dataset
string | id
string | question
string | choices
sequence | rationale
string | answer
string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_100 | In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case? | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Autosomal recessive",
"X-linked dominant",
"X-linked recessive"
] | A i.e. Autosomal dominant (most likely) Waardenburg's Syndrome (WS) is a rare autosomal dominant syndrome characterized by pigmentary disturbances (skin, hair, iris), sensorineural hearing loss, and other developmental anomalies such as dystopia canthorum (widely spaced eyes) and blepharophimosis. The syndrome that closest matches the features provided in the question is Waardeburg syndrome type-I. This is inherited as an autosomal dominant fashion and hence is the answer of exclusion. As the question does not provide us with details as to the sex of the three children, a sex linked inheritance pattern cannot be worked out. Also the combined presentation of an affected father, unaffected mother and one affected child among three children is possible with both an autosomal dominant and an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. In absence of any more details, the answer to this question cannot be deduced through the exploration of various permutations and combinations. How both autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive inheritance can be responsible for the above combination: Autosomal Dominant Autosomal recessive (A-affected allele and a normal allele) If the disease is transmitted in an Autosomal Dominant then :Father (affected) will be either 'AA' or 'Aa' Mother (unaffected) will be 'aa' If father is AA and mother aa, the offsprings will be 1. aA - 100% affected If father is Aa and mother aa, the offsprings will Aa - 50% affected aa - 50% not affected The scenario in the above question therefore is possible autosomal dominant inheritance if father is Aa and mother is aa (A'-affected allele and 'a' normal allele) If the disease is transmitted in an Autosomal recessive form :Father (affected) will be 'AA' Mother (unaffected) may be 'aa' or 'Aa' If father is AA and mother aa, the offsprings will be 1. aA - 100% not affected, (but carriers) If father is AA and mother Aa, the offsprings will be Aa - 50% not affected, carrier AA - 50% affected The scenario in the above question therefore is possible with autosomal recessive inheritance if father is aa and mother is Aa | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_101 | Runt's disease is associated with | [
"Acute rejection",
"Hyperacute rejection",
"GVHD",
"Chronic rejection"
] | GVHD Robbins, 7 edition, Page 222 * Runt's disease: is a pathological condition in which cells from the transplanted tissue of a donor initiate an immunologic attack on the cells and tissue of the recipient Complications of small bowel transplantation: * Most of the moality after bowel transplantation is due to sepsis and multiorgan failure. * The risk of infection after small bowel transplantation is heightened by the additional requirements for immunosuppression in order to control graft rejection. * This accounts for the relatively high incidence of Lymphoproliferative disease (around 10%) observed in patients who have undergone small bowel transplantation. * Because of the large amount of donor lymphoid tissue transplanted Graft- Versus-Host Disease (GVHD) may occasionally be an added complication | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_102 | Structures passing through the sigmoid (mandibular) notch are: | [
"Auriculotemporal nerve",
"Mandibular nerve",
"Masseteric nerve and vessels",
"Chorda tympani"
] | The upper border of the ramus of mandible is thin, and is surmounted by two processes, the coronoid process anteriorly and the condyloid process posteriorly, separated by a deep concavity, the mandibular notch, or sigmoid notch. It allows the passage of the masseteric nerve (a branch of the mandibular nerve (V3) division of the trigeminal nerve), masseteric artery and masseteric vein. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_103 | Percentage of Xylocaine used in spinal anesthesia- | [
"1%",
"2%",
"4%",
"5%"
] | Ans - D | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_104 | Phagolysosomal-enzymatic digestion occurs due to | [
"Protease",
"MPO (Myeloperoxidase)",
"Oxidase",
"All"
] | Ans. b (MPO/Myeloperoxidase)The exogenous antigens, such as proteins synthesized by bacteria are ingested into the cell through cellular processes including endocytosis and phagocytosis. Then the antigens are hydrolyzed by hydrolytic enzymes like myeloperoxidase in the phagocytes, and the peptides are retained in an endolysosome or phagolysosome. | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_105 | Complications of total thyroidectomy include all except | [
"Hoarseness of voice",
"Airway obstruction",
"Hemorrhage",
"Hypercalcaemia"
] | Rates of post-procedure hypocalcemia are approximately 5%, and it resolves in 80% of cases in approximately 12 months Other complications include haemorrhage , damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve and superior laryngeal nerve. Respiratory obstruction due to laryngeal oedema or very rarely due to collapse or kinking of the trachea(tracheomalacia). Ref : Robbins Basis 8/e 1121 | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_106 | Horizontal semicircular canal is | [
"Anterior",
"Superior",
"Posterior",
"Lateral"
] | D i.e Lateral | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_107 | Which of the following is best for transpo of the newborn with maintenance of warm temperature? | [
"Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)",
"Transpo incubator",
"ThermaCool box",
"Hot bo le"
] | The benefits of kangaroo mother care studies have found that skin-to-skin holding stabilizes hea and respiratory rates, improves oxygen saturation rates, better regulates an infant's body temperature, and conserves a baby's calories. Ref essentials of paediatrics op ghai 9e Pg110 | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_108 | What is the embryolgical remnant of median umbilical ligament? | [
"Urachus",
"Allantois",
"Amnion",
"Yolk sac"
] | Median umbilical ligament is a remnant of urachus If patent urachus in adults, urine dribbles from umbilicus known as wheeping umbilicus | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_109 | An athelete came to casuality with 3 days history of passing red colour urine.most propable cause of red colour urine in this condition is- | [
"Hemoglobinuria",
"Myoglobinuria",
"Hematuria",
"Hemosiderinuria"
] | Both hemoglobin and myoglobin give red colour to urine. Here the patient is athelete, due to strenous activity , myoglobin may be excreted in urine ,which is giving red colour to urine . Ref:physiology and pathology of urine by john dixon ,pg no. 49 | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_110 | Which category of ICD is associated with mood disorders? | [
"F0",
"F1",
"F2",
