienced poor grip strength and progressive difficulty breathing. The patient’s medications include pyridostigmine and aspirin, both of which he takes as prescribed. His temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 28/min with an oxygen saturation of 86% O2 on room air. The patient has gray-blue skin, hypophonia, weak upper extremities, and normal leg strength. An arterial blood gas is drawn with results as shown below:
PO2: 55 mmHg
PCO2: 60 mmHg
pH: 7.30
The patient is intubated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Atropine | Edrophonium | Neostigmine | Plasmapheresis | D | Plasmapheresis | This patient is presenting with a history of myasthenia gravis, recent exposure to an aminoglycoside, and respiratory failure, suggesting a diagnosis of myasthenic crisis. The most appropriate initial step in management is intubation and plasmapheresis.
Myasthenic crisis is an exacerbation of myasthenia gravis caused by under-dosing myasthenia gravis treatments or precipitated by infection, surgery, and certain medications such as aminoglycosides and beta-blockers. Symptoms include bulbar muscle weakness and type 2 respiratory failure (inadequate alveolar ventilation). The most appropriate initial step in management is to maintain adequate respiratory function by intubation. Plasmapheresis or IVIG is used to remove acetylcholine receptor antibodies from circulation, and steroids are started for long-term therapy. Avoiding risk factors and pre-medication before procedures with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is important for preventing repeat occurrences.
Rodrigues et al. review the evidence regarding the occurrence of myasthenic crisis in patients with COVID. They discuss how treatment with IVIG and plasma exchange were important in the care of these patients. They recommend also considering whether rituximab and tocilizumab may be effective in these cases.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Atropine can be used in a cholinergic crisis. A cholinergic crisis is an acute exacerbation of muscle weakness due to over-medication with cholinergic anti-cholinesterases. This disease would present with diarrhea, sweating, miosis, bronchoconstriction, and bradycardia. It rarely occurs with proper dosing of pyridostigmine.
Answer B: Edrophonium can be used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. It is a cholinesterase inhibitor. In a positive test, a patient will exhibit temporary resolution of muscle weakness. In this patient’s case, the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis has already been made and he also had a recent exposure to a pharmaceutical known to precipitate myasthenic crisis.
Answer C: Neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used in the management of myasthenia gravis, but it is contraindicated in the initial treatment of myasthenic crisis. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may increase respiratory secretions, which can worsen respiratory failure.
Answer E: Thymectomy is indicated in refractory cases of myasthenia gravis (and for increased risk of thymoma). In an unstable condition such as myasthenic crisis, thymectomy should be deferred. For patients over the age of 60, thymectomy is controversial.
Bullet Summary:
Myasthenic crisis can be precipitated by infection, surgery, and medications (aminoglycosides and beta-blockers) and should be managed with intubation followed by plasmapheresis or IVIG. | Thymectomy |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216591 | A 45-year-old man with a past medical history of obesity presents with a concern about his sexual performance. He has a history of depression which is well managed with fluoxetine. He states that since starting the medication, his sexual drive has increased, yet he is unable to achieve orgasm. As a result, he refuses to take the medication anymore. He has a past medical history of diabetes and notes that his home blood glucose readings have been higher lately. His temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 127/82 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an obese man in no acute distress with a normal affect and non-focal neurologic exam. The physician agrees to change the patient’s antidepressant. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? | Electroconvulsive therapy | Mirtazapine | Bupropion | Phenelzine | C | Bupropion | This patient is presenting with anorgasmia in the setting of treatment with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Given his obesity, worsening home blood glucose levels, and desire for improved sexual performance, bupropion is an appropriate medication.
Bupropion is an antidepressant that is not used first-line except in certain circumstances. Situations where bupropion is an appropriate agent for the management of depression include smoking cessation as it decreases smoking cravings. Bupropion is also weight neutral and is preferred in obese patients, patients who are gaining weight on other medications, and patients with poorly-managed diabetes. Finally, it does not have any sexual side effects in contrast to SSRIs. However, bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and should be avoided in patients at higher risk for seizures. Bupropion is sometimes given with other antidepressants for patients with persistent or refractory symptoms.
Patel et al. review bupropion. They note the effectiveness of bupropion in managing depression and note that it can be given with other agents. They recommend its use, in particular, for smoking cessation or patients who need a more weight-neutral treatment.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Electroconvulsive therapy is a highly effective therapy for depression; however, it is generally used in cases of severe suicidality, malnutrition due to food refusal secondary to depressive disorder, or last line when other medications have failed. This patient is primarily experiencing sexual side-effects and has gained weight, making bupropion a more viable initial alternative.
Answer C: Escitalopram is merely a different SSRI that will lead to similar side effects. Thus, it would not be appropriate. Changing SSRIs is appropriate if the first SSRI does not work after an appropriate trial period of at least 4 weeks in the management of depression. Other changes when an SSRI fails to control symptoms include increasing the dose.
Answer D: Mirtazapine is an antidepressant that increases appetite and leads to weight gain and would further worsen this patient’s obesity. It is preferred in conditions such as anorexia nervosa given weight gain is preferable in this population.
Answer E: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor and is usually used third-line (or later) in the management of depression given side-effects such as hypertensive crisis and the long washout period and interactions with other medications. Bupropion is a safer initial alternative.
Bullet Summary:
Patients with depression who experience sexual side effects or weight gain on SSRIs may be switched to bupropion. | nan |
https://bit.ly/4395jl7 | A 14-day-old girl is brought to the emergency department for diarrhea. Her mother reports that the patient began having “explosive” diarrhea 6 hours ago. The patient has little interest in feeding since leaving the hospital after her birth and has not yet regained her birth weight. Her immediate postnatal period was otherwise significant for 2 episodes of bilious vomiting that resolved with the temporary use of a nasogastric tube and expulsion of stool during a digital rectal exam. The patient passed meconium on the 3rd day of life. Her temperature is 101.8°F (38.8°C), blood pressure is 58/37 mmHg, pulse is 148/min, and respirations are 38/min. On physical exam, the patient appears to be in moderate distress. She has no dysmorphic features and she has a normal S1/S2 without any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Her abdomen is firm and distended. A digital rectal exam reveals a tight anal sphincter and precipitates a release of gas and liquid stool. Her abdominal radiograph can be seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most accurate test to diagnose this patient’s condition? | Upper gastrointestinal series | Rectal suction biopsy | Contrast enema | Intraoperative cholangiogram | B | Rectal suction biopsy | This neonatal patient presents with bilious vomiting, failure to thrive, colonic distension on an abdominal radiograph, and new fever and tachycardia, which suggests a diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease complicated by enterocolitis. A rectal suction biopsy is the most accurate test to diagnose Hirschsprung disease.
Hirschsprung disease presents in the neonatal period with bilious vomiting, failure to pass meconium in the first 48 hours of life, failure to thrive, and temporary relief of the intestinal obstruction by digital rectal exam. The most severe neonatal complication of Hirschsprung disease is Hirschsprung-associated enterocolitis, which presents in the first few weeks to months of life with explosive diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain/distension. The most appropriate first step to diagnose Hirschsprung disease is a contrast enema, which may visualize a “transition zone” where the caliber of the intestine switches from the dilated proximal colon to the narrowed aganglionic segment. The most accurate test is a rectal suction biopsy, which will show a lack of ganglion cells. Surgical removal of the aganglionic portion of the colon is preferred management.
Kessman reviews the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of Hirschsprung disease. She discusses how the diagnosis can be made using a rectal suction biopsy. She recommends monitoring patients closely for enterocolitis for years after surgical treatment.
Figure/Illustration A is an abdominal radiograph demonstrating diffuse proximal colonic distension (red circle) with a paucity of air in the rectosigmoid. This finding suggests a diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: A contrast enema is both a diagnostic and therapeutic intervention for intussusception. It may also be used in the workup of bilious emesis to help differentiate between Hirschsprung disease and meconium ileus, but it is not the most accurate test.
Answer B: Genetic testing would be used to diagnose cystic fibrosis, which is associated with meconium ileus. Although meconium ileus presents with delayed passage of meconium (> 48 hours of life), meconium ileus is not relieved by a digital rectal exam. Treatment is with irrigation and removal of the meconium.
Answer C: Intraoperative cholangiogram is the gold standard for diagnosing biliary atresia. Biliary atresia presents with jaundice, pale stools or dark urine, and hepatomegaly over the first week to 2 months of life. Treatment is with urgent surgical intervention to prevent liver failure.
Answer E: Upper gastrointestinal series is used to diagnose intestinal malrotation, as the ligament of Treitz can be visualized on the right side of the abdomen. Malrotation may present with bilious vomiting if the malrotation has been complicated by midgut volvulus, but it would not be relieved by digital disimpaction. Treatment is with surgical derotation of the volvulus.
Bullet Summary:
The most accurate test to diagnose Hirschsprung disease is a rectal suction biopsy to demonstrate the absence of ganglion cells. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=109135 | A 62-year-old man arrives at the emergency room complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He reports that the dyspnea started 2 months ago after he had the flu. At first, the difficulty breathing occurred whenever he went up and down 1 flight of stairs, but the dyspnea progressively worsened since then. This morning, he developed chest pain and difficulty breathing while sitting at the kitchen table. The patient’s medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and rheumatoid arthritis. His medications include aspirin, lisinopril, metformin, and sulfasalazine. His temperature is 97°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 130/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 97% O2 on room air. On physical exam, jugular venous distension during both inspiration and expiration, mild abdominal distention, and 2+ bilateral lower extremity edema is noted. A chest radiograph is obtained and the result is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? | Restrictive cardiomyopathy | Cirrhosis | Constrictive pericarditis | Cardiac tamponade | C | Constrictive pericarditis | This patient is presenting with peripheral edema, ascites, elevated jugular venous distension, and pericardial calcifications on chest radiograph, which are all consistent with a diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis.
Constrictive pericarditis is the result of scarring and loss of elasticity of the pericardial sac. Common etiologies include idiopathic, post-viral, post-cardiac surgery, post-radiation, tuberculosis-related, or connective tissue disorder-related. It presents as right heart failure including symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain relieved by leaning forward, progressive peripheral edema, and ascites. A physical exam will identify an early diastolic pericardial knock, pericardial calcifications on chest radiograph, and jugular venous distension (JVD). Kussmaul sign can also occur where the JVD paradoxically rises during inspiration instead of falling. The diagnosis is supported with echocardiography. Management may require pericardiectomy for severe cases.
Welch and Oh review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of constrictive pericarditis. They discuss how this disease can be evaluated using a cardiac MRI. They recommend surgical pericardiectomy in many cases.
Figure/Illustration A is a frontal chest radiograph with pericardial calcifications (red circle). These findings are consistent with constrictive pericarditis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Cardiac tamponade can present similarly to constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension and pulsus paradoxus (a greater than 10 mmHg decrease in the systolic blood pressure during inspiration), will commonly present in patients with cardiac tamponade. A chest radiograph will show an enlarged cardiac silhouette rather than calcifications in some cases. Treatment is with emergent pericardial decompression.
Answer B: Cirrhosis can present with ascites and peripheral edema, but will not have a marked elevation in jugular venous pressure. Cirrhosis is the end-stage result of many hepatic pathologies. Treatment is with the control of sequelae such as hepatic encephalopathy and venous congestion.
Answer D: Pulmonary arterial hypertension, like constrictive pericarditis, can present with exertional dyspnea, chest pain, and peripheral edema if it progresses to right ventricular failure. A chest radiograph may show enlarged central pulmonary arteries and peripheral pulmonary vessels. Treatment is with reduction of pulmonary pressure such as with endothelin inhibitors.
Answer E: Restrictive cardiomyopathy can also present as right heart failure with similar symptoms to constrictive pericarditis. A history of an infiltrative disease (e.g., amyloidosis and sarcoidosis) often favors restrictive cardiomyopathy, as does an audible S3 on a physical exam. Calcification of the pericardium on the chest radiograph is more consistent with constrictive pericarditis.
Bullet Summary:
Constrictive pericarditis presents with symptoms of right heart failure, progressive peripheral edema, ascites, jugular venous distension, pericardial knock, and pericardial calcifications on a chest radiograph. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3nG6FEE | A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. His dyspnea began 1 hour ago while he was sitting in a chair watching television. He also endorses lightheadedness and fatigue but denies chest pain. Two weeks ago, he had a mitral valve repair for mitral insufficiency secondary to myxomatous degeneration. His medical history is otherwise significant for hypertension and diabetes mellitus, for which he takes metformin and lisinopril. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 85/54 mmHg, pulse is 48/min, and respirations are 22/min. On physical exam, he appears to be in moderate distress. He has normal cardiac sounds with an irregular rhythm. His lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally, and his electrocardiogram can be seen in Figure A. The patient is given an initial dose of atropine but this has no effect. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Cardioversion | Atropine | Procainamide | Transvenous pacing | D | Transvenous pacing | This patient who presents with lightheadedness has an ECG consistent with a Mobitz type 2 2nd-degree heart block. Because the patient is symptomatic from his dysrhythmia and it did not respond to atropine, the most appropriate next step is transvenous pacing.
Mobitz type 2 2nd-degree heart block can be distinguished from Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach) by the length of the PR interval. Whereas the PR interval in Mobitz type 1 becomes progressively longer with each beat, the PR intervals in Mobitz type 2 are consistent in length and the QRS complexes drop suddenly. While Mobitz type 1 heart block is usually caused by atrioventricular (AV) node dysfunction, Mobitz type 2 is caused by dysfunction below the AV node in the His-Purkinje system. Patients with either type of heart block can present with lightheadedness or syncope. Since this pattern has a risk of progressing into 3rd-degree heart block, hemodynamic compromise, and asystole, Mobitz type 2 heart block is an indication for placement of a permanent pacemaker. Unstable patients who do not respond to atropine and/or other medical management should undergo transcutaneous or transvenous pacing.
Clark and Prystowsky present the pathophysiology of heart block. They discuss how dysfunction at the infranodal level leads to type 2 2nd-degree heart block. They recommend pacing in symptomatic patients.
Figure/Illustration A is an ECG that is characterized by consistent PR intervals (red lines) and sudden drops in the QRS complex. This pattern is classically seen with a Mobitz type 2 2nd-degree heart block.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Adenosine can be used to terminate supraventricular tachycardia. These patients will present with tachycardia rather than bradycardia and will experience palpitations in addition to lightheadedness. The rhythm is rapid and regular with a narrow QRS complex.
Answer C: Cardioversion can be used to convert atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, or recalcitrant supraventricular tachycardia (non-responsive to adenosine or vagal maneuvers) to sinus rhythm, but it is not used for 2nd-degree heart block.
Answer B: Atropine can improve Mobitz type 1 2nd-degree heart block but tends not to be effective in Mobitz type 2 heart block in a stable patient. Atropine might be an appropriate treatment in symptomatic 3rd-degree heart block or Mobitz type 2 heart block; however, if it fails to improve a patient's symptoms, pacing is the most appropriate next step.
Answer D: Procainamide is a class 1A antiarrhythmic medication used to treat Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. This would present with an upgoing delta wave that occurs prior to the QRS complex. This medication does not play a role in the management of 2nd-degree heart block.
Bullet Summary:
Hemodynamically unstable patients with Mobitz type 2 2nd-degree heart block should be managed with transvenous pacing followed by a permanent pacemaker. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3LbQCXB | A 25-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for a routine appointment. He feels well and has no complaints. His medical and surgical history is significant for the reconstruction of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in his right knee. His family history is significant for a mother with “thyroid problems” and a father with coronary artery disease. The patient is an information technology specialist at a local company. He is sexually active with men. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, pulse is 71/min, and respirations are 12/min. On physical exam, the patient is tall and slender with a BMI of 21 kg/m2. A single nodule can be palpated on the patient’s thyroid. He has palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. On cardiac exam, he has a normal S1/S2 with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and his lungs are clear bilaterally. His abdomen is soft and non-tender without hepatosplenomegaly. A physical exam of the perioral region can be seen in Figure A. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be found in this patient? | Elevated plasma metanephrines | Elevated serum calcium level | Elevated serum prolactin level | Fasting hypoglycemia | A | Elevated plasma metanephrines | This patient presents with tall stature, mucosal neuromas of the lips and tongue, an isolated thyroid nodule, and a family history of thyroid disease, which suggests a diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2B). MEN2B is also associated with pheochromocytomas, which cause elevated plasma metanephrines.
MEN2B is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the RET proto-oncogene and presents with medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, Marfanoid habitus, and mucosal neuromas. Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) occurs in almost all patients with MEN2B and is often metastatic at the time of diagnosis. Patients should be screened for pheochromocytoma using plasma fractionated metanephrines at the time of diagnosis of MTC. Intestinal neuromas may also lead to intestinal manifestations such as chronic constipation and megacolon. Treatment is with surgical excision of malignant lesions and active screening for future development of tumors.
Castinetti et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of MEN2B. They discuss how often the first presentation of this disease involves the diagnosis of medullary thyroid carcinoma. They recommend developing techniques for earlier diagnosis of this disease in order to allow for better survival.
Figure/Illustration A is a clinical photograph demonstrating mucosal neuromas, which are painless nodules on the lips or tongue (red circles). These findings are characteristically seen in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: An elevated serum calcium level would suggest parathyroid hyperplasia, which is a feature of both type 1 and type 2A multiple endocrine neoplasia. Rather than hypercalcemia, this patient is likely to have an elevated serum calcitonin level due to his medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Answer C: An elevated serum prolactin level would suggest the presence of a prolactinoma, which is a pituitary tumor that may be seen in type 1 multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN1). Other findings in this disorder include parathyroid and pancreatic tumors. Treatment is with surgical excision of malignant lesions.
Answer D: Fasting hypoglycemia would suggest the presence of an insulinoma, which is a less common pancreatic tumor that may be seen in MEN1. Other findings in this disorder include parathyroid and pancreatic tumors. Patients with an insulinoma require surgical excision in order to allow for proper glucose homeostasis.
Answer E: A positive fecal occult blood test would raise suspicion for colorectal cancer, which is a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS). The extraintestinal manifestations of PJS include mucocutaneous pigmented macules on the lips and perioral region. Treatment is with screening for colorectal cancer and surgical excision of malignant lesions.
Bullet Summary:
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B presents with medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, Marfanoid habitus, and mucosal neuromas. | Positive fecal occult blood test |
https://bit.ly/47Zw1Ph | A 31-year-old man presents to the emergency department for fever, malaise, and cough. For the last week, his cough has been progressively worsening, and he has been noticing blood in his sputum. He denies any recent travel or sick contacts and infrequently smokes cigarettes. Approximately 5 weeks ago, he presented with similar symptoms and was found to have a right upper lobe lung infiltrate, a CD4 count of 40/mm^3, and an HIV viral load of 115,000 copies/mL. He was appropriately treated and discharged home. Four weeks after initiation of treatment, his CD4 count was over 400/mm^3 and HIV viral load was negligible. His temperature today is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 20/min. A radiograph of the chest demonstrates new nodules in the left upper lobe and hilar adenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Continue current anti-retroviral treatment, antimicrobial, and anti-tuberculoid therapies | Determine drug sensitivities against the patient’s pulmonary infection | Discontinue antimicrobial treatment | Obtain a D-dimer level | A | Continue current anti-retroviral treatment, antimicrobial, and anti-tuberculoid therapies | This patient with recently diagnosed HIV and tuberculosis infection (upper lung lobe infiltrate) is presenting with worsening symptoms after being appropriately treated. Worsening of symptoms after initiation of these therapies is concerning for immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS), which is managed by continuing current combined antiretroviral medications, antibiotics for opportunistic infections and symptom management.
IRIS describes a paradoxical worsening of a patient's underlying infection after initiating antiretroviral therapy for patients with HIV. IRIS can also occur in HIV-uninfected patients with tuberculosis or leprosy who are started on antimycobacterial treatment. The pathogenesis of IRIS is unclear, but in patients with HIV, antiretroviral therapy increases the amount of CD4+ T-helper cells, which can lead to an exaggerated inflammatory response (e.g., increased cytokine release) towards the infection. Thus, there is a paradoxical worsening of the infection symptoms. When patients have a paradoxical worsening of their symptoms in the setting of starting their antiretroviral therapy, the therapy should be continued with symptomatic management (acetaminophen for fever).
Nelson et al review IRIS. They note it is seen in patients with HIV. They recommend antiretroviral therapy and antibiotics for bacterial infections.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Determining drug sensitivities against the patient’s pulmonary infection would be of low diagnostic utility since IRIS best explains his current clinical presentation.
Answer C: Discontinuing antimicrobial treatment would not be appropriate since the patient has findings concerning for tuberculosis (upper lobe lung infiltrate), and lack of treatment can lead to progression of his infection.
Answer D: Obtaining a D-dimer level is only indicated in low-risk patients for pulmonary embolism by Wells criteria.
Answer E: Starting high-dose glucocorticoid treatment and discontinuing antiretroviral therapy would not be appropriate since discontinuing his antiretroviral therapy would not control his HIV infection, which would place him at greater risk of acquiring opportunistic infections. Corticosteroid use is part of symptom management as it decreases the inflammatory response.
Bullet Summary:
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) can result in worsening of infectious symptoms and is managed by continuing antiviral therapy with symptomatic treatment. | Start high-dose glucocorticoid treatment and discontinue antiretroviral therapy |
https://bit.ly/45s1lW2 | A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department after he developed pain in his right leg after landing off a ski jump. The patient is otherwise healthy and does not take any medications. He states his pain is 10/10. He is requesting medications and is crying out in pain. His temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 149/85 mmHg, pulse is 103/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals swelling over his right leg and knee. The patient cries out in pain with passive motion of the foot at the ankle. A radiograph is performed as seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Patellar fracture | Apophysitis of the tibial tubercle | Posterior dislocation of the knee | Tibial plateau fracture | D | Tibial plateau fracture | This patient is presenting after an axial load on his lower extremity (landing off a ski jump) with severe pain, a fracture on radiography, and severe pain with passive range of motion. This suggests compartment syndrome in the setting of a tibial plateau fracture.
Tibial plateau fractures occur as a result of an axial load, where the femur forcefully impacts the tibia, leading to intense pain in the proximal tibia region. One potential complication of this type of fracture is compartment syndrome, which presents with exquisite pain out of proportion to exam with passive motion of the lower extremity. While radiography can aid in diagnosing tibial plateau fractures, a negative radiograph should prompt further investigation with a CT scan in patients with a high suspicion of this type of fracture. Treatment involves performing a fasciotomy if compartment syndrome is present. Surgical repair is warranted if there is evidence of neurovascular compromise or a significantly displaced fracture. Otherwise, immobilizing the knee and providing outpatient orthopedic follow-up care is deemed appropriate for certain less severe fractures.
Schneiderman et al. studied compartment syndrome in high-energy tibial plateau fractures. The authors found that younger patients aged 12-29 years old are more likely to develop compartment syndrome, likely due to increased muscle mass and thicker fascial tissue. The risk of deep surgical site infection remains high at 20-25% of cases. The authors recommend that clinicians should be aware of factors associated with increased risk for compartment syndrome, including young age, male gender, and a high-energy mechanism of injury.
Figure/Illustration A is a radiograph demonstrating a tibial plateau fracture with the red arrows demonstrating a fracture of the tibial plateau.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Anterior cruciate ligament tear would present with a sudden popping sensation of the knee with swelling, knee instability, and laxity to anterior traction when force is applied to the tibia causing anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur. Management involves assessment with MRI and surgical repair in complete tears or immobilization in partial tears.
Answer B: Apophysitis of the tibial tubercle (Osgood-Schlatter disease) is common in pediatric patients and presents after exertion (such as basketball or jumping) with pain and tenderness over the tibial tubercle. It is caused by repeated microtrauma or microavulsion, separation of the proximal patellar tendon from the tibial tubercle, and subsequent callous deposition at the tibial tubercle. Management involves rest, ice, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
Answer C: Patellar fracture would present with tenderness over the patella with a fracture line on the patella. Treatment of non-displaced fractures includes rest and immobilization in a straight-leg knee immobilizer.
Answer D: Posterior dislocation of the knee presents with sudden trauma to the knee with pain, swelling, and a loss of pulses in the extremity when the popliteal artery is compromised. Radiography is diagnostic and will show a knee dislocation. Treatment involves immediate reduction to avoid permanent injury to the popliteal artery.
Bullet Summary:
Tibial plateau fractures present after trauma with severe lower extremity pain and are highly associated with compartment syndrome. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3u27ZnQ | A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room with difficulty speaking for the past 1 hour. He was having dinner at home with his wife when he suddenly noticed he had difficulty eating and speaking. He also noticed a new-onset weakness on his left side. His medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. His current medications include metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 15/min. On examination, strength is 5/5 in the right upper and lower extremities and 3/5 in the left upper and lower extremities. On cranial nerve examination, his tongue deviates to the right side. There is also decreased sensation to light touch and vibration on the left side of his body. Which of the following arteries is most likely involved in this patient’s presentation? | Anterior inferior cerebellar artery | Anterior spinal artery | Lenticulostriate branches of the middle cerebral artery | Pontine perforators of the basilar artery | B | Anterior spinal artery | This patient with hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, deviation of the tongue to the right, left-sided hemiparesis, and decreased sensation to light touch and vibration on the left side of his body most likely has a stroke of the right medial medulla. The medial medulla is supplied by paramedian branches of the vertebral arteries and the anterior spinal artery.
Medial medullary syndrome (Dejerine syndrome) is usually caused by atherosclerotic occlusion of paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery, vertebral arteries, or basilar artery which supply the medial medulla. Medial medullary structures include the lateral corticospinal tract, the medial lemniscus, and the hypoglossal nerve. Lesions to the lateral corticospinal tract lead to contralateral paresis of the upper and lower extremities. Lesions to the medial lemniscus lead to decreased vibration, proprioception, and light touch on the contralateral body. Ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve dysfunction leads to ipsilateral loss of function of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue including the genioglossus muscle, which protrudes the tongue forward from the root and is unopposed on the contralateral side. This pushes the tongue towards the side of the lesion, leading to ipsilateral tongue deviation. Treatment includes reperfusion via thrombolytics if the patient presents within 4.5 hours of the time last known well.
Kim and Han present clinical findings, radiographic findings, angiographic data, and long-term outcomes from a case series of 86 patients with medial medullary infarction. The authors found that old age and severe motor dysfunction at admission were predictive factors portending poor prognosis. The authors recommend close follow-up of these patients for the development of central post-stroke pain.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery infarction leads to a lesion of the lateral pons, with damage to the facial nucleus, vestibular nuclei, spinothalamic tract, spinal trigeminal nucleus, sympathetic fibers, labyrinthine artery, and middle and inferior cerebellar peduncles. This presents with complete facial hemiparesis, vomiting, decreased pain and temperature sensation on the contralateral body and ipsilateral face, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, ipsilateral ataxia and dysmetria, and ipsilateral sensorineural deafness and vertigo.
Answer C: Lenticulostriate branches of the middle cerebral artery supply the internal capsule. Strokes of the posterior limb of the internal capsule lead to contralateral hemiparesis. The findings of ipsilateral tongue deviation and sensory changes are not consistent with a lesion to the internal capsule.
Answer D: Pontine perforators of the basilar artery supply the medial pons. Strokes of the medial pons lead to quadriplegia and loss of facial, mouth, and tongue movements with preserved sensorium. This patient’s findings of hemiparesis, ipsilateral tongue deviation, and changes in sensorium are more suggestive of a lesion to the medial medulla, not the medial pons.
Answer E: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery infarction leads to a stroke of the lateral medulla (Wallenberg syndrome). This leads to lesions to the nucleus ambiguus, vestibular nuclei, lateral spinothalamic tract, spinal trigeminal nucleus, sympathetic fibers, and inferior cerebellar peduncle. Clinically this presents with dysphagia, hoarseness, decreased gag reflex, vomiting, vertigo, decreased pain and temperature sensation from the contralateral body and ipsilateral face, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, and ipsilateral ataxia.
Bullet Summary:
Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery can lead to medial medullary syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral deviation of the tongue, contralateral paresis of the upper and lower extremities, and contralateral loss of light touch and vibration sensation. | Posterior inferior cerebellar artery |
https://bit.ly/3CxfeFC | A 69-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for trouble sleeping. He recently retired from working the day shift at a cemetery. When the patient retired, his goal was to finally be able to go out with his wife; however, he finds that he is unable to stay awake past 6 pm in the evening. His wife is disappointed that they cannot do any activities in the evening together. The patient has tried drinking caffeine but finds that it does not help. The patient’s wife claims that the patient seems to sleep peacefully, and the patient states he feels rested when he awakes. The patient has a medical history of irritable bowel syndrome which is managed with fiber supplements. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/83 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, and respirations are 11/min. The patient’s neurological exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Normal aging | Delayed sleep phase disorder | Chronic insomnia | Advanced sleep phase disorder | D | Advanced sleep phase disorder | This patient is presenting with difficulty staying awake in the early evening suggesting a diagnosis of advanced sleep phase disorder (also known as advanced sleep phase syndrome).
Advanced sleep phase disorder can present in patients of all ages. Patients will experience difficulty staying awake in the early evening (5 to 8 pm); however, they will typically sleep a normal quantity of hours. These patients generally feel well rested in the morning and are able to function normally during the day. This condition can impair social activities that occur in the evening, which can cause distress to the patient. The diagnosis of advanced sleep phase disorder can be made when these symptoms are present in addition to an absence of another organic cause (such as obstructive sleep apnea). Treatment is with bright light visual stimulation therapy and reconditioning of circadian rhythms.
Yaremchuk reviews the diagnosis and treatment of patients with sleep phase disorder. She discusses how sleep disorders such as advanced sleep phase disorder should be distinguished from normal aging. She recommends intervening when sleep quality is compromised as it reduces quality of life in the elderly.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Chronic insomnia will present with trouble falling asleep or staying asleep, often alternating with other sleep pathologies. This patient does not claim to have any trouble falling or staying asleep. He also feels well rested in the morning so his sleep quality is adequate. Treatment of insomnia may include melatonin and sleep hygiene.
Answer C: Delayed sleep phase disorder typically presents in younger patients with difficulty falling asleep early. These patients will often fall asleep very late and struggle to wake up early for obligations such as school or work. Treatment is with melatonin and sleep hygiene interventions.
Answer D: Normal aging presents with patients claiming that their sleep is less restful in the absence of an organic cause (such as obstructive sleep apnea). As patients age, it is natural for all phases of their sleep to shorten. However, it is not normal for this patient to have such difficulty staying awake in the early evening, so advanced sleep phase disorder is a more likely diagnosis.
Answer E: Obstructive sleep apnea presents with fatigue, morning headaches, and non-restful sleep. Patients will typically snore loudly and typically are overweight. This patient does not have any of these risk factors or symptoms in his history. Treatment is with positive airway pressure machines and weight loss.
Bullet Summary:
Advanced sleep phase disorder presents with difficulty staying awake in the early evening that impairs social functioning. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216511 | A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with palpitations. He has a history of anxiety managed with fluoxetine and lorazepam. He also has hypertension but does not take any medications. Today, his symptoms have been persistent despite taking his medications. He says that he feels lightheaded and can’t walk. His temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 120/72 mmHg, pulse is 183/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a somnolent and uncomfortable man. His pulse is rapid and regular. An ECG is performed as seen in Figure A. During the exam, the patient states that he feels lightheaded and appears occasionally somnolent. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? | Adenosine | Amiodarone | Cardioversion | Defibrillation | C | Cardioversion | This patient is presenting with palpitations and an ECG demonstrating a wide complex tachycardia with a delta wave which are concerning for a tachydysrhythmia secondary to Wolff Parkinson White syndrome. Given his poor CNS perfusion (somnolence during his tachycardia despite a “normal” blood pressure), the most appropriate next step in management is cardioversion.
Wolff Parkinson White syndrome (WPW) is a pre-excitation syndrome where an accessory electrical pathway exists between the atria and ventricles that bypasses the AV node. WPW can demonstrate antidromic conduction where the accessory pathway leads to anterograde conduction causing a wide-complex tachycardia that is often mistaken for ventricular tachycardia. In this circumstance, the QRS is wide and a delta wave is often present but may be difficult to discern. If ever uncertain as to whether the diagnosis is ventricular tachycardia or WPW, cardioversion is a safe and effective intervention for both rhythms. Unstable patients with either WPW or ventricular tachycardia should undergo cardioversion immediately. Other treatments for WPW in stable patients may include procainamide. Ablation may present future episodes.
Bartlett and Friedman review the pathophysiology of WPW. They discuss the congenital presence of impulse-conducting fascicles leading to this condition. They also delve into the management and recommend rhythm agents and ablation as a modality of treatment.
Figure/Illustration A is an ECG demonstrating a wide complex (red arrow) tachycardia with a delta wave (blue arrow). These ECG findings are characteristically seen in WPW syndrome.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Adenosine would be indicated after vagal maneuvers in the management of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). SVT presents as a narrow complex tachycardia without P waves. It is regular (in contrast to atrial fibrillation). Failure to respond to vagal maneuvers or adenosine warrants cardioversion. If this patient was perfusing his CNS, a trial of adenosine could be appropriate given it has a short half-life and may differentiate ventricular tachycardia from SVT with aberrancy or a bundle branch block.
Answer B: Amiodarone may be used in stable ventricular tachycardia to control the rhythm and convert it to sinus. It would not be appropriate in a hemodynamically unstable patient. It can be used in other dysrhythmias as well including atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter.
Answer D: Defibrillation is only indicated in pulseless, shockable rhythms including ventricular fibrillation (disorganized electrical activity), pulseless ventricular tachycardia (wide complex tachycardia), and pulseless torsades des pointes (twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric baseline). It could cause cardiac arrest if performed on a patient with a pulse.
Answer E: Procainamide is an antidysrhythmic that can be used in tachydysrhythmias that occur in WPW. Given that this patient is unstable, it is more appropriate to perform cardioversion.
Bullet Summary:
Unstable tachyarrhythmias in the setting of Wolff Parkinson White syndrome require cardioversion. | Procainamide |
https://bit.ly/48TRMkR | A 27-year-old man presents for an appointment to establish care. He recently was released from prison. He has felt very fatigued and has had a cough. He has lost roughly 15 pounds over the past 3 weeks. He attributes this to intravenous drug use in prison. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. QuantiFERON gold testing is positive. The patient is started on appropriate treatment. Which of the following is the most likely indication to discontinue this patient's treatment? | Elevated liver enzymes | Hyperuricemia | Optic neuritis | Peripheral neuropathy | A | Elevated liver enzymes | This patient is presenting with weight loss and cough with a positive quantiFERON gold test suggestive of tuberculosis and has been started on treatment. The most likely indication to discontinue tuberculosis therapy is elevation of liver enzymes.
Tuberculosis typically presents with weight loss, cough, and night sweats usually in high-risk patients (prisoners or the immunosuppressed). It can be diagnosed using sputum samples as these organisms will be positive on an acid-fast test. These bacteria are slow to grow so cultures need to be held for an extended period of time. QuantiFERON gold testing can be used to make the diagnosis as well. Treatment for tuberculosis is RIPE therapy: Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol. The most common indication to alter or discontinue therapy is an elevation of liver enzymes 5 times greater than baseline.
Tweed et al. review the evidence regarding liver injury in patients with RIPE therapy. They discuss how patients on HIV therapy are at higher risk. They recommend measuring liver enzymes to detect this potential side effect.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Hyperuricemia is a side-effect of pyrazinamide; however, this is not the most common indication for discontinuing RIPE therapy. Patients can be treated with supportive therapy or with uric acid lowering agents in those with arthralgias.
Answer C: Optic neuritis is a side-effect of ethambutol; however, it is not the most common indication for discontinuing RIPE therapy. Treatment is with discontinuation of ethambutol.
Answer D: Peripheral neuropathy is a side-effect of isoniazid; however, it is typically not an indication to discontinue RIPE therapy. Treatment is with supplementation of vitamin B6.
Answer E: Red body excretions are a side-effect of rifampin; however, this is a cosmetic concern rather than an indication to discontinue RIPE therapy. Patients should be counseled regarding this side effect prior to initiation of treatment.
Bullet Summary:
Elevation of liver enzymes 5 times above normal is the most common indication to alter or discontinue RIPE therapy when treating tuberculosis. | Red body excretions |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216248 | A 48-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, presents to the clinic with a 5-month history of intermittent loss of urine. Her urinary leaking occurs throughout the day and night, and she often has to get up to use the bathroom while asleep. Exercising does not affect the loss of urine. She states that she often cannot make it to the bathroom in time once she senses a need to void. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Her urinalysis is unremarkable, and her postvoid residual volume is 40 mL. On pelvic examination, there is no dribbling of urine when the patient coughs. Physical exam is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Genitourinary syndrome of menopause | Mixed urinary incontinence | Overflow incontinence | Stress incontinence | E | Urge incontinence | This patient with a sudden need to void followed by loss of urine with urgency (unable to make it to the bathroom in time) most likely has urinary urge incontinence.
Urge incontinence is a form of urinary incontinence characterized by a sudden urge to urinate, resulting in the involuntary leakage of urine. Normally, bladder contraction occurs due to the stimulation of muscarinic receptors in the detrusor muscle. Urinary urge incontinence is due to detrusor overactivity, leading to a sudden and frequently overwhelming need to void that occurs throughout the day and night. The most common cause is idiopathic, though it may be secondary to neurologic disorders (e.g., spinal cord injury or multiple sclerosis), bladder abnormalities, or chronic bladder inflammation. Workup is first centered on ruling out a urinary tract infection with a urinalysis. The diagnosis is made with urodynamic studies, and first-line treatment involves bladder training and pelvic floor exercises. Should first-line treatment of urge incontinence fail, antimuscarinic medications (such as oxybutynin) which reduce acetylcholine activity on muscarinic receptors can decrease detrusor contraction and thus the sense of urgency.
Nandy and Ranganathan review urge incontinence. They note that it presents with leakage of urine associated with a sudden urge to urinate. They recommend an appropriate history and workup to first rule out other causes.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A: Genitourinary syndrome of menopause represents urinary symptoms (stress and/or urge incontinence) due to vaginal dryness and atrophy from menopause. This patient still has menstrual cycles and no symptoms of ovarian follicle depletion (narrowed introitus, vulvovaginal dryness and irritation, irregular vaginal bleeding), making this an unlikely diagnosis.
Answer B: Mixed urinary incontinence presents with features of both stress and urge incontinence. This patient lacks symptoms of stress incontinence given a lack of incontinence with increases in intrabdominal pressure (such as exercise, coughing, laughing, or sneezing).
Answer C: Overflow incontinence is caused by impaired detrusor muscle activity or bladder outlet obstruction. It presents with constant involuntary dribbling or urine and incomplete bladder emptying. Post-void residual volume is increased in patients with overflow incontinence.
Answer D: Stress incontinence is caused by urethral hypermobility and otherwise insufficient urethral support. It presents with urinary leakage with activities that increase intraabdominal pressure (such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, and exercising). This patient’s symptoms are unrelated to exercise.
Bullet Summary:
Urge incontinence presents with sudden urinary urgency with a normal post-void residual volume and absence of findings consistent with urinary tract infection. | Urge incontinence |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=214967 | A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. He was running a marathon but became confused halfway through the race. He arrives unable to coherently answer questions and is not sure where he is. He has a history of a seizure disorder. His temperature is 105°F (40.6°C), blood pressure is 116/68 mmHg, pulse is 167/min, respirations are 29/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a confused man who is moving all 4 extremities and is protecting his airway. During the exam, he develops a tonic-clonic seizure, which lasts 1 minute and then terminates on its own. The patient is given intravenous fluids, and basic laboratory studies are drawn and pending. A urine dipstick is positive for red blood cells. Which of the following is most likely to be seen on laboratory testing? | Hyponatremia | Hyperkalemia | Hyperuricemia | Hypocalcemia | D | Hypocalcemia | This patient is presenting after running a marathon with hyperthermia and altered mental status suggestive of heatstroke. In the setting of his recent exertion, tonic-clonic seizure, and urine dipstick positive for red blood cells, he is likely suffering from rhabdomyolysis, which most commonly causes hypocalcemia.
Rhabdomyolysis occurs when there is a breakdown of the muscle cells. It can occur with exertion (such as marathon running or weight lifting), seizures (from prolonged and intense contraction of the muscles), cocaine use, lightning strikes, electrical injuries, and crush injuries. Damage to muscle cells most commonly causes hypocalcemia from the deposition of calcium in necrotic muscle cells as well as calcium sequestration by the muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include perioral numbness and tetany, altered mental status, and seizure. ECG manifestations of hypocalcemia include QT prolongation. There is no treatment needed for hypocalcemia in rhabdomyolysis unless it is severe or is causing symptoms such as seizure or ECG changes. The management of rhabdomyolysis involves aggressive IV fluid administration titrated to urine output in order to prevent myoglobin nephrotoxicity. Myoglobin causes the classic false-positive finding of red blood cells on urine dipstick given the cross-reactivity of myoglobin and hemoglobin on this test.
Giannoglou et al. review the pathophysiology and diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The authors find that hypocalcemia is the most common electrolyte derangement seen in rhabdomyolysis. The authors recommend carefully monitoring ionized calcium in patients with rhabdomyolysis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte derangement that occurs in rhabdomyolysis and can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias. Initial ECG findings suggestive of hyperkalemia include peaked T waves and QRS widening. The management of hyperkalemia involves the administration of calcium chloride to stabilize cardiac membranes followed by insulin, albuterol, and bicarbonate. Severe/refractory hyperkalemia can be treated with dialysis, but this is usually not needed in rhabdomyolysis. Hyperkalemia is less common when compared to hypocalcemia in rhabdomyolysis and does not cause seizures.
Answer B: Hyperphosphatemia is common in rhabdomyolysis and occurs secondary to the release of phosphorus from damaged muscle cells. Hyperphosphatemia does not usually require treatment in rhabdomyolysis, though phosphate restriction and phosphate binders can be administered. Hyperphosphatemia can rarely lead to seizures, though this is uncommon.
Answer C: Hyperuricemia is possible in rhabdomyolysis, occurs secondary to the release of purines from injured muscle cells, and is worsened by acute kidney injury which is common in rhabdomyolysis. The treatment of hyperuricemia in rhabdomyolysis involves IV fluids, rasburicase, and allopurinol (which works slowly).
Answer E: Hyponatremia may occur after running a marathon where the individual sweats out sodium, chloride, and water but rehydrates with only water. While this is possible in this patient and his seizure could reflect a hyponatremic seizure (which usually would not spontaneously resolve and requires hypertonic saline), there is concrete evidence of rhabdomyolysis with the positive urine dipstick for red blood cells.
Bullet Summary:
Rhabdomyolysis can cause hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia (the most common electrolyte disturbance). | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=108583 | A 21-year-old man presents to the emergency room with right lower quadrant pain that started this afternoon at his wrestling match. He also endorses loss of appetite and subjective fever. He has had vague, mild discomfort in the right upper quadrant since the start of this wrestling season. He endorses a history of unprotected sex with multiple partners and intravenous drug use during a recent vacation to Mexico but has no other significant medical history. He drinks socially and has never smoked. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 119/72 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 12/min. Physical exam demonstrates pain on palpation of the right lower quadrant and mild pain in the right upper quadrant. He has significant acne on his face, chest, and back. A CT of the abdomen confirms appendicitis. The scan also shows a large liver mass measuring 6 cm as seen in Figure A. Aside from addressing his appendicitis, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Administer metronidazole | Administer sofosbuvir | Obtain follow-up CT of the abdomen in 3 months | Perform liver mass biopsy | E | Perform liver mass resection | This patient with a history of possible anabolic steroid use (wrestler with acne) who presents with right upper quadrant pain and an enhancing lesion in the liver most likely has a hepatic adenoma. The treatment of hepatic adenomas is surgical removal and discontinuation of precipitating agents.
Hepatic adenomas are benign epithelial tumors that typically arise in the right hepatic lobe. They are typically solitary masses but multiple lesions can be seen in patients with prolonged contraceptive or anabolic steroid use and those who have glycogen storage disorders. Patients present with abdominal pain that is localized in the epigastrium or in the right upper quadrant. Sudden, severe abdominal pain with hypotension suggests rupture of the hepatic adenoma into the peritoneum. The lesions can be confirmed on imaging such as ultrasound, CT, or MRI. For hepatic adenomas that are < 5 cm and asymptomatic, simply discontinuing the causative drug and observing are acceptable. Large or symptomatic lesions requiring surgical resection in addition to discontinuation of the offending agent. Because these tumors are highly vascular, failure to resect may result in rupture, hemoperitoneum, and shock. Biopsy is contraindicated to avoid rupturing the mass and causing hemorrhage.
Klompenhouwer et al. studied the current management strategies in patients with hepatocellular adenoma. They found that various molecular groups have been identified allowing for subtyping of these lesions. They recommend performing a CT scan to better characterize these lesions.
Figure/Illustration A is a CT with an enhancing mass with a hypoattenuating fatty component. This is characteristically seen in large hepatic adenomas, which are solitary well-marginated lesions.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Metronidazole would be an effective treatment if this patient had contracted Entamoeba histolytica from contaminated food or water on his recent trip to Mexico. While this amoeba can lead to a liver abscess presenting as a mass on CT, it often also causes abdominal pain and dysentery due to intestinal involvement.
Answer B: Sofosbuvir is an antiviral medication used for hepatitis C. This patient does have risk factors for hepatitis C (risky sexual behavior and intravenous drug use). Although hepatitis C could lead to hepatocellular carcinoma and cause a liver mass, this patient’s presentation is not consistent with that diagnosis. Even if he did have hepatocellular carcinoma, treating hepatitis C alone without surgical resection or adjuvant therapies would be insufficient.
Answer C: Follow-up CT in 3 months would be dangerous for this man with a large hepatic adenoma. In the interim, the mass will likely continue to grow if he continues to use anabolic steroids, increasing the risk of rupture. Observation and repeat imaging may be suitable for asymptomatic hepatic lesions that are of uncertain but likely benign etiology.
Answer D: Biopsying the liver mass is appropriate if malignancy is suspected and there is no concern for hepatic adenoma. If an adenoma is on the differential, biopsy is contraindicated due to the risk of rupture and hemorrhage intraoperatively.
Bullet Summary:
Hepatic adenomas are benign, vascular liver masses associated with oral contraceptives and anabolic steroids that should be promptly resected if large and symptomatic. | Perform liver mass resection |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216239 | A 3-year-old girl is brought to the office for a routine well-child appointment. She was delivered preterm at 35 weeks, and her medical history is significant for several ear infections over the last year. Her older brother has been diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), but the rest of her family history is otherwise unremarkable. The patient has become more withdrawn lately and has sometimes been ignoring her parents when asked to perform tasks at home. This seems to have worsened over the last 8 weeks. Otherwise, the patient is energetic and started preschool 3 months ago. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 98/62 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, and respirations are 26/min. The patient successfully draws a square and can stand on 1 foot. Her language skills are unchanged from her appointment 6 months ago. Her neurological examination is normal, and she is at the 50th percentile for height and weight. She seems distracted during the interview and responds only intermittently to the physician’s directions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Audiometry testing | Autism spectrum screening questionnaire | Parent and teacher ADHD rating scales | Refer to genetic testing | A | Audiometry testing | This patient who presents with trouble following directions, inconsistent response to the physician's questions, and lack of progression in her language skills may have an acquired hearing impairment. The patient should undergo audiometry testing.
Hearing impairment in children can be genetic or acquired. In a patient with a history of recurrent ear infections, conductive hearing loss is the most common underlying cause of hearing impairment. Hearing impairment can often present similarly to behavioral or persistent developmental disorders. In a child with poor language skills, social skills, and self-isolation, hearing loss should be ruled out first before considering other diagnoses. Undetected hearing loss can progress with poor academic performance, personal-social maladjustment, and emotional difficulties as children progress through critical development stages. The treatment for hearing loss is the restoration of hearing through hearing aids, cochlear implants, and other supportive measures.
Dammeyer et al. studied the impact of childhood hearing loss on family life. They found that children with additional disabilities were more likely to be ignored by parents. They recommend understanding family dynamics in order to better support patients and families.
Incorrect Answers
Answer B: Autism spectrum screening questionnaire is useful in the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder in children presenting with social isolation and poor communication skills. Autism spectrum disorder often presents with repetitive behaviors and fixed interests, which are absent in this child. Hearing loss should be ruled out first before pursuing this diagnosis. Treatment of autism spectrum disorders is early intervention and counseling.
Answer C: Parent and teacher ADHD rating scales should be obtained to aid in the diagnosis of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). While children with ADHD often appear inattentive and impulsive in multiple domains, poor language development, and social isolation are not features of ADHD. This patient should first undergo an audiometry test. ADHD can be treated with stimulants such as methylphenidate.
Answer D: Referral for genetic testing is an incorrect first step in the management of this patient. While delayed language can be seen with several genetic conditions, there are usually signs of other global motor, cognitive, and social delays. Additional genetic testing can be pursued if the patient’s audiometry testing results are normal.
Answer E: Referral for speech and language assessment is an incorrect first step. A formal assessment should be obtained in the diagnosis of communication and language disorders. However, this should only be done after ruling out hearing loss. Therefore audiometric testing should be performed first.
Bullet Summary:
Children with a history of recurrent ear infections presenting with signs of social or language development delays should be evaluated for hearing impairment with an audiometry test. | Speech and language assessment |
https://bit.ly/4395jl7 | A 14-day-old girl is brought to the emergency department for diarrhea. Her mother reports that the patient began having “explosive” diarrhea 6 hours ago. The patient has little interest in feeding since leaving the hospital after her birth and has not yet regained her birth weight. Her immediate postnatal period was otherwise significant for 2 episodes of bilious vomiting that resolved with the temporary use of a nasogastric tube and expulsion of stool during a digital rectal exam. The patient passed meconium on the 3rd day of life. Her temperature is 101.8°F (38.8°C), blood pressure is 58/37 mmHg, pulse is 148/min, and respirations are 38/min. On physical exam, the patient appears to be in moderate distress. She has no dysmorphic features and she has a normal S1/S2 without any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Her abdomen is firm and distended. A digital rectal exam reveals a tight anal sphincter and precipitates a release of gas and liquid stool. Her abdominal radiograph can be seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most accurate test to diagnose this patient’s condition? | Contrast enema | Genetic testing | Intraoperative cholangiogram | Rectal suction biopsy | D | Rectal suction biopsy | This neonatal patient presents with bilious vomiting, failure to thrive, colonic distension on an abdominal radiograph, and new fever and tachycardia, which suggests a diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease complicated by enterocolitis. A rectal suction biopsy is the most accurate test to diagnose Hirschsprung disease.
Hirschsprung disease presents in the neonatal period with bilious vomiting, failure to pass meconium in the first 48 hours of life, failure to thrive, and temporary relief of the intestinal obstruction by digital rectal exam. The most severe neonatal complication of Hirschsprung disease is Hirschsprung-associated enterocolitis, which presents in the first few weeks to months of life with explosive diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain/distension. The most appropriate first step to diagnose Hirschsprung disease is a contrast enema, which may visualize a “transition zone” where the caliber of the intestine switches from the dilated proximal colon to the narrowed aganglionic segment. The most accurate test is a rectal suction biopsy, which will show a lack of ganglion cells. Surgical removal of the aganglionic portion of the colon is preferred management.
Kessman reviews the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of Hirschsprung disease. She discusses how the diagnosis can be made using a rectal suction biopsy. She recommends monitoring patients closely for enterocolitis for years after surgical treatment.
Figure/Illustration A is an abdominal radiograph demonstrating diffuse proximal colonic distension (red circle) with a paucity of air in the rectosigmoid. This finding suggests a diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: A contrast enema is both a diagnostic and therapeutic intervention for intussusception. It may also be used in the workup of bilious emesis to help differentiate between Hirschsprung disease and meconium ileus, but it is not the most accurate test.
Answer B: Genetic testing would be used to diagnose cystic fibrosis, which is associated with meconium ileus. Although meconium ileus presents with delayed passage of meconium (> 48 hours of life), meconium ileus is not relieved by a digital rectal exam. Treatment is with irrigation and removal of the meconium.
Answer C: Intraoperative cholangiogram is the gold standard for diagnosing biliary atresia. Biliary atresia presents with jaundice, pale stools or dark urine, and hepatomegaly over the first week to 2 months of life. Treatment is with urgent surgical intervention to prevent liver failure.
Answer E: Upper gastrointestinal series is used to diagnose intestinal malrotation, as the ligament of Treitz can be visualized on the right side of the abdomen. Malrotation may present with bilious vomiting if the malrotation has been complicated by midgut volvulus, but it would not be relieved by digital disimpaction. Treatment is with surgical derotation of the volvulus.
Bullet Summary:
The most accurate test to diagnose Hirschsprung disease is a rectal suction biopsy to demonstrate the absence of ganglion cells. | Upper gastrointestinal series |
https://bit.ly/3DIAhW0 | A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother, who states that her son has been coughing uncontrollably for 3 hours. The child has a medical history of obesity and atopic dermatitis and uses topical steroid cream. His birth history is unremarkable. His family history is notable for asthma in his older sister and irritable bowel syndrome in his father. His temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 90/52 mmHg, and respirations are 32/min. On exam, he appears uncomfortable, is coughing continuously, and is drooling. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are unremarkable. A chest radiograph is performed and the results are shown in Figures A and B. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Observation | Balloon catheter removal | Surgical extraction | Endoscopic removal | D | Endoscopic removal | This child presents with foreign body ingestion with a button battery seen in the esophagus on radiography. The most appropriate next step in management is urgent endoscopic removal of the battery.
Button batteries are commonly used in watches and small electronic devices. If these objects are ingested (usually by children), they can become lodged in the esophagus. Coughing, drooling, and chest discomfort are classic symptoms but a lack of symptoms does not negate the need for evaluation if suspicion is high. The location of the battery can be confirmed by radiograph and orthogonal views can localize the object in the esophagus versus the trachea. Endoscopy is the preferred method of removal as direct visualization of any associated esophageal injury is possible. The battery can cause ulceration or perforation if left in the esophagus due to chemical extravasation.
Baharudin et al. review a number of cases of pediatric ingestions resulting in esophageal lodging. They discuss how a stack of coins can mimic the appearance of a battery. They recommend urgent intervention in cases of suspected battery ingestion.
Figure/Illustration A is a chest radiograph depicting a round object lodged in the esophagus, with a “double halo” sign (red circle). This sign is an indication that this object is a battery rather than a coin. Figure/Illustration B is a lateral chest radiograph demonstrating that the battery is posterior to the trachea (red circle). This view confirms that the location of the battery is in the esophagus.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Balloon catheter removal can be attempted for ingested button batteries but is typically used only if endoscopy is not available. There is more potential for tissue damage without direct visualization, so ingestion time greater than 2 hours is generally a contraindication for this method.
Answer B: Ipecac administration can induce emesis and is rarely used for toxic ingestions. Vomiting can cause further lodging in the esophagus and even more tissue damage. Ipecac is therefore not recommended in the modern management of toxic ingestions.
Answer D: Observation would be appropriate if there is an ingested object that has already traveled further into the gastrointestinal tract (if they are small and smooth), as these objects would likely pass on their own. A classic example would be a coin ingestion that would appear as a single round object rather than a double ring appearance. A button battery in the esophagus is an emergency and should be removed urgently.
Answer E: Surgical extraction of a battery with associated repair may be required if there is suspicion of an esophageal-vascular fistula, mediastinitis, or other such complications. It may also be necessary if a magnet was simultaneously ingested. In the absence of these complications, endoscopic removal should be attempted first.
Bullet Summary:
Button batteries lodged in the esophagus require urgent endoscopic removal. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216610 | A 44-year-old nurse presents to the emergency department with confusion. This has happened several times this past month with increasing frequency. Each time her symptoms improved with eating. She is otherwise healthy. She lives with her mother who has diabetes whose medications include metformin, insulin, lisinopril, amlodipine, and glyburide. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 132/81 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a confused woman. She is moving all her extremities but follows commands poorly. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL
Hematocrit: 41%
Leukocyte count: 7,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 30 mg/dL
Glucose: 29 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Sulfonylurea level: undetectable
C-peptide level: 55 ng/mL (normal < 5 ng/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient’s symptoms? | Insulin overdose | Beta cell tumor | Sulfonylurea overdose | Beta cell destruction | B | Beta cell tumor | This patient is presenting with confusion, profound hypoglycemia, an elevated C-peptide level, and a negative sulfonylurea level, which are concerning for an insulinoma. An insulinoma is a beta cell tumor that secretes insulin.
An insulinoma is a beta cell tumor of the pancreas. The beta cells normally secrete insulin in response to increased circulating fuel substrate (such as glucose or fat). In the setting of an insulinoma, insulin is pathologically and continuously secreted. This leads to profound, recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia. When a patient presents with hypoglycemia of unclear etiology; a blood glucose level, C-peptide level, and sulfonylurea level should be ordered. An infectious workup may be indicated as sepsis can also cause hypoglycemia. In an insulinoma, patients will be hypoglycemic, have an elevated C-peptide level (as this is a marker of endogenous insulin release), and a negative sulfonylurea level (important to rule out as a sulfonylurea overdose can also cause hypoglycemia in the setting of an elevated C-peptide level). Further workup will involve imaging of the abdomen such as a CT scan or MRI (more accurate) to delineate this insulin-secreting mass.
Mathur et al. discuss insulinoma. They note that it is a rare endocrine tumor, and note its association with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. They recommend workup for an insulinoma should occur in patients with recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia without a clear cause.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Alpha cell tumor describes a glucagonoma, which pathologically secretes glucagon leading to profound hyperglycemia, a classic rash termed necrolytic migratory erythema (presents with painful, erythematous papules and plaques), and gastrointestinal symptoms including anorexia, abdominal pain, and diarrhea.
Answer B: Beta cell destruction describes the pathophysiology of type I diabetes mellitus, which presents in pediatric patients (most commonly) with hyperglycemia, weight loss, polydipsia, and polyuria. Treatment involves the administration of insulin. An initial presentation of type I diabetes may be diabetic ketoacidosis which presents with dehydration, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, Kussmaul respirations, and an anion gap acidosis.
Answer D: Insulin overdose would present with hypoglycemia, somnolence, confusion, and tremulousness. Note that exogenous insulin administration would not elevate the C-peptide level, which is a marker of endogenous insulin production.
Answer E: Sulfonylurea overdose would cause hypoglycemia that is often persistent given the long half-life of sulfonylureas. It would also elevate the C-peptide level as these medications increase the endogenous release of insulin. However, the sulfonylurea level was negative in this patient. While iatrogenic use of medications is plausible in this patient who has knowledge of medications (as she is a nurse), her repeat episodes and her workup suggesting against an iatrogenic etiology makes an insulinoma a more likely diagnosis.
Bullet Summary:
Insulinomas are beta cell tumors of the pancreas and lead to severe hypoglycemia and an elevated insulin and C-peptide level. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216609 | A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with fatigue, malaise, and a painful rash. The patient states that his symptoms have been worsening over the past week. He also has experienced abdominal pain and diarrhea. He has a medical history of obesity and smokes regularly. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 142/82 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an erythematous rash with papules and plaques on the patient's face, torso, and extremities. He states that the rash is painful. A fingerstick blood glucose is unable to accurately read his blood glucose and gives a reading of > 500 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathophysiology of this patient’s condition? | Alpha cell tumor | Beta cell destruction | Beta cell tumor | Hypercortisolism | A | Alpha cell tumor | This patient is presenting with necrolytic migratory erythema (a painful, erythematous rash with papules and plaques) with gastrointestinal symptoms (abdominal pain and diarrhea) and hyperglycemia, which are concerning for a glucagonoma. A glucagonoma is a tumor of the alpha cells.
A glucagonoma is a tumor of the alpha cells of the pancreas. This tumor pathologically secretes glucagon leading to profound hyperglycemia that is refractory to the normal treatments for diabetes. Patients also present with a classic rash termed necrolytic migratory erythema which presents with painful, erythematous papules and plaques. Other findings include gastrointestinal symptoms including anorexia, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Hematologic findings include a normocytic, normochromic anemia. The diagnosis can be supported with a glucagon level, which will be elevated. Imaging of the pancreas by CT or MRI (more accurate) can further support the diagnosis.
Zandee et al. review glucagonoma. They note the presentation and symptoms associated with a glucagonoma, including the classic rash and elevated blood glucose. They recommend considering this diagnosis in patients who present with rash and hyperglycemia refractory to typical treatments.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Beta-cell destruction is the pathophysiology of type I diabetes mellitus which presents with polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss, and hyperglycemia (typically in a pediatric patient). It can progress to diabetic ketoacidosis which presents with hyperglycemia, an anion gap acidosis, altered mental status, and Kussmaul respirations.
Answer C: Beta-cell tumor describes an insulinoma, which would present with hypoglycemia refractory to glucose administration. This condition is caused by increased release of insulin. The diagnosis should be suspected in the setting of hypoglycemia, an elevated insulin level, and an elevated C-peptide level. Imaging of the abdomen/pancreas with an MRI will reveal the insulin-secreting mass.
Answer D: Hypercortisolism can cause Cushing syndrome which presents with hyperglycemia, obesity, striae, limb/muscle atrophy, mood changes, and hypertension. A buffalo hump and moon faces may also be seen. This condition can either be from endogenous ACTH production or cortisol production or can be from exogenous steroid use.
Answer E: Insulin resistance is the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus and presents with obesity, hyperglycemia, and an elevated hemoglobin A1c. The mainstay of management is weight loss, though medications such as metformin, sulfonylureas, or insulin are often needed.
Bullet Summary:
A glucagonoma is a tumor of the alpha cells of the pancreas that hypersecretes glucagon. | Insulin resistance |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216609 | A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with fatigue, malaise, and a painful rash. The patient states that his symptoms have been worsening over the past week. He also has experienced abdominal pain and diarrhea. He has a medical history of obesity and smokes regularly. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 142/82 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an erythematous rash with papules and plaques on the patient's face, torso, and extremities. He states that the rash is painful. A fingerstick blood glucose is unable to accurately read his blood glucose and gives a reading of > 500 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathophysiology of this patient’s condition? | Alpha cell tumor | Hypercortisolism | Beta cell destruction | Insulin resistance | A | Alpha cell tumor | This patient is presenting with necrolytic migratory erythema (a painful, erythematous rash with papules and plaques) with gastrointestinal symptoms (abdominal pain and diarrhea) and hyperglycemia, which are concerning for a glucagonoma. A glucagonoma is a tumor of the alpha cells.
A glucagonoma is a tumor of the alpha cells of the pancreas. This tumor pathologically secretes glucagon leading to profound hyperglycemia that is refractory to the normal treatments for diabetes. Patients also present with a classic rash termed necrolytic migratory erythema which presents with painful, erythematous papules and plaques. Other findings include gastrointestinal symptoms including anorexia, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Hematologic findings include a normocytic, normochromic anemia. The diagnosis can be supported with a glucagon level, which will be elevated. Imaging of the pancreas by CT or MRI (more accurate) can further support the diagnosis.
Zandee et al. review glucagonoma. They note the presentation and symptoms associated with a glucagonoma, including the classic rash and elevated blood glucose. They recommend considering this diagnosis in patients who present with rash and hyperglycemia refractory to typical treatments.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Beta-cell destruction is the pathophysiology of type I diabetes mellitus which presents with polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss, and hyperglycemia (typically in a pediatric patient). It can progress to diabetic ketoacidosis which presents with hyperglycemia, an anion gap acidosis, altered mental status, and Kussmaul respirations.
Answer C: Beta-cell tumor describes an insulinoma, which would present with hypoglycemia refractory to glucose administration. This condition is caused by increased release of insulin. The diagnosis should be suspected in the setting of hypoglycemia, an elevated insulin level, and an elevated C-peptide level. Imaging of the abdomen/pancreas with an MRI will reveal the insulin-secreting mass.
Answer D: Hypercortisolism can cause Cushing syndrome which presents with hyperglycemia, obesity, striae, limb/muscle atrophy, mood changes, and hypertension. A buffalo hump and moon faces may also be seen. This condition can either be from endogenous ACTH production or cortisol production or can be from exogenous steroid use.
Answer E: Insulin resistance is the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus and presents with obesity, hyperglycemia, and an elevated hemoglobin A1c. The mainstay of management is weight loss, though medications such as metformin, sulfonylureas, or insulin are often needed.
Bullet Summary:
A glucagonoma is a tumor of the alpha cells of the pancreas that hypersecretes glucagon. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3KuUPFj | A 40-year-old south asian man presents to a primary care provider with a chronic cough that is worse at night. He has had the cough for several years but it has been getting worse over the last few months. He recently moved to the United States to work in construction. He has lost 10 pounds in the last 3 months along with darker stools which he believes is caused by a Western diet. He denies any difficulty swallowing or feeling of food getting stuck in his throat. He drinks alcohol 1-2 times per week and has never smoked. He denies any family history of cancer. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 114/72 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 12/min. On physical exam, his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezing. His abdomen is soft and non-distended. He has no tenderness to palpation and bowel sounds are present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Barium swallow | Colonoscopy | Helicobacter pylori stool antigen test | Trial of lansoprazole | E | Upper endoscopy | This patient presents with a chronic cough that is worse at night, which is consistent with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). In light of this patient’s new weight loss and melena, the most appropriate next step in management would be upper endoscopy to rule out cancer.
GERD may present as a chronic or nighttime cough, substernal or epigastric pain, regurgitation, nausea, or bitter taste in the mouth. Symptoms are typically worse after eating or lying down. Patients with typical GERD should undergo upper endoscopy if they have concerning symptoms, including dysphagia, odynophagia, vomiting, weight loss, gastrointestinal bleeding, or melena. They should also undergo upper endoscopy if they are men over the age of 50 with chronic symptoms (>5 years) and cancer risk factors, such as a history of tobacco use or a family history of cancer.
Young et al. review the evidence regarding the treatment of GERD. They discuss how patients with concerning symptoms or those who are failing symptomatic treatment should undergo upper endoscopy. They recommend treatment with a proton pump inhibitor in patients without alarm symptoms.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: A barium swallow would be indicated in a patient who presented with symptoms of esophageal dysphagia. Possible etiologies would include Zenker diverticulum or achalasia. This patient denied any difficulty swallowing or feeling of food being stuck in the throat.
Answer B: Colonoscopy could be considered in this patient if his upper endoscopy is unrevealing, as weight loss and melena could be explained by colorectal cancer. In light of this patient’s GERD, upper endoscopy should be performed first.
Answer C: Helicobacter pylori testing can be useful in the workup of gastric and duodenal ulcers but is not usually performed in the evaluation of GERD. Weight loss and melena raise concerns for carcinoma. Treatment of patients with H. pylori includes a proton pump inhibitor, clarithromycin, and metronidazole.
Answer D: A trial of lansoprazole would not be appropriate for this patient presenting with several worrisome symptoms including melena and weight loss. If the patient had presented with typical GERD without these symptoms, a trial of a PPI would be indicated. Cancer should be ruled out first prior to symptomatic treatment.
Bullet Summary:
Patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease who present with alarm symptoms of weight loss, dysphagia, odynophagia, vomiting, gastrointestinal bleeding, or melena should be evaluated with upper endoscopy. | Upper endoscopy |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216499 | A 24-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with left groin pain. The pain started a year ago and has progressed. He now has 8/10 pain when climbing stairs or rising from a seated position. He localizes the pain to the front of his groin. He denies any erythema or swelling. He has a history of hypertension, sickle cell anemia, and a splenectomy. He drinks a glass of wine with dinner every night and took up scuba diving 2 months ago but otherwise does not exercise. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 124/68 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 16/min. His body mass index (BMI) is 18.1 kg/m^2. Physical exam reveals left groin pain at the terminal ranges of hip abduction and internal rotation. There is no point tenderness. A radiograph is obtained as in Figure A. Which of the following components of this patient’s history most strongly predisposed him to this condition? | Alcohol use | History of sickle cell disease | Lack of physical activity | Low BMI | B | History of sickle cell disease | This patient with sickle cell disease (SCD) presents with anterior groin pain, especially with weight-bearing, and radiographic findings of amorphous lytic and sclerotic lesions of the femoral head, consistent with avascular necrosis. SCD is a predisposing factor for avascular necrosis.