"F3"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., F3 International classification of disease-10 (ICD-10)o ICD -10 is WHO classification for all diseases and health problems (and not only psychiatric disorders). ICD-10 uses alpha numeric code made of an alphabet (in contrast DSM-IV uses numerical coding) - 'F' is for mental disorders. There are 10 main categories denoted by digits 0 to 9.CodeCategoryF0Organic, including symptomatic mental disorders.FIMental and behaviuor disorders due to psychoactive substance useF2Schizophrenia, schizotypal and delusional disordersF3Mood (affective) disordersF4Neurotic, stress-related and somatoform disorders.F5Behavioral syndromes associated with physiological disturbances and physical factorsF6Disorders of adult personality and behaviourF7Mental retardationF8Disorders of psychological developmentF9Behavioural and emotional disorders with onset usually occuring in childhood or adolescence. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_111 | Impedance audiometry is done using frequency probe of- | [
"220 Hz",
"555 Hz",
"440Hz",
"1000 Hz"
] | null | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_112 | Antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated in: | [
"Cardiac catheterisation",
"Prostectomty",
"Cystoscopy",
"Dental procedures"
] | Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18ed. & style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">Antibiotic Prophylactic Regimens for EndocarditisExplanation:The antibiotic prophylactic regimens below are recommended by the American Heail Association (AHA) only for patients with underlying cardiac conditions associated with the highest risk of adverse outcome from infective endocarditisHigh-Risk Cardiac ConditionsAntibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for the following high-risk cardiac conditions:Prosthetic cardiac valveHistory of infective endocarditisCongenital heart disease (CHD) {except for the conditions listed, antibiotic prophylaxis is no longer recommended for any other form of CHD)Unrepaired cyanotic CHD, including palliative shunts and conduits;Completely repaired congenital heart defect with prosthetic material or device, whether placed by surgery or by catheter intervention, during the first 6 months after the procedure; and (3) Repaired CHD with residual defects at the site or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or prosthetic device (which inhibits endothelialization)Cardiac transplantation recipients with cardiac valvular diseaseDental ProceduresFor patients with high cardiac risk, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for all dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa.The following dental procedures do not require endocarditis prophylaxis:Routine anesthetic injections through noninfected tissueTaking dental radiographsPlacement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic appliancesAdjustment of orthodontic appliancesPlacement of orthodontic bracketsShedding of deciduous teethBleeding from trauma to the lips or oral mucosaRespiratory Tract. Infected Skin, Skin Structures, or Musculoskeletal Tissue ProceduresAntibiotic prophylaxis is recommended forInvasive respiratory tract procedures that involve incision or biopsy of the respiratory mucosa (eg, tonsillecto my, adenoidectomy).Antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended torBronchoscopy unless the procedure involves Incision of the respiratory tract mucosa.For invasive respiratory tract procedures to treat an established infection (eg, drainage of abscess, empyema), administer an antibiotic that is active against Streptococcus viridans.Patients with high cardiac risk who undergo a surgical procedure that involves infected skin, skin structure, or musculoskeletal tissue should receive an agent active against staphylococci and beta-hemolytic streptococci (eg. anti staphylococcal penicillin, cephalosporin).If the causative organism of respiratory, skin, skin structure, or musculoskeletal infection is known or suspected to be Staphylococcus aureus. administer an antistaphylococcal penicillin or cephalosporin, or vancomycin (if patient is unable to tolerate beta-lactam antibiotics).Vancomycin is recommended for known or suspected methicillin-resistant strains of S aureus.Genitourinary or GI Tract ProceduresAntibiotics are no longer recommended for endocarditis prophylaxis for patients undergoing genitourinary or gastrointestinal tract procedures.All doses shown below are administered once as a single dose 30-60 min before the procedure.Standard general prophylaxisAmoxicillinAdult dose: 2 g POPediatric dose: 50 mg/kg PO; not to exceed 2 g/ doseUnable to take oral medicationAmpicillinAdult dose: 2 g IV7IMPediatric dose: 50 mg/kg IV/IM; not to exceed 2 g/doseAllergic to penicillinClindamycinAdult dose: 600 mg POPediatric dose: 20 mg/kg PO: not to exceed 600 mg/doseAllergic to penicillinCephalexin or other first- or second-generation oral cephalosporin in equivalent dose (do not use cephalosporins in patients with a history of immediate-type hypersensitivity penicillin allergy, such as urticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis)Adult dose: 2 g POPediatric dose: 50 mg/kg PO; not to exceed 2 g/ doseAzithromycin or clarithromycinAdult dose: 500 mg POPediatric dose: 15 mg/kg PO: not to exceed 500 mg/doseAllergic to penicillin and unable to take oral medicationClindamycinAdult dose: 600 mg IVPediatric dose: 20 mg/kg IV; not to exceed 600 mg/doseCefazolin or ceftriaxone (do not use cephalosporins in patients with a history ofimmediate-type hypersensitivity penicillin allergy, such as urticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis)Adult dose: I g IV/IMPediatric dose: 50 mg/kg IV/IM; not to exceed 1 g/dose | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_113 | Tenderness in anatomical snuff box is characteristic of which carpal bone fracture? | [
"Scaphoid",
"Capitate",
"Lunate",
"Triquetrum"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Scaphoid Clinical features of scaphoid fracture* History of fall on outstretched hand* Pain and fullness in the wrist, especially on radial side in the region of anatomical snuffbox (AI 92, AIIMS 90).* Movements at wrist are painful.* Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox* A force transmitted along the axis of second metacarpal or pressure along the thumb produces pain in the region of scaphoid. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_114 | The Hormone which forms the basis for 'Basal Body Temperature' as a method of detecting ovulation is : | [
"Estrogen",
"Progesterone",
"HCG",
"Oxytocin"
] | This Method is based on the fact that after ovulation, progesterone level in the blood increases Progesterones have a Thermogenic effect, increasing the basal metabolic rate and causing the rise of temperature by 0.5degF the luteal phase. Day of 'temperature shift' indicates the time of ovulation. | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_115 | Crown root ratio in Permanent dentition is | [
"1:04",
"1:02",
"1:03",
"1:01"
] | null | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_116 | Which is the most common congenital cardiac defect? | [
"TAPVC",
"Transposition of great arteries",
"Ventricular septal defect",
"Atrial septal defect"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ventricular septal defect o VSD is the most common congenital heart diseaseo TOF is the commonest cyanotic congenital heart disease | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_117 | All of the following are true about the therapy of tuberculosis EXCEPT : | [
"Flu like syndrome is usually seen with rifampicin being taken on daily basis",
"Ethambutol accumulates in renal failure",
"Hyperuricemia is a recognized side effect of pyrazinamide",
"Red green color impairment is an early sign of ethambutol induced optic neuritis"
] | Flu-like syndrome is seen more commonly when rifampicin is administered on alternate days.