Avascular necrosis has a multitude of direct causes, including irradiation, trauma (history of femoral neck fracture), hematologic diseases such as leukemia, SCD, and idiopathic etiology. In traumatic causes, injury to the medial femoral circumflex artery supplying the femoral head causes vascular disruption with resulting osteonecrosis. In SCD, the propensity for sickle-shaped erythrocytes to stick to one another and occlude blood vessels results in loss of circulation to the femoral head with consequent osteonecrosis. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head presents with insidious onset of anterior groin pain. The diagnosis can be secured with plain radiographs, although magnetic resonance imaging has the highest sensitivity and specificity for uncertain cases. Treatment consists of bisphosphonates with crutches (non-weight-bearing) and/or surgery depending on the degree of femoral head collapse and etiology.
Akinyoola et al. studied the risk factors associated with avascular necrosis of the femoral head in patients with sickle cell disease. The authors found that the rate of pain crises and annual hospitalizations are associated with avascular necrosis. The authors recommend further study to explain differences in the prevalence of osteonecrosis in different populations with sickle cell disease.
Figure/Illustration A shows a plain radiograph of the left hip in a skeletally mature individual, demonstrating amorphous cortical lesions (red arrows) in the femoral head and cortical irregularity (blue arrow) typical of avascular necrosis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Excess alcohol use has been associated with the risk of avascular necrosis. This patient uses alcohol in moderation (2 drinks or fewer per day for men) and has no history of alcohol use disorder.
Answer C: Lack of physical activity is a predisposing factor for osteoporosis but is not associated with avascular necrosis. Osteoporosis may increase the risk of a hip fracture, which would present with a painful, shortened, and externally rotated lower extremity.
Answer D: Low BMI is not a predisposing factor for avascular necrosis. In contrast, obesity has been associated with an increased risk of avascular necrosis.
Answer E: Scuba diving can indirectly predispose patients to avascular necrosis through decompression sickness (Caisson Disease). In decompression, dissolved gases in the arterial supply form gas emboli, leading to microvascular occlusion and dysbaric osteonecrosis. However, this patient’s symptoms have been present for 1 year whereas he only recently began scuba diving.
Bullet Summary:
Sickle cell disease is a predisposing factor for avascular necrosis of the femoral head, which presents as insidious anterior groin pain. | Scuba diving |
https://bit.ly/3Pmj3mJ | A 2-year-old girl presents to the pediatrician with her mother for a routine well-child visit. Her mother is concerned that the patient is a picky eater and refuses to eat vegetables. She drinks milk with meals and has juice sparingly. She goes to sleep easily at night and usually sleeps for 11-12 hours. The patient has trouble falling asleep for naps but does nap for 1-2 hours a few times per week. She is doing well in daycare and enjoys parallel play with the other children. Her mother reports that she can walk downstairs with both feet on each step. She has a vocabulary of 10-25 words that she uses in the form of 1 word commands. She is in the 42nd percentile for height and 48th percentile for weight, which is consistent with her growth curves. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 92/56 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 23/min. On physical exam, she appears well nourished. She can copy a line and throw a ball. She can follow the command to “give me the ball and then close the door.” Which of the following is abnormal in this patient? | Expressive language skills | Fine motor skills | Gross motor skills | Social and receptive language skills | A | Expressive language skills | This child is meeting her milestones in every category but expressive language. By 2 years of age, a child should have a vocabulary of over 50 words and be using 2-word phrases.
Assessing whether a child is meeting developmental milestones is important for identifying delays and enabling early intervention. In the gross motor category, a 2-year-old child should be able to jump and walk both up and down stairs with both feet on each step. In the fine motor category, a child should be able to copy a line and build a tower of 6 cubes. In the expressive language category, a child should have a vocabulary of over 50 words and be using 2-word phrases. In the social category, a child should participate in parallel play and be able to follow 2-step commands. Detecting a persistent developmental delay can be important as the first step in identifying a correctable condition such as hearing loss.
Scharf et al. review the evidence regarding the use of developmental milestones in assessing children. They discuss how early identification of delays can allow for referral to required services. They recommend paying special attention to sensory function to avoid missing a correctable hearing deficit.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: This child's fine motor skills are appropriate, as she can copy a line. She may also be able to copy a circle and make a tower of 6 cubes at this age.
Answer C: This child's gross motor skills are appropriate because she can walk downstairs with both feet on each step and throw a ball. She should also be able to jump and run at this age.
Answer D: This child's social and receptive language skills are developing appropriately since she can follow 2-step commands and engages in parallel play. She should also be able to point to pictures, body parts, and pieces of clothing when named.
Answer E: This child is not developmentally normal due to her deficits in expressive language. She should be using 2-word sentences and have a vocabulary of over 50 words. Her language should also be intelligible to strangers 50% of the time.
Bullet Summary:
By 2 years of age, a child should be able to walk up and down stairs, copy a line, follow a 2-step command, have a vocabulary of at least 50 words, and use 2-word phrases. | This child is developmentally normal |
https://bit.ly/3sorW7P | A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department after slamming his finger in the car door 5 hours ago. He initially experienced pain which is currently well controlled with acetaminophen. The patient is otherwise healthy and does not take any medications. His temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 123/79 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Physical exam is notable for the finding in Figure A. A radiograph of the affected digits shows a smooth cortex without disruption of the bone. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient? | Fingernail removal | Trephination | Excision and histological examination | Operative repair | B | Trephination | This patient is presenting after trauma to his finger with a subungual hematoma. Given that he has no other associated injuries, trephination is the only management indicated.
A subungual hematoma occurs after trauma to the finger leading to a collection of blood under the fingernail. Depending on the mechanism, this can be associated with a distal phalanx fracture. Evaluation for a fracture should include a thorough history, exam, and radiography. If there are no other signs of injury including nailbed dislocation or an open fracture, then management requires only trephination (putting a hole in the nail to allow blood to drain) as this alleviates pressure on the nailbed matrix thus preventing possible irreversible damage.
Rsoer et al. compare nail bed repair to nail trephination for subungual hematomas in children. The authors find that there was no difference in complications or outcomes between nail bed repair and trephination; however, the cost in the nail trephination group was lower. The authors recommend nail trephination for children with a subungual hematoma and an intact nail and nail margin.
Figure/Illustration A shows the physical exam finding of a subungual hematoma with a collection of blood underneath the fingernail bed (green circle).
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Excision and histological examination could be appropriate management of melanoma, which may present under the fingernails with a hyperpigmented, irregular skin lesion, or a “barcode” appearance if it is at the base of the nail. A spontaneous subungual hematoma could be suggestive of melanoma; however, in the setting of trauma, it is a much less likely diagnosis.
Answer B: Fingernail removal should only be performed if there is also nail avulsion or nail fold disruption to allow for inspection of the nail bed and repair of any laceration. Failure to repair a nailbed laceration could lead to permanent deformity of the fingernail when it regrows.
Answer C: Observation is inappropriate as the accumulation of blood under the nail in a subungual hematoma could lead to ischemia and permanent injury to the nailbed. When a subungual hematoma is present, trephination is indicated.
Answer D: Operative repair may be necessary for fractures; however, this patient has no fracture and only has a subungual hematoma which can be drained easily.
Bullet Summary:
A subungual hematoma is common after trauma, presents with a collection of blood under the fingernail, and should be treated with trephination. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3rJPzaL | A 65-year-old woman presents to her family doctor to reestablish care since losing her insurance. She has not had time for regular check-ups. She exercises 3-4 times a week and consumes red meat sparingly. She drank and smoked cigarettes socially with coworkers but never at home or on vacation. She wakes up with achy wrists and elbows that she suspects is from years of using a computer keyboard. She completed menopause at age 52. Her family history is notable for coronary artery disease on her father's side and colon cancer on her mother's side. She last had a colonoscopy 5 years ago that revealed no abnormal findings. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 125/83 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Her physical exam is grossly unremarkable. What diagnostic test should this patient receive? | Chest radiograph | Colonoscopy | Mammography | Pelvic ultrasound | C | Mammography | This vignette describes an otherwise healthy elderly woman seeking to establish primary care. Among the answer choices, mammography is the most appropriate diagnostic test to recommend.
Mammography is a screening tool for breast cancer that becomes most effective in postmenopausal patients because of less glandular breast tissue compared to younger patients. According to the United States Preventive Services Task Force, all women aged 50-74 should have mammograms every 1-2 years. It is controversial whether screening mammography should begin as early as age 40. Women with 1st-degree relatives with breast cancer should begin screening 10 years before the age of the family member's diagnosis.
Seely and Alhassan review the evidence regarding the screening methods used for breast cancer. They discuss how screening every 1-2 years decreases breast cancer mortality. They recommend using judicious mixed modal methods of screening.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Routine chest radiography for lung cancer screening in low-risk patients is not recommended by the USPSTF. Chest imaging can be used to screen for lung cancer in patients with a significant smoking history.
Answer B: Colonoscopy for colon cancer screening is recommended every 10 years starting at age 50. This patient already had a colonoscopy 5 years ago so she does not need another exam at this time.
Answer D: Pelvic ultrasound for ovarian cancer screening is not currently recommended by the USPSTF. Ovarian cancer detection should also be performed in patients who are symptomatic.
Answer E: Vitamin D level for osteoporosis screening is not recommended. DEXA scans would be more appropriate for testing bone density.
Bullet Summary
According to the United States Preventive Services Task Force, all women aged 50-74 should have mammograms every 1-2 years. | Vitamin D level |
https://bit.ly/48elxeS | A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department for evaluation of chest pain. The pain starts in his chest and moves into his back, arms, and abdomen. He describes the pain as tearing. He has no known medical history and takes no medications. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 130/min, blood pressure is 210/145 mmHg, respirations are 22/min, and pulse oximetry is 98% on room air. Exam reveals a diaphoretic, anxious-appearing man. Pulses are diminished over the left wrist when compared to the right. A chest radiograph is obtained as shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Aspirin | CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis | Echocardiography | Lorazepam | B | CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis | This patient with "tearing" chest pain, hypertension, and a chest radiograph demonstrating mediastinal widening likely has an aortic dissection. The most appropriate next step in management would be to obtain CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis to confirm the diagnosis.
Aortic dissections develop due to a tear in the intimal layer of the aorta, causing a second blood-filled lumen to form. Risk factors include hypertension, trauma, Marfan syndrome, Turner syndrome, and pregnancy. Prognosis depends on the location and severity of the intimal tear. Aortic dissections are often described by using the Stanford classification, where Type A involves the ascending aorta and Type B involves tears distal to the left subclavian artery. Patients classically present with chest pain described as "tearing" or "ripping" with radiation into the back, arms, or abdomen. Hypertension is common. Chest radiography characteristically demonstrates widening of the mediastinum due to accumulation of blood between layers of the wall of the aorta. Type A dissections are managed with heart rate control, blood pressure control, and surgery. Type B dissections are managed with blood pressure and heart rate control only.
Cooper et al. report on aortic dissections in adolescence. Although rare, aortic dissections have been seen in children with congenital heart disease, connective tissue disorders, or severe traumatic accidents. Severe, migrating abdominal pain should heighten suspicion for this diagnosis. The patient will often look worse clinically than can be explained by physical findings.
Figure A depicts a chest radiograph demonstrating a widened superior mediastinum.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Aspirin is administered for chest pain that is thought to be due to acute coronary syndrome. This patient's presentation, exam, and imaging findings suggest aortic dissection. Aspirin is contraindicated in aortic dissection due to the increased risk for bleeding.
Answer C: Echocardiography offers information on cardiac contractility, valve function, and the presence of effusions. It would not be an appropriate initial diagnostic test in aortic dissection. Transesophageal echocardiography may be used to make the diagnosis in patients who cannot undergo a CTA.
Answer D: Lorazepam would be appropriate for patients presenting with chest pain that is secondary to use of cocaine or other sympathomimetic drugs. Tachycardia, tachypnea, diaphoresis, hyperactive bowel sounds, and dilated pupils suggest a sympathomimetic toxidrome.
Answer E: Serum troponin testing is indicated for risk stratification of patients with suspected acute coronary syndrome.
Bullet Summary:
The most appropriate next step in management for patients with suspected aortic dissection and mediastinal widening on chest radiograph is CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216247 | A 52-year-old G3P3 woman presents to clinic with a 2-year history of urinary incontinence. She has had frequent, involuntary loss of urine over the last 2 years but presented today because of 10 days of dysuria. She has been treated for 2 urinary tract infections over the past 6 months. She does not endorse any loss of urine with coughing or laughter. She has no chronic medical illnesses and no surgical history. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 15/min. Her BMI is 30 kg/m^2. On pelvic examination, the vagina is dry and atrophic with a 2-cm tender, palpable anterior vaginal mass. The mass does not change with Valsava maneuver. Her postvoid residual volume is 60 mL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Urethral diverticulum | Overflow incontinence | Stress urinary incontinence | Pelvic organ prolapse | A | Urethral diverticulum | This patient is presenting with a history of dysuria, incontinence, and recurrent lower urinary tract infections in conjunction with a tender anterior vaginal wall mass. The most likely diagnosis is a urethral diverticulum.
A urethral diverticulum is an abnormal, localized outpouching of the urethral mucosa often due to recurrent periurethral gland infection. The outpouching can often collect and store urine, resulting in slow postvoid dribbling and recurrent urinary tract infections. Urethral diverticula can often be associated with expressed purulent or bloody discharge on exam. Initial workup includes urinalysis and transvaginal ultrasound. Diagnosis can be confirmed with a pelvic MRI before referral for surgical excision.
Greiman et al. review urethral diverticula and its treatment. They note that surgical repair is challenging. However, it is still recommended to perform surgery in appropriate candidates.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Overflow incontinence (caused by impaired detrusor activity or bladder outlet obstruction) can also present with involuntary loss of urine due to urinary retention. However, this patient’s normal postvoid residual volume (< 150 mL) makes this an unlikely diagnosis. Patients will often present with a constant dribbling of urine and a sensation of incomplete voiding.
Answer B: Pelvic organ prolapse occurs due to weakened pelvic support and increased intraabdominal pressure and can be exacerbated by increasing parity. While it can also present with incontinence, physical exam often reveals a bulging mass that increases with Valsava maneuver - a finding that is absent in this patient.
Answer C: Stress urinary incontinence is caused by urethral hypermobility leading to urinary leakage from increased intraabdominal pressure. This patient’s urinary loss is unrelated to coughing or laughing, and stress incontinence would not explain the anterior vaginal mass. On exam, urine may be released with coughing.
Answer E: Vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal tract between the vagina and bladder that presents with constant leakage of urine due to the direct draining of urine from the bladder to the vagina. This patient’s incontinence is intermittent and not constant, and a vesicovaginal fistula would not explain the anterior vaginal mass.
Bullet Summary:
A urethral diverticulum presents with dysuria, intermittent urinary incontinence, and a tender anterior vaginal wall mass that may cause recurrent urinary tract infections. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3Qni72e | A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department for altered mental status after a finishing a marathon. He has a medical history of obesity and anxiety and is not currently taking any medications. His temperature is 104°F (40°C), blood pressure is 147/88 mmHg, pulse is 200/min, respirations are 33/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals dry mucous membranes, hot flushed skin, and inappropriate responses to the physician's questions. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below. Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL Hematocrit: 44% Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3 Serum: Na+: 165 mEq/L Cl-: 110 mEq/L K+: 4.0 mEq/L HCO3-: 20 mEq/L BUN: 30 mg/dL Glucose: 133 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL AST: 12 U/L ALT: 10 U/L Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Dextrose solution | Hypotonic saline | Lactated ringer | Normal saline | C | Lactated ringer | This patient is presenting with hypernatremia and heat stroke for which the most appropriate next step in management is the administration of lactated ringer solution.
Heat stroke presents with hot/flushed skin, fever, altered mental status, and hypernatremia secondary to loss of free water. Patients should immediately be cooled with external measures and started on fluids. Minor cases where the patient is cognitively intact can be treated with oral replacement with an electrolyte balanced solution (though this would be heat exhaustion and not heat stroke). Patients with altered mental status should be started on normal saline or lactated ringer, and sodium levels should be corrected slowly. Rapid correction of serum sodium or administration of hypotonic fluids can cause cerebral edema and seizures; however, this is more common in hypernatremia that has persisted for days as it has led to cerebral adaptations.
Tinawi reviewed the evidence regarding the use of intravenous fluids in the hospital setting. He discusses how a large volume of normal saline can result in hypernatremia and hyperchloremia. He recommends considering the risks and benefits of colloid versus crystalloid usage.
Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1-3: 50% normal saline 50% dextrose, dextrose solution, and hypotonic saline are hypotonic solutions and would treat the hypernatremia too rapidly predisposing the patient to seizures.
Answer E: Normal saline would be a reasonable option for this patient; however, it is less desirable given that this patient is suffering from hypernatremia, hyperchloremia, and a metabolic acidosis which could be worsened by normal saline given the large sodium and chloride load of this solution.
Bullet Summary:
Hypernatremia and dehydration should be treated with lactated ringer and sodium levels should be corrected no more rapidly than 1 mEq/L/hour. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216255 | A 42-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic with low back pain. He was working on a home improvement project the day prior to presentation when the pain started. He describes the pain as "achy and sore." It is not positional and does not radiate. He denies fevers, chills, paresthesias, and bowel or bladder incontinence. He has a history of a distal radius fracture 2 years ago from falling off a ladder. He drinks 3 alcoholic beverages weekly and denies illicit drug use. The patient’s temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 124/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. His body mass index (BMI) is 22.4 kg/m^2. There is tenderness to palpation of his paravertebral lumbar region bilaterally. Perineal and dermatomal sensation is symmetric and intact. Strength is 5/5 to knee flexion/extension and ankle dorsiflexion/plantarflexion. Patellar and Achilles reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Raising either leg while the patient is in the supine position does not elicit any pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Disc herniation | Lumbar stenosis | Lumbar strain | Osteoarthritis | C | Lumbar strain | This patient presents with low back pain after activity with paravertebral tenderness and without red flag signs/symptoms, such as history of trauma or malignancy, intravenous drug use, saddle anesthesia (reduced perineal sensation), or neurological deficits. The most likely diagnosis is a lumbar strain.
The differential diagnosis of low back pain is broad and includes mechanical causes such as lumbar strain, osteoarthritis, spondylolisthesis, disc herniation, spinal stenosis, and fractures as well as non-mechanical etiologies such as osteomyelitis and malignancy. History and physical should focus on eliciting red flag symptoms, including traumatic etiology, constitutional symptoms (e.g., fever, weight loss), history of malignancy, intravenous drug use, steroid use, and neurological deficits (e.g., saddle anesthesia, incontinence). The presence of any red flags should prompt further evaluation with imaging. Lumbar strain typically presents with acute low back pain after a precipitating event (e.g., lifting weight) with no red flag signs/symptoms and responds well to conservative management including activity modification, ice, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Prevention measures include strengthening of core muscles and education on proper lifting techniques. Physical therapy is a core component of treating patients with muscle strains.
Knezevic et al. review lower back pain. They note the many potential causes and symptoms that may present. They recommend a multimodal interdisciplinary approach to back pain given the many mechanisms, especially in complex cases.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Disc herniation presents with radicular symptoms due to compression of spinal nerve roots as they exit the spinal canal, manifesting as a burning or shooting pain that radiates down either leg. Dermatomal sensory changes or hyporeflexia may be present depending on the spinal level affected (e.g., reduced Achilles reflex with S1 radiculopathy). The straight leg raise reproduces pain radiating down the leg on the affected side.
Answer B: Lumbar stenosis characteristically causes low back pain or lower extremity paresthesias with walking or standing that resolves when leaning forward (“shopping cart sign”). This is referred to as neurogenic claudication. Involvement of spinal nerve roots can lead to sensory loss and weakness in the lower extremities.
Answer D: Osteoarthritis can cause low back pain and stiffness, but is an age-related degenerative disease that is less likely in this patient who presents acutely after activity. The patient also does not have the typical risk factors for osteoarthritis, which include advanced age, female sex, or obesity.
Answer E: Vertebral compression fracture occurs mainly in osteoporotic patients, whose reduced bone mineral density increases their risk for vertebral body collapse under stress. Vertebral compression fractures present with point tenderness at the midline over the site of fracture. Additionally, this patient has no risk factors for osteoporosis (e.g., advanced age, post-menopausal women, low BMI).
Bullet Summary:
Lumbar strain presents as low back pain without red flag signs or symptoms (e.g., constitutional symptoms, neurologic deficits) and is treated conservatively with activity modification, ice, and core strengthening. | Vertebral compression fracture |
https://bit.ly/3N80FxZ | A 39-year-old man presents to his doctor for a wellness checkup. He is concerned about a rash that does not seem to be improving. He was recently exposed to his grandfather who has vesicular lesions on his skin and is being treated. He has a family history of skin cancer, colon cancer, and ovarian cancer. The patient has a medical history of asthma and seasonal allergies. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 137/98 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals the finding in Figure A. Which of the following describes this patient's most likely diagnosis? | Benign capillary proliferation | Edema of the epidermis | Healthy dermatologic development | Viral infection | A | Benign capillary proliferation | This patient who presents with red raised papules is presenting with a cherry angioma. These lesions are composed of benign capillary proliferations.
Cherry angiomas present with cherry red macules/papules that occur secondary to benign capillary and venule proliferation. The lesions are entirely benign and are cosmetic. These lesions are common in middle-aged adults. As the patient ages, more lesions will appear. In the absence of symptoms, observation and reassurance can be used for conservative management. They can be removed surgically if the patient desires.
Nazer et al. study the risk factors associated with the development of cherry angioma. They found that the use of clopidogrel and tamsulosin is associated with these lesions. They recommend ruling out underlying conditions.
Figure/Illustration A demonstrates cherry red macules/papules classically seen in patients with cherry angioma.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Edema of the epidermis describes eczema or atopic dermatitis. This disease would present with pruritic, erythematous, and vesicular lesions. Topical creams and hygiene can be used for symptomatic management of these lesions.
Answer C: Healthy dermatologic development misses the diagnosis of a cherry angioma, which although benign, is a more accurate diagnosis for this case.
Answer D: Malignant blood vessel proliferation does not describe a cherry angioma which is benign and purely cosmetic. An angiosarcoma usually occurs in deep tissues and requires surgical excision.
Answer E: Viral infection describes herpes simplex virus which would present with vesicular lesions and neurogenic pain. These patients can be treated with valacyclovir as well as gabapentin for neuropathic pain.
Bullet Summary:
Cherry angiomas are benign capillary proliferations that appear as cherry red macules/papules. | nan |
https://bit.ly/43oZtLT | A 46-year-old woman presents to her primary care doctor to request a referral to ophthalmology. Her vision has been steadily declining over the past 2 years and she thinks she needs a prescription for glasses. She further complains that her lips and feet feel numb. Her medical history is notable for medullary thyroid cancer status post total thyroidectomy. Her periods are regular. She enjoys a diverse diet and takes levothyroxine. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 12/min. She is alert and oriented. Her pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, but appear opacified. Extraocular movements are intact, albeit slow. Her visual acuity is decreased bilaterally. The remainder of her physical exam is unremarkable. Her basic metabolic panel is shown below: Na+: 139 mEq/L Cl-: 100 mEq/L K+: 4.9 mEq/L HCO3-: 25 mEq/L BUN: 10 mg/dL Glucose: 110 mg/dL Creatinine: 0.8 mg/dL Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 1.5 µU/mL Ca2+: 7.0 mEq/L Phosphorus: 6.5 mEq/L Albumin: 3.6 mg/dL The patient's ECG is shown in Figure A. What is the most likely cause of this presentation? | Iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism | Somatization | Multiple endocrine neoplasia | Hyperkalemia | A | Iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism | This patient who presents with cataracts and a prolonged QTc interval on ECG most likely has symptomatic hypocalcemia secondary to the surgical removal of all of her parathyroid glands (iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism).
Thyroid surgery may mandate the removal of parathyroid glands if there is evidence of malignant invasion. One parathyroid gland is enough to maintain eucalcemia, but accidental/intentional removal of all the glands is possible. Less common causes are autoimmune parathyroid destruction or parathyroid infiltration by disorders like sarcoidosis or Wilson disease. Many patients are asymptomatic, but chronic hypocalcemia is associated with increased phosphate levels, prolonged QT interval, Parkinsonian signs, cataracts, and cognitive impairment. Severe, acute hypocalcemia can present with tetany, papilledema, and seizures. Treatment is with calcium and parathyroid hormone replacement.
Clarke et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and etiologies of hypoparathyroidism. They discuss how the most common cause is post-surgical. They recommend obtaining genetic testing in cases where the etiology is unclear.
Figure/Illustration A shows an ECG with a prolonged QTc interval at approximately 500 msec (blue circle).
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: This patient is mildly hyperkalemic, but her symptoms and signs are not associated with hyperkalemia. Patients with hyperkalemia present with heart palpitations, shortness of breath, chest pain, nausea, or vomiting. ECG will demonstrate peaked T waves.
Answer C: The patient is on levothyroxine with appropriate TSH levels. Hypothyroidism is not associated with QT prolongation. Patients with hypothyroidism will present with cold intolerance, delayed responsiveness, and myxedema coma. Treatment is with increasing the levothyroxine dose.
Answer D: Multiple endocrine neoplasia is associated with medullary thyroid cancer, but this patient has no evidence of additional organ disease. Other signs of multiple endocrine neoplasia include pancreatic tumors, pheochromocytoma, or a Marfanoid habitus. Treatment is with surgical excision of tumors.
Answer E: This patient most likely has a biological reason for her symptoms, so somatization is less likely. Patients with somatizing disorders have psychological distress that manifests as physical symptoms. These patients will not have organic correlates of disease such as abnormal ECG results.
Bullet Summary:
Iatrogenic hyperparathyroidism after the removal of the thyroid gland is the most common cause of hypocalcemia. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=217097 | A 62-year-old woman is brought to a physician by her husband for fluctuating changes in behavior and hallucinations over the past 2 years. On occasion, she becomes difficult to understand and her speech becomes disorganized. She also frequently sees "small people" and animals on the dining room table, which is disturbing to her. Her medical problems include hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for which she takes amlodipine, albuterol, ipratropium, and a fluticasone inhaler. She was formerly an executive at a software company but had to retire due to frequent memory lapses. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 12/min. Physical exam is notable for slowed movements and difficulty with balance at rest, which were not present at her wellness visit 1 year ago. Which of the following pathological findings (Figures A-E) would most likely be seen if a brain biopsy were performed? | Figure D | Figure E | Figure B | Figure C | D | Figure C | This patient with fluctuating changes in behavior and cognition, visual hallucinations, memory loss, and extrapyramidal symptoms (bradykinesia, postural instability) most likely has Lewy body dementia. Lewy body dementia is characterized histologically by Lewy bodies, which are intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of alpha-synuclein (shown in Figure C).
Alpha-synuclein is normally abundantly present in its unfolded form in neurons. Abnormal folding of alpha-synuclein leads to aggregation into insoluble fibrils. These intracytoplasmic aggregates (Lewy bodies) are seen in Parkinson disease, Lewy body dementia, and multiple system atrophy, which are collectively referred to as alpha-synucleinopathies. Lewy body dementia is the second most common degenerative dementia and presents with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism (bradykinesia, postural instability, rigidity, and a resting tremor), rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorder, autonomic dysfunction, and sensitivity to antipsychotics. Lewy body dementia can be distinguished from Parkinson disease with dementia by the timing of symptoms. In Lewy body dementia, cognitive symptoms begin at the same time as or 1 year prior to the onset of movement symptoms whereas in Parkinson disease the cognitive symptoms classically occur over 1 year after motor symptoms. There is no cure for Lewy body dementia, and treatment is aimed at alleviating symptoms.
Arnaoutoglou et al. reviewed the epidemiology, pathology, treatment, and future directions for research of Lewy body dementia. The authors found potential genetic bases for Lewy body dementia, including mutations in the GBA gene. They recommended that further research be conducted on the therapeutic implications of these genetic findings.
Figure/Illustration A shows a hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained brain biopsy of a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Characteristic spongiform changes in neurons (yellow boxes) and agglomerated prions (orange arrows) are seen in this slide.
Figure/Illustration B shows an H&E stained brain biopsy of a patient with a small lacunar infarct on low magnification. A central area of tissue loss (yellow outline) and surrounding residual gliosis (orange arrows) are seen in this slide.
Figure/Illustration C shows a brain biopsy of a patient with Lewy body dementia stained with mouse anti-alpha-synuclein antibody and counterstained with hematoxylin. Lewy bodies (intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of alpha-synuclein) are indicated by orange arrows. Note that Lewy bodies are always found intracellularly (neurons highlighted by blue boxes).
Figure/Illustration D shows an H&E stained brain biopsy of a patient with Alzheimer disease. Extracellular neurofibrillary tangles found in Alzheimer disease are indicated by black arrows.
Figure/Illustration E shows an H&E stained brain biopsy of a patient with frontotemporal dementia. A characteristic Pick cell (red box), or ballooned neuron, with dissolved chromatin (yellow arrow), is seen in this slide.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Figure A shows an H&E stained brain biopsy of a patient with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rapidly progressive dementia that manifests with poor concentration, declining executive function, startle myoclonus, 14-3-3 protein on lumbar puncture, and synchronous sharp wave complexes on electroencephalogram (EEG). Clinical decline occurs over the course of weeks and months, culminating in death within a year. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease shows spongiform vacuolation due to the accumulation of abnormal prion protein (PrPsc).
Answer B: Figure B shows an H&E stained brain biopsy of a patient with a small lacunar infarct. Lacunar infarcts may be asymptomatic or cause focal neurologic deficits such as motor hemiparesis, pure sensory stroke, ataxic hemiparesis, or dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome depending on the territory involved. Lacunar strokes will show diffuse eosinophilia of the affected area, followed by liquefactive necrosis with neutrophilic infiltration, followed by macrophages with surrounding reactive gliosis, finally leading to an area of tissue loss with residual gliosis.
Answer D: Figure D shows an H&E stained brain biopsy of a patient with Alzheimer disease. Alzheimer disease presents with a gradual cognitive decline with difficulty completing activities of daily living. Memory is the most prominently affected domain. Visual hallucinations, fluctuating levels of cognition, and extrapyramidal symptoms are not common in Alzheimer disease. Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles may be seen on brain biopsy.
Answer E: Figure E shows an H&E stained brain biopsy of a patient with frontotemporal dementia (Pick disease). The behavioral variant of frontotemporal dementia is associated with early-onset personality and behavioral changes, and it may be associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Unlike Lewy body dementia, memory is usually not affected in frontotemporal dementia until late in the disease course. frontotemporal dementia is characterized by Pick cells (ballooned neurons with dissolved chromatin) and Pick bodies, round intracellular aggregates of hyperphosphorylated tau protein.
Bullet Summary:
Lewy body dementia presents with alterations in consciousness, disorganized speech, visual hallucinations, extrapyramidal symptoms, early compromise of executive functions, and eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions of alpha-synuclein (Lewy bodies) on biopsy. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=108758 | An 83-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to confusion over the last 2 weeks. The patient initially became less talkative than usual before starting to confuse her with her sister. The patient also could not remember what day of the week it was and he was out of groceries and likely had been for several days when visited. While she was talking to him, he fell asleep and was difficult to rouse. The patient is unable to provide a clear history. He has a medical history of hypertension, glaucoma, and osteoarthritis in his left knee that requires him to walk with a cane. He takes hydrochlorothiazide, timolol eyedrops, and occasional acetaminophen. His temperature is 98.5° F (36.9° C), blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 14/min. The patient is lethargic but arousable, oriented only to person, and disheveled. Neurologic exam reveals intact cranial nerves, 1+ deep tendon reflexes throughout, and 4/5 strength in all extremities. There is a 3 x 5 cm green-blue area of ecchymosis on the lateral aspect of his left knee. A CT of the head without contrast is performed and shown in Figure A. Which of the following factors plays the earliest role in the progression towards this patient’s presentation? | Aneurysmal rupture | Cerebral atrophy | Elderly abuse | Hypertension | B | Cerebral atrophy | This patient is an elderly man with progressive confusion over weeks, a nonfocal neurologic exam, and a CT of the head showing a hypodense crescent, most consistent with chronic subdural hematoma (SDH). Cerebral atrophy plays the earliest role in this presentation, resulting in exposure of the bridging veins and subsequent rupture with even minor trauma.
Chronic subdural hematomas present gradually, most often with headaches, somnolence, light-headedness, cognitive impairment, and rarely, seizures. Typically, the neurologic exam is largely normal but rarely focal deficits such as contralateral hemiparesis from compression of the cortex underlying the hematoma or ipsilateral hemiparesis from the lateral displacement of the opposite cortex may occur. Chronic SDH most often occurs in the setting of cerebral atrophy related to increased age, chronic alcohol use, and prior traumatic brain injury. Exposure of the bridging veins allows even minor trauma to precipitate subdural bleeding. A non-contrast CT of the head is indicated in any elderly patient with decreased mentation and concern for chronic SDH. Since old blood appears hypodense, imaging will allow for the determination of whether the bleed is acute or chronic. Supportive care is usually sufficient for treatment but surgical evacuation of the hematoma can be considered in patients with focal deficits or an expanding hematoma.
Mehta et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and management of chronic subdural hematomas in elderly patients. They discuss how crescentic layering of fluid in the subdural space on a non-contrast computed tomography scan is diagnostic of this condition. They recommend close follow-up as many patients will develop a recurrence of this condition.
Figure/Illustration A shows a non-contrast CT scan of the head with a hypodense crescent left side (red circle). This finding is consistent with a chronic subdural hematoma.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Aneurysmal rupture is an extremely uncommon cause of SDH and typically causes subarachnoid hemorrhage instead. It often presents with “the worst headache of my life” or “thunderclap headache,” and would show hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space on head CT. Surgical clipping or endovascular treatment can prevent rebleeding.