Only first line antitubercular drug that does not require an adjustment in renal failure is rifampicin.
Pyrazinamide and ethambutol can cause hyperuricemia.
Ethambutol causes red-green colour blindness as early appearing adverse effect. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_118 | Which among the following is indicative of bone resorption? | [
"Osteocalcin",
"Urine hydroxyproline",
"Bone specific alkaline phosphatase",
"Type 1 procollagen"
] | Markers of bone formation: Markers of bone resorption: Serum bone specific alkaline phosphatase --Serum osteocalcin Serum carboxy terminal extension peptide of pro-collagen-1 Serum type I collagen extension peptide Urine and serum cross-linked N telopeptides Urine and serum cross-linked C telopeptides Urine hydroxyproline Urine deoxypyridinoline Urine hydroxylysine glycosides Serum TRAP (Taarate resistant acid phosphatase) --Serum bone sialoprotein | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_119 | A newborn with meningomyelocele has been posted for surgery. The defect should be immediately covered with: | [
"Normal saline gauze",
"Povidone iodine gauze",
"Tincture benzoin gauze",
"Methylene blue gauze"
] | Ans. a. Normal saline gauze (Ref: Text Book of Pediatric Emergency Procedures by Christopher 2nd/496)Meningomyelocele should be covered with non-sticking sterile saline soaked gauze and plastic shield wrap to maintain moisture.Care of newborn with MeningomyeloceleMeningomyelocele (Neural tube defect) is characterized by cyst like swelling covered with skin or only a thin membrane protruding through a bony defect in the vertebra that contains meninges, CSF and spinal cord defects.The association of abnormalities of the spinal cord segments and nerve roots makes management of meningomyelocele a surgical emergency.The quality of survival depends on prompt management by an experienced and skilled team.Surgical correction should be performed within 48 hours.Immediately following delivery the infant should be placed in prone position and the meningomyelocele protected from drying, trauma and infection.This is generally accompanied by a non-adherent sterile saline dressing with a plastic shield wrap to maintain moisture.The lesion can be covered with a moistened tefla dressing and thin loosely encircled with a kerlix 'donut' with the entire defect covered with a sterile drape. The dressing can be moistened as indicated.Povidone iodine should be avoided as this is a neurotoxic substance.Use of latex gloves and equipment should be avoided because of high incidence of development of latex allergy in these patients. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_120 | Which of the following is true about Secular trend - | [
"Road side accident is a good example",
"Due to environmental factors",
"Is due to normally occuring variation in herd immunity",
"Consistent change in a paicular direction over a period of time"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Consistent change in a paicular direction over a period of time The term 'Secular trend' implies changes in the occurrence of disease i.e. a progressive increase or decrease in incidence over a long period of time, such as several years or decades. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_121 | HIV renal specific nephropathy- | [
"FSGS",
"Membrano proliferative",
"Mesangioproliferative G N.",
"Membranous glomerulonephritis"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., FSGS Collapsing glomerulopathy:o It is the characteristic glomerulopathy associated with HIV infectionQ.o HIV can result in various glomerulopathies such as acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis including IgA nephropathy, MPGN and membranous glomerulopathy.o But the classical glomerulopathy associated with HIV infection is collapsing glomerulopathy.Collansine elomerulopathv is actually an aggressive form of "focal seemental glomerulosclerosis".Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is characterized by sclerosis of some but not all glomeruli (thus it is focal) and in the affected glomeruli only a portion of the capillary) tuft is involved.In contrast, collapsing glomerulopathy is characterized by collapse and sclerosis of the entire glomerular tuffQ' (in addition to the usual focal segmental glomerular lesions)."Characteristic feature is proliferation and hypertrophy of glomerular visceral epithelial cellsQ."Remember thisThe minimum diasnostic criteria for defining a collapsing variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is :o The presence by light microscopy of at least one glomerulus showing segmental or global obliteration of the glomerular capillary lumen by wrinkling and collapse of glomerular basement membrance in association with hypertrophy and hyperplasia of overlying visceral epithelial cells.o The other characteristic features which distinguishes HIV associated nephropathy from FSGS.Presence of tubuloreticular inclusionsQAggresive clinical course. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_122 | True about dysgerminoma of ovary | [
"Blood spread seen",
"Schiller-Duval bodies seen",
"Radiosensitive",
"All"
] | All Blood spread seen; Bleomycin, etoposide and cisplatin given; and Radio sensitive Dysgerminoma are germ cell tumours. I have already discussed dysgerminoma in detail in question no. 2, here I would like to point out about the spread of dysgerminoma. Most common mode of spread - Lymphatics. Can also spread by - Blood or Direct spread. Metastatic sites : Ovary (Thus dysgerminoma is another tumour besides granulosa cell tumour which shows metastasis to opposite ovary) Lower veebrae Lungs, liver and brain Mediastinum and supraclavicular lymph nodes Dysgerminoma is the most radiosensitive tumour but radiotherapy is not the TOC as feility is impaired by Radiotherapy Treatment of Choice is Surgery. For recurrent tumour : Chemotherapy .A.fith REP i.e. bleomycin. etoposide and cisplatin.deg | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_123 | Collapsing glomerulopathy, features are | [
"Tuft necrosis",
"Mesangiolysis",
"Parietal epithelial proliferation",
"Hyperophy and necrosis of visceral epithelium"
] | Hyperophy and necrosis of visceral epithelium It is the characteristic glomerulopathy associated with HIV infection. HIV can result in various glomerulopathies such as acute diffuse proliferative glonterulonephritis, inesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis including IgA nephropathy, MPGN and membranous glomerulopathy. But the classical glomerulopathy associated with HIV infection is collapsing ehnnerulopathy. Collapsing glomerulopathy is actually an aggressive form of focal segmental glonzerulosclerosis. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is characterized by sclerosis of some but not all glomeruli (thus it is focal) and in the affected glomeruli only a poion of the capillary tuft is involved. In contrast, collapsing glomerulopathy is characterized by collapse and sclerosis of the entire glomerular tuft (in addition to the usual. focal segmental glomerular lesions). Characteristic feature is proliferation and hyperophy of glomerular visceral epithelial cells. Remember this The minimum diagnostic criteria for defining a collapsing variant of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is : The presence by light microscopy of at least one glomerulus showing segmental or global obliteration of the glomerular capillary lumen by wrinkling and collapse of glomerular basement membrance in association with hyperophy and hyperplasia of overlying visceral epithelial cells. The other characteristic features which distinguishes HIV associated nephropathy from FSGS. - Presence of tubuloreticular inclusions Aggresive clinical course. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_124 | In extra-capsular cataract surgery , which pa of the lens is excised: September 2008 | [
"Anterior capsule",
"Posterior capsule",
"Nucleus",
"Whole lens"
] | Ans. C: Nucleus Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE) is a category of eye surgery in which the nucleus of the lens of the eye is removed andcoical content washed out, while the elastic capsule that covers the lens is left paially intact to allow implantation of an intraocular lens (104 This approach is contrasted with intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE), an older procedure in which the complete lens is removed with its capsule and left the eye aphakic (without a lens). | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_125 | A young motorist suffered injuries in a major road traffic accident. He was diagnosed to have fracture of left femur and left humerus. He was also having fractures of multiple ribs anteriorly on both the sides. On examination the blood pressure was 80/60 mm Hg. and hea rate was 140/minute. The patient was agitated, restless, and tachypenic. Jugular veins were distended. Air entry was adequate in both the lung fields. Hea sounds were barely audible. Femoral pulses were weakly palpable but distally no pulsation could be felt. On priority basis, the immediate intervention would be : | [
"Rapid blood transfusion.",
"Urgent pericardial tap",
"Intercostal tube drainage on both the sides.",
"Fixation of left femur & repair of femoral aery"
] | Answer is B (Urgent pericardial tap) `If manifestations of pericardial tamponade appear pericardiocentesis must be carried out at once; since relief of intrapericardial pressure may be life saving' This patient is a case of acute tamponade as seen after cardiac trauma as suggested by the classical findings of : Falling aerial pressure Increased venous pressure and Faint hea sounds In case of tamponade pericardiocentesis (pericardial tap) should be carried out at once, as the release of intrapericardial pressure is life saving. Rapid blood transfusion though essential will be effective only once pericardial tap decompresses the pericardium and enables the hea to pump normally. Intercostal tube drainage is not indicated as air entry is adequate in both lung fileds. Fixation of femur and repair of femoral aery is not the immediate priority. Weak femoral pulsation may be a manifestation of falling aerial pressure due to cardiac tamponade and need to be explored only if patient fails to improve after pericardial tap and blood transfusion. | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_126 | Uses of platelet activating factor (PAF) are all EXCEPT | [
"Rupture of mature graffian follicle and implantation",
"Haemostasis and thrombosis",
"Bronchial asthma",
"Congestive heart failure"
] | (Congestive heart failure) (182-83-KDT 6th)Pathophysiological role of PAF 1. Inflammation - Generated by leukocytes at the site of inflammation, PAF appears to participate in the causation of vasodilation, exudation, cellular infiltration and hyperalgesia2. Bronchial asthma - producing prolonged airway hyper- reactivity 3. Anaphylactic (and other) shock conditions4. Haemostasis and thrombosis 5. Rupture of mature graffian follicle and implantation6. Ischaemic states of brain, heart and g.i.t including GIT. ulcerationPlatelet Activating Factor (PAF) - is a cell membrane derived polar lipid with intense biological activity* PAF is acetyl-glyceryl ether- phosphoryl choline* PAF antagonist is - ginkgolide - BPlatelet - Aggregation Inhibitors - Abciximab, Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Dipyridamole, Eptifibatide, Ticlopidine, TirofibanAnticoagulants - Argatroban, Dalteparin, Enoxaparin, Fondaparinus, Heparin, Lepirudin, Warfarin | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_127 | Most common orbital cyst in children is | [
"Neuroenteric cyst",
"Dermoid cyst",
"Lymphoma",
"Clobomatous cyst"
] | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 417) Epidermal dermoid cyst (dermoid) is the most common orbital cystic lesion in children, accounting for over 40% of all orbital lesions of childhood and for 89% of all orbital cystic lesions of childhood that come to biopsy or surgical removal.the most impoant secondary cyst is a mucocele that can occur in children with cystic fibrosis Orbital dermoid cysts are benign congenital choristomas. They are common in pediatric population, developing adjacent to suture lines, most commonly located in antero-lateral fronto-zygomatic suture, and are slowly progressive. Complete surgical excision without rupture of cyst is the standard of care | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_128 | LASER that can be used in treatment of ureteric calculi | [
"CO2 laser",
"Nd-Yag",
"Holmium",
"All of the above"
] | null | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_129 | Bruise in the following areas do NOT show typical colour changes: September 2003 | [
"Ear lobes",
"Tongue",
"Conjunctiva",
"Genitalia"
] | Ans. C i.e. Conjunctiva | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_130 | IQ level of intelligence 90-109 is: March 2013 (c, g) | [
"Borderline",
"Normal",
"Low normal",
"Superior"
] | Ans. B i.e. Normal | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_131 | Not a radiological feature of rickets – | [
"Splaying of metaphysis",
"Cupping of metaphysis",
"Subluxation of epiphysis",
"Widening of metaphysis"
] | Subluxation of epiphysis is not a radiological feature of rickets.