Answer C: Elder abuse can be subtle and should always be considered when an elderly patient presents with confusion, bruising, or dishevelment. In children, abuse is an important cause of SDH, which may occur in the setting of “shaken baby syndrome.” However, abuse is not especially associated with chronic SDH in the elderly population, and there is another plausible reason for this patient’s presentation (trauma from a fall as evidenced by the resolving ecchymosis on his knee).
Answer D: Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, which typically presents with focal neurologic deficits such as hemiparesis, aphasia, or sensory loss. Although this patient does have a history of hypertension, he is normotensive in the emergency room and has non-focal neurologic decline that has been slowly progressive, which is less consistent with stroke. Furthermore, in contrast to this patient’s CT scan, acute ischemic stroke would likely present with a normal head CT and prior infarct would cause a hypodensity in the parenchyma itself. Treatment is with risk factor optimization when a patient presents outside the window for thrombolytic agents.
Answer E: Increased CSF due to poor reabsorption by arachnoid granules is the cause of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). Patients typically present with the “wet, wacky, and wobbly” triad – urinary incontinence, mental status changes, and magnetic gait. Head CT would show dilated ventricles and management includes CSF shunting.
Bullet Summary:
Chronic subdural hematomas may occur in elderly patients due to cerebral atrophy and subsequent exposure of bridging veins that may tear with minor trauma. | Increased cerebrospinal fluid |
https://bit.ly/3LbQCXB | A 25-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for a routine appointment. He feels well and has no complaints. His medical and surgical history is significant for the reconstruction of a torn anterior cruciate ligament in his right knee. His family history is significant for a mother with “thyroid problems” and a father with coronary artery disease. The patient is an information technology specialist at a local company. He is sexually active with men. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, pulse is 71/min, and respirations are 12/min. On physical exam, the patient is tall and slender with a BMI of 21 kg/m2. A single nodule can be palpated on the patient’s thyroid. He has palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. On cardiac exam, he has a normal S1/S2 with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops, and his lungs are clear bilaterally. His abdomen is soft and non-tender without hepatosplenomegaly. A physical exam of the perioral region can be seen in Figure A. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be found in this patient? | Elevated serum prolactin level | Elevated serum calcium level | Elevated plasma metanephrines | Fasting hypoglycemia | C | Elevated plasma metanephrines | This patient presents with tall stature, mucosal neuromas of the lips and tongue, an isolated thyroid nodule, and a family history of thyroid disease, which suggests a diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2B). MEN2B is also associated with pheochromocytomas, which cause elevated plasma metanephrines.
MEN2B is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the RET proto-oncogene and presents with medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, Marfanoid habitus, and mucosal neuromas. Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) occurs in almost all patients with MEN2B and is often metastatic at the time of diagnosis. Patients should be screened for pheochromocytoma using plasma fractionated metanephrines at the time of diagnosis of MTC. Intestinal neuromas may also lead to intestinal manifestations such as chronic constipation and megacolon. Treatment is with surgical excision of malignant lesions and active screening for future development of tumors.
Castinetti et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of MEN2B. They discuss how often the first presentation of this disease involves the diagnosis of medullary thyroid carcinoma. They recommend developing techniques for earlier diagnosis of this disease in order to allow for better survival.
Figure/Illustration A is a clinical photograph demonstrating mucosal neuromas, which are painless nodules on the lips or tongue (red circles). These findings are characteristically seen in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: An elevated serum calcium level would suggest parathyroid hyperplasia, which is a feature of both type 1 and type 2A multiple endocrine neoplasia. Rather than hypercalcemia, this patient is likely to have an elevated serum calcitonin level due to his medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Answer C: An elevated serum prolactin level would suggest the presence of a prolactinoma, which is a pituitary tumor that may be seen in type 1 multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN1). Other findings in this disorder include parathyroid and pancreatic tumors. Treatment is with surgical excision of malignant lesions.
Answer D: Fasting hypoglycemia would suggest the presence of an insulinoma, which is a less common pancreatic tumor that may be seen in MEN1. Other findings in this disorder include parathyroid and pancreatic tumors. Patients with an insulinoma require surgical excision in order to allow for proper glucose homeostasis.
Answer E: A positive fecal occult blood test would raise suspicion for colorectal cancer, which is a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS). The extraintestinal manifestations of PJS include mucocutaneous pigmented macules on the lips and perioral region. Treatment is with screening for colorectal cancer and surgical excision of malignant lesions.
Bullet Summary:
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B presents with medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, Marfanoid habitus, and mucosal neuromas. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3ZAMN3W | A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his father for elbow pain. He was riding his bicycle when he fell onto his outstretched right hand. He immediately clutched his right elbow in pain and began crying. He refuses to move his elbow. He has no medical problems and takes no medications. His temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 108/64 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 20/min. On exam, the boy is holding his right wrist with his left hand and cries upon palpation of a region that is 2 cm proximal to his elbow. The radial head is palpated just distal to the lateral epicondyle. He is unable to make a pincer with his right thumb and index finger. When asked to hold a pen between his right thumb and index fingers, he drops it. The radial pulse is diminished on the right. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Both bone forearm fracture | Distal radius fracture | Monteggia fracture-dislocation | Olecranon fracture | E | Supracondylar humerus fracture | This young patient presenting with elbow pain and associated signs of anterior interosseous nerve neurapraxia (inability to make pincer, weak pincer grasp) and vascular injury (diminished radial pulse) after a fall on an outstretched hand most likely has a supracondylar humerus fracture.
Supracondylar humerus fractures are one of the most common fractures seen in the pediatric population. This site is particularly prone to fracture due to the thin bone separating the coronoid and olecranon fossae in the supracondylar region. Due to the proximity of the brachial artery and median nerve, which course anteriorly, these structures are at risk for injury. Neurapraxia of the anterior interosseous nerve, which is a pure motor branch of the median nerve, presents as motor deficits in interphalangeal (IP) joint flexion of the thumb and distal IP joint flexion of the index finger. The radial and ulnar arteries are terminal branches of the brachial artery, which if injured results in diminished distal pulses. The diagnosis is made with anteroposterior and lateral view elbow radiographs. Radiographs will demonstrate the "fat pad sign" seen as a posterior fat pad that is indicative of fracture. Management depends on fracture type but can consist of cast immobilization (if minimally displaced with no neurovascular injury) or closed reduction and percutaneous pinning (for more displaced fractures).
Micheloni et al. reviews supracondylar fractures in children. They note it is the most common elbow fracture in the pediatric population. They recommend early and correct diagnosis and management to avoid early and late complications including neurovascular impairment and malunion.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Both bone forearm fracture is another common pediatric fracture sustained from a fall, involving both the radius and ulna. It can be associated with neurovascular injury depending on the plane of deformity, but the location of the pain would be in the forearm, not proximal to the elbow.
Answer B: Distal radius fracture is a common fracture after a fall on an outstretched hand mechanism of injury. Neurovascular injury is possible, though uncommon. This patient’s pain is localized around his elbow, rather than near the distal radius. Often, a deformity can be visualized on exam.
Answer C: Monteggia fracture-dislocation is characterized by a proximal ulna fracture with radial head dislocation. It is commonly caused by direct trauma to the ulna. In contrast, this patient’s radial head is located inferior to the lateral epicondyle.
Answer D: Olecranon fracture is an uncommon pediatric fracture caused primarily by a fall onto the elbow in flexion. Median nerve and brachial artery injury are unlikely, given that these structures pass anteriorly in the cubital fossa.
Bullet Summary:
Supracondylar humerus fractures are common in the pediatric population and may present with elbow pain and concomitant median nerve and/or brachial artery injury. | Supracondylar humerus fracture |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216438 | A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with pain upon defecation. His symptoms started a few weeks ago but have been worsening. Sometimes he notes blood on the toilet paper. He has to strain to have bowel movements and has trouble defecating secondary to pain. He is generally healthy and does not smoke. The patient is a software engineer and enjoys hiking, going to nightclubs, and dancing. His temperature is 98.1°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 112/83 mmHg, pulse is 83/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a small, superficial fissure that is lateral to the anus and lateral to the midline. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient? | CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis | Incision, drainage, ciprofloxacin, and metronidazole | Surgical excision | Testing for HIV, fecal occult blood, and sexually transmitted diseases | D | Testing for HIV, fecal occult blood, and sexually transmitted diseases | This patient is presenting with pain upon defecation, constipation, and a fissure lateral to the midline which is suggestive of an anal fissure. Anal fissures lateral to the midline are associated with inflammatory and infectious etiologies; thus, further workup (testing for HIV, fecal occult blood testing, and sexually transmitted disease testing) is needed rather than merely symptomatic treatment.
Anal fissures present with exquisite pain upon defecation which may lead to fecal retention and constipation. Commonly, anal fissures are caused by constipation, local trauma (such as anal intercourse), or a tight anal sphincter. Anal fissures that occur secondary to trauma are usually midline. On the other hand, lateral anal fissures are a harbinger of more serious alternative diagnoses and require further workup. Lateral anal fissures can be caused by infections (HIV being one of the most concerning as well as syphilis or tuberculosis), Crohn disease, granulomatous disease, malignancy, as well as foreign bodies. For this reason, lateral anal fissures should not only be treated symptomatically but require testing for sexually transmitted diseases, inflammatory conditions, and malignancy to determine the underlying etiology based on the patient’s risk factors and associated symptoms.
Steele and Madoff review anal fissures. They note that while both operative and non-operative interventions may be indicated in the management of an anal fissure after alternative diagnoses have been ruled out, advances in medical management may spare patients sphincter-dividing surgery. They recommend considering all modalities.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis followed by an MRI may be the most appropriate testing if a perirectal abscess is suspected. These abscesses can track very deep. For this reason, further imaging and drainage in the operating room followed by antibiotics are indicated rather than a simple bedside incision and drainage. Imaging may be indicated in this patient after medical workup fails to elucidate an etiology.
Answer B: Incision, drainage, ciprofloxacin, and metronidazole may be indicated for a perianal abscess (note, this is not a perirectal abscess), which presents with a tender, fluctuant mass right next to the anus. The diagnosis can be made clinically or supported by an ultrasound.
Answer C: Surgical excision may be performed in the management of a perianal fistula, which presents with a draining tract next to the anus that releases purulence or fecal contents causing staining of the patient’s underwear and irritation of the skin. The diagnosis is made with an exam and a CT, MRI, or fistulogram followed by a fistulotomy.
Answer E: Topical lidocaine, sitz baths, and fiber supplements are the appropriate management of an anal fissure that is midline and secondary to a clear cause such as trauma or constipation. It would be inappropriate to only treat this patient symptomatically with a lateral anal fissure as this is a sign of a more serious diagnosis.
Bullet Summary:
Anal fissures that are lateral to the midline require workup for sexually transmitted infections, cancer, and autoimmune disease. | Topical lidocaine, sitz baths, and fiber supplements |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=215049 | A 24-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a head-on collision with a motor vehicle and suffers various traumatic injuries. She has no significant medical history, is up to date on all vaccinations, and her last tetanus shot was 3 years ago. On arrival, her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), blood pressure is 82/63 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on 2L oxygen nasal cannula. On physical exam, there are extensive ecchymoses and abrasions along her left posterior ribs and left flank. A CT scan of the abdomen is obtained, which is shown in Figure A. After the appropriate surgical intervention is performed for the grade V splenic injury, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Insertion of a nasogastric tube | Tetanus vaccination | Insertion of a thoracostomy tube | Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae | D | Vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae | This patient has an extensive splenic injury and hemodynamic instability requiring splenectomy, as evidenced by trauma to the left posterior ribs and left flank, low blood pressures with reflex tachycardia, and evidence of splenic rupture and hemoperitoneum on computed tomography imaging. Subsequently, this asplenic patient will require vaccination against encapsulated bacteria such as S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, and H. influenzae.
The capsules of encapsulated bacteria serve as an antiphagocytic virulence factor. To clear these bacteria, opsonization and subsequent clearance by the spleen must occur. In the setting of asplenia, opsonization capability is significantly decreased and thus asplenic patients are at high risk of severe infections by encapsulated bacteria. As such, asplenic patients require vaccination against the encapsulated bacteria S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, and H. influenza.
Patton et al. review recommendations for serogroup B meningococcal vaccination. The authors find that for patients aged 10 to 25 years old who are at increased risk for meningococcal disease (asplenic patients); 3 doses of the MenB-FHbp vaccine should be given. The authors recommend the administration of only 2 doses of the vaccine to patients that are not at elevated risk.
Figure/Illustration A depicts a traumatic splenic rupture with perisplenic hemoperitoneum (red circle).
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Insertion of a nasogastric tube would be appropriate in a patient with bowel obstruction or significant post-operative ileus. There is no evidence that this patient is experiencing obstruction or ileus, which typically presents with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, bloating, and lack of flatus or bowel movements.
Answer B: Insertion of a thoracostomy tube is not indicated in this patient as there is no evidence of pneumothorax or hemothorax. Patients with pneumothorax or hemothorax typically present with tachycardia, tachypnea, and decreased oxygen saturation. On exam, such patients may have decreased breath sounds. Ultrasonography may also reveal the absence of lung sliding.
Answer C: Prophylactic intravenous antibiotics are not indicated in the immediate post-operative period for asplenic adults. However, daily oral antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated in asplenic patients with a history of another concurrent immunocompromising condition or a history of severe infection due to an encapsulated organism.
Answer D: Tetanus vaccination is indicated every 10 years in patients who have previously received 3 doses of the tetanus vaccine and have clean or minor wounds. In patients with more extensive wounds who have previously received 3 doses of tetanus vaccine, re-vaccination is only necessary if their last tetanus vaccine was 5 or more years ago. This patient has extensive abrasions but is up to date on all vaccines and last received a tetanus vaccine 3 years ago, so a re-vaccination during this time is not indicated.
Bullet Summary:
Asplenic patients are at increased risk of severe infection by encapsulated bacteria; thus patients that undergo splenic removal require vaccination against Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae within 14 days of the procedure. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3CB9Cdn | A 69-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a general checkup. The patient works as a farmer and gardens in his spare time. He has a medical history of poorly managed type 2 diabetes mellitus and irritable bowel syndrome. His current medications include lisinopril, metformin, insulin, fiber supplements, and a multivitamin. On physical exam, there is a calm, obese gentleman. Inspection of the patient's scalp reveals the finding shown in Figure A. The patient is sent home and instructed to keep a blood glucose journal. Three months later, the patient returns with his glucose journal. In addition, he complains of a cut on his scalp that is not seeming to heal. The patient's glucose journal reveals an average blood glucose of 175 mg/dL. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 134/86 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 13/min. On inspection of the patient's scalp, the finding in Figure B is noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Actinic keratosis | Basal cell carcinoma | Melanoma | Poor wound healing secondary to diabetes | E | Squamous cell carcinoma | This patient with a non-healing ulcer on the site of a previous actinic keratosis most likely has sustained progression of the lesion to squamous cell carcinoma.
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is a common dermatological malignancy. Patients can present with actinic keratosis, which is a pre-malignant lesion in sun-exposed areas. These lesions can progress to squamous cell carcinoma if risk factors such as sun exposure continue. The presentation of SCC is typically an ulcerative lesion in a sun-exposed area. A biopsy will demonstrate atypical keratinocytes and malignant cells, invasion into the dermis, and keratin “pearls” on histology. Treatment is with wide local surgical excision with histologic confirmation of negative margins.
Waldman and Schmults present a review of the evidence regarding the epidemiology and treatment of squamous cell skin cancer. They discuss how the incidence of this disease continues to increase due to an aging population. They recommend local excision and treatment due to the risk of metastasis.
Figure/Illustration A is a clinical photograph demonstrating a rough scaly patch on the skin (red circle). This finding is consistent with actinic keratosis, which is a pre-malignant lesion typically found on sun-exposed areas.
Figure/Illustration B demonstrates an ulcerative lesion with wound formation on the skin (red circle). This finding is consistent with squamous cell carcinoma, a malignant lesion that can progress from actinic keratosis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Actinic keratosis represents a pre-malignant condition that this patient initially presented with (as demonstrated in Figure A). His current presentation reflects SCC, a progression from actinic keratosis given the new ulceration and non-healing wound.
Answer B: Basal cell carcinoma presents with a shiny or pearly appearance, rather than the ulcerative appearance that is seen in SCC. This disease should be treated with surgical excision.
Answer C: Melanoma presents with a pigmented lesion that has an irregular border, an uneven shape, and areas that differ in pigmentation. Patients with melanoma should undergo surgical staging as this disease can become metastatic and should be treated with surgical excision.
Answer D: Poor wound healing secondary to diabetes would be possible if there was a history of trauma to the scalp. The history of actinic keratosis and the current ulcerative lesion, point more toward a diagnosis of SCC. Non-healing wound in patients with diabetes are usually located on the foot rather than on the scalp.
Bullet Summary:
Actinic keratosis is a pre-malignant lesion that occurs in sun-exposed areas that can progress to squamous cell carcinoma. | Squamous cell carcinoma |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216512 | A 23-year-old woman presents to labor and delivery at 40 weeks gestation with abdominal contractions and leakage of fluid from her vagina. She subsequently undergoes an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. The child is healthy and is heated, suctioned, and stimulated. While holding her newborn, the mother endorses a headache, blurry vision, and abdominal pain. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 194/104 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals an uncomfortable woman. There is blood in her vagina and her uterus is contracted. Her cranial nerve exam is unremarkable and she has normal strength and sensation. Laboratory studies and a urinalysis are pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | CT head | Labetalol | Magnesium | MRV head | C | Magnesium | This postpartum patient is presenting with hypertension, headache, blurry vision, and abdominal pain, which are concerning for a diagnosis of preeclampsia. The most appropriate initial intervention is magnesium.
Preeclampsia classically presents after 20 weeks gestation (or earlier in the setting of a molar pregnancy) with hypertension and proteinuria. Other symptoms that may be indicative of preeclampsia with severe features include headaches, visual changes, and abdominal pain. Other features consistent with preeclampsia include thrombocytopenia, kidney insufficiency, impaired liver function, and pulmonary edema. The diagnosis can be supported when a pregnant patient is both hypertensive and demonstrates an elevated protein in her urine. It is possible for postpartum patients to experience preeclampsia. Though the fetus and placenta have been delivered, which is the definitive treatment of preeclampsia, further medical management is still needed. The most important initial step in management is to administer magnesium which is neuroprotective and also modestly lowers blood pressure. Further care involves blood pressure control and benzodiazepines as needed to abort seizure episodes (though note that if a patient with preeclampsia is having seizures, by definition, they have eclampsia).
Al-Safi et al. discuss preeclampsia and eclampsia. They note that postpartum preeclampsia and eclampsia can occur within the first week after delivery. They recommend that mothers should be educated on what symptoms to look for.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: CT head may be indicated, in particular, if an intracranial hemorrhage was thought to be the cause of this patient’s headache and vision changes. A subarachnoid hemorrhage would present with the classic “thunderclap” headache with blood in the subarachnoid space on head CT. A CTA may localize a bleeding aneurysm and a lumbar puncture would show an elevated red blood cell count in the CSF. It would not explain this patient’s hypertension and abdominal pain. Note that a CT head is not a CTV which is specific venous imaging.
Answer B: Labetalol is an appropriate blood pressure medication to give in pregnancy; however, it is more appropriate to first give magnesium as this agent is neuroprotective and is the first-line agent of choice in preeclampsia.
Answer D: MRV head or a CTV head would be appropriate in the workup of cerebral venous thrombosis which is common in the setting of hypercoagulability (such as in the postpartum period) and presents with headache, blurry vision, and seizures. Note that it would not explain this patient’s profound hypertension. It would be more reasonable to first empirically treat this patient's possible preeclampsia.
Answer E: Ondansetron and morphine would be appropriate symptomatic management of this patient but would not treat her underlying preeclampsia. It is more appropriate to first treat the life-threatening diagnosis before symptom management. If this patient’s hypertension was thought to be due to pain, then morphine could be helpful.
Bullet Summary:
Preeclampsia can occur in the postpartum period and should be managed with magnesium sulfate. | Ondansetron and morphine |
https://bit.ly/3LoaHJF | A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with a headache. Every few weeks she has an episode of a right-sided, throbbing headache. The episodes began several years ago and are accompanied by nausea and bright spots in her vision. The headache usually subsides if she lies still in a dark, quiet room for several hours. The patient denies any weakness, numbness, or tingling during these episodes. Her medical history is significant for acne, hypothyroidism, obesity, and endometriosis. Her home medications include levothyroxine, oral contraceptive pills, and topical trans-retinoin. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/81 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 11/min. She has 2 glasses of wine with dinner several nights a week and has never smoked. She works as a receptionist at a marketing company. On physical exam, the patient has no focal neurologic deficits. A CT of the head is performed and shows no acute abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient during these episodes? | Acetazolamide | High-flow oxygen | Sumatriptan | Topiramate | C | Sumatriptan | This patient presents with episodic, unilateral throbbing headaches with photophobia, which suggests a diagnosis of migraine. The most appropriate treatment during these episodes is an abortive medication such as sumatriptan.
Migraines present with unilateral, "throbbing" pain and are associated with nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. Migraines can occur after exposure to specific triggers or they can occur idiopathically. Patients may also endorse visual auras such as bright lines or shapes in the visual field and sensory auras such as paresthesias. Medications like NSAIDs or sumatriptan are usually used as abortive treatment during acute episodes of migraine. Patients with recurrent migraines can be managed with prophylactic medications like topiramate, beta-blockers, or amitriptyline.
Mayans and Walling present evidence regarding the treatment of migraines. They discuss how acetaminophen, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, triptans, antiemetics, ergot alkaloids, and combination analgesics are effective against this disease. They recommend providing these treatments in order to mitigate symptoms.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Acetazolamide is used to treat idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH). IIH is most commonly seen in obese women of childbearing age and can be caused by medications such as oral isotretinoin (not topical tretinoin, as in this case) and tetracyclines. The initial symptom is usually a pulsatile headache that worsens with lying down and improves upon standing.
Answer B: High-flow oxygen is an abortive treatment for cluster headaches. Cluster headaches typically present in male patients with unilateral pain around the eye that is worse at night. Associated symptoms include spasms of the unilateral face as well as tearing and visual abnormalities in the eye.
Answer D: Topiramate can be used as prophylaxis for migraines but is not commonly used as an abortive medication. Chronic prophylactic medications generally function by decreasing spasms of the cranial blood supply in order to prevent a migraine from developing. They have minimal effectiveness after a migraine has already developed.
Answer E: Verapamil is a prophylactic medication used for cluster headaches. In addition to presenting in the peri-orbital region, cluster headaches are typically accompanied by lacrimation, rhinorrhea, and focal findings such as ptosis. It would not be effective in terminating a migraine.
Bullet Summary:
Triptans are used as an abortive treatment for migraines, which present as unilateral, throbbing headaches that may be associated with nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, and aura. | Verapamil |
https://bit.ly/3UV1eNW | A 45-year-old man with history of IV drug use presents to the outpatient clinic with a history of fever for 5 days. He also endorses sweats, headache behind the eyes, sore throat, muscle and joint pain, and a new rash seen in Figure A. He reports that he traveled to Africa last year and returned from a vacation to Thailand 10 days ago. His immunizations are up to date, although he missed the pre-departure travel medicine consult before his trip to Thailand. His temperature is 101.5°F (38.6°C), blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 14/min. Laboratory testing reveals the following:
Leukocyte count: 2,400/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 13.4 g/dL
Hematocrit: 40%
Mean corpuscular volume: 81 µm^3
Platelets: 92,000/mm^3
Serum:
AST: 112 IU/L
ALT: 69 IU/L
ALP: 78 IU/L
Bilirubin: 0.9 mg/dL
Which of the following is the diagnostic test of choice for this disease? | Blood smear | Sputum with acid fast stain | Serologic testing | Stool culture | C | Serologic testing | This patient is presenting with fever, headache with retro-orbital pain, muscle aches, joint pain, rash, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, which are classic findings for dengue fever. The diagnostic test of choice for dengue is serology.
Dengue is a viral infection endemic to South Asia, Central and South America, and the Caribbean. Although most infections are asymptomatic, notable characteristics include headache with retro-orbital pain, bone pain ("break-bone fever"), leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia (< 100,000 /µL). Symptoms typically develop several days to 2 weeks following the bite of an infected mosquito. The diagnostic test of choice is a serologic antibody test, although PCR can also be used in the acute (< 3 days) phase of illness. Treatment is with supportive care including rehydration.
Jasamai et al. present the current treatment options for dengue fever. They discuss how supportive therapy is the mainstay of treatment as no antibody or antiviral treatments have been effective at this time. They recommend using effective preventive measures such as mosquito control in endemic areas.
Figure A is a clinical photograph demonstrating the maculopapular rash seen in dengue fever.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Blood culture is used for the detection of bacterial infections of the blood. This patient's IV drug use puts him at risk for bacterial endocarditis, but he does not have other expected findings, such as new murmur, Janeway lesions, Roth spots, or Osler nodes. Endocarditis should be treated with intravenous antibiotics.
Answer B: Blood smear is the diagnostic test of choice for other mosquito-borne diseases such as malaria. It is not used in the detection of dengue. Malaria presents with cyclical fevers and organisms on blood smear. It can be treated with chloroquine and artesunate.
Answer D: Sputum with acid fast stain is the test of choice for tuberculosis. This patient has a risk factor of TB as he recently traveled to Africa, but he does not have any pulmonary symptoms. Treatment for tuberculosis is rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol therapy (among other possible regimens).
Answer E: Stool culture may be used to diagnose typhoid fever. Typhoid fever presents with many of the same non-specific symptoms as dengue but would also present with prominent abdominal pain and gastrointestinal symptoms. Typhoid can be treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin.
Bullet Summary:
Dengue fever is characterized by fever, headache with retro-orbital pain, muscle and joint pain, rash, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia that can be diagnosed through serologic testing. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3Waen6G | A 32-year-old G1P0 presents to the antenatal testing unit at 32 weeks of gestation for a non-stress test (NST). Yesterday she had several episodes of diarrhea and vomited once after attending a company picnic 2 days ago. She took loperamide with symptomatic relief. She is worried that she is dehydrated but otherwise feels well and has recovered from her gastrointestinal illness. The patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes after routine screening in the 2nd trimester and has been started on insulin after unsuccessful attempts at lifestyle management. She also has migraines and gastroesophageal reflux disorder. The patient has a 15-pack-year smoking history but quit smoking in her 1st month of pregnancy. She denies alcohol or drug use. Her temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 122/82 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 14/min. A representative portion of the NST is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s non-stress test (NST) results? | Maternal medication use | Normal results | Fetal sleep cycle | Maternal smoking | C | Fetal sleep cycle | This patient presents with a nonreactive NST on routine testing. The most common explanation for a nonreactive NST is the fetal sleep cycle.
Patients with gestational diabetes are at increased risk of fetal demise and other perinatal complications. They require closer monitoring during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy. The NST, which lasts 20 minutes, is the most common method of doing so. After 32 weeks, a reactive (i.e. “normal”) NST requires at least 2 episodes of 15-beat-per-minute accelerations lasting for at least 15 seconds. An NST with no accelerations is considered nonreactive. A common cause of a nonreactive NST is the fetal sleep cycle and it is reasonable to continue the test for an additional 20 minutes to increase the chance of monitoring the fetus while awake. Otherwise, a nonreactive NST should prompt vibroacoustic stimulation or further testing such as a biophysical profile (BPP).
Umana and Siccardi review the evidence regarding the use of the NST during pregnancy. They discuss how the test is a measurement of fetal cardiovascular function at the time of the test. They recommend monitoring the baseline fetal heart rate and variability as well as the presence of accelerations and decelerations when interpreting test results.
Figure/Illustration A shows a representative portion of a NST where the fetal heart rate remains within a narrow band without accelerations (red circle). This pattern is characteristically seen in a nonreactive NST that can be due to the fetal sleep cycle.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Maternal dehydration generally should not affect the reactivity of an NST. Although severe dehydration may reduce amniotic fluid volume and therefore increase the baseline fetal pulse, it is unlikely to change the accelerations or variability in an NST. Though this patient had diarrhea the day before, her pulse is not elevated and any dehydration is probably not clinically significant.
Answer C: Maternal medication use can cause nonreactivity on an NST if drugs such as morphine or other sedatives are taken. Although this patient did take loperamide (an opioid), it is unlikely that this has a sedative effect on the fetus as it acts selectively on the mu-opioid receptors in the large intestine and does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
Answer D: Maternal smoking in close proximity to an NST has been linked to nonreactivity, but this patient has not smoked in several months. Mothers who smoke are counseled to avoid smoking on the day of their NST to avoid the effects of nicotine on their test results.
Answer E: A normal result is known as a reactive NST and would present with accelerations and no concerning or late decelerations. This is not a reactive NST due to the lack of appropriate accelerations.
Bullet Summary:
The most common cause of a non-reactive non-stress test is the fetal sleep cycle. | nan |
https://bit.ly/46AmGNy | A 22-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. She was hiking when she suddenly felt unable to breathe and had to take slow deep breaths to improve her symptoms. The patient is a Swedish foreign exchange student and does not speak any English. Her medical history and current medications are unknown. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Physical exam is notable for poor air movement bilaterally and tachycardia. The patient is started on treatment. Which of the following parameters including forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), forced vital capacity (FVC), and diffusing capacity of carbon monoxide (DLCO) most appropriately describes this patient's underlying pathology? | Increased FVC | Decreased airway tone | Normal DLCO | Increased FEV1/FVC | C | Normal DLCO | This patient who presents with dyspnea and poor air movement bilaterally most likely has an acute asthma exacerbation. DLCO is the one parameter that is normal in these episodes.
Asthma is an obstructive lung disease that results in intermittent episodes of respiratory compromise. Asthma presents with shortness of breath typically secondary to an allergen/antigen or with exposure to exercise or cold air that causes bronchospasm. Pulmonary function testing will typically reveal a decreased FEV1, a decreased FVC, and a decreased FEV1/FVC in both asthma and emphysema. The DLCO will be normal in asthma in contrast to emphysema where the DLCO is decreased. Patients should be treated with inhaled beta-adrenergic agonists and corticosteroids for acute exacerbations.
Peng et al. review the evidence regarding patients who have COPD versus asthma. They discuss how patients with COPD have reduced DLCO. They recommend measuring parameters to distinguish between these entities.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Decreased airway tone does not describe asthma. Rather, hyperreactive airways with increased tone describes an asthma attack. Decreased airway tone may be seen in patients with connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
Answers 2-4: Increased FEV1, FEV1/FVC, and FVC do not describe asthma. All of these laboratory values are decreased in asthma and emphysema. Increased respiratory performance can be seen in patients who are athletes or training for marathons.
Bullet Summary:
Both asthma and emphysema present with a decreased FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC; however, asthma has a normal DLCO while COPD has a reduced DLCO. | nan |
https://bit.ly/47eVBPi | A 23-year-old woman presents to her psychiatrist concerned about her mood. She has felt tired and unwilling to engage in any activities lately. She states that her limbs feel heavy all the time and that completing any activity takes tremendous effort. She no longer finds any happiness in activities that she previously enjoyed. She struggles to sleep and at times can't sleep for several days. The patient is started on appropriate first-line therapy and sent home. She returns 1 week later stating that her symptoms have not improved. She is requesting help as her performance at work and school is suffering. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, pulse is 60/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Add lithium to treatment regimen | Change treatment to duloxetine | Change treatment to lithium | Continue current therapy | D | Continue current therapy | This patient is presenting with depression and should be treated with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for at least 4 weeks. Patients who have tried the therapy for a shorter duration of time may not yet have experienced the benefit of the medication.
Depression presents with SIGE CAPS (Sleeplessness, Interest loss, Guilt, Energy decreased, Concentration abnormalities, Appetite changes, Psychomotor retardation, and Suicidal ideation). The most appropriate initial step in management is to treat the patient with an SSRI for at least 4 weeks since SSRI's take several weeks to reach their potential. If the treatment has failed after 4 weeks of use, altering the patient's medications could be appropriate. Treatment and side effects should be monitored by a physician.
Kato et al. review the evidence regarding the treatment of depression with SSRI medications. They discuss how medications should be used for at least 4 weeks to determine treatment response. They recommend not allowing patients to switch between drug classes too early.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Adding lithium to the treatment regimen could be an appropriate treatment if this patient had failed to respond to therapy after 4 weeks of using the drug. Lithium is an augmenting agent that could potentiate the effect of an SSRI.
Answer B: Changing the treatment to duloxetine would be inappropriate as this patient has not taken the first-line SSRI for at least 4 weeks. Patients should try a full treatment course in order to determine if they may derive some benefit.
Answer C: Changing the treatment to lithium would be appropriate if this patient's diagnosis was bipolar disorder, which would present with episodes of depression and mania. Altered sleep alone does not indicate mania.
Answer E: Electroconvulsive therapy is the most effective treatment for depression; however, it is typically a last-line treatment. This therapy can be useful in refractory cases.
Bullet Summary:
SSRI medications are the most appropriate first-line agent for depression and should be tried for at least 4 weeks before changing therapy. | Electroconvulsive therapy |
https://bit.ly/3SyN6Lf | A 57-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with weakness for the past 6 months with symptoms that have worsened recently. She feels fatigued, depressed, and has gained 10 pounds which she attributes to feeling too weak to go to the gym. She was recently treated for an ear infection with an antibiotic which she completed 3 weeks ago, and experienced a rash which she believes was an allergic reaction to her treatment. The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus that is well-controlled with insulin and metformin. She has been admitted multiple times for hypoglycemia secondary to missing meals. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for 2/5 strength in the patient's upper and lower extremities, sparse fine hair on her body, and a rash on her face and arms. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below. Serum: Na+: 139 mEq/L K+: 3.3 mEq/L Cl-: 100 mEq/L HCO3-: 25 mEq/L BUN: 20 mg/dL Glucose: 70 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL AST: 12 U/L ALT: 10 U/L A muscle biopsy is obtained as seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's presentation? | Dermatomyositis | Hypokalemia | Hypothyroidism | Inclusion body myositis | D | Inclusion body myositis | This patient who presents with weakness and a rash has a biopsy suggestive of inclusion body myositis.