Radiological signs of rickets have been explained earlier. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_132 | Ophthalmic finding of acute meningococcal meningitis are all except | [
"Ocular motility palsy",
"Papilloedema",
"Optic neuritis",
"Glaucoma"
] | Answer- D. GlaucomaOphthalmic manifestations of meningococcal meningitis include ocular motility abnormalities due to third, fouh, and sixth nerve palsies and nystagmus.Raised intracranial pressure associated with meningitis may cause papilloedema and secondary optic atrophy.Optic neuritis and papillitis are potential causes of visual loss in Patients with meningitis. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_133 | Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat both methicillin resistant and vancomycin resistant staphylococcus aureus infection | [
"Clarithromcycin",
"Clindamycin",
"Linezolid",
"Lincomycin"
] | Ref-KDT 6/e p733 Linezolid is a prescription drug used as an antibiotic to treat ceain serious bacterial infections. It works by stopping the growth of bacteria. Linezolid treats only bacterial infections. It will not work for viral infections (such as common cold, flu | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_134 | Mercaptoethanol splits Ig molecule into | [
"Two H and two L chains",
"Two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment",
"One Fab and two Fc",
"Two H and one L chain"
] | It cleaves only disulphide bonds thus forming two H and two L chains. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_135 | All of the following Mesenteries are present in an Adult, except: | [
"Mesentery of transverse colon",
"Mesenery of appendix",
"Mesentry of sigmoid colon",
"Mesentery of Rectum"
] | The mesenteries of the ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum are lost in adults and become retroperitoneal. Mesentery of the Midgut and Hindgut and its derivatives (dorsal common mesentery) The abdominal pa of the midgut and hindgut only possesses a dorsal mesentery, In the area of the jejunum and ileum it forms the mesentery proper. The dorsal mesentery of the jejunum and ileum is the mesentery proper In the area of the colon it is called the dorsal mesocolon and forms the following mesenteries Mesentery of transverse colon- Transverse Mesocolon Mesentery of Appendix: Mesoappendix Mesentery of Sigmoid colon: Sigmoid Mesocolon The mesenteries of the ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum are lost by Zygosis as a result they become retroperitonealized. Note: The mesentery in the area of the duodenum is called the dorsal mesoduodenum. This however also disappears. Ref: Vishram Singh 2nd edition Pgno: 80 | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_136 | Paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve true is - | [
"Common in (Lt.) side",
"50 % idiopathic",
"Cord will lie laterally",
"Speech therapy given"
] | Left recurrent laryngeal nerve is more prone to paralysis compared to right one because of its much longer course. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_137 | All are true about renal cell carcinoma, except ? | [
"Invades Renal Vein",
"Hematuria may occur",
"Arises from proximal convoluted tubule",
"More common in females"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., More common in femalesRenal cell carcinoma (Adenocarcinoma of the kidney) o Also known as hypernephroma.o Renal cell carcinoma occurs usually in the sixth and seventh decades of life. o There is male preponderance in the ratio of 2 to 3 : 1.Risk factorsSmoking (most significant) o CRFo Obesity, hypeension. o Tuberus sclerosis o Unopposed estrogen therapyo Exposure to asbestos, petroleum product and heavy metals.o Familial -* Von Hippel - Lindau syndrome, hereditary papillary carcinoma. Pathologyo The tumor may arise in any poion of the kidney but more commonly affects upper pole.o Most common type of RCC, i.e. clear cell carcinoma arises from proximal tubular epithelium.o Papillary type of carcinoma arises from distal convoluted tubules.o The tumor appears yellow due to accumulation of lipids in tumor cells.o The one of the striking characteristics of this tumor is its tendence to invade the renal vein.Clinical courseo The three classical diagnostic features (classical triad) of renal cell carcinoma are costoveebral pain, palpable mass and hematuria.o The most reliable of three is hematuria.o Others are -a Constitutional symptoms Paraneoplastic syndrome --> Polycythemia, hypercalcemia, hypeension, feminization or masculization, cushing syndrome, eosinophilia, leukemoid reaction, hepatic dysfunction, and amyloidosis.Metastasiso Lungs the most common site.o Others ---> bone, lymph nodes, liver and adrenal, brain in the decreasing order of frequency. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_138 | DOC for chemoprophylaxis of plague- | [
"Tetracycline",
"Erythromycin",
"Vancomycin",
"Streptomycin"
] | null | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_139 | Fick's operation and Cody Tack's procedure is for ? | [
"Otosclerosis",
"Meniere's disease",
"Atrophic rhinitis",
"Benign positional paroxysmal veigo"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Meniere's disease Meniere's disease Surgical management Surgical therapy for meneire's disease is reserved for medical treatment failures and is otherwise controversial. Surgical procedures can be divided into two main categories Destructive surgical procedures Nondestructive surgical procedures Destructive surgical procedures Labyrinthectomy Intermittent low pressure pulse therapy (Meniett device therapy) Conservative surgical procedures Decompression of endolymphatic sac Endolymphatic shunt operation Sacculotomy (Fick's operation & Cody's tack procedure) Vestibular neuronectomy Ultrasonic destruction of vestibular labyrinth to preserve cochlear function. Stellate ganglion block or cervical sympathectomy Intratympanic gentamycin Vestibular nerve section | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_140 | Which of these is used to measure contraceptive efficacy? | [
"Pearl index",
"William rate",
"Quasi-rate",
"AFS score"
] | The use-effectiveness of contraceptive method is expressed by Pearl rate . Pearl rate or pearl index was introduced by Raymond Pearl in 1932. It is calculated as: total accidental pregnancies x 1200 / number of women observed x total months of contraceptive use It is expessed as HWY (hundred women years) AFS ( American feility Society ) score predicts severity of endometriosis and risk of recurrence after surgery | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_141 | Which of the following is a known effect of dengue to fetuses, if mother is affected: | [
"Abortion",
"Teratogenicity",
"IUGR",
"None of the above"
] | Ans. is d i.e. None of the aboveRef Fernando arias 4/e, pg313-314Dengue Fever in PregnancyMaterial risks:a. Associated with high maternal mortalityb. Deranged liver functions may mimic HELLP syndrome.Fetal risks:No evidence of teratogenicity, abortion or IUGR following dengue infection during pregnancy.Vertical transmission is present.Newborn presents with fever, hepatomegaly and thrombocytopenia. In grave infection, newborn may show coagulopathy. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_142 | A 30-year-old male attends blood transfusion department for platelet apheresis. He has not donated blood before. During apheresis, he suddenly feels tingling around the mouth, numbness in the arm. An ECG was taken and shows ST segment elevation. What is the reason? | [
"Blood phobia",
"Due to first time transfusion",
"Citrate toxicity",
"Hypothermia"
] | ANS. CThe diagnosis of the above question is hypocalcemia due to excess citrate producing symptoms of hypocalcemic tetany.ECG--characteristics of hypocalcemia | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_143 | Mechanism of action of chloramphenicol is- | [
"Preventing binding of t RNA to ribosome",
"Cell wall lysis",
"cessation of peptide chain elongation",
"Inhibiting cell wall synthesis"
] | Tetracyclines are the drugs that bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomes. Chloramphenicol binds to 50S ribosome and interferes with peptide bond formation and transfer of peptide chain from p site to a site thereby inhibiting polypeptide elongation (Ref : essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathy ) Chloramphenicol binds to 50S subunit--interferes with peptide bond formation and transfer of peptide chain from 'P' site. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_144 | A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anaesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours. Which one of the following induction agents is preferred? | [
"Propofol",
"Ketamine",
"Diazepam",
"Thiopentone sodium"
] | Propofol has replaced the barbiturates for induction of anesthesia in the ambulatory setting because of its orable recovery profile. Recovery after induction of anesthesia with propofol is faster than with the barbiturate compounds and it is associated with low incidence of post operative nausea and vomiting. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 344 ; Miller's Anesthesia, 6th Edition, Pages 2602-3 | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_145 | The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except - | [
"It is zoonosis",
"Man is the dead end host",
"Man is an accidental host",
"Lice acts as reservoirs of infection"
] | <p> Rats and small rodents- paicularly R.norvegicus and Mus musculoskeletal are the most impoant vectors. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:292. <\p> | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_146 | Drug of choice for Hypertensive emergency is | [
"IV Clevidipine",
"IV Nicardipine",
"IV Diltiazem",
"IV Verapamil"
] | IV Nicardipine is the drug of choice for hypertensive emergency followed by IV Clevidipine.
These are calcium channel blockers and β - blockers should be given along with them to prevent tachycardia. | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_147 | A 2 year old known case of RHD presents with 3 wks history of fever, hematuria and palpitation diagnosis is – | [
"Streptococcal endocarditis",
"Collagen vascular disease",
"Reactivation",
"Staphylococcal endocarditis"
] | Any fever in a patient with known heart disease raises the question of endocarditis. It can occur over the mitral valve or Aortic valve in patient with Rheumatic fever.
The minimum criteria for the diagnosis of endocarditis consists of unexplained fever of 7-10 days duration in a patient with known heart disease. If this is associated with other clinical manifestations of endocarditis, the diagnosis becomes more firm. (In this case besides fever, hematuria and palpitations are other 2 symptoms of endocarditis).
Major clinical manifestation of infective endocarditis: - | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_148 | Which of the following hormones is an example of a peptide hormone? | [
"Parathormone",
"Adrenaline",
"Coisol",
"Thyroxine"
] | Parathormone is a peptide hormone formed by the parathyroid glands; it raises the serum calcium levels when administered parenterally by causing bone resorption, reducing renal clearance of calcium and increasing efficiency of calcium absorption in the intestine.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 377 | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_149 | Coicosteroid with maximum sodium retaining potential? | [
"Dexamethasone",
"Prednisolone",
"Aldosterone",
"Betamethasone"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Aldosterone o Aldosterone has maximum mineralocoicoid activity, i.e. salt (sodium) retaining activity. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_150 | Which of the following is not a side effect of phenytoin ? | [
"Hypoglycemia",
"Osteomalacia",
"Gum hypertrophy",
"Lymphadenopathy"
] | null | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_151 | An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 month h/o an ill defined hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Ptyriasis alba",
"Indeterminate leprosy",
"Morphacea",
"Calcium deficiency"
] | B i.e. Indeterminate leprosy | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_152 | In central serous retinopathy, in the macular region, there occurs | [
"Spontaneous detachment of neuro-sensory retina",
"Macular oedema",
"Detachment of pigment epithelium",
"Detachment of choroid"
] | Ans. . Spontaneous detachment of neuro-sensory retina | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_153 | Most common type of oral carcinoma is | [
"Lip",
"Cheek",
"Tongue",
"palate"
] | null | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_154 | When P.D. probing in gingivitis done, depth is measured
from | [
"Base of pocket to CD",
"Base of pocket to free marginal gingiva",
"Marginal gingiva to CEJ",
"Junctional epithelium to free gingival margin"
] | null | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_155 | Incisive foramen transmits: | [
"Greater palatine artery and greater palatine nerve",
"Greater palatine artery and lesser palatine nerve",
"Greater palatine artery and sphenopalatine nerve",
"Greater palatine artery and nasopalatine nerve"
] | Incisive foramina is located behind the central incisor teeth in the incisive fossa of the maxilla (hard palate).