Inclusion body myositis presents with an insidious onset of weakness, a mildly elevated CRP and CK, and a rash. A muscle biopsy in this disease will demonstrate endomysial inflammation with basophilic-rimmed vacuoles within the muscle fiber sarcoplasm. Electromyography is typically abnormal, and the most accurate/confirmatory test is a muscle biopsy. There is no cure for this disease and no standard course of treatment. Corticosteroids are not usually effective but intravenous immunoglobulins can be effective.
Naddaf et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of patients with inclusion body myositis. They discuss how this disease is still refractory to treatment. They recommend a muscle biopsy to establish a definitive diagnosis.
Figure/Illustration A is a muscle biopsy demonstrating endomysial inflammation with basophilic-rimmed vacuoles (red circle) within the muscle fiber sarcoplasm. These findings are classically seen in patients with inclusion body myositis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1 & 5: Dermatomyositis and polymyositis present similarly with muscle weakness and an elevated CK, CRP, and aldolase. However, dermatomyositis presents with dermatologic findings. A biopsy would demonstrate inflammation surrounding the muscle fascicle (dermatomyositis) or within the muscle fascicle (polymyositis). Treatment may include azathioprine and methotrexate.
Answer B: Hypokalemia could present with weakness and cardiac abnormalities. Though this patient is hypokalemic, her biopsy demonstrates inclusion body myositis. Treatment of hypokalemia is with potassium repletion.
Answer C: Hypothyroidism presents with depression, fatigue, scarce lanugo, myopathy, and weight gain (as this patient has). Though myopathy from hypothyroidism is plausible, her symptoms of weakness have a confirmatory biopsy. Treatment of hypothyroidism is with thyroid hormone replacement.
Bullet Summary:
Inclusion body myositis presents with weakness and an elevated CRP/CK with a muscle biopsy demonstrating endomysial inflammation with basophilic-rimmed vacuoles within the muscle fiber sarcoplasm. | Polymyositis |
https://bit.ly/41Hqt8O | A 38-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with difficulty eating. Over the past week, she has had increasing difficulty chewing her food and progressive pain in the left side of her jaw. This morning, she was unable to close her mouth for several minutes after taking a bite of her breakfast. Two months ago, the patient had a root canal on a left molar. Her medical history is significant for hyperlipidemia, mild intermittent asthma, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has never smoked and has 10-15 alcoholic drinks per week. She works as an aide at a nursing home. Her temperature is 100.8°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 133/74 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 14/min. On physical exam, there is a bluish hue to the skin on the lower left side of the patient’s face. A 3x4 cm non-tender mass can be palpated inferior to the angle of the left mandible. Thick exudate is draining from an opening in the skin. The gram stain of the exudate can be seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? | Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole | Penicillin | Clindamycin | Amphotericin B | B | Penicillin | This patient presents with fever, trismus, and cutaneous drainage of sulfur granules in the setting of a recent dental procedure, which points to a diagnosis of cervicofacial actinomycosis. The most appropriate treatment for this disease is penicillin.
Actinomyces is a gram-positive, filamentous rod that causes a cervicofacial infection after direct inoculation during a dental procedure or trauma. It typically presents in an indolent fashion over a time course of weeks to months in which a hard, indurated mass evolves into multiple abscesses that drain through sinus tracts through the skin. The exudate is classically thick with small yellow “sulfur” granules, although it may also be serosanguinous. Since the infection spreads by direct extension, patients may complain of pain when the infection infiltrates or compresses nearby structures. Trismus may occur for the same reasons. The treatment of choice is penicillin.
Valour et al. review the evidence regarding the treatment of Actinomyces infection. They discuss how prolonged (6- to 12-month) high-dose penicillin or amoxicillin is required for the treatment of this disease. They recommend preventive measures such as improvement of dental hygiene to prevent this disease.
Figure/Illustration A demonstrates the histologic appearance of a basophilic “sulfur granule” (red circle). These granules are found in the draining exudate in patients with actinomycosis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Amphotericin B is the treatment of choice for fungal infections such as mucormycosis. This disease generally presents with a rapidly progressive soft tissue infection that can be fatal if left untreated. Patients would present with black fungal lesions generally in immunocompromised or diabetic hosts.
Answer B: Clindamycin may be used in the treatment of empyema as it has activity against many anaerobes. Although this patient has a substantial weekly alcohol intake and has a chief complaint of “difficulty eating,” she has no true pulmonary symptoms and her presentation is more likely related to her recent dental procedure.
Answer C: Metronidazole may be used in the treatment of empyema. Although this patient has a substantial weekly alcohol intake and has a chief complaint of “difficulty eating,” she has no true pulmonary symptoms and her presentation is more likely related to her recent dental procedure.
Answer E: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is the treatment of choice for Nocardiosis, which may cause cutaneous lesions in immunocompromised hosts. This disease more commonly causes pulmonary or central nervous system disease. Nocardia would not explain the granule seen in histology.
Bullet Summary:
Actinomyces is a gram-positive anaerobic rod that presents as an indurated mass with draining sinus tracts and should be treated with penicillin. | nan |
https://bit.ly/46vZtvp | A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with back pain after gardening. Her pain is 7/10 in severity, non-radiating, and not relieved by rest. She has never experienced this pain in the past and denies fever, night sweats, unintentional weight loss, and bowel or bladder incontinence. She has hypertension for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide and had a recent asthma flare requiring a prednisone taper. She does not drink alcohol or smoke. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical exam reveals an uncomfortable middle-aged woman in no acute distress. There is no tenderness to palpation of the spinous processes. Flexion of the hip with the knee extended while the patient is supine does not elicit any pain, nor does forced dorsiflexion of the foot at terminal hip extension. She has 5/5 strength to hip flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction; knee flexion and extension; and ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion bilaterally. Bilateral patellar and Achilles reflexes are 2+. Serum laboratory results are as follows: Hemoglobin: 12.0 g/dL Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL Ca2+: 10.6 mg/dL Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Spondylolisthesis | Lumbosacral strain | Herniated disc | Multiple myeloma | B | Lumbosacral strain | This patient presents with acute low back pain after physical exertion without radicular signs (e.g., motor or sensory changes in a nerve root distribution) and a negative straight leg raise, which are most consistent with lumbosacral strain.
The evaluation of acute low back pain is focused on eliciting clinical history and signs that would indicate further work-up. In patients without significant trauma, the presence of signs of spinal cord compression (e.g., urinary retention, bowel incontinence, saddle anesthesia, focal neurologic deficits), history of or strong risk factors for cancer, signs of infection, or risk of vertebral compression fracture should prompt additional work-up with imaging such as radiographs or magnetic resonance imaging. If none of these findings are present (most patients with acute low back pain in the primary care setting), then conservative therapy for 4-6 weeks consisting of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with or without physical therapy is indicated.
Patel and Ogle review the management of acute low back pain in the primary care setting. They outline the Waddell signs, which indicate the presence of a functional (signs of excessive pain behavior) aspect of pain. The authors recommend surgical evaluation only in patients with worsening neurologic deficits or intractable pain resistant to conservative treatment.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Herniated discs occurs when the nucleus pulposus herniates through a weakened part of the annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc, resulting in spinal nerve root compression. This causes radicular findings at the level of compression, including weakness in hip abduction and ankle dorsiflexion with L5 involvement and weakness in ankle plantarflexion and reduced Achilles reflex with S1 involvement, and radiation of pain into the ipsilateral lower extremity. The straight leg raise test would be positive, as it exacerbates the nerve root compression.
Answer C: Multiple myeloma presents with hypercalcemia, anemia, renal failure, and lytic bone lesions causing bone pain. This patient has no constitutional symptoms to suggest a malignant process and has a mild elevation in serum calcium, which is likely due to her thiazide diuretic. The clear association of her back pain with exertion makes lumbosacral strain more likely.
Answer D: Spondylolisthesis occurs when a vertebral body is forwardly subluxated relative to the adjacent vertebral body. This presents as back pain alleviated by rest. Since this can narrow the spinal canal, it may also present with neurogenic claudication, manifesting as buttock or leg pain with walking that can be alleviated by bending forward. This patient’s back pain is not alleviated by rest and is associated with exertion.
Answer E: Vertebral compression fractures can present as back pain in a patient with minor or no trauma. These patients have osteoporosis and other risk factors like advanced age or chronic corticosteroid use and would have point tenderness at the site of fracture. This patient does not have point tenderness or risk factors.
Bullet Summary:
Lumbosacral strain is a common cause of acute low back pain that presents after physical exertion with no radicular signs and a negative straight leg raise test. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=215182 | A 68-year-old man presents for evaluation by a neurologist for an involuntary hand tremor that started approximately 3 months ago. The shaking improves when he reaches for objects but returns when he is not using his hand. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 12/min. His left hand exhibits a 4-6 Hz tremor when resting on his lap. The tremor extinguishes with voluntary movement. In addition, his left upper extremity has increased tone with passive range of motion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Cerebellar stroke | Essential tremor | Lacunar stroke | Parkinson disease | D | Parkinson disease | This patient who presents with a low amplitude, 4-6 Hz resting tremor that resolves with voluntary movement and associated rigidity most likely has Parkinson disease.
Parkinson disease is caused by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta of the basal ganglia. This neurodegenerative process leads to movement abnormalities such as bradykinesia, “cogwheel” muscle rigidity (intermittently increased muscle tone with passive range of motion), shuffling gait, postural instability, and a resting tremor sometimes referred to as “pill-rolling” in quality. Parkinson disease usually presents with unilateral symptoms and subsequently progresses to bilateral involvement. First-line treatment involves dopaminergic drugs such as carbidopa-levodopa. Antimuscarinic agents can also be used for symptom control.
Zhong et al. review the role of the cerebellum in tremor in Parkinson disease. The authors find that the cerebellum may modulate tremor amplitude via cerebello-thalamo-cortical circuits. The authors recommend further study of the cerebellum as an alternative therapeutic target in Parkinson patients with dopamine-resistant tremors.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Cerebellar stroke can manifest as an intention tremor, which presents as an oscillatory tremor that increases in amplitude at the endpoint of visually goal-directed movement. Intention tremors are best exhibited in the finger-nose-finger test in which the patient repeatedly touches their nose and then extends their arm to touch the examiner's finger. Patients would also have more severe symptoms including ataxia, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus.
Answer B: Essential tremor is a condition that is often familial and presents as a high frequency (4-9 Hz) tremor that occurs with sustained posture and is worsened with movement. Treatment includes propranolol and primidone.
Answer C: Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat disorder that leads to neurodegeneration of the caudate and putamen. Chorea is a hallmark movement abnormality associated with Huntington disease and presents with spontaneous, jerking, purposeless involuntary movements.
Answer D: Lacunar stroke can result in ischemia to the subthalamic nucleus and produce hemiballismus. This presents as spontaneous unilateral explosive movements of an upper extremity and occasionally the ipsilateral lower extremity. Other motor deficits are also expected when there is a lacunar infarct.
Bullet Summary:
Resting tremor is a hallmark of Parkinson disease and presents with low amplitude, 4-6 Hz oscillatory rhythmic movements that temporarily extinguish with voluntary movement. | nan |
https://bit.ly/40qTdn2 | A 17-year-old boy presents to his primary care physician with a chief concern of "bad" skin that has not improved despite home remedies. The patient has had lesions on his face that have persisted since he was 13 years of age. He has a diet high in refined carbohydrates and has gained 20 pounds since starting high school. Physical exam is notable for the findings in Figure A. The patient is started on benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids. He returns 1 month later stating that his symptoms are roughly the same. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Continue current therapy for 1 more month | Dietary intervention | Isoretinoin | Topical antibiotics | D | Topical antibiotics | This patient is presenting with persistent acne vulgaris that is refractory to topical benzoyl peroxide and retinoids. The next step in management is topical antibiotics.
Acne vulgaris is caused by blockage or outlet obstruction of the pilosebaceous unit. It presents with erythema, pustules, and comedones typically in young men going through puberty. Risk factors include stress, excessive sweating, greasy skin care products, and steroid use. The management of acne vulgaris, in order, is to start with topical benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids, topical antibiotics, oral antibiotics, and isoretinoin. It is important to try a therapy for a proper duration before switching to a more invasive therapy.
Eichenfield et al. review the evidence regarding the treatment of patients with acne vulgaris. They discuss how this disease can be treated with benzoyl peroxide. They recommend using antibiotics or isotretinoin for refractory cases.
Figure/Illustration A is a clinical photograph demonstrating diffuse comedones over the forehead (red circle). These findings are classically seen in patients with acne vulgaris.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Continuing current therapy for 1 more month is unnecessary as this patient's symptoms have not improved at all with 1 month of therapy. Continuing current therapy would be appropriate if the patient had only tried therapy for a few days.
Answer B: Dietary interventions have not been shown to improve outcomes in acne vulgaris. Stopping illicit substances such as performance enhancing steroids can be effective in reducing acne symptoms but there is no evidence this patient has been using steroids.
Answer C: Isoretinoin is the last-line therapy for acne vulgaris. It should not be given to pregnant women as it is teratogenic. Women taking isoretinoin should be on reliable birth control. Topical and oral antibiotics should be used first.
Answer D: Oral antibiotics would be indicated after topical antibiotics fail. Topical antibiotics should be tried first as these do not have systemic side effects.
Bullet Summary:
The management of acne vulgaris is to start with topical benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids, followed by topical antibiotics, oral antibiotics, and isoretinoin in increasing order of severity. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3OFDpHw | A 69-year-old man presents to clinic due to shortness of breath, worsening pain in his right shoulder, and episodes of hemoptysis. His symptoms began 3 months ago. He has also lost 18 pounds. He has a history of coronary artery disease and underwent an uncomplicated coronary angioplasty with stent placement 2 years ago. He routinely travels both domestically and internationally as a senior shipyard worker and has a 30-pack-year smoking history. He used to drink 4 cocktails a week. He has not smoke or drank alcohol in over 7 years. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.7°C), blood pressure is 140/60 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, and respirations are 13/min. Physical exam is notable for right pupillary constriction as well as paresthesias in his right fourth and fifth digits. There is no pain with active shoulder rotation. His chest imaging is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms? | Lung adenocarcinoma | Mesothelioma | Rotator cuff tendinopathy | Syringomyelia | A | Lung adenocarcinoma | This elderly patient with an extensive smoking history is presenting with hemoptysis, weight loss, and shortness of breath. Combined with neurological findings in the ulnar nerve distribution (paresthesias in fourth and fifth digits) and imaging evidence of a superior right lung mass, the most likely diagnosis is a Pancoast tumor, which is most commonly a lung adenocarcinoma.
A Pancoast tumor is a peripheral lung cancer often caused by lung adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma and is often located in the superior sulcus of the lung. The most important risk factor is smoking. This tumor causes compression of adjacent structures. Patients can present with severe, localized axilla pain (due to invasion of the brachial plexus), weakness of intrinsic hand muscles with radicular pain and paresthesias in the fourth and fifth digits (due to invasion of the C8-T1 portion of the brachial plexus), Horner syndrome (miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis due to invasion of the cervical sympathetic nerves), hoarseness (due to invasion of the recurrent laryngeal nerve), and edema of the arm with facial swelling (due to compression of the superior vena cava). Treatment is varied and involves a combination of radiation, chemotherapy, and surgery.
Wu et al. studied the role of the tyrosine-kinase inhibitor, osimertinib, in the treatment of completed resected epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)-mutated non-small cell lung cancer (NCSLC). The authors find that 89% of patients in the osimertinib group and 52% of the placebo groups were alive and disease free at 24 months. The authors recommend the use of osimertinib in patients with stage IB to IIIA EGFR-mutated NSCLC.
Figure/Illustration A demonstrates a right apical lung mass found on computed tomography (CT) scan (green arrow).
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Mesothelioma is a neoplasm of the pleura found in people with occupational exposures to asbestos, such as shipyard workers. While this neoplasm can present with hemoptysis and dyspnea, chest imaging of mesothelioma reveals pleural plaques and thickening, not an isolated apical lung lesion.
Answer C: Rotator cuff tendinopathy presents with pain with abduction and external rotation of the arm. This patient has no pain with active shoulder rotation.
Answer D: Syringomyelia is a cyst or cavity in the spinal column that can cause Horner syndrome and fluctuating radicular pain. It is unlikely to cause hemoptysis, weight loss, and the chest imaging findings in this patient.
Answer E: Tuberculosis is a possible diagnosis in this patient with hemoptysis, weight loss, and extensive travel history. Tuberculosis often presents with a fever and does not usually cause shoulder pain.
Bullet Summary:
Pancoast tumor presents with shoulder pain, cervical radiculopathy, Horner syndrome, and hoarseness and should be suspected in a patient with a smoking history and an apical lung mass on imaging. | Tuberculosis |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=108758 | An 83-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to confusion over the last 2 weeks. The patient initially became less talkative than usual before starting to confuse her with her sister. The patient also could not remember what day of the week it was and he was out of groceries and likely had been for several days when visited. While she was talking to him, he fell asleep and was difficult to rouse. The patient is unable to provide a clear history. He has a medical history of hypertension, glaucoma, and osteoarthritis in his left knee that requires him to walk with a cane. He takes hydrochlorothiazide, timolol eyedrops, and occasional acetaminophen. His temperature is 98.5° F (36.9° C), blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 14/min. The patient is lethargic but arousable, oriented only to person, and disheveled. Neurologic exam reveals intact cranial nerves, 1+ deep tendon reflexes throughout, and 4/5 strength in all extremities. There is a 3 x 5 cm green-blue area of ecchymosis on the lateral aspect of his left knee. A CT of the head without contrast is performed and shown in Figure A. Which of the following factors plays the earliest role in the progression towards this patient’s presentation? | Increased cerebrospinal fluid | Aneurysmal rupture | Cerebral atrophy | Hypertension | C | Cerebral atrophy | This patient is an elderly man with progressive confusion over weeks, a nonfocal neurologic exam, and a CT of the head showing a hypodense crescent, most consistent with chronic subdural hematoma (SDH). Cerebral atrophy plays the earliest role in this presentation, resulting in exposure of the bridging veins and subsequent rupture with even minor trauma.
Chronic subdural hematomas present gradually, most often with headaches, somnolence, light-headedness, cognitive impairment, and rarely, seizures. Typically, the neurologic exam is largely normal but rarely focal deficits such as contralateral hemiparesis from compression of the cortex underlying the hematoma or ipsilateral hemiparesis from the lateral displacement of the opposite cortex may occur. Chronic SDH most often occurs in the setting of cerebral atrophy related to increased age, chronic alcohol use, and prior traumatic brain injury. Exposure of the bridging veins allows even minor trauma to precipitate subdural bleeding. A non-contrast CT of the head is indicated in any elderly patient with decreased mentation and concern for chronic SDH. Since old blood appears hypodense, imaging will allow for the determination of whether the bleed is acute or chronic. Supportive care is usually sufficient for treatment but surgical evacuation of the hematoma can be considered in patients with focal deficits or an expanding hematoma.
Mehta et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and management of chronic subdural hematomas in elderly patients. They discuss how crescentic layering of fluid in the subdural space on a non-contrast computed tomography scan is diagnostic of this condition. They recommend close follow-up as many patients will develop a recurrence of this condition.
Figure/Illustration A shows a non-contrast CT scan of the head with a hypodense crescent left side (red circle). This finding is consistent with a chronic subdural hematoma.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Aneurysmal rupture is an extremely uncommon cause of SDH and typically causes subarachnoid hemorrhage instead. It often presents with “the worst headache of my life” or “thunderclap headache,” and would show hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space on head CT. Surgical clipping or endovascular treatment can prevent rebleeding.
Answer C: Elder abuse can be subtle and should always be considered when an elderly patient presents with confusion, bruising, or dishevelment. In children, abuse is an important cause of SDH, which may occur in the setting of “shaken baby syndrome.” However, abuse is not especially associated with chronic SDH in the elderly population, and there is another plausible reason for this patient’s presentation (trauma from a fall as evidenced by the resolving ecchymosis on his knee).
Answer D: Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, which typically presents with focal neurologic deficits such as hemiparesis, aphasia, or sensory loss. Although this patient does have a history of hypertension, he is normotensive in the emergency room and has non-focal neurologic decline that has been slowly progressive, which is less consistent with stroke. Furthermore, in contrast to this patient’s CT scan, acute ischemic stroke would likely present with a normal head CT and prior infarct would cause a hypodensity in the parenchyma itself. Treatment is with risk factor optimization when a patient presents outside the window for thrombolytic agents.
Answer E: Increased CSF due to poor reabsorption by arachnoid granules is the cause of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). Patients typically present with the “wet, wacky, and wobbly” triad – urinary incontinence, mental status changes, and magnetic gait. Head CT would show dilated ventricles and management includes CSF shunting.
Bullet Summary:
Chronic subdural hematomas may occur in elderly patients due to cerebral atrophy and subsequent exposure of bridging veins that may tear with minor trauma. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=108999 | A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department. He was brought in by police for shouting on a subway. The patient claims that little people were trying to kill him and he was acting within his rights to defend himself. The patient has a medical history of marijuana and IV drug use as well as multiple suicide attempts. He is currently homeless. While in the ED, the patient is combative and refuses a physical exam. He is given IM haloperidol and diphenhydramine. The patient is transferred to the inpatient psychiatric unit and is continued on haloperidol throughout the next week. Though he is no longer aggressive, he is seen making "armor" out of paper plates and plastic silverware to defend himself. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 115/71 mmHg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient's treatment history is significant for failure to obtain symptom control with risperidone, haloperidol, and ziprasidone. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Chlorpromazine | Clozapine | Fluphenazine | Olanzapine | B | Clozapine | This patient is presenting with symptoms of schizophrenia that are refractory to treatment with both typical and atypical antipsychotics. The most appropriate next step in management is treatment with clozapine.
Schizophrenia presents with auditory and/or visual hallucinations among many other findings. The most appropriate initial treatments are with a typical antipsychotic (haloperidol) or an atypical antipsychotic (risperidone). Once a patient has failed treatment with multiple medications (at least 2) from different classes, the next best step in management is clozapine. This medication is reserved for patients who have sustained treatment failure (because of the side effects of clozapine). These include weight gain, life-threatening agranulocytosis, and aplastic anemia. Regular complete blood count laboratory testing should be drawn while on clozapine to check for this side effect. Patients who develop this complication should immediately stop the medication but the side effect can be irreversible.
Khokhar et al. review the evidence regarding the use of clozapine to treat schizophrenia. They discuss how side effects of this medication include agranulocytosis, myocarditis, and seizures. They recommend using this medication with care and monitoring for the development of these complications.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic that is likely to fail given that haloperidol did not work for him. Important side effects of this medication include hypotension and sedation due to anticholinergic properties. This medication also has an idiosyncratic complication of corneal deposits.
Answer C: Fluphenazine is another typical anti-psychotic that is a strong D2 antagonist like haloperidol. If haloperidol failed, it is unlikely that another typical antipsychotic would work with such a similar mechanism of action. This medication has a high association with extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Answer D: Olanzapine is another atypical antipsychotic. Switching to another atypical antipsychotic is a viable option. Given that this patient has already failed another atypical antipsychotic and that his symptoms remain, the best therapy at this point would be clozapine. Side effects include weight gain and dyslipidemia.
Answer E: Thioridazine is a low-potency anti-psychotic that would likely not work if more potent drugs such as haloperidol or risperidone have already failed. Important side effects to be aware of include hypotension and sedation due to anticholinergic properties. This medication also has an idiosyncratic complication of retinal deposits.
Bullet Summary:
Clozapine is the treatment of choice in patients who have failed therapy with multiple different classes of antipsychotics and who have severe symptoms. | Thioridazine |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=106849 | A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department because she feels as though her heart is "beating out of her chest." She states that she feels well apart from the discomfort of that sensation. Her temperature is 97.9°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 180/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. An ECG is obtained as seen in Figure A. After unsuccessful attempts at vagal maneuvers, the emergency physician administers an IV medication. The effect of the medication wears off in seconds. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this medication? | Tachycardia | Photosensitivity | Flushing | Seizure | C | Flushing | This patient presents with a narrow complex tachycardia that is regular which is suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and was pharmacologically cardioverted with adenosine (as it has a very short half-life). Side effects of adenosine include flushing, hypotension, bronchospasm, and heart block.
SVT presents with a narrow-complex, regular tachycardia. The diagnosis is made with these findings on ECG. Management in an unstable patient is centered on cardioversion. Otherwise, the first step in management is centered on vagal maneuvers. If these fail, adenosine is the first-line pharmacologic treatment. While a relatively safe drug, side effects of adenosine include hypotension, heart block, flushing, and bronchospasm. Patients may also report a "sense of impending doom" following administration, thought to be the result of the transient asystole adenosine produces. Persistent SVT refractory to adenosine may be further managed with calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, or cardioversion.
Colucci et al. review the diagnosis and management of common types of supraventricular tachycardias. The most common types of supraventricular tachycardia are caused by a reentry phenomenon producing accelerated heart rates. Symptoms may include palpitations, chest pain, lightheadedness or dizziness, and dyspnea. If Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is present, expedient referral to a cardiologist is warranted because ablation is a potentially curative option.
Figure A is an ECG demonstrating SVT. Note the regular narrow complex tachycardia that is a defining feature of this condition.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: A disulfiram-like reaction was once thought to be associated with medications such as metronidazole. Metronidazole is an antibiotic that covers anaerobes. When alcohol is consumed in a patient on disulfiram, headache, malaise, nausea, and vomiting may be experienced.
Answer C: Photosensitivity is associated with medications such as sulfonamides, amiodarone, and tetracycline. Patients should be advised to stay out of the sun on these medications.
Answer D: Seizures are not associated with adenosine. Isoniazid, bupropion, imipenem/cilastatin, tramadol, enflurane, and metoclopramide are all known to increase the risk of seizures. Seizures often present with tonic-clonic activity, tongue biting, urinary incontinence, and a postictal phase.
Answer E: Tachycardia can be associated with medications such as atropine which reduce vagal tone on the heart increasing the heart rate. Medications that block the AV node would be expected to cause bradycardia.
Bullet Summary:
Adenosine is a first-line pharmacological agent in supraventricular tachycardia and can cause hypotension, heart block, flushing, and bronchospasm. | nan |
https://bit.ly/44tTwi7 | A 45-year-old morbidly obese woman with a history of asthma and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her primary care physician for advice on weight loss. She thinks that her husband is having sex with other women because they have not had sex over the past year. She feels that her co-workers also disrespect her for her weight and constant sweat stains around her armpits and chest. She has noticed that the sweat stains get itchy and induce a burning sensation unless she showers or changes her shirt. She has been compliant with her medications, which include albuterol, metformin, glyburide, and atorvastatin. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 128/85 mmHg, pulse is 91/min, and respirations are 11/min. On physical exam, the patient has a flat affect, with moist oral mucosa and nasal polyps. She denies sinus tenderness. Her neck is thick with a posterior cervical fat pad. During cardiac auscultation, the finding in Figure A is noted below her breasts. What is the most appropriate next step in management for this finding? | Topical nystatin | Topical clobetasol | Prednisone | Fluconazole | A | Topical nystatin | This patient has a rash consistent with candidal intertrigo given the location and history of a damp, pruritic rash. The most appropriate next step in management is topical nystatin powder.
Intertrigo is caused by the Candida species and is characterized by pruritic, painful, and erythematous superficial patches surrounded by satellite lesions. They are commonly seen in intertriginous areas such as the breasts, groin, axilla, or abdominal pannus. Obesity and diabetes are significant risk factors. Initial management involves maintaining skin dryness along with medical treatment using topical nystatin, clotrimazole, or miconazole. Persistent lesions may require oral antifungal treatment.
Nobles and Miller review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of intertrigo. They discuss how these lesions often become infected with Candida. They recommend the use of antifungal medications.
Figure/Illustration A shows candidal intertrigo in the breast fold. Note the satellite lesions that surround the erythematous patch.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Fluconazole is indicated for moderate to severe disease or if the rash is refractory to topical antifungals. Topical antifungal agents should be used before progressing to oral medications.
Answer B: Prednisone is not indicated and would potentially worsen the rash through immunosuppression and exacerbation of the patient's diabetes mellitus.
Answer C: Topical clobetasol is a high-potency corticosteroid. This would not be used because it can promote infection and lead to skin atrophy. Low-potency corticosteroids such as triamcinolone or hydrocortisone can be used as adjuncts for symptom control only.
Answer D: Topical imiquimod is indicated for autoimmune skin diseases such as alopecia areata not for candidal intertrigo. This disease would present with segmental regions of hair loss
Bullet Summary:
The treatment of candidal intertrigo involves topical antifungals including nystatin, clotrimazole, and miconazole. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=215026 | A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a routine appointment. He has no concerns. His past medical history is significant for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, diagnosed 15 years ago. The patient is intermittently compliant with his antiretroviral therapy (ART). His temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 11/min. His most recent lab work showed a cluster of differentiation CD4 count of 150 cells/µL. He received a dose of the 13-valent pneumococcal vaccine and a dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine 15 years ago, as well as a second dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine 10 years ago. In addition to encouraging greater compliance with his ART, which of the following is indicated in this patient? | Azithromycin and pneumococcal vaccine | Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and varicella vaccine | Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and zoster vaccine | Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and pneumococcal vaccine | D | Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and pneumococcal vaccine | This patient with HIV and a CD4 count of 150 cells/μL requires trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) prophylaxis and another dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine.
All HIV patients with a CD4 count < 200 cells/μL require TMP-SMX as prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecci pneumonia. Patients with CD4 counts < 100 cells/μL also require TMP-SMX as prophylaxis against toxoplasmosis. HIV patients require a dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine at age 65. Patients should initially receive the 13-valent pneumococcal vaccine, followed by the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine 8 weeks later, 5 years later, and at age 65. Compliance with ART is also critical in patients with HIV.
Kaplan et al. discuss recommendations for the prevention of opportunistic infections in HIV-infected adults. The authors find that daily prophylaxis with TMP-SMX is an appropriate regimen for the prevention of Pneumocystis pneumonia. The authors recommend dapsone, atovaquone, or pentamidine for patients that cannot receive TMP-SMX.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Azithromycin is used as prophylaxis against Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) in patients with a CD4 count < 50 cells/μL that has not been started on ART. Since this patient has a CD4 count of 150 cells/μL, azithromycin is not indicated at this time.
Answer B: Azithromycin is used as prophylaxis against Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) in patients with a CD4 count < 50 cells/μL that has not been started on ART. This patient should not receive the zoster vaccine as it is a live vaccine and is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients.
Answer D: Although this patient does require TMP-SMX as prophylaxis against Pneumocystis pneumonia, he should not receive the varicella vaccine as it is a live vaccine and therefore contraindicated in immunocompromised patients.
Answer E: Although this patient does require TMP-SMX as prophylaxis against Pneumocystis pneumonia, he should not receive the zoster vaccine as it is a live vaccine and therefore contraindicated in immunocompromised patients.
Bullet Summary:
Patients with a CD4 count < 200 cells/μL require prophylaxis with TMP-SMX and all patients with HIV should receive a dose of the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine at age 65. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=109282 | A 4-day-old boy presents to the pediatrician with his mother for his 1st well visit. The patient was born at 36 weeks gestation to a 26-year-old primigravid mother via cesarean section for cervical incompetence. The patient required no resuscitation at birth and both mother and child were discharged from the hospital at 2 days of life. The patient has been exclusively breastfed since birth, and his mother reports that he feeds for 20-30 minutes every 2 hours. The patient urinates 7 times per day and has begun passing 2-3 stools per day that his mother describes as “grainy” and the color of “mustard.” His birth weight was 3670 g (8 lb 1 oz), and his current weight is 3487 (7 lb 11 oz). His temperature is 97.1°F (36.2°C), blood pressure is 57/42 mmHg, pulse is 140/min, and respirations are 38/min. On physical exam, the patient’s anterior fontanelle is soft and flat, and his eyes are moderately icteric. His abdomen is soft and non-distended. The patient has the physical exam finding seen in Figure A. His diaper can be seen in Figure B. Laboratory studies reveal the following:
Total bilirubin: 13 mg/dL
Conjugated bilirubin: 0.6 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Administer intravenous hydration | Continue current breastfeeding regimen | Order serum uric acid concentration | Order spot uric acid to creatinine ratio | B | Continue current breastfeeding regimen | This patient presents at day 4 of life with weight loss of 5% of his birth weight, uric acid crystals in his diaper, desquamation of the palms and soles, and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which are normal findings in a newborn. The most appropriate next step in management is continuing his current breastfeeding regimen.
Healthy newborns may lose up to 7% of their birth weight in the first 5 days of life and exhibit dry, peeling skin on the palms and soles as the skin adapts to a drier environment outside the womb. Uric acid crystals that look like “brick dust” are also a normal finding in the diaper during the 1st week of life, as uric acid excretion is highest at birth. All newborns should be evaluated for signs of dehydration, including sunken fontanelles, dry mucous membranes, low urine output, excessive weight loss, and tachycardia. If these findings are not present, continued breastfeeding should be encouraged.
Westerfield et al. review the evidence regarding the benefits of breastfeeding. They discuss how breastfeeding is associated with decreased risk of atopic dermatitis and gastroenteritis. They recommend ensuring proper breastfeeding techniques.
Figure A demonstrates flaking and peeling of the soles (red circles), which is a normal finding in the 1st week of life.
Figure B demonstrates uric acid crystals (“brick dust”) in the diaper (red circle), which is another normal finding that is caused by high uric acid excretion in the 1st few days of life.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Administering intravenous hydration would be appropriate for a severely dehydrated neonate who cannot tolerate hydration orally. This patient is not exhibiting signs of dehydration.
Answer C: Ordering a serum uric acid concentration may be part of an evaluation for Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, an X-linked recessive disorder of purine metabolism caused by deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) that causes hyperuricemia and hyperuricosuria. The uric acid crystals found in this patient’s diapers are a normal finding in the 1st week of life. Treatment is supportive including allopurinol for gout.