It receives the nasopalatine nerves from the floor of the nasal cavity along with the greater palatine vessels supplying the mucous membrane covering the hard palate of the mouth. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_156 | All the following structures pass through Aoic opening except | [
"Aoa",
"Thoracic duct",
"Azygous vein",
"Right Phrenic Nerve"
] | The aoic opening is osseoaponeurotic. It lies at the lower border of the 12th thoracic veebra. It transmits:a. Aoab. Thoracic ductc. Azygos veinThe oesophageal opening lies in the muscular pa of the diaphragm, at the level of the 10th thoracic veebra. It transmits:a. Oesophagusb. Gastric or vagus nervesc. Oesophageal branches of the left gastric aery, with some oesophageal veins that accompany the aeries.The vena caval opening lies in the central tendon of the diaphragm at the level of the 8th thoracic veebra. It transmits:a. The inferior vena cavab. Branches of the right phrenic nerve.c. Lymphatics of liverReference: Chaurasia Volume II; 7th edition; Page no: 363 | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_157 | A 53-year-old man presents to casualty with severe chest pain. He has a history of angina. ECG shows ST elevation of 4 mm in leads V1-V4. Thrombolysis is done but pain and ECG findings are persisting even 90 minutes after sta of thrombolysis. What is the best management of this patient? | [
"Rescue PCI",
"Primary PCI",
"Delayed PCI",
"IV Abciximab"
] | On treatment, ST elevation reduces gradually in 90 mins In this patient ST elevation doesn't come down even after thrombolysis. Failed thrombolysis--> Do Rescue PCI (Per cutaneous coronary interventions) Other options Primary PCI --> For STEMI Delayed PCI--> For NSTEMI IV Abciximab-->For NSTEMI | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_158 | As per IPHS norms, the proposed number of Female health worker at Sub-center: | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"None"
] | Subcentre norms (IPHS) Manpower Existing Proposed Health worker (female) 1 2 Health worker (male) 1 1 Voluntary worker 1 (Optional) 1 (Optional) Total 2/3 3/4 | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_159 | Ramnath attends the ophthalmology outpatient clinic in Kanpur, with yellowish white patch on the bulbar conjunctiva, near limbus. Which of the following is false regarding this condition? | [
"There is elastotic degeneration of the substantia propria",
"Its always unilateral",
"The treatment is excision",
"May rarely undergo conversion into pterygium"
] | The condition described here is typical presentation of Pinguecula which is usually bilateral. Though treatment is not routinely required, it can be excised. Ref: A K Khurana, 2nd Edition, Page 105. | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_160 | 1/68 DI.C. is seen in- | [
"Acute promyelocytic leukemia",
"Acute myelomonocytic leukemia",
"CMC",
"Autoimmune hemolytic anemia"
] | Abstract Malignancy is associated with a "hypercoagulable" state and a high risk for thrombohemorrhagic complications. Clinical complications may range from localized thrombosis to bleeding of varying degrees of severity because of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Life-threatening bleeding is frequent in acute leukaemias, particularly in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL).
Laboratory assessments show a profound hemostatic imbalance in this condition, with activation of coagulation, fibrinolysis, and nonspecific proteolysis systems. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_161 | Problems encountered during instrumentation : | [
"Ledging.",
"Stripping / lateral wall Perforation .",
"Zipping.",
"All of the above."
] | Problems Encountered during Instrumentation
Loss of working length due to a blockage of the canal system
Ledging (shelf formation)
Breakage of instrument
Deviation from the normal canal anatomy
Zipping (elliptication)
Stripping/lateral wall perforation
Inadequate canal preparation
Overinstrumentation (beyond apical constriction)
Over preparation (excessive removal of tooth structure)
Under preparation (insufficient canal preparation) | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_162 | Acid mucin is best demonstrated by the stain - | [
"Alcian blue",
"Periodic Acid Schiff (P.A.S.)",
"Van Gieson",
"Reticulin"
] | Mucin is produced by epithelial cells of mucous membrane & mucous glands, as well as by some connective tissues
Stains for mucin
Mucicarmine
Alcian blue.