Answer D: Ordering a spot uric acid to creatinine ratio would be an appropriate first step in evaluation for Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, but the uric acid crystals in this patient’s diaper are not concerning for Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. Treatment is supportive as well as with allopurinol for gout.
Answer E: Recommending increasing the frequency of breastfeeding would be appropriate for a dehydrated infant with excessive weight loss, but this patient’s weight loss is within the expected limits for the 4th day of life.
Bullet Summary:
Healthy newborns may present with desquamation of the skin and uric acid crystals in the diaper and continued breastfeeding should be encouraged if no signs of dehydration are present. | Recommend increasing frequency of breastfeeding |
https://bit.ly/40Awtzi | A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for exposure to toxic materials. The patient states that when he left for work this morning he was certain that he had closed the door to his pantry. Upon returning home, he saw that the door to his pantry was wide open. The patient is certain that his neighbors have been tampering with his food and potentially poisoned him. He further states that he knows they have been trying to break into his house and steal his things. He has tried multiple times to get them evicted from the building to no avail. It is for this reason that he is certain that they are trying to get their revenge upon him. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 115/71 mmHg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 12/min. The physician performs a physical exam and tells the patient that he thinks there is nothing to be concerned about, but that he should call him or come into the office if he experiences any symptoms. The patient is outraged at this news and requests a competent doctor who is not colluding with his enemies. He storms out of the office angrily, stating that he deserves the best in medical care. Which of the following is the most likely disorder that this patient is suffering from? | Borderline personality disorder | Intermittent explosive disorder | Narcissistic personality disorder | Paranoid personality disorder | D | Paranoid personality disorder | This patient is presenting with a history of mistrust and suspicion of others without frankly psychotic features suggesting a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder.
Paranoid personality disorder is a cluster A personality disorder that is genetically associated with schizophrenia. These patients present with a pervasive mistrust of others based on little or no evidence. These patients are inclined to believe others have bad intentions that are directed toward them. They are often odd, very emotionally cold, and typically are involved in frequent litigations. Patients can be hard to manage though they often benefit from cognitive behavioral therapy. Anxiolytics may also be helpful in calming these patients.
Triebwasser et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. They discuss how there is relatively little research on these patients because it is difficult to recruit them for studies. They recommend considering the removal of this diagnosis and replacing it with a domain of paranoia.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Borderline personality disorder presents with emotional instability, unstable relationships, and recurrent self-harm behaviors. These patients will typically demonstrate the defense mechanism of splitting (seeing things as all good or all bad). Dialectical behavioral therapy can be used in order to help these patients mitigate self-injurious behaviors.
Answer B: Intermittent explosive disorder presents with sudden episodes of aggression out of proportion to the stressor. This patient’s response is a result of his paranoia rather than an excessive response to reasonable stimuli. Cognitive behavioral therapy can be used in order to help these patients control their emotional outbursts.
Answer C: Narcissistic personality disorder presents with a grand sense of self-importance and preoccupation with success and admiration. These individuals are typically selfish and lack empathy. Though this patient’s demand for the best medical care may be reflective of narcissistic personality disorder, the majority of his behaviors point more toward a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder.
Answer E: Schizoid personality disorder presents in patients with isolated and emotionally restricted behavior. These patients are typically alone but enjoy being alone and often seem disinterested in others. These patients typically do not seek relationships and do not seek therapy as they are not bothered by their behaviors.
Bullet Summary:
Paranoid personality disorder presents with mistrustful behavior, suspicion of others, oddness, emotional coldness, and they are typically involved in many litigations. | Schizoid personality disorder |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=215040 | A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic with a left foot ulcer that he noticed 6 days ago. He has a history of obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and depression. His current medications include metformin, aspirin, rosuvastatin, lisinopril, and fluoxetine. He has a 25-pack-year smoking history and drinks 1 glass of wine a day. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 12/min. On physical exam, he has a 1.2 x 1.7 cm ulcer on the plantar surface of his left metatarsal head. Which of the following tests will most appropriately assess this patient’s future risk of foot ulcers? | Knee reflex testing | Monofilament testing | Contrast-enhanced foot magnetic resonance imaging | Ankle-brachial index | B | Monofilament testing | This patient with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and obesity now presenting with a foot ulcer most likely has a diabetic foot ulcer. He should undergo monofilament testing to assess the subsequent risk of developing foot ulcers.
Diabetic neuropathy is the most common underlying cause of diabetic foot ulcers. The pathophysiology of diabetic foot ulcers is thought to be the loss of pain and pressure sensation, which leads to muscular imbalance and foot deformities. This subsequently decreases microcirculation and impairs the integrity of the skin, leading to the formation of foot ulcers. Diabetic foot ulcers, like other neuropathic ulcers, occur commonly under bony prominences in the foot. During monofilament testing, a 10-g monofilament is placed on the plantar surface of the foot at a right angle, and pressure is applied until the patient can no longer tolerate it or the filament buckles. Patients with diabetic neuropathy have a higher-pressure threshold due to loss of sensation, and this is a useful predictor of the severity of diabetic neuropathy and future foot ulcer formation. The management of diabetic neuropathy consists of tight glycemic control, weight loss, blood pressure control, exercise, preventing complications, and pain management with pharmacotherapy (serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, or gabapentinoid antiseizure medications).
Tesfaye et al. study the efficacy of various first-line medications for diabetic nephropathy including amitriptyline, duloxetine, pregabalin, or gabapentin. The authors found that there were no differences between any of the medications as monotherapy. The authors recommended adding combination pharmacotherapy for patients with painful diabetic neuropathy that do not respond to initial monotherapy.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Ankle-brachial index is a calculation made in the assessment of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While PAD can present with arterial ulcers, these are usually located at the tip of the toes and not the plantar surface. Furthermore, the ankle-brachial index does not accurately assess small vessel disease, which is associated with diabetic foot ulcers.
Answer B: Capillary refill time, when delayed, may suggest decreased limb perfusion. This is a nonspecific test, as decreased limb perfusion can be caused by peripheral arterial disease, volume depletion, or hypotension.
Answer C: Contrast-enhanced foot MRI is the most sensitive and specific test to identify soft tissue complications of acute osteomyelitis. This patient has no clinical features of osteomyelitis (fever, chills, or malaise, ulcer that probes to bone) and does not require imaging currently.
Answer D: Knee reflex testing is not useful in assessing diabetic neuropathy. While diabetic neuropathy can affect large nerve fibers in the lower extremities, it typically impairs ankle reflexes while sparing knee reflexes.
Bullet Summary:
Preventative measures for diabetic foot ulcers should focus on regular foot exams with monofilament testing to assess for diabetic neuropathy. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=109022 | A 47-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache. He suddenly developed a throbbing, bitemporal headache about 5 hours ago "out of nowhere." He has a history of migraine headaches, but he feels that this headache is significantly more painful than his typical migraines. The patient took his prescribed sumatriptan with no relief of his symptoms. He also endorses nausea and he reports that he vomited once before arrival in the emergency department. The patient denies any recent trauma to the head. His medical history is significant for migraines and hypertension. He has a 20-pack-year smoking history and a history of cocaine use. He drinks 5-6 beers per week. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 147/91 mmHg, pulse is 62/min, and respirations are 12/min. On physical exam, he appears to be in moderate distress and has pain with neck flexion. He has no focal neurologic deficits. A head CT is performed and can be seen in Figure A. This patient’s condition affects the space in between which of the following brain layers? | Arachnoid mater and pia mater | Dura mater and arachnoid mater | Periosteum and galea aponeurosis | Periosteum and skull | A | Arachnoid mater and pia mater | This patient presents with a sudden, severe headache and a head CT showing bleeding in the subarachnoid space, which confirms a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The bleeding in a subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs between the arachnoid and pia mater.
Subarachnoid hemorrhages present with a sudden, severe headache referred to as a “thunderclap” headache. Patients typically complain that the headache is the "worst headache of their life." Some patients also present with symptoms of meningeal irritation such as nausea and vomiting, nuchal rigidity, or focal neurologic deficits. Although most cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage are secondary to trauma, patients with risk factors such as hypertension and cocaine use can have non-traumatic presentations. Patients with an expanding bleed or acute neurologic changes require surgical clipping or embolization of the bleeding vessels.
Macdonald and Schweizer review the evidence regarding the treatment of patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage. They discuss how survival rates have improved with early aneurysm repair, prescription of nimodipine, and advanced intensive care support. They recommend early diagnosis in order to improve outcomes in these patients.
Figure/Illustration A is an axial slice of a head CT showing hyperintensity in the basal cisterns (red circle). This finding is consistent with bleeding in the subarachnoid space.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Bleeding between the dura and arachnoid mater describes a subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma presents as a headache with progressive confusion. It appears as a crescent-shaped lesion on head CT. Patients with an expanding bleed will require surgical decompression to avoid herniation syndromes.
Answer C: Bleeding between the periosteum and galea aponeurosis describes a subgaleal hemorrhage. Subgaleal hemorrhages occur in newborns and are caused by vacuum-assisted deliveries. Treatment is usually supportive as the bleeding will resolve by itself. Some patients with severe bleeds may require transfusion due to excessive blood loss.
Answer D: Bleeding between the periosteum and skull describes a cephalohematoma. Cephalohematomas occur in newborns and are caused by rupture of the blood vessels crossing the periosteum. They are usually secondary to a prolonged second stage of labor. Treatment is supportive as the blood will resolve and be resorbed.
Answer E: Bleeding between the skull and dura mater describes an epidural hematoma. An epidural hematoma presents as a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then progressive confusion or somnolence. It appears as a biconvex lesion on head CT. Treatment is with urgent surgical decompression as patients will rapidly decompensate after the lucid interval.
Bullet Summary:
Subarachnoid hemorrhage classically presents as a thunderclap headache with a brief loss of consciousness and meningismus. | Skull and dura mater |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=215172 | A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with bright red blood in his stool this morning. He noticed this yesterday as well, but it was much scanter. The patient is otherwise healthy. He was celebrating his birthday last night and admits having "too much to drink" and vomited profusely overnight. He currently feels well and is not nauseous. He has no other significant medical history and does not take any medications. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 110/75 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam reveals a nontender abdomen with normal bowel sounds. Rectal exam reveals grossly bloody stool. Laboratory studies are ordered as shown below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 5,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 179,000/mm^3
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? | Erosion into a gastric vessel | Inflammation and infection of colonic outpouching | Malignancy | Submucosal esophageal tear | E | Vascular malformation | This patient is presenting with bright red blood per rectum with a non-tender abdomen. Of the answer choices given, angiodysplasia is the most likely to cause such profuse and sudden bleeding.
Angiodysplasia is a vascular malformation found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, most commonly in the colon. The exposed vessels can bleed, leading to bright red blood per rectum. The diagnosis can be confirmed with colonoscopy. Ablation can be performed to stop the bleeding. Any patient who is unstable or anemic with a hemoglobin < 7.0 g/dL requires a transfusion with blood products. Angiodysplasia is a common cause of bright red blood per rectum but is not more common than diverticulosis.
Garcia-Compeon et al. review the presentation and treatment of gastrointestinal angiodysplasia. The authors note that angiodysplasias are the cause of many "occult" GI bleeds not visualized on upper endoscopy or colonoscopy. The authors recommend the use of capsule endoscopy in occult GI bleeds to identify angiodysplasias as a potential source.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Erosion into a gastric vessel is the pathophysiology of a bleeding gastric vessel secondary to peptic ulcer disease. This usually presents with melena (black tarry stools) rather than bright red blood per rectum. Only in cases of extremely brisk upper GI bleeding would patients present with bright red blood per rectum. Treatment involves treating Helicobacter pylori infection if present, proton pump inhibitors, and sucralfate. Endoscopy is needed to confirm and treat the bleeding vessel.
Answer B: Inflammation and infection of colonic outpouching is the pathophysiology of diverticulitis which presents with a history of constipation with a fever and left lower quadrant abdominal pain. Management involves a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen/pelvis and administration of antibiotics (such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole or ceftriaxone and metronidazole). Diverticulosis presents with bright red blood and is possible in this patient, but it does not involve inflammation or infection, which defines diverticulitis.
Answer C: Malignancy or colon cancer can present with bright red blood per rectum, malaise, weight loss, and microcytic anemia. While it is possible in this patient, his age, lack of risk factors for colon cancer, and the sudden onset of his symptoms make this diagnosis less likely.
Answer D: Submucosal esophageal (Mallory-Weiss) tear presents after profuse vomiting (as in this patient) with bloody vomitus. Treatment is supportive and involves antiemetics.
Bullet Summary:
Angiodysplasia is a vascular malformation that presents with bright red blood per rectum. | Vascular malformation |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=108735 | A 34-year-old man is brought to a rural emergency department by ambulance after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. Paramedics report that the patient was driving the car and crashed into a tree at roughly 25 miles per hour. There were no passengers and he was awake but disoriented at the scene. His temperature is 97.9°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 131/88 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, and respirations are 14/min. He is speaking but is confused, opens his eyes to voice commands, and follows simple commands. He has multiple lacerations on his face and arms and smells of alcohol and marijuana. His cardiac exam is normal and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. He has bruising over his abdomen without any tenderness to palpation, distension, or rigidity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Focused abdominal sonography for trauma exam | Diagnostic peritoneal lavage | Chest radiograph anterior-posterior and lateral | Abdominal and chest CT | D | Abdominal and chest CT | This patient presents following a motor vehicle accident with a tender abdomen and stable vital signs. Given his stability, the most appropriate next step is an abdominal and chest CT.
In blunt abdominal trauma, the next step in management depends upon whether the patient is hemodynamically stable. With a normal blood pressure and pulse within the normal range, patients can undergo imaging to evaluate for injury to the abdominal organs with the most appropriate study being an abdominal CT with contrast. This study can accurately localize bleeding and aid in operative planning. A bedside ultrasound known as the FAST exam is often performed in unstable patients. Unstable patients, patients with abdominal tenderness, and patients with a severe mechanism of trauma may have a bedside FAST exam performed. If the free fluid is localized, the patient can be transferred directly to the operating room. Note that in many hospitals, the FAST exam is done simultaneously with the primary and secondary survey; however, if asked to choose which exam to perform on a trauma patient who is stable with no signs of a surgical abdomen, a CT scan should be performed to more accurately assess the patient's injuries and assess for injuries that may be missed by a FAST exam.
Feliciano reviewed the evidence surrounding the current diagnosis and management of abdominal trauma. He discusses how contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis is an important method for evaluating the etiology of intra-abdominal bleeding. He recommends considering damage control methods in the polytrauma patient.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Chest radiography has limited utility in the setting of blunt abdominal trauma; however, a portable anterior-posterior film is often taken in trauma, in particular, when the patient is intoxicated. However, an anterior-posterior and lateral film would involve transporting the patient to radiology and positioning the patient. Thus it would be both difficult to obtain and less useful when compared to a CT scan given his traumatic injuries. Findings on chest radiograph could suggest abdominal injury, such as lower rib fractures or free air under the diaphragm, which would suggest intestinal perforation.
Answer C: Diagnostic laparoscopy may play a role in evaluating for injury in penetrating traumas such as gunshot wounds or stabbing wounds but would not be indicated as the most appropriate initial step in management in a stable patient. Unstable patients, surgical abdomens, and positive FAST exams or CT scans warrant transfer to the operating room.
Answer D: Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is a historical test to assess for intra-abdominal injury that was typically used with ambiguous FAST exams or patients where it was unclear whether there was abdominal bleeding; however, it has almost entirely been supplanted by the FAST exam.
Answer E: FAST exams are often performed with the primary or secondary survey in large institutions where resources are available. However, in small hospitals with limited resources, the most appropriate next step in management when deciding between a FAST exam or a CT scan should be made based on the mechanism and concern for bleeding. This stable patient with a benign exam can undergo a CT scan, which will offer more data than a FAST exam and would be performed regardless of whether a FAST exam was positive or negative given this patient's intoxication and abdominal bruising.
Bullet Summary:
In a patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma the most appropriate initial step in a stable patient is an abdominal CT scan. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=215034 | A 31-year-old man presents to clinic for evaluation of a 3-year history of infertility. He has no significant medical history and takes no medications. He exercises twice a day, often with heavy weightlifting, and eats a high-protein diet. He reports occasional alcohol use and remote marijuana use. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 148/90 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 15/min. He is sexually active with his wife and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Physical exam reveals small testes and a receding hairline. He also has palpable tissue underneath his nipples bilaterally. His muscle tone is normal in his upper and lower extremities bilaterally. His laboratory values are below:
Serum:
Creatinine: 1.3 mg/dL
Glucose: 110 mg/dL
Total bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT): 410 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT): 275 U/L
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Leukocyte count: 5,300/mm^3
Platelet count: 250,000/mm^3
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s infertility? | Anabolic steroid use | Cryptorchidism | Excess growth hormone use | Klinefelter syndrome | A | Anabolic steroid use | This patient with infertility is presenting with decreased testicular size, receding hairline, gynecomastia (palpable breast tissue), and transaminitis. This is most likely due to exogenous testosterone from anabolic (androgenic) steroid use.
Young people (especially athletes and heavy weightlifters) looking to improve their physical performance may rely on the use of anabolic steroids (testosterone, boldenone, and stanozolol). These steroids adversely impair endogenous testicular function, causing infertility secondary to decreased testicular size and sperm count. Furthermore, hepatic dysfunction and cardiac dysfunction can occur at high doses. Excess testosterone is converted to estradiol, leading to breast enlargement and signs of gynecomastia. Aggression and mood disturbances may also occur in patients with excessive anabolic steroid use. Finally, skin findings of anabolic steroid use include accelerated male pattern baldness and acne. Patients should be counseled on avoiding these agents.
Van Wagoner et al. study the chemical composition of products marketed as selective androgen receptor modulators (SARMs). The authors find that less than half of the analyzed products contained compounds in the amount listed on the label. The authors recommend that clinicians counsel athletes and bodybuilders that these products are often mislabeled, are not regulated, and have not been shown to be safe or effective.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Cryptorchidism is the failure of testicular descent into the scrotum and typically manifests in infancy. While uncorrected cryptorchidism can be a cause of infertility, this is an unlikely diagnosis in a man with palpable testes. Furthermore, cryptorchidism would not explain this patient’s receding hairline or gynecomastia.
Answer C: Excess growth hormone use should be suspected because growth hormone can be taken exogenously to improve athletic performance and can present with hypertension. This typically also presents with hyperglycemia and enlarged hands and feet.
Answer D: Klinefelter syndrome is an inherited disorder that also presents with infertility, gynecomastia, and decreased testicular size. This disorder also causes mental impairment and would not explain the patient’s elevated aminotransferases.
Answer E: Myotonic dystrophy is a multi-system disorder that can also present with testicular atrophy, reduced fertility, and hair loss. Patients with myotonic dystrophy also have widespread muscular atrophy and weakness, as well as clinical features of myotonia (e.g., difficulty releasing a handshake).
Bullet Summary:
Anabolic steroid use in men can cause reduced fertility by suppressing endogenous testosterone activity, and presents with gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, accelerated male balding patterns, and hepatotoxicity. | Myotonic dystrophy |
https://bit.ly/3qUQrsf | A 64-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with whole-body itching. She noticed her symptoms while in the bathtub at home. She has never had symptoms like this before. Over the previous several months she has had episodes of joint swelling and pain in her hands as well as redness, burning pain, and swelling of her hands and feet. Her medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and osteoporosis for which she takes metformin, enalapril, and alendronate. She was found to have a deep vein thrombosis of her left leg 3 months prior to presentation. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Physical exam is notable for a woman in discomfort with excoriations over the skin on her forearms. Laboratory tests are shown below.
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 19 mg/dL
Glucose: 130 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Hematocrit: 64%
Leukocyte count: 19,000 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 900,000/mm^3
Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term treatment? | Hydroxyurea | Cyclophosphamide | Prednisone | Diphenhydramine | A | Hydroxyurea | This patient presents with polycythemia, leukocytosis, and thrombocytosis in the setting of pruritus after bathing, as well as episodes suggestive of acute gout flares. These findings are consistent with polycythemia vera, which can be treated with hydroxyurea.
Polycythemia vera is a malignancy of the bone marrow that results in the overproduction of red blood cells, platelets, and white blood cells. Classic symptoms include pruritus after hot baths as well as swelling, burning pain, and rubor of the hands and feet (erythromelalgia). Patients may also have gout due to increased cell turnover leading to hyperuricemia. Older patients (> 60 years old) and those with prior thrombosis should be treated with a myelosuppressive agent, most commonly hydroxyurea with or without aspirin. Therapeutic phlebotomy is often indicated on these patients.
Stuart and Viera review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of polycythemia vera. They discuss how treatment includes phlebotomy with the possible addition of myelosuppressive agents. They recommend consultation with a hematologist for any patients with this syndrome.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapeutic agent that is used in the treatment of certain leukemias and lymphomas, as well as severe symptoms of autoimmune disease. A malignancy would present with vague systemic symptoms, weight loss, malaise, and abnormalities detected on CBC. Cyclophosphamide is not used in the treatment of polycythemia vera.
Answer B: Diphenhydramine is a 1st-generation antihistamine that can be used to treat pruritus, but would not be indicated for the treatment of polycythemia vera which is the underlying condition. This treatment represents a symptomatic treatment versus an agent that addresses the underlying cause.
Answer C: Febuxostat is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that is used to reduce uric acid levels in the management of chronic gout. Gout would present with acute severe joint pain (typically the great toe) with risk factors of alcohol use, obesity, and thiazide use. It is not used in the acute management of gout or in polycythemia vera.
Answer E: Prednisone is a glucocorticoid that is used in many different clinical situations but is not used in the management of polycythemia vera. It could be used in acute inflammatory conditions (like Crohn disease or granulomatosis with polyangiitis) or to reduce inflammation during a flare of asthma or COPD.
Bullet Summary:
Polycythemia vera presents with pruritus after bathing, erythromelalgia, and gout and should be treated with hydroxyurea with or without aspirin. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=109109 | A 1-hour-old newborn boy is evaluated in the delivery room. He was born at 37 weeks gestation to a 39-year-old G3P3 mother. The mother initially labored at home with a midwife but was transferred to the hospital for failure to progress. The infant was eventually delivered via Caesarean section. The mother declined all prenatal screening tests during this pregnancy. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 63/41 mmHg, pulse is 133/min, and respirations are 39/min. His Apgar scores were 7 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. His weight is 3.0 kg (6.6 lb), and his height and his head circumference are in the 30th and 40th percentiles, respectively. On physical exam, he is found to have a 3 cm full-thickness defect in the abdominal wall to the right of the umbilicus with evisceration of a loop of the bowel. The abdominal defect is immediately covered in sterile saline dressings and an orogastric tube and 2 peripheral intravenous lines are placed. This condition is most likely associated with which of the following additional findings? | A normal cardiac exam | Bicuspid aortic valve | Endocardial cushion defect | Tetralogy of Fallot | A | A normal cardiac exam | This patient presents with a full-thickness defect in the abdominal wall lateral to the umbilicus with evisceration of the bowel, which suggests a diagnosis of gastroschisis. Gastroschisis is not associated with any cardiac defects.
Gastroschisis and omphalocele are the most common abdominal wall defects found in infants and there are important differences between them. Whereas the eviscerated bowel in gastroschisis is not covered by a membrane, the exposed bowel in the omphalocele is covered by a membranous sac. The abdominal wall defect in gastroschisis is located lateral to the umbilicus, whereas in omphalocele the defect is midline. The distinction is also important for management, as omphalocele is commonly associated with other extraintestinal defects whereas fewer than 10% of cases of gastroschisis are associated with an extraintestinal abnormality. Treatment is with surgical correction of the abdominal wall defect.
Skarsgard reviews the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of gastroschisis. He discusses how this is one of the most common birth defects managed in the ICU setting. He recommends urgent surgical correction.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: A bicuspid aortic valve occurs in many cases of Turner syndrome. This disease presents with a webbed neck, short stature, low hairline, broad (“shield”) chest, bicuspid aortic valve, horseshoe kidney, and streak ovaries. Treatment is supportive with surgical fixation of cardiac defects and hormone supplementation with growth hormone.
Answer C: Endocardial cushion defects are most commonly found in trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). Over a third of individuals with trisomy 21 have a complete atrioventricular septal defect, and another third have isolated ventricular septal defects. Infants with Down syndrome commonly present with the upslanting palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, transverse palmar crease, and hypotonia. Treatment is with supportive care of these deformities such as surgical correction of cardiac defects.
Answer D: Tetralogy of Fallot is most often associated with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) and 22q11 deletion syndromes. Infants with Down syndrome commonly present with upslanting palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, transverse palmar crease, and hypotonia. Treatment is with supportive care of these deformities such as surgical correction of cardiac defects.
Answer E: Ventricular septal defects occur in several genetic syndromes, including trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome). Infants with trisomy 13 commonly present with cleft lip or palate, polydactyly, and severe intellectual disability. This disease is not compatible with survival past 1 year of age so treatment can involve termination of pregnancy or supportive care.
Bullet Summary:
Gastroschisis presents with an abdominal wall defect with evisceration of the bowel that is lateral to the umbilicus and is not usually associated with other birth defects. | Ventricular septal defect |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=214976 | A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic reporting 7 months without a menstrual period. Menarche was at age 12 and she had regular periods up until 2 years ago. At that time, her periods became less regular until around 7 months ago when they ceased altogether. She is otherwise healthy, participates in multiple school sports teams, and has been training rigorously for upcoming competitions. She denies alcohol use, smoking, and recreational drugs. She is not sexually active and does not take oral contraceptives. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), blood pressure is 121/80 mmHg, pulse is 62/min, respirations are 11/min, oxygen saturation is 100% on room air, and BMI is 20 kg/m^2. Her pelvic exam reveals an anteverted uterus, no adnexal masses, a normal-appearing cervix with no cervical motion tenderness, and normal vaginal anatomy. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's amenorrhea? | Anorexia nervosa | Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea | Hypothyroidism | Polycystic ovarian syndrome | B | Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea | This patient presenting with secondary amenorrhea (defined as 6 or more consecutive months without menstruation in women who have passed menarche) and a history of rigorous exercise most likely has functional hypothalamic amenorrhea.
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea is a condition in which relative caloric deficiency (whether through severe caloric restriction, increased energy expenditure, or increased stress) leads to functional disruption of the normal pulsatile release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). This in turn leads to decreased levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), disruption to estrogen levels, and amenorrhea. A common associated clinical presentation is known as the "female athlete triad", which includes decreased calorie availability or increased energy expenditure through exercise, decreased bone mineral density due to a decrease in estrogen levels, and menstrual dysfunction. Treatment includes increasing caloric intake, behavioral therapy as needed, and possible estrogen replacement therapy.
Ackerman et al. reviews the role of estrogen replacement in improving bone mineral density in patients with functional hypothalamic amenorrhea. The authors find that spine and femoral neck bone mineral density z-scores significantly increased with estrogen replacement. The authors recommend the use of transdermal estradiol over 12 months in improving bone mineral density in patients with functional hypothalamic amenorrhea.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Anorexia nervosa will often manifest with secondary amenorrhea in women. This patient has a normal BMI and no history of disordered eating. The mechanism of amenorrhea in the setting of anorexia nervosa relates to the same hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis at play in functional hypothalamic amenorrhea wherein the state of energy deficiency from inadequate caloric intake disrupts normal pulsatile GnRH secretion, leading to decreased FSH, LH, estrogen levels, and subsequent amenorrhea.
Answer C: Hypothyroidism is a cause of secondary amenorrhea wherein abnormal thyroid function can lead to altered levels of sex hormone-binding protein, prolactin, and gonadotropin-releasing hormone, thus causing menstrual dysfunction. This patient does not present with other signs of hypothyroidism, such as fatigue, sensitivity to cold, dry skin, muscle weakness, weight gain, constipation, joint stiffness, or thinning hair.
Answer D: Polycystic ovary syndrome is a condition often associated with obesity in which hyperinsulinemia or insulin resistance is hypothesized to alter the hypothalamus feedback response, leading to the increased luteinizing hormone to follicle-stimulating hormone ratio, increased androgen levels, and decreased rate of follicular maturation leading to unruptured follicles. Patients will often present with amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, and decreased fertility.
Answer E: Pregnancy is a cause of secondary amenorrhea that is less likely in this patient given her lack of sexual history and other associated symptoms such as decreased appetite, nausea, and insomnia. A beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) test should always be part of the workup for secondary amenorrhea.
Bullet Summary:
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea is a condition in which caloric restriction, increased energy expenditure through exercise, and/or increased stress leads to a disrupted pulsatile secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone with the downstream effect of amenorrhea. | Pregnancy |
https://bit.ly/40qTdn2 | A 17-year-old boy presents to his primary care physician with a chief concern of "bad" skin that has not improved despite home remedies. The patient has had lesions on his face that have persisted since he was 13 years of age. He has a diet high in refined carbohydrates and has gained 20 pounds since starting high school. Physical exam is notable for the findings in Figure A. The patient is started on benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids. He returns 1 month later stating that his symptoms are roughly the same. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Continue current therapy for 1 more month | Dietary intervention | Isoretinoin | Oral antibiotics | E | Topical antibiotics | This patient is presenting with persistent acne vulgaris that is refractory to topical benzoyl peroxide and retinoids. The next step in management is topical antibiotics.
Acne vulgaris is caused by blockage or outlet obstruction of the pilosebaceous unit. It presents with erythema, pustules, and comedones typically in young men going through puberty. Risk factors include stress, excessive sweating, greasy skin care products, and steroid use. The management of acne vulgaris, in order, is to start with topical benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids, topical antibiotics, oral antibiotics, and isoretinoin. It is important to try a therapy for a proper duration before switching to a more invasive therapy.
Eichenfield et al. review the evidence regarding the treatment of patients with acne vulgaris. They discuss how this disease can be treated with benzoyl peroxide. They recommend using antibiotics or isotretinoin for refractory cases.
Figure/Illustration A is a clinical photograph demonstrating diffuse comedones over the forehead (red circle). These findings are classically seen in patients with acne vulgaris.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Continuing current therapy for 1 more month is unnecessary as this patient's symptoms have not improved at all with 1 month of therapy. Continuing current therapy would be appropriate if the patient had only tried therapy for a few days.
Answer B: Dietary interventions have not been shown to improve outcomes in acne vulgaris. Stopping illicit substances such as performance enhancing steroids can be effective in reducing acne symptoms but there is no evidence this patient has been using steroids.
Answer C: Isoretinoin is the last-line therapy for acne vulgaris. It should not be given to pregnant women as it is teratogenic. Women taking isoretinoin should be on reliable birth control. Topical and oral antibiotics should be used first.
Answer D: Oral antibiotics would be indicated after topical antibiotics fail. Topical antibiotics should be tried first as these do not have systemic side effects.
Bullet Summary:
The management of acne vulgaris is to start with topical benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids, followed by topical antibiotics, oral antibiotics, and isoretinoin in increasing order of severity. | Topical antibiotics |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=217241 | A 72-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents to his primary care provider for concerns about his cognitive decline. His wife has noticed that he has a worsening ability to organize, plan, and exhibit impulse control over the last month. The patient states that he is able to complete his activities of daily living without assistance, but has some weakness of his left upper and lower extremities that began 3 months prior. He needs reminders from his wife about daily tasks to complete. He enjoys spending time with his spouse, playing cards with his friends, and taking daily walks around his neighborhood. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 149/87 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, and respirations are 12/min. Physical exam reveals an elderly man who is oriented to person, place, and time. He has 4/5 left-sided weakness of the upper and lower extremities and associated pronator drift of the left upper extremity. A mini-mental status exam reveals he is able to remember 2 out of 3 words after 4 minutes. He is able to appropriately draw a clock. A magnetic resonance imaging study of the brain is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Normal aging | Vascular dementia | Pseudodementia | Mild cognitive impairment | B | Vascular dementia | This patient with cardiovascular risk factors (hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia) who presents with sudden cognitive decline of executive function and neurologic symptoms consistent with vasculopathy and possible prior stroke given his neurologic exam likely has vascular dementia, which can be corroborated with magnetic resonance imaging revealing white matter focal involvement consistent with vascular infarcts.
Vascular dementia is a form of dementia that results from compromise of blood supply to the brain, such as minor strokes or microinfarcts to the white matter. These insults lead to worsening cognitive abilities and presents classically as a stepwise decline (sudden/sharp declines in cognitive function that occur at distinct periods of time, not gradually) in cognitive function (thinking, planning, self-control, flexibility in thought). This is often associated with neurologic deficits as byproducts of these strokes. Unlike other forms of dementia, this presentation is step-wise. Treatment involves optimizing medical management to treat underlying medical comorbidities (managing cardiovascular risk factors such as hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia), physical therapy/rehab for stroke symptoms, and caregiver support at home. Magnetic resonance imaging reveals focal white matter changes consistent with small vascular infarcts.
Khan et al. review the diagnosis and management of vascular dementia while including commentary on recent updates in the literature. They found that risk factors for vascular diseases such as stroke, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and smoking also raise the risk of vascular dementia. They thus recommend medical management of underlying medical comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or hyperlipidemia as treatments for vascular dementia.
Figure/Illustration A shows magnetic resonance imaging with white matter small vessel ischemic changes (red arrows) characteristic of vascular dementia within a background of diffuse generalized atrophy.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Alzheimer disease is a form of dementia that presents with progressive forgetfulness as the first and most jarring clinical symptom, followed by worsening visual/spatial recognition, and then worsening behavioral function. It is most common in patients over the age of 75. It is not associated with focal deficits or weakness on neurological exam.
Answer B: Mild cognitive impairment is a stage between the expected cognitive decline of normal aging and forms of dementia. Patients and family members may notice problems with memory, thinking, or judgment, but they are not significant enough to cause interference with activities of daily living.
Answer C: Normal aging does not involve a noticeable decline in cognition and does not involve neurologic deficits. Declines are present, but are infrequent and do not impede activities of daily living.
Answer D: Pseudodementia is the result of untreated depression, which can present as forgetfulness in the elderly. This etiology can be distinguished by screening for signs or symptoms of depression, which might include sleep disturbance, anhedonia, lack of energy, increased or decreased appetite, fatigue, and/or loss of concentration. These symptoms are absent in this case.
Bullet Summary:
Vascular dementia presents with a step-wise decline in executive cognitive function and neurologic deficits in a patient with cardiovascular risk factors and is associate with MRI findings including white matter changes consistent with vascular infarcts. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3BV4U9Y | A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain and shortness of breath that he experienced while barbecuing. The pain is over his chest and in his left arm. The patient has a medical history of obesity, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. His current medications include insulin, metformin, lisinopril, and hydrochlorothiazide. An ECG is performed and is seen in Figure A. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. The patient is appropriately managed and is admitted to the step-down unit. 2 days later, he complains of chest pain. A repeat ECG is performed and is seen in Figure B. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient's underlying condition? | Prednisone | Aspirin | Stenting | Ibuprofen | B | Aspirin | This patient is presenting with chest pain several days after sustaining a myocardial infarction and has an ECG suggestive of pericarditis. This presentation is consistent with Dressler syndrome and the most appropriate initial step in management is aspirin.
Dressler syndrome is pericarditis that can occur after a myocardial infarction (MI). It most commonly occurs weeks to months after the MI, but can also occur within 1 week from an MI in rare cases. It is believed to result from an autoimmune reaction that occurs after damage to the heart (surgery and MI). It presents with chest pain, fever, pleuritic pain, and a pericardial friction rub. ECG demonstrates diffuse ST elevation with PR depression consistent with pericarditis. The most appropriate initial step in the management of this condition is symptomatic management with aspirin.
Leib et al. review the evidence regarding the diagnosis and treatment of Dressler syndrome. They discuss how this condition is secondary pericarditis with or without pericardial effusion resulting from injury to the heart or pericardium. They recommend considering this syndrome in all patients with chest pain after a myocardial infarction.
Figure/Illustration A demonstrates an ECG with ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF (blue circles) suggesting a diagnosis of right-sided MI.
Figure/Illustration B demonstrates an ECG with diffuse ST elevation and PR depression (blue circles) suggesting a diagnosis of pericarditis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1 & 5: Angiography and stenting would be appropriate management if this patient were experiencing a repeat MI. The diffuse ST elevation and PR depression seen several days after his myocardial infarction are more indicative of pericarditis rather than a repeat MI. In addition, the chest pain the patient is experiencing can also occur in pericarditis and obfuscates the diagnosis of repeat MI.
Answers 3 & 4: Ibuprofen, other NSAIDs, and corticosteroids such as prednisone are not first-line therapy in post-MI pericarditis as they can hinder the healing and remodeling process of the myocardium. Current guidelines dictate that they may be used in cases that are refractory to initial therapy.
Bullet Summary:
Dressler syndrome (post-MI pericarditis) presents with chest pain, pericardial friction rub, fever, and diffuse ST elevation with PR depression on ECG, and should be treated initially with aspirin. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3pOkYrN | A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department for evaluation of left arm and leg weakness. He was walking in the park about 45 minutes prior to arrival when the patient stumbled and fell. He had sudden weakness in his left leg and was unable to grasp a handrail with his left hand. He currently takes no medications. His temperature is 98.0°F (36.6°C), blood pressure is 128/89 mmHg, pulse is 130/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he has 3/5 strength in the left upper and lower extremities and a left-sided facial droop. A non-contrast CT scan of the head is performed, which suggests parenchymal ischemia in the distribution of the right middle cerebral artery. An ECG is performed, as shown in Figure A. He is given intravenous alteplase with rapid improvement in his strength deficits and facial asymmetry. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term therapy for secondary stroke prevention for this patient? | Aspirin | Rivaroxaban | Cardiac pacemaker | Atorvastatin | B | Rivaroxaban | This patient presents with acute onset unilateral left-sided weakness secondary to an ischemic stroke in the right MCA in the setting of an irregularly irregular rhythm without P waves (suggesting that he had an embolic stroke secondary to atrial fibrillation). First-line primary and secondary stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation involves long term anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban.
Atrial fibrillation is caused by uncoordinated atrial contractions, typically due to atrial enlargement, inflammation, or infiltrative disease. Atrial fibrillation can lead to the formation of a thrombus, typically in the left atrial appendage, which can embolize to the brain and lead to an ischemic stroke. For this reason, there is a low threshold to start patients on long term anticoagulation for both primary and secondary stroke prevention (risk stratification is done with the CHA2DS2-VASc score, which considers several cardiovascular risk factors, age, sex, and diabetes). First-line long term anticoagulation is a DOAC medication such as apixaban, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, or edoxaban. Delayed initiation of anticoagulation is recommended at 4-14 days after a stroke, due to the interim risk of hemorrhagic conversion. Further management of atrial fibrillation includes a rate control agent such as a beta blocker or a calcium channel blocker.
JS Alpert reviews the latest American Heart Association/American College of Cardiology guidelines regarding atrial fibrillation. The article reports that for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation, DOACs are first-line compared to warfarin due to a decreased risk for bleeding with DOACs. In patients with moderate to severe mitral stenosis or a mechanical heart valve, warfarin is the preferred agent.
Figure/Illustration A shows an ECG with an irregularly irregular rhythm (highlighted by the spacing of blue arrows) and no discernable P waves before QRS complexes, which is characteristic of atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Aspirin exerts antiplatelet adhesion effects through the inhibition of cyclooxygenase. Patients with atrial fibrillation who are at low risk for stroke (CHA2DS2-VASc score of < 1) can use aspirin monotherapy for stroke prophylaxis. This patient presented after a stroke and will require long term anticoagulation, not anti-platelet monotherapy for stroke prevention.
Answer B: Atorvastatin is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, which works to lower LDL cholesterol and triglycerides, and increase HDL cholesterol. It is most useful in secondary stroke prevention in patients who have suffered a thrombotic or thromboembolic stroke secondary to atherosclerosis. This patient may have atherosclerosis and could benefit from statin therapy; however, anticoagulation for his underlying atrial fibrillation is the highest priority.
Answer C: A cardiac pacemaker is indicated in a large variety of cardiac conditions that primarily involve sinus node dysfunction or high-grade atrioventricular block. Atrial fibrillation does not typically require a pacemaker, as it is typically managed with rate control agents such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, or with electrical cardioversion. Rate control will not lower the stroke risk, and thus long-term anticoagulation is required.
Answer E: Warfarin has historically been a mainstay anticoagulant for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. DOACs are non-inferior to warfarin, and have a lower risk of bleeding. Note, only the initiation of warfarin requires a heparin bridge to mitigate the transient protein C deficiency that results in a temporary hypercoagulable state (often presenting as warfarin skin necrosis).
Bullet Summary:
For patients who present with an ischemic stroke secondary to a cardiac embolus from atrial fibrillation, first-line long term anticoagulation is a direct oral anticoagulant (apixaban, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, or edoxaban). | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216585 | A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely confused. The patient’s wife states she found him lethargic at home. He has been sick the past week with diarrhea and has been staying home from work. He is otherwise healthy and does not take any medications. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 62/32 mmHg, pulse is 185/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. The patient has profuse, bloody diarrhea while in the emergency department. The patient is given 3L of ringer lactate and subsequently appears less confused, with a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. He is able to drink oral fluids and protect his airway. An ECG is performed as seen in Figure A. He continues to have diarrhea while in the emergency department. Which of the following is contraindicated in the management of this patient? | Ceftriaxone | Loperamide | Magnesium | Norepinephrine | B | Loperamide | This patient is presenting with infectious diarrhea (given his bloody diarrhea and hypotension) with unstable vitals that improve with fluids. In bloody diarrhea, loperamide is contraindicated and could worsen illness.
Bacterial diarrhea is commonly caused by organisms such as Campylobacter, Shigella, and Escherichia coli. It may present with bloody or purulent diarrhea and fever and may progress to sepsis or septic shock. Immediate management is centered on hydration. Unstable patients or those who cannot tolerate PO require IV fluids immediately. Otherwise, patients can rehydrate orally. Loperamide is an antimotility agent that decreases diarrheal output. It is contraindicated in bloody diarrhea as it can decrease the rate of fecal shedding and lead to bacteremia and a worsening clinical picture. Loperamide may be appropriate in controlling diarrhea in milder infectious forms of diarrhea, or in non-infectious conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome.
Baker reviews loperamide. He discusses its indications, contraindications, and mechanism of action. They recommend that loperamide should not be given in invasive diarrhea.
Figure/Illustration A demonstrates U waves on ECG (red arrows) that are significant for hypokalemia, which would be expected in a dehydrated patient with profuse diarrhea.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Ceftriaxone would be appropriate in this patient who has bacterial diarrhea and appears septic as his critically ill state warrants antibiotics. Note that this patient may receive broader antibiotics than ceftriaxone given how ill he appears. Antibiotics should not be routinely used for bacterial diarrhea in young, healthy patients with stable vitals.
Answer C: Magnesium could be appropriate in this patient even though his magnesium level is not stated as he is hypokalemic given his ECG is demonstrating U waves. The serum magnesium level does not adequately reflect intracellular magnesium levels. It requires replacement in many cases of hypokalemia.
Answer D: Norepinephrine could be appropriate in this patient if he remained persistently hypotensive despite fluid administration. Note that this patient could receive more fluids and is not frankly unstable. While norepinephrine may not be appropriate at this time, it is not contraindicated.
Answer E: Normal saline is generally avoided in diarrheal illness in patients who can tolerate PO as oral hydration is preferred to IV. However, IV fluids are not contraindicated and would be appropriate in this persistently hypotensive patient. Normal saline has a very high sodium and chloride load and can cause a hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. For this reason, a lower-chloride solution may be preferred (e.g, Lactated Ringer).
Bullet Summary:
Loperamide is contraindicated in bloody diarrhea. | Normal saline |
https://bit.ly/3LSMEDm | A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with low back pain. The pain started 6 hours ago when he was gardening and carrying a heavy bag. The pain is rated as 10/10 in severity and radiates down the posterior aspect of the right thigh. He reports no fevers or chills. His only medical problem is hypertension for which he takes amlodipine. The patient is a non-smoker, uses alcohol infrequently, and has never used illicit drugs. His temperature is 99.6°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 140/70 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination reveals 3/5 strength to hip extension, knee flexion and extension, and plantar flexion bilaterally. Sensation to pinprick is diminished over the posterolateral legs and lateral aspects of both feet. Ankle and knee reflexes are absent bilaterally. The patient’s underwear is wet and a bladder scan reveals 800 mL of urine. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis? | Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy | Cauda equina syndrome | L5/S1 disc herniation | Overflow incontinence | B | Cauda equina syndrome | This patient presenting with acute, severe, radiating low back pain with sensorimotor deficits (3/5 strength in hip extension, knee flexion/extension, plantar flexion, reduced sensation to pinprick) in multiple nerve root distributions (L3-S5), lower motor neuron signs, urinary incontinence (wet underwear), and acute urinary retention (bladder scan showing 800 mL of urine) most likely has cauda equina syndrome.
Cauda equina syndrome is characterized by deficits in 2 or more nerve roots that comprise the cauda equina of the spinal cord. It has multiple etiologies, including disc herniation, epidural abscess, tumor, or lumbar spine spondylosis. Cauda equina syndrome presents with severe low back pain radiating into the legs, flaccid paralysis or lower extremity weakness which can be symmetric or asymmetric (often asymmetric), bladder and/or rectal sphincter paralysis, impotence/erectile dysfunction, sensory loss in affected dermatomes, and saddle anesthesia (sensory loss in the perineum). Urinary retention occurs due to bladder paralysis. Diagnosis is aided by emergency magnetic resonance imaging. Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency; the goal of surgical treatment is to decompress the cauda equina to prevent permanent neurological injury, such as with a lumbar laminectomy. This can be differentiated from conus medullaris syndrome, which has perianal numbness without numbness through other dermatomes (down the leg in the S1 or S2 patterns), less severe pain (cauda equina presents with more severe pain), and hyperreflexia in the knees (cauda equina presents with lower motor neuron signs in the legs which lead to decreased reflexes - though conus medullaris may present with absent ankle reflexes, the knees are typically hyperreflexic).
Gardner et al. review the symptoms, diagnosis, and medico-legal landscape of cauda equina syndrome. They discuss how the most frequent etiology is a large central lumbar disc herniation. They recommend being vigilant for urinary retention in patients who may have compression as many patients have urinary retention on presentation.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, also known as Guillain-Barre syndrome, occurs after respiratory or gastrointestinal infections and presents with ascending paralysis and diminished reflexes. While bladder dysfunction can occur, back pain is not typical. Guillain-Barre syndrome can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin.
Answer C: L5/S1 disc herniation affects the traversing S1 nerve root. S1 radiculopathy presents with posterolateral leg and dorsolateral foot sensory loss and absence of the ankle reflex. Typically, bowel/bladder symptoms are not present. Treatment includes decompression of the affected nerve root.
Answer D: Overflow incontinence is caused by either bladder outlet obstruction or poor bladder tone. While this could explain this patient’s urinary retention, it does not account for his back pain or sensorimotor deficits. Isolated overflow incontinence can be treated with catheterization.
Answer E: Spinal stenosis presents with lower extremity claudication, characterized by pain with standing or ambulation. The pain of neurogenic claudication is characteristically relieved by spinal flexion (“shopping cart sign”). Sensory loss and motor weakness can be present; however, bladder dysfunction is atypical. Treatment includes surgical decompression of the area of stenosis.
Bullet Summary:
Cauda equina syndrome is characterized by impingement of 2 or more nerve roots of the cauda equina, resulting in radicular pain, bilateral lower extremity weakness, lower motor neuron signs, sensory loss in affected dermatomes, bowel/bladder dysfunction, and saddle anesthesia. | Spinal stenosis |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216612 | A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with several days of malaise, weakness, and night sweats. Today, he experienced a headache with blurry vision, thus prompting his presentation. The patient has a history of diabetes and is followed closely by an endocrinologist. Otherwise, he has lost 10 pounds over the past month. His temperature is 100°F (37.8°C), blood pressure is 122/90 mmHg, pulse is 84/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a thin man but is otherwise unremarkable. His visual acuity is 20/100 in both eyes, though he says that he normally has 20/20 vision. His gait is mildly ataxic as well, but his neurological exam is otherwise nonfocal. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 10 g/dL
Hematocrit: 31%
Leukocyte count: 57,500/mm^3 with 35% blasts
Platelet count: 109,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.1 Eq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Calcium: 10.0 mEq/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Acute lymphoblastic leukemia | Chronic lymphocytic leukemia | Multiple myeloma | Chronic myelogenous leukemia | D | Chronic myelogenous leukemia | This patient is presenting with symptoms of malignancy (malaise, weakness, and night sweats) and has a white blood cell count > 50,000/mm^3 in the setting of > 20% blasts, which are concerning for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Given the blurry vision and ataxia in the setting of increased blasts, this patient may be suffering from a hyperviscosity syndrome secondary to a blast crisis, which can be seen in CML.
CML is a neoplastic proliferation of myeloid stem cells. Patients are often asymptomatic and may present with a white blood cell count > 50,000/mm^3. There are many different presentations. The chronic phase presents with < 10% blasts and is often asymptomatic. The accelerated phase has increased blasts, and patients present with fatigue, weight loss, malaise, night sweats, abdominal pain, and hepatosplenomegaly. Finally, the blast phase presents similar to the accelerated phase but with more severe symptoms. The blast phase may evolve into a blast crisis (> 20% blasts) which could cause a hyperviscosity syndrome. Hypervicosity syndrome may require IV fluids and leukapheresis. The most common translocation in CML is the 9;22 translocation which forms the BCR:ABL gene product.
Jain et al. review CML. They note the outcomes in patients in the blast phase in CML and how there are more poor outcomes associated with this phase. They recommend paying close attention and obtaining a CBC with a differential to determine the percent blasts.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is more common in pediatric patients and presents with pancytopenia, fatigue, recurrent infections (from leukopenia), and bleeding (from thrombocytopenia). Other findings include systemic symptoms, malaise, fever, bone pain, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly.
Answer B: Acute myelogenous leukemia is a malignancy of myeloblasts and presents in the elderly. Patients will present with fatigue, malaise, weight loss, anorexia, fever, leukocytosis, anemia (causing fatigue), thrombocytopenia (causing bleeding), and neutropenia (leading to life-threatening infections). Auer rods can be seen on peripheral smear.
Answer C: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is a monoclonal proliferation of incompetent mature B cells that occurs in elderly men and is the most common form of leukemia in the west. Patients are often asymptomatic and may have a white blood cell count > 50,000/mm^3. When symptomatic, patients may experience chills, weight loss, and weakness (note these symptoms are nonspecific). Peripheral smear will show smudge cells.
Answer E: Multiple myeloma is common in the elderly and presents with CRAB: hyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, and lytic Bone lesions/Back pain. The diagnosis is supported with protein electrophoresis and confirmed when biopsy demonstrates increased plasma cells.
Bullet Summary:
Chronic myelogenous leukemia presents with increased white blood cells which may be >50,000/mm^3 (possibly with elevated blasts). | nan |
https://bit.ly/47eGzd4 | An 84-year-old man presents to the physician with numbness and tingling in the right hand for the last 6 months. He reports these symptoms started intermittently in the middle finger after returning from a golfing trip but has progressed to being nearly constant. The thenar eminence, thumb, and other digits are spared. He reports no other symptoms. His medical problems include hypertension, hyperlipidemia, hypothyroidism, and chronic neck pain for which he takes amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, levothyroxine, and duloxetine. Surgical history consists of posterior lumbar fusion and elective left total hip arthroplasty. He has a 90-pack-year smoking history and quit 10 years ago. The patient’s temperature is 99.6°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 134/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical exam reveals 4/5 strength in elbow extension and wrist flexion on the right. He has 5/5 strength in the remainder of the motor exam on the right upper extremity and on the left upper extremity. The triceps reflex is 1+ on the right compared to 2+ on the left. There is no spasticity. His neck pain, which radiates down his right arm, is reproduced with axial loading during neck extension with simultaneous rightward rotation and lateral bending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? | Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis | Carpal tunnel syndrome | Cervical spondylosis | Syringomyelia | C | Cervical spondylosis | This patient presents with chronic middle finger paresthesia, weakness in elbow extension and wrist flexion, and a diminished triceps reflex in the setting of a positive Spurling test (pain with axial loading during neck extension, rotation, and lateral bending towards the affected side), indicative of C7 cervical radiculopathy. Cervical spondylosis is a common cause of cervical radiculopathy in elderly patients with chronic neck pain, especially in patients with findings suggestive of degenerative joint diseases (history of lumbar fusion and hip arthroplasty).
Cervical spondylosis is caused by degeneration of the intervertebral disc with possible disc herniation and facet joints with osteophyte formation. These osteophytes and cervical disc herniation can cause compression of exiting nerve roots, leading to radiculopathy. Radicular symptoms depend on the nerve root affected. For example, C6 radiculopathy causes weakness in wrist extension and a decreased brachioradialis reflex while C7 radiculopathy causes weakness in elbow extension and wrist flexion with a decreased triceps reflex. Sensory symptoms may be present depending on the dermatome affected. The diagnosis is confirmed with MRI. Treatment consists of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), muscle relaxants, and/or corticosteroids for pain. Surgical treatments for severe or refractory cases include anterior cervical discectomy and fusion.
Young outlines the diagnosis and management of cervical spondylotic myelopathy. The discusses its pathophysiology, including osteophyte formation and spinal cord dysfunction. They recommend considering decompression and fusion operations in selected patients.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a motor neuron disease of the brain and spinal cord that leads to upper and lower motor neuron signs. ALS presents with hyperreflexia (as opposed to hyporeflexia), spasticity, weakness, and fasciculations. Treatment includes riluzole (to improve survival) and symptomatic management.
Answer B: Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve as it travels through the carpal tunnel at the wrist. While the thenar eminence is typically spared due to take-off of the palmar cutaneous branch proximal to the carpal tunnel, the thumb and index finger are also affected. This patient’s symptoms primarily involve the middle finger, which is more indicative of a radiculopathy. Treatment is activity modification, splinting, and ultimately, surgical decompression of the carpal tunnel if refractory.
Answer D: Syringomyelia is caused by a fluid-filled cavity (syrinx) within the spinal cord that leads to central cord syndrome, characterized by weakness that is greater in the upper extremities compared to lower extremities and loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution in the upper back and upper extremities. This patient’s sensory loss is unilateral and in a dermatomal distribution. Treatment of syringomyelia can include surgical decompression.
Answer E: Transverse myelitis is characterized by segmental inflammation of the spinal cord that would present with acute, bilateral flaccid paresis based on the level affected and sensory loss within a sensory level. Autonomic symptoms such as incontinence may also be present. This patient’s symptoms are unilateral and localizable to nerve root compression as opposed to the spinal cord.
Bullet Summary:
Cervical spondylosis is caused by degeneration of cervical discs and facet joints with osteophyte formation and can present with symptoms of cervical radiculopathy or myelopathy in elderly patients with chronic neck pain. | Transverse myelitis |
https://bit.ly/44HVD16 | A 29-year-old woman is recovering on the obstetrics floor after the vaginal delivery of 8-pound twin boys born at 42 weeks gestation. The patient is fatigued but states that she is doing well. Currently, she is complaining that her vagina hurts. The next morning, the patient experiences chills and a light red voluminous discharge from her vagina. She states that she feels pain and cramps in her abdomen. The patient's medical history is notable for diabetes which was managed during her pregnancy with insulin. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 107/68 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are obtained and shown below. Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL Hematocrit: 36% Leukocyte count: 9,750/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3 Serum: Na+: 139 mEq/L Cl-: 101 mEq/L K+: 4.2 mEq/L HCO3-: 23 mEq/L BUN: 20 mg/dL Glucose: 111 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL AST: 12 U/L ALT: 10 U/L Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment for this patient? | Cefoxitin and doxycycline | Clindamycin and gentamicin | Supportive therapy only | Vancomycin and clindamycin | C | Supportive therapy only | This patient is presenting with a normal postpartum period which is managed with supportive therapy only.
A normal postpartum period is associated with breast tenderness, chills, edema, and abdominal cramps from a contracting uterus. Vaginal discharge (lochia) is normal in this phase and progresses from a red color (lochia rubra) to a clear/fluid appearance (lochia serosa) to a white color (lochia alba). No management other than supportive therapy is needed during this period. Symptoms that indicate additional intervention may be necessary include fever, foul-smelling drainage, or hypotension.
Fletcher et al. review the evidence regarding normal lochia after pregnancy. They discuss how this discharge can occur for up to 24-36 days after delivery. They recommend understanding normal discharge patterns to allow for the identification of pathologic conditions.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Cefoxitin and doxycycline can be used to treat postpartum endometritis in which the suspected organism is Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoea. Suspect these organisms in a patient with risky sexual behavior.
Answer B: Clindamycin and gentamicin offer broad-spectrum coverage for endometritis, which presents with fever, abdominal tenderness, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. This patient has no evidence of infection at this time.
Answer D: Vancomycin and clindamycin is not a typical broad-spectrum antibiotic pair that is used routinely. Both of these agents are often effective against MRSA but are typically not used concurrently.
Answer E: Vancomycin and gentamicin offer broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage and can be used for bacterial endocarditis which presents with fever and a new murmur in a high-risk individual (such as those who use IV drugs).
Bullet Summary:
A normal postpartum period presents with chills, abdominal cramps, and lochia (rubra, serosa, or alba) and is managed with supportive care. | Vancomycin and gentamicin |
https://bit.ly/46gXevP | A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a laceration over the 4th metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of his right hand. He reports that he is a mailman, and his closed fist was bitten by a dog while he was delivering mail yesterday. He reports pain but denies fevers, chills, drainage, or any other symptoms. The dog is up to date on vaccinations. His last tetanus vaccine was 3 years ago. He has no medical history and takes no medications. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 125/75 mmHg, and respirations are 16/min. Examination of the patient's right hand is shown in Figure A. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Amoxicillin-clavulanate | Cephalexin | Clindamycin | Clindamycin plus doxycycline | A | Amoxicillin-clavulanate | This patient has suffered a clenched fist injury which are generally managed with irrigation and amoxicillin-clavulanate.
Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the usual first-line antibiotic for patients with a human or dog bite. Lacerations sustained from animal or human bites should not be sutured due to the risk of infection. Amoxicillin-clavulanate is first-line therapy for prophylaxis and treatment of human bites and dog bites, in general. Closed fist injuries put the patient at a high risk for osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, and tenosynovitis; therefore, prophylactic antibiotics are appropriate. Amoxicillin-clavulanate provides essential coverage against Pasturella multocida, commonly found in the mouths of dogs, cats, and other mammals. In patients with a penicillin allergy, agents such as TMP-SMX, doxycycline, or cefdinir paired with anaerobic coverage (clindamycin or metronidazole) is appropriate.
Presutti discusses the prevention and treatment of dog bites. Appropriate treatment consists of immediate, copious irrigation, assessment for risk of tetanus and rabies, and administration of prophylactic antibiotics as discussed above.
Figure A shows a dog bite wound over the 4th MCP of the right hand.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Cephalexin does not cover species that are typically present in the mouths of dogs and other mammals and is therefore not an appropriate antibiotic choice for this patient as monotherapy.
Answer C: Clindamycin provides coverage of anaerobic species, but is not sufficient alone for treatment of this patient's injury.
Answer D: Clindamycin plus doxycycline may be appropriate coverage for a dog bite in a patient with an allergy to amoxicillin-clavulanate. However, this patient has no stated allergies and should receive amoxicillin-clavulanate.
Answer E: Wound closure and amoxicillin-clavulanate would not be appropriate. Lacerations sustained from dog or cat bites are not sutured closed due to the risk of infection.
Bullet Summary:
Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the first line antibiotic choice for patients with dog or cat bites. | Wound closure and amoxicillin-clavulanate |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216625 | A previously healthy 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. He was in class when he suddenly fainted and became unresponsive. His teacher began chest compressions and he has received epinephrine and defibrillation from paramedics while in transport. On arrival, the patient remains pulseless and is pronounced dead. An autopsy is performed and is notable for no clear abnormalities. The patient’s laboratory studies were unremarkable from a visit to the pediatrician 3 weeks ago. A previous ECG is seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely underlying etiology of this patient’s death? | Short QT syndrome | Ventricular tachycardia | Complete heart block | Torsades des pointes | A | Short QT syndrome | This healthy pediatric patient is presenting with cardiac arrest and an ECG demonstrating a short QT segment. Short QT syndrome is lethal and can lead to cardiac arrest in young, otherwise healthy patients.
Short QT syndrome is an inherited condition that is caused by ion channel mutations (the most common identified mutation is a mutation in the cardiac myocyte potassium channel). There is no strict criteria for short QT syndrome, but the QT segment is often < 320 ms. Patients are usually young and healthy, and it is very common for the first presentation of this disease to be syncope or sudden cardiac death. ECG features suggestive of this condition include a short QT interval (without a clearly defined value but often < 360 ms) that is fixed (does not change with exercise or rest), peaked T waves, short or even absent ST segments, and episodes of atrial fibrillation or ventricular fibrillation in a patient in whom this would not be expected (such as a young patient). The only effective intervention is the placement of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.
Bjerregaard and Gussak discuss short QT syndrome. They note it is a heritable condition of the conduction system of the heart that can lead to lethal dysrhythmias. They discuss the management of this condition and recommend an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.
Figure/Illustration A is an ECG demonstrating a short QT segment (red arrow). Note the T waves appear peaked which can be seen in this syndrome. This may suggest hyperkalemia, but this patient’s labs were normal at his appointment when the ECG was taken.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Complete heart block is more common in elderly patients with acute coronary syndrome and presents with regular P-P and R-R intervals with complete P-R dissociation. It may cause syncope but is not associated with short QT syndrome. Management involves the placement of a pacemaker.
Answer C: Torsades des pointes is associated with a prolonged QT segment that progresses to the classic twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric baseline. It can lead to cardiac arrest and requires immediate cessation of QT-prolonging medications and administration of magnesium. Note that this patient’s QT segment is short rather than long.
Answer D: Ventricular fibrillation presents with disorganized electrical activity with no discernible rhythm. While this patient may have arrested from ventricular fibrillation, the most likely underlying etiology for his cardiac arrest given his age, ECG, and risk factors is an underlying condition such as short QT syndrome. For this reason, short QT syndrome is a better answer.
Answer E: Ventricular tachycardia could also occur in short QT syndrome and may have caused this patient’s cardiac arrest. It presents with a monomorphic wide complex tachycardia that may cause arrest. Unstable patients require cardioversion while pulseless patients require defibrillation. Note that if this patient arrested from ventricular tachycardia, it was likely secondary to short QT syndrome.
Bullet Summary:
Short QT syndrome is a rare but possible diagnosis in young, healthy patients who present with recurrent syncope or cardiac arrest. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=103356 | A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by helicopter after a high speed motorcycle crash. He was intubated and 2 large bore IVs were placed in the field with administration of 2 liters of lactated ringer's solution while en route. On arrival to the emergency department, his temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 130/min, blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 97%. Examination reveals an ill-appearing intubated patient. Endotracheal tube placement is confirmed with end tidal CO2, and bilateral breath sounds are present. No external bleeding or wounds are noted on exam. Pulses are present in all extremities but are weak and rapid. Significant bruising is noted over the abdomen. The pelvis is stable. Infusion of packed red blood cells is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Anterior-posterior and lateral radiographs of the abdomen and pelvis | CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast | Diagnostic peritoneal lavage | FAST exam | D | FAST exam | This patient with hemodynamic instability and abdominal bruising after a high speed motorcycle crash likely has shock secondary to blood loss. The first step in management of patients with blunt trauma and hemodynamic instability is a focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST exam)
For any patient with blunt or penetrating trauma, the first step in management is an evaluation of airway, breathing, and circulation. This is referred to as the primary survey and includes the verification of endotracheal tube placement, auscultation of bilateral breath sounds, and assessment of external wounds or bleeding. This is followed by the secondary survey which involves a detailed head to toe inspection for injuries. Blunt abdominal trauma with bruising as well as hemodynamic instability warrants a FAST exam. The FAST exam visualizes the heart chambers and pericardium, left upper quadrant (spleen, splenorenal recess), right upper quadrant (Morrison pouch) and the rectovesical (males) or rectouterine (females) pouch. The extended FAST exam (eFAST) includes an examination of the lungs as well to assess for pneumothorax or hemothorax. Hemodynamically unstable patients with free fluid identified in the abdomen on initial FAST exam should proceed directly to the operating room for emergent surgical intervention with ongoing volume resuscitation. Patients with hemodynamic instability and a negative FAST exam should be evaluated for sources of bleeding elsewhere such as the pelvis.
Barloon et al. review diagnostic imaging in the evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma. Blunt abdominal trauma is a common cause of death and injury, leading to hemodynamic instability. Intra-abdominal imaging is especially important in comatose or sedated (intubated) patients who are unable to provide a history or provide a reliable physical examination. In stable patients, CT of the abdomen often has a role in deciding whether to pursue observation versus surgical intervention.
Stengel et al. evaluate emergency ultrasound-based algorithms for diagnosing blunt abdominal trauma. The systematic review showed that ultrasound-based pathways reduced the number of CT scans obtained. Use of ultrasound can enhance the speed of the primary assessment and cut costs. However, the authors conclude that there is insufficient evidence to promote justification of ultrasound-based pathways for the evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma in terms of patient outcomes.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: AP and lateral radiographs of the abdomen and pelvis may be useful for identifying pelvic fracture or intraperitoneal free air. However, this patient's presentation is suggestive of abdominal trauma warranting FAST exam.
Answer B: CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast would be appropriate for evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma in a patient that is hemodynamically stable. However, this patient's vital signs indicate hemodynamic instability.
Answer C: Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is no longer commonly used in the evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma.
Answer E: Norepinephrine infusion would not be appropriate for this patient with shock secondary to blood loss. Resuscitation for this patient should be achieved with transfusion of blood products.
Bullet Summary:
The most appropriate initial step in management for hemodynamically unstable patience with blunt abdominal trauma is a FAST exam. | Norepinephrine infusion |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216427 | A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after he was rescued while hiking in Alaska. The patient was found on a mountain trail non-responsive. His temperature is 91°F (32.8°C), blood pressure is 103/61 mmHg, pulse is 60/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The patient is placed under a warm air circulator, and his extremities are bathed in warm water. An ECG is performed as seen in Figure A. Dark bullae are noted on the patient's extremities. His mental status rapidly improves with warming. Laboratory studies are ordered and are pending. Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient? | Hypocalcemia | Hypophosphatemia | Hypomagnesemia | Red blood cells on urine microscopy | A | Hypocalcemia | This patient is presenting after being found outside with hypothermia and frostbite (dark bullae noted on the extremities in the setting of being out in the cold). Frostbite can lead to rhabdomyolysis, which may cause hyperkalemia (causing ECG changes including peaked T waves and QRS widening as seen in this patient) and hypocalcemia (the most common electrolyte finding in frostbite).
Frostbite occurs when there is an extensive freezing injury to tissues and can cause benign swelling, erythema, and pain, all the way to insensate extremities with necrosis and permanent dysfunction. More severe forms of frostbite can cause rhabdomyolysis or breakdown of the muscles. Breakdown of the muscle cells leads to leakage of the intracellular contents. Common electrolyte derangements include hyperkalemia and hypophosphatemia. Hypocalcemia is the most common electrolyte derangement in rhabdomyolysis. It occurs due to the deposition of calcium in the necrotic muscle cells and the sequestration of calcium in the exposed sarcoplasmic reticulum. Note that hypocalcemia requires no treatment unless it is causing symptoms or ECG changes (such as QT prolongation). The management of rhabdomyolysis is centered on fluid administration to protect the kidney from myoglobin which is released from damaged muscles and is nephrotoxic.
Zimmerman and Shen review rhabdomyolysis. They note that rhabdomyolysis can be commonly associated with myoglobinuria, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperphosphatemia. They suggest that an elevated creatine kinase level is indicated to support the diagnosis.
Figure/Illustration A is an ECG demonstrating peaked T waves (blue arrows) which are associated with hyperkalemia.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Elevated troponin may be seen in rhabdomyolysis. This is a non-cardiac cause of an elevated troponin; however, this is less common than hypocalcemia in rhabdomyolysis and is neither sensitive nor specific.
Answer C: Hypomagnesemia is not a common electrolyte disturbance seen in rhabdomyolysis; however, hypomagnesemia may cause hypocalcemia (from impaired PTH release) and hypokalemia (from renal wasting of potassium). Note that this mechanism is separate from rhabdomyolysis.
Answer D: Hypophosphatemia is common in refeeding syndrome and malnourished patients (such as those with alcohol use disorder) and presents with diffuse muscle weakness. Rather, hyperphosphatemia would be seen in rhabdomyolysis as it is released from damaged muscle cells.
Answer E: Red blood cells on urine microscopy would be seen in a nephritic syndrome in addition to red blood cell casts. Note that the urine dipstick will be positive for red blood cells in rhabdomyolysis due to cross-reactivity with myoglobin; however, there are minimal/no red blood cells actually present.
Bullet Summary:
Frostbite can result in rhabdomyolysis which commonly causes hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia (the most common derangement). | nan |
https://bit.ly/3PrMDbI | A 59-year-old man presents accompanied by his wife with nausea and dizziness. He is unsure when his symptoms started, but they have been affecting him for “a while.” It began as episodes of “unsteadiness” that progressed to a feeling of “spinning.” He cannot tell if his symptoms change with position but reports that if he does not lie down he will become nauseous. He also has worsening hearing loss worse on his right side. The patient’s medical history is significant for hypertension, alcohol use disorder, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His medications include aspirin, amlodipine, and fluticasone-salmeterol. He drinks a glass of red wine every night with dinner and smokes a cigar on the weekends. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 135/91 mmHg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows delayed horizontal nystagmus. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's condition? | Low-salt diet | Thiamine | Epley maneuver | Meclizine | A | Low-salt diet | This patient is presenting with chronic vertigo, hearing loss, and horizontal nystagmus, which is suggestive of Meniere disease. The most appropriate initial step in the management of this disease is a low-salt diet.
Meniere disease is caused by an abnormal accumulation of endolymph within the inner ear. Symptoms will include chronic relapsing and remitting episodes of vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and nausea. Physical exam, audiometry, and vestibular testing can be performed to confirm the diagnosis. First-line treatment is a thiazide diuretic as well as lifestyle modifications including a low-salt diet as well as avoidance of alcohol, nicotine, and caffeine. If symptoms persist, additional therapy may involve vestibular nerve ablation or a labyrinthectomy.
Tassinari et al. review the evidence regarding the treatment of Meniere disease. They discuss how vertigo, low-pitched tinnitus, and hearing loss are characteristic of this disease. They recommend creating a database to allow for better research into this disease.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: CN VIII ablation can be used to treat Meniere disease that is uncontrolled by diet modifications or thiazide diuretics. Patients usually respond to conservative care so a complete course of these treatments should be trialed first.
Answer B: The Epley maneuver can be used to treat benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). Patients will present with vertigo that changes with the patient's position without hearing loss or tinnitus. This maneuver functions by dislodging otoliths from the semicircular canals.
Answer D: Meclizine can be used to treat other types of vertigo such as BPPV or viral labyrinthitis. Labyrinthitis can present with similar symptoms to the symptoms of Meniere disease, but they will be acute and self-limited. There will also be inflammation of the cochlear portion of the inner ear.
Answer E: Thiamine can be used for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. A history of chronic heavy alcohol use, confusion with confabulation, ataxia, memory loss, and nystagmus are all concerning signs that may indicate thiamine deficiency.
Bullet Summary:
Meniere disease should be treated initially with a low-salt diet, avoidance of triggers, and thiazide diuretics. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216616 | A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department after fainting. He was outside tending to his lawn for several hours in the heat, when he stood up suddenly from pulling weeds and fainted. He denies any preceding symptoms and returned to baseline within 1 minute. The patient is not aware of any medical problems and just started seeing a primary care physician last week. He recently used a friend's prescription for ondansetron for nausea. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, pulse is 107/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals intact cranial nerves, normal strength and sensation, and a stable gait. His abdomen is soft and nontender. An ECG is performed as seen in Figure A. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis based on this patient’s ECG? | Previous myocardial ischemia | Acute myocardial infarction | Intermittent torsades des pointes | Pulmonary embolism | A | Previous myocardial ischemia | This patient is presenting after syncope, likely secondary to dehydration and orthostatic hypotension given his outdoor gardening in the heat and symptoms when standing up rapidly. The patient’s ECG reveals deep, pathologic Q waves, which in this case are an incidental finding indicative of a previous myocardial infarction or a previous ischemic event.
The Q wave is a negative deflection just prior to the R wave. Q waves are a normal finding when they are small and are seen on most ECGs. However, pathologic Q waves are indicative of myocardial ischemia. Pathologic Q waves are generally diagnosed when they are >2 mm deep, >1 mm wide, >25% of the QRS complex height, or are seen in leads V1-V3. The interpretation of Q waves depends on other findings on ECG and the patient's symptoms. Deep Q waves in the setting of ST elevation indicate an acute myocardial infarction. On the other hand, pathologic Q waves found incidentally indicate a previous myocardial infarction or previous ischemic event.
Rovai et al. review Q waves. They discuss how Q waves can be used to predict the location and size of a myocardial infarction as correlated with MRI. They recommend testing such as cardiac MRI to assess for previous infarction in the appropriate patient population.
Figure/Illustration A is an ECG demonstrating pathologic Q waves (red arrows). Note the deep and wide Q waves; this raises concern for a past ischemic event.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Acute myocardial infarctions would present with ST elevation in a vascular distribution on ECG with possible reciprocal depressions. While T wave inversions may be indicative of new or acute ischemia, deep pathologic Q waves without ST elevation are indicative of previous infarction.
Answer B: Hypokalemia would cause U waves on ECG, which appear as a small, "second T wave" after the initial T wave. Note they are not U-shaped despite their name. Management is centered on repletion of potassium and often magnesium as well.
Answer C: Intermittent torsades de pointes can cause syncope and should be suspected in a patient with syncope in the setting of a prolonged QT interval. This patient’s QT interval is not particularly prolonged, and his syncope seems to be secondary to orthostatic hypotension. Management is centered on cessation of QT-prolonging medications and magnesium administration. Note that while ondansetron does prolong the QT interval, it is unlikely to cause torsades given the patient took it a week ago.
Answer E: Pulmonary emboli would present on ECG with sinus tachycardia in addition to pleuritic chest pain and hypoxia. Note that the ECG is a nonspecific test for pulmonary emboli, and CT angiography is the preferred confirmatory test for this condition. Syncope is a possible presentation of larger pulmonary emboli (though the patient would also be hemodynamically unstable).
Bullet Summary:
Pathologic Q waves are indicative of a previous myocardial infarction. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3PAgPQX | A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. He was found by his roommate to be disoriented this morning. He had complained of a right-sided headache for the past 5 days. He has a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection being treated with bictegravir, emtricitabine, and tenofovir. His last CD4 cell count was 500/mm^3. He does not smoke tobacco and drinks alcohol socially. His temperature is 104.2°F (40.1°C), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Examination reveals 3/5 strength to right shoulder abduction and elbow flexion/extension and 4/5 strength to right hip flexion/extension. The remainder of the strength exam on the right and left sides is normal. Neck flexion does not elicit pain, and there are no tongue lacerations. During the exam, the patient’s eyes are seen to roll backward with repeated flexion/extension of his extremities and loss of urine. This stops after 1 minute. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Bacterial meningitis | Brain abscess | Cytomegalovirus encephalitis | Epilepsy | B | Brain abscess | This HIV-positive patient presents with fever, unilateral headache, altered mental status, focal neurological deficits (3/5 strength to right shoulder abduction, elbow flexion/extension, hip flexion/extension), and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, suggestive of a brain abscess.
A brain abscess typically presents in patients with underlying risk factors for infection, such as positive HIV status or bacterial endocarditis with hematogenous bacterial seeding. Patients present with fever, unilateral headache, altered mental status, focal neurological deficits, and fevers. Work-up consists of blood cultures, CT scan, and confirmatory magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast, showing a focal, hyperintense lesion with restricted diffusion. Treatment is with empiric broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy (e.g., vancomycin, metronidazole, and cefepime for gram-positive, gram-negative, and Pseudomonas coverage in immunocompromised patients) and surgical drainage.
Brouwer et al. review the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of brain abscesses. They discuss the importance of rapid initiation of antimicrobial therapy in these patients.
Incorrect Answers:
Answers 1 & 5: Bacterial or fungal meningitis can present with fever, headache, focal neurological deficits, and seizures but patients typically have meningeal signs such as pain with neck flexion. Cryptococcal meningitis is commonly seen in HIV-positive patients with CD4 counts < 100/mm^3.
Answer C: Cytomegalovirus encephalitis can present with fever, altered mental status, headache, and focal neurological deficits in patients with HIV infection. It typically presents in patients with severe immunodeficiency, often with CD4 cell count < 50/mm^3. This patient’s CD4 cell count is 500/mm^3, making this less likely than an abscess.
Answer D: Epilepsy is a primary neurological disorder that can cause generalized tonic-clonic seizures but would not explain this patient’s fever or unilateral headache. While Todd paralysis (focal weakness after a seizure) can occur after seizures, this patient’s focal weakness predates his seizure. A primary seizure disorder is not diagnosed when seizures occur secondary to another process.
Bullet Summary:
Brain abscess presents with fever, altered mental status, unilateral headache, seizures, and focal neurological deficits in patients with risk factors for infection (for example HIV, bacterial endocarditis). | Fungal meningitis |
https://bit.ly/3FwRzGJ | A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department 1 hour after sudden-onset weakness and double vision. His medical history is significant for hyperlipidemia and poorly controlled hypertension. His current medications include atorvastatin and amlodipine. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 175/95 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 16/min. On cranial nerve exam, his left pupil is 6 mm in diameter compared to 3 mm on the right. His left eye is displaced laterally and downward and he also has left-sided ptosis. Strength is 2/5 in the right upper and right lower extremities and 5/5 in the left upper and left lower extremities. He has marked right-sided dysdiadochokinesia. Sensation is intact throughout. Which of the following regions of his brain is most likely affected? | Lateral medulla | Lateral pons | Medial pons | Midbrain | D | Midbrain | This patient with a history of poorly controlled hypertension, acute onset of left-sided oculomotor nerve palsy (mydriasis, ptosis, and “down and out” pupil), right-sided paresis, and right-sided dysdiadochokinesia most likely has a lacunar stroke of the left midbrain.
Important structures in the midbrain often affected by stroke include the oculomotor nucleus, substantia nigra, corticospinal tract, red nucleus, and superior cerebellar peduncle. Occlusions to branches of the basilar artery lead to infarctions of various parts of the midbrain. Midbrain lesions almost always manifest with an ipsilateral oculomotor palsy (ptosis from the levator palpebrae muscle; mydriasis from loss of parasympathetic inflow; abduction and excyclotorsion of the globe from the superior rectus, medial rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior obliques). There may also be contralateral ataxia (cerebellar peduncle after decussation and red nucleus), contralateral hemiparesis (corticospinal tract before decussation at the medulla), and parkinsonian tremor (substantia nigra).
Sciacca et al. review the anatomy and clinical signs of strokes of the midbrain, pons, and medulla. They discuss how a stroke of the midbrain will present with oculomotor palsy and paresis. They recommend being vigilant for symptoms of strokes to allow for early diagnosis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) is usually due to a stroke of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. This presents with ipsilateral ataxia, loss of pain and temperature sensation in the face, dysarthria, and Horner syndrome, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in the body. In this patient with intact sensorium and without dysarthria, lateral medullary syndrome is less likely.
Answer B: Lateral pontine syndrome can be caused by interruption of blood supply by the anterior inferior cerebellar artery. It presents with ipsilateral limb and gait ataxia, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, ipsilateral facial hemianesthesia, ipsilateral facial paralysis, nystagmus and vertigo, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature in the body. In this patient with intact sensorium and without facial paralysis, vertigo, and oculomotor palsy, midbrain stroke is more likely than a pontine stroke.
Answer C: Medial pontine syndrome can be due to occlusion of the paramedian branches of the basilar artery and disrupts the abducens nerve, the dorsal column-medial lemniscus, and the corticospinal tract. This results in contralateral spastic hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral rectus paralysis (eye turned down and in), and contralateral loss of vibration and stereognosis. In this patient with ptosis, and an eye turned down and out, oculomotor palsy and a midbrain stroke are more likely than a pontine stroke.
Answer E: Strokes of the posterior limb of the internal capsule lead to contralateral hemiparesis. Strokes of the internal capsule would not be expected to lead to oculomotor nerve palsy or dysdiadochokinesia. The constellation of ataxia, hemiparesis, and cranial nerve palsy is more suggestive of a brainstem pathology than of a lacunar stroke in the internal capsule.
Bullet Summary:
Midbrain strokes commonly present with ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis/hemiplegia, contralateral hemiataxia, and/or contralateral tremor. | Posterior limb of internal capsule |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=210867 | A 70-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. She was found on the floor of her apartment after her neighbor called 911. She is confused and is unable to provide any history, but complains of generalized pain. Her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 129/64 mmHg, pulse is 63/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals, a confused, ill-appearing woman. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. An electrocardiogram is obtained as shown in Figure A. Dipstick urinalysis is notable for 4+ blood and dark colored urine. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Albuterol and IV fluid resuscitation | Calcium gluconate | IV fluid resuscitation | Sodium polystyrene sulfonate | B | Calcium gluconate | This patient with confusion, dark urine, and peaked T waves on electrocardiogram in the setting of a prolonged time spent down likely has developed rhabdomyolysis with associated hyperkalemia. For patients with suspected hyperkalemia and electrocardiogram changes, the most appropriate next step in management is treatment with calcium gluconate
Rhabdomyolysis occurs when muscle cells lyse and release their intracellular contents. This can occur secondary to intense athletics, seizures, stimulant drug use, or a prolonged period of immobility. Lysis of muscle cells leads to release of potassium, myoglobin, purines, and other intracellular contents. Release of large amounts of myoglobin can result in renal impairment and myoglobinuria. On dipstick urinalysis, myoglobin causes a positive result for blood. Renal impairment further increases the risk for development of hyperkalemia. On ECG, hyperkalemia manifests with a "peaked" appearance of T waves, especially in the precordial leads. As hyperkalemia worsens, electrocardiogram changes progress to loss of P waves, QRS complex widening, and eventual sine wave rhythm. For patients with suspected hyperkalemia and characteristic changes noted on the electrocardiogram, the most appropriate immediate step in management is treatment with intravenous calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate acts to stabilize cardiac myocyte membranes and prevent development of life-threatening arrhythmias.
Gupta et. al review rhabdomyolysis. They discuss the pathophysiology, clinical manifestations and diagnosis. They further detail complications that may arise such as hyperkalemia, and discuss respective management strategies.
Figure A demonstrates an electrocardiogram with features characteristic of hyperkalemia. Note the peaked appearance of the T waves in the precordial leads.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Albuterol and IV fluid resuscitation may eventually be appropriate. Albuterol (a beta agonist) will act to shift potassium to the intracellular compartment. This patient's electrocardiogram changes warrant immediate treatment with calcium gluconate in order to stabilize cardiac myocyte membranes.
Answer C: Insulin, glucose, and IV fluid resuscitation are indicated in this patient. Insulin acts to shift potassium to the intracellular compartment, and fluid resuscitation is warranted for the patient's likely renal impairment. Calcium gluconate is the more immediate priority to prevent development of arrhythmia.
Answer D: IV fluid resuscitation is indicated for this patient with likely renal impairment. However, calcium gluconate is the more immediate priority to address this patient's hyperkalemia and prevent development of arrhythmia.
Answer E: Sodium polystyrene is an oral potassium binder that increases GI excretion of potassium. It may be appropriate to treat mild hyperkalemia in some patients. It takes a prolonged amount of time to have any significant effect.
Bullet Summary:
For patients with suspected hyperkalemia and characteristic changes noted on ECG, the most appropriate immediate step in management is treatment with intravenous calcium gluconate. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216275 | A 66-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-week history of bloody stools. He describes the blood as bright red wisps that float on the surface of the stool. He has no pain with bowel movements but notes on occasion he may strain. He does not endorse fatigue, fever, constipation, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, or dyspnea. His last colonoscopy was 3 years prior to presentation and was benign. He has a medical history significant for hypertension that is well-controlled with lisinopril. He had an uncomplicated appendectomy when he was 23 years old. He has no family history of gastrointestinal malignancy. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 16/min. On physical exam, the patient's abdomen is soft, non-distended, and non-tender with normal bowel sounds and without organomegaly or masses. The anus is patent without fissures, hemorrhoids, or skin tags. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | Increase fiber in diet | Colonoscopy | Observation | Sigmoidoscopy | B | Colonoscopy | This patient is presenting with painless bright red blood per rectum. Because he is over 50 years old and having rectal bleeding, he should be evaluated for malignancy with a colonoscopy.
Bright red blood per rectum has a broad differential diagnosis including anal fissures, hemorrhoids, angiodysplasia, inflammatory bowel disease, diverticular bleed, infection, polyps, and colon cancer. However, as patients age, their risk for malignancy increases significantly. Therefore, stable patients older than 50 years of age with rectal bleeding, regardless of their symptoms or family history, should receive a colonoscopy to rule out malignancy. Patients younger than 50 with warning signs of colon cancer (abnormal bowel habits, weight loss, family history of colon cancer, iron deficiency anemia) should also be evaluated with a colonoscopy. Often, colonoscopy is performed routinely at the age of 50 or 10 years prior to the age of presentation for malignancy in family members (whichever is sooner). Of note, even if there is an apparent cause for a lower GI bleed in patients 50 or older (such as hemorrhoids) colonoscopy is still indicated to rule out malignancy.
Barry et al. note the guidelines for colon cancer screening. They note the different age cutoffs. The USPSTF recommends screening for colorectal cancer in all adults aged 50-75 years.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Computerized tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis is incorrect because colonoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosis of suspected colon cancer. A CT scan may detect larger masses and a CTA may be performed if there is active bleeding and concern for an arterial source of bleeding that can be intervened upon.
Answer C: Increasing fiber in the diet may help patients with constipation or hemorrhoidal bleeding. Constipation presents with straining to have bowel movements and hard stools. However, because of this patient's age, he needs a colonoscopy to rule out malignancy.
Answer D: Observation is not appropriate at this patient's age. Patients greater than 50 years old with bright red blood per rectum should receive a colonoscopy to rule out malignancy despite any recent negative colonoscopy results.
Answer E: Sigmoidoscopy is less preferred to colonoscopy, as a smaller portion of the colon would be visualized, and colonic polyps or malignancies may be missed. For this reason, it is not the preferred study in this patient.
Bullet Summary:
Patients with bright red bleeding per rectum over 50 years old or with warning signs of colonic malignancy (weight loss, abnormal bowel habits, positive family history, or anemia) should receive a colonoscopy. | nan |
https://bit.ly/4634T1E | A 69-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a general checkup. Overall he is doing well. Since he retired, he has been working on projects at home and taking time to exercise every day. He eats a balanced diet and has been spending time with his wife every evening. Despite this, the patient claims that he feels less well-rested when he wakes up in the morning. The patient states that he used to sleep 9 hours a night in his youth and felt excellent. Now he sleeps 7 hours a night and doesn’t feel as well rested as he used to. The patient’s wife states that he seems to sleep peacefully. His medical history is significant for hypertension and diabetes for which he takes lisinopril and metformin. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 131/85 mmHg, pulse is 71/min, and respirations are 12/min. His neurological exam is within normal limits. The patient is muscular and has a healthy weight with a pleasant demeanor. He denies feeling fatigued or tired currently. Which of the following physiological changes would most likely be seen in this patient? | Decreased melatonin | Decreased orexin | Increased acetylcholine | Increased dopamine | A | Decreased melatonin | This elderly patient is presenting with sleep that is sufficient but less refreshing than sleep was for him in his past suggesting a diagnosis of normal aging. Melatonin levels naturally decrease as patients age.
Normal aging shortens most phases of sleep. It is normal for melatonin levels to decline during normal aging; however, this change is not responsible for all the symptoms associated with declining quality of sleep. Other changes that occur include decreased REM sleep, decreased stage N3 sleep, and a compensatory increase in stage N2 sleep. Patients will often complain of sleep that is less refreshing than it was in their youth, yet they are still functional and not excessively tired. Treatment is with sleep hygiene though some patients will also benefit from treatment with melatonin supplementation.
Cardinali reviews the role of melatonin in aging. He discusses how natural levels of melatonin decrease in aging animals, which may have implications on the circadian clock. He recommends studies on whether melatonin supplementation may be beneficial to mitigate the effects of aging.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer B: Decreased orexin levels would be seen in patients with narcolepsy, which presents with sudden episodes of falling asleep. This tends to occur in younger patients and is also associated with cataplexy or sudden loss in muscle tone. Treatment of this disorder is with stimulant medications such as modafinil.
Answer C: Increased acetylcholine levels would not be seen in patients as they age and would not explain the changes this patient is experiencing. Rather, acetylcholine levels tend to decline as we age. Drinking caffeinated drinks is associated with increased acetylcholine levels in the brain.
Answer D: Increased dopamine would not be a principle change seen in age-related sleep changes. Higher dopamine levels would increase feelings of being awake as well as alertness. In contrast, decreased dopamine levels can be seen in patients with Parkinson disease, which would present with bradykinesia and a resting tremor.
Answer E: Increased norepinephrine would result in increased wakefulness and potentially insomnia; however, it would not explain the changes seen in normal aging. This chemical is naturally produced during the fight or flight response and can be artificially increased by stimulant drugs such as cocaine.
Bullet Summary:
Normal aging results in a shortening of most phases of sleep as well as decreased melatonin levels and presents with sleep that is subjectively less restful. | Increased norepinephrine |
https://bit.ly/3WPL8WV | A 25-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with joint and muscle pain. She has a general aching/pain in her joints that lasts all day. The pain is constant and is not relieved by rest or activity. She also has pain in her hands at times and occasionally notices trouble swallowing when she is eating. She has a medical history of anxiety and is not currently taking any medications. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, pulse is 74/min, and respirations are 11/min. On physical exam, the patient is a healthy young woman with a sunburn. Her hands are mildly edematous with the findings in Figure A. Laboratory values are below:
Serum:
Na+: 145 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 9 mg/dL
Glucose: 70 mg/dL
Creatinine: .7 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10 mg/dL
Mg2+: 1.8 mEq/L
Which of the following antibodies is most likely to aid in making the diagnosis in this patient? | Anti-nuclear antibody | Anti-IgG Fc region | Anti-ribonuleoprotein | Anti-dsDNA | C | Anti-ribonuleoprotein | This patient is presenting with diffuse muscle/joint pain, Raynaud phenomenon, and dysphagia suggesting a diagnosis of mixed connective tissue disease. Anti-ribonucleoprotein (U1) antibodies are found in this disease.
Mixed connective tissue disease can present with a vast array of symptoms. The most common symptoms are Raynaud phenomenon (vascular hyper-reactivity that presents with burning/pain in the hands where the hands change color from white to blue to red, seen in Figure A), arthralgias, myalgias, dysphagia, and edema of the hands. Anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein antibodies are commonly found in mixed connective tissue disease and are a specific marker. In this disease, there is typically an absence of renal involvement. Treatment involves steroids as well as calcium channel blockers for symptomatic control of Raynaud phenomenon.
Batu et al. review the evidence regarding patients with mixed connective tissue disease. They found that many patients have overlapping symptoms with systemic lupus erythematosus and systemic sclerosis. They recommend studying patients with these mixed characteristics in order to better understand which treatment modalities are effective.
Figure/Illustration A is a clinical photograph showing the blanching of the distal fingers (red box). This finding demonstrates the Raynaud phenomenon during the early phase where the vessels have spasmed.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Anti-dsDNA is a specific marker in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). SLE presents with SOAP BRAIN MD - Serositis, Oral ulcers, Arthritis, Photosensitivity, Blood disorders (hemolytic anemia, etc.), Renal involvement, ANA, Immune phenomena (anti-dsDNA, Smith), Neurological symptoms, Malar rash, and Discoid rash. Four of these criteria must be met to suspect a diagnosis of SLE. Treatment is with hydroxychloroquine.
Answer B: Anti-IgG Fc region is representative of rheumatoid factor which is found in rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis can present with fever, weight loss, and joint pain that worsens in the morning and improves with activity. It is common for the joints of the hands to become deformed due to the disease process. Treatment is with methotrexate.
Answer C: Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) are likely positive in this patient; however, they are not more likely to aid in making the diagnosis than anti-ribonucleoprotein antibodies are. ANA are non-specific and can be found in many rheumatological conditions such as MCTD, lupus, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Answer E: Anti-Ro antibodies are found in Sjogren syndrome which presents with dry eyes, dry mouth, dental caries, and dyspareunia. A salivary gland biopsy can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment includes artificial tears, vitamin D supplementation, and pilocarpine or cevimeline.
Bullet Summary:
Mixed connective tissue disease is associated with anti-ribonuleoprotein antibodies and presents with Raynaud phenomenon, arthralgia/arthritis, swollen hands, sclerodactyly, and myositis. | nan |
https://bit.ly/3OvFRS0 | A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for evaluation of fever and chills over the last several days along with a progressive rash and diarrhea. She had nasal septoplasty performed 1 week prior and has had nasal packing in place since that time. Her rash has progressed and the skin on her hands is "peeling." She has no significant medical history and takes no medications. Her temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 84/54 mmHg, pulse is 160/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Exam reveals an ill-appearing woman. A diffuse, macular, erythematous rash is noted with desquamation over the patient's hands as shown in Figure A. Bilateral conjunctivitis is noted. The patient's nasal packing is removed revealing copious, foul-smelling, purulent discharge. Which of the following pathogens is likely responsible for this patient's condition? | Rhinovirus | Borrelia burgdorferi | Staphylococcus aureus | Rickettsia rickettsii | C | Staphylococcus aureus | This patient with fever, diarrhea, and a diffuse, erythematous rash with prolonged nasal packing in place likely has developed toxic shock syndrome. Toxic shock syndrome occurs most commonly due to infection with Staphylococcus aureus.
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) occurs due to infection with Staphylococcal or Streptococcal species that produce "super-antigen" toxins, such as TSST-1 produced by S. aureus. These toxins bind directly to the MHC-II receptor on T cells with high affinity causing a massive, sustained cytokine release. The result is a "cytokine storm" causing an intense inflammatory reaction and distributive shock. These infections arise in the setting of a retained tampon or retained nasal packing following nasal surgery; however, this is not always the case. The clinical presentation of TSS is characterized by fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, conjunctivitis, and a diffuse "sunburn-like" rash. Desquamation of the palms and soles typically occurs during recovery, 1-2 weeks after the acute phase of the illness. The initial management of TSS begins with broad spectrum antibiotic therapy. Typical regimens include vancomycin, cefepime, and clindamycin. The initial antibiotic regimen should cover methicillin-resistant Staph aureus. Clindamycin is always included due to its ability to suppress bacterial protein production, therefore limiting the production of bacterial toxins. Once a causative organism is identified, antibiotic therapy may be narrowed, though clindamycin is usually administered for the duration of treatment.
Figure A is the classic generalized and erythematous macular/desquamating rash of toxic shock syndrome.
Incorrect Answers
Answer A: Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochetal bacteria that causes Lyme disease. A erythematous, bulls-eye shaped rash would be expected.
Answer B: Neisseria meningitidis causes meningococcemia and meningitis. Fever is common, although a purpuric rash and signs of meningeal irritation would be expected. Patients are often profoundly unstable.
Answer C: Rhinovirus is the viral pathogen most commonly responsible for the common cold that causes minor symptoms including a cough, runny nose, fever, and aches.
Answer D: Rickettsia rickettsii causes rocky mountain spotted fever which presents with a high fever, headache, malaise, and a centripetal maculopapular rash that starts on the extremities and migrates to the trunk. It is a tick-borne illness.
Bullet Summary:
Toxic shock syndrome classically develops in patients with prolonged use of nasal packing, and presents with fever, diarrhea, a diffuse erythematous rash, and shock. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216509 | A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after a car accident. He drove his car into a pole while speeding at night. He has no past medical history and takes no medications. The patient is unable to offer a history and repetitively asks the nurses what happened. He knows his name and address and is able to remember other information about himself. He is complaining of a headache. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% of room air. Physical exam reveals a confused young man. Cranial nerves 2-12 are intact and the patient has normal strength and sensation. He demonstrates a stable gait. Throughout the exam, he continuously asks what happened to him. A head CT scan is ordered. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Diffuse axonal injury | Epidural hematoma | Concussion | Subarachnoid hemorrhage | C | Concussion | This patient is presenting after a motor vehicle accident with confusion, repeated questioning, and a normal neurologic exam aside from his inability to remember the events that occurred. This constellation of symptoms is concerning for a concussion.
A concussion occurs after blunt trauma to the head and is common in athletics and motor vehicle collisions. Patients may present initially with symptoms including confusion, repeat questioning, repeating themselves, and amnesia surrounding the event. A thorough neurological exam is important as there should be no neurologic deficits in a concussion. Patients with a classic history and reassuring exam require rest from physical and cognitive activity. Post-concussive syndrome may present with chronic headaches, dizziness, trouble sleeping, trouble focusing, nausea, and difficulties with learning and concentrating. Mood changes such as depression and anxiety are common. Any patient with a concerning mechanism or symptoms should have a head CT to rule out other more severe diagnoses.
Pertab et al. review concussion and its presentation. They note that concussion can cause many symptoms including trouble focusing, mood changes, headaches, and also autonomic nervous system anomalies. They recommend reviewing the constellation of symptoms to make the diagnosis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Cerebral contusions are common after head trauma and may present with confusion, obtundation, neurologic deficits, and amnesia. While a severe concussion and a cerebral contusion have overlap, given this patient’s age, mechanism, and symptoms, concussion is more likely. A head CT would demonstrate contusion (hyperdense intraparenchymal lesion) with a possible contrecoup injury.
Answer C: Diffuse axonal injury occurs after a severe CNS injury with an obtunded patient who is typically unresponsive. CT imaging will show blurring of the gray-white interface with punctate hemorrhages. These patients have a very poor prognosis. They often are obtunded with minimal neurologic function.
Answer D: Epidural hematoma presents with trauma and the classic “talk and die” syndrome including a lucid interval followed by progressive obtundation and fixed, dilated pupils. Symptoms are rapidly progressive as this is an arterial bleed. CT scan would demonstrate a hyperdense lens-shaped lesion (composed of blood). A burr hole may relieve pressure and can be life-saving.
Answer E: Subarachnoid hemorrhage may present after trauma with a severe headache and meningeal signs. Patients may demonstrate focal neurologic deficits in severe cases. CT scan will demonstrate blood in the subarachnoid space and lumbar puncture would demonstrate blood in the CSF. A CTA may also localize the site of bleeding and if any aneurysm is present.
Bullet Summary:
A severe concussion can present with confusion, repeat questioning, and amnesia. | nan |
https://step2.medbullets.com/testview?qid=216509 | A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after a car accident. He drove his car into a pole while speeding at night. He has no past medical history and takes no medications. The patient is unable to offer a history and repetitively asks the nurses what happened. He knows his name and address and is able to remember other information about himself. He is complaining of a headache. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% of room air. Physical exam reveals a confused young man. Cranial nerves 2-12 are intact and the patient has normal strength and sensation. He demonstrates a stable gait. Throughout the exam, he continuously asks what happened to him. A head CT scan is ordered. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Cerebral contusion | Concussion | Diffuse axonal injury | Epidural hematoma | B | Concussion | This patient is presenting after a motor vehicle accident with confusion, repeated questioning, and a normal neurologic exam aside from his inability to remember the events that occurred. This constellation of symptoms is concerning for a concussion.
A concussion occurs after blunt trauma to the head and is common in athletics and motor vehicle collisions. Patients may present initially with symptoms including confusion, repeat questioning, repeating themselves, and amnesia surrounding the event. A thorough neurological exam is important as there should be no neurologic deficits in a concussion. Patients with a classic history and reassuring exam require rest from physical and cognitive activity. Post-concussive syndrome may present with chronic headaches, dizziness, trouble sleeping, trouble focusing, nausea, and difficulties with learning and concentrating. Mood changes such as depression and anxiety are common. Any patient with a concerning mechanism or symptoms should have a head CT to rule out other more severe diagnoses.
Pertab et al. review concussion and its presentation. They note that concussion can cause many symptoms including trouble focusing, mood changes, headaches, and also autonomic nervous system anomalies. They recommend reviewing the constellation of symptoms to make the diagnosis.
Incorrect Answers:
Answer A: Cerebral contusions are common after head trauma and may present with confusion, obtundation, neurologic deficits, and amnesia. While a severe concussion and a cerebral contusion have overlap, given this patient’s age, mechanism, and symptoms, concussion is more likely. A head CT would demonstrate contusion (hyperdense intraparenchymal lesion) with a possible contrecoup injury.
Answer C: Diffuse axonal injury occurs after a severe CNS injury with an obtunded patient who is typically unresponsive. CT imaging will show blurring of the gray-white interface with punctate hemorrhages. These patients have a very poor prognosis. They often are obtunded with minimal neurologic function.
Answer D: Epidural hematoma presents with trauma and the classic “talk and die” syndrome including a lucid interval followed by progressive obtundation and fixed, dilated pupils. Symptoms are rapidly progressive as this is an arterial bleed. CT scan would demonstrate a hyperdense lens-shaped lesion (composed of blood). A burr hole may relieve pressure and can be life-saving.
Answer E: Subarachnoid hemorrhage may present after trauma with a severe headache and meningeal signs. Patients may demonstrate focal neurologic deficits in severe cases. CT scan will demonstrate blood in the subarachnoid space and lumbar puncture would demonstrate blood in the CSF. A CTA may also localize the site of bleeding and if any aneurysm is present.
Bullet Summary:
A severe concussion can present with confusion, repeat questioning, and amnesia. | Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
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