Note :- Epithelial cell mucin stains positively with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS), while connective tissue mucin does not. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_163 | Complication of colies' fracture are all EXCEPT | [
"Malunion",
"Carpal tunnel syndrome",
"Shoulder-hand syndrome",
"Gun stock deformity"
] | i.e. (Gun stock deformity): (95-96-J-Maheshwari 3rd)Gun-stock deformity (Cubitus varus deformity) is a malunion late complication of supracondylar fracture of the humerus. This is because the fracture unites with the distal fragment tilted medially and in internal rotation - Treatment French OsteotomyComplication of Colie's Fracture1. Stiffness of Joints - Commonest complications, the shoulder, wrist and elbow are the other joints to become stiff.2. Malunion - The cause of malunion is redisplacement of the fracture within the plaster so that a "dinner fork deformity"? results3. Sub luxation of the inferior radio-ulnar joint4. Carpal tunnel syndrome - Malunion of Colles fracture crowds the carpal tunnel and compresses the median nerve5. Sudeck's osteodystrophy - due to an abnormal sympathetic reponse which causes vasodialation and osteoporosis at site6. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon occurs due to attrition of tendon as it glides over the sharp fracture surfaces7. Frozen shoulder - hand syndrome - This is a troublesome complication which develops due to unnecessary voluntary shoulder immobilization by the patient on the affected side for the fear of fracture displacement8. Carpal instability | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_164 | True about Penicillin G | [
"It can be given orally",
"It is has broad spectrum activity",
"Used for treatment rat bite fever",
"Probenecid given along with PnG decrease its direction of action"
] | Ans. c. Used for treatment of rat bite fever Penicillin G MOA: It inhibits cell wall synthesis b.y interfering with the transpeptidation reactiondeg. b-lactam antibiotics and are used in the treatment of bacterial infections caused by susceptible, usually Gram-positive, organisms. Acid-labile, destroyed by gastric acid, so not given by oral route. Probenecid is given along with Penicillin G, increase its action because it has high affinity for the tubular OATP, so it blocks the transpo of penicillin and increase its efficacy. Probenecid also decreases volume of distribution of penicillin G. DOC for: Anthrax Actinomycosis Trench mouth Rat bite fever | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_165 | Trotter&;s triad includes all except | [
"Sensory disturbance over distribution of 5th cranial nerve",
"Conductive deafness",
"Diplopia",
"Palatal palsy"
] | Trotter&;s traid:- Nasopharyngeal cancer can cause conductive deafness (eustachian tube blockage), ipsilateral temporoparietal neuralgia (involvement of CN V) and palatal paralysis (CN X)-- collectively called Trotter's triad. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-251 | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_166 | Oral Contraceptive Pills are protective from all of the following conditions except ? | [
"Endometriosis",
"Ovarian Carcinoma",
"Benign Breast Disease",
"Deep Venous Thrombosis"
] | Deep Venous Thrombosis | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_167 | which is the antipsychotic which selectively acts on the mesolimbic pathway and does not inhibit dopamin in mesocoical pathaway | [
"aripiprazole",
"haloperidol",
"flupenthixol",
"pimozide"
] | ARIPIPRAZOLE * Paial agonist action * Selectively blocks dopamine in mesolimibic pathway, hence improves positive symptoms without worsening negative symptoms * Used in risperidone induced hyoperprolactinemia Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 925 | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_168 | A 76-year-old woman presents with a 1-hour history of sub- sternal chest pain. Shortly after admission the patient expires. At autopsy, extensive calcium deposits are noted in the coronary and other arteries affected by severe atherosclerosis. Which of the following terms best describes these autopsy findings? | [
"Dystrophic calcification",
"Hyperplastic calcification",
"Hypertrophic calcification",
"Metastatic calcification"
] | Dystrophic calcification is a response to cell injury Serum levels of calcium are normal, and the calcium deposits are located in previously damaged tissue. This patient suffered from coronary artery atherosclerosis. The pathogenesis of the atherosclerotic plaque is a dynamic process that usually occurs over decades, leading to erosion, ulceration or fissuring of the surface of the plaque; plaque hemorrhage; mural thrombosis; and calcification. Calcification is thought to depend on a balance of mineral deposition and resorption in areas of vascular necrosis. These apposing metabolic processes are regulated by osteoblast-like and osteoclast-like cells in the vessel wall. Metastatic calcification (choice D) is associated with hypercalcemia. Physiologic calcification (choice E) occurs in normal bone.Diagnosis: Atherosclerosis, dystrophic calcification | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_169 | Iodine requirement during lactation is | [
"100 mcg per day",
"150 mcg per day",
"220 mcg per day",
"290 mcg per day"
] | IODINE REQUIREMENT India has adopted WHO guidelines of Iodine requirement 150 mcg per day in Adults, 250 mcg per day in pregnancy and Lactation US recommended daily allowances (RDA) for iodine intake are 150 mcg in adults, 220-250 mcg in pregnant women, and 250-290 mcg in breastfeeding women. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 662 | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_170 | All are indications for surgery in ulcerative colitis except | [
"Dysplasia, carcinoma",
"Massive colonic bleeding",
"Toxic megacolon",
"Primary sclerosing cholangitis"
] | Colectomy has no effect on the course of primary sclerosing cholangitis. Indications for the surgical management of ulcerative colitis include fulminant colitis with toxic megacolon, massive bleeding, intractable disease, and dysplasia or carcinoma. Malnutrition and growth retardation may necessitate resection in pediatric and adolescent patients.Ref: Sabiston 20e pg: 1344 | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_171 | Acceptable or justifiable homicides are all, except: NIMHANS 14 | [
"Judicial execution",
"Self-defense",
"Preventing rape",
"Taking revenge"
] | Ans. Taking revenge | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_172 | The pa of the male urethra where the urethral crest is situated in is: | [
"Penile urethra",
"Pre-prostatic urethra",
"Prostatic urethra",
"Membranous urethra"
] | The Urethral Crest is a midline, longitudinal, ridge like projection of mucosa which lies on the posterior wall of prostatic urethra.Ref: Clinical Anatomy By Richard S. Snell, 6th edition, Pages 327, 370; Clinical Anatomy (A Problem Solving Approach) By Neeta V Kulkarni, 2nd edition, Pages 791, 792. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_173 | Monozygotic twins do not have same- | [
"Fingerprints",
"Genetic make up",
"Facial appearance",
"Stature"
] | Ans. is "a' i.e., Fingerprints o Monozygotic twins are a result of the division of the single fertilized egg into two embryos. Thus, they have exactly identical DNA, except for the generally undetectable micromutations that begin as soon as the cell starts dividing.o Fingerprints of the identical twins start their development from the same DNA so they show considerable genetic similarity.o However identical twins are situated in different parts of the womb during development, so each fetus encounters slightly different intrauterine forces than their siblings.o As a result fingerprints of the identical twins have different microdetails which can be used for identification purposes. | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_174 | Which of the following is an example of Labile tissue? | [
"Transitional epithelium of the urinary tract",
"Parenchyma of most solid organs",
"Neurons",
"Skeletal muscles"
] | The ability of tissues to repair themselves is determined, in part, by their intrinsic proliferative capacity. In some tissues called labile tissues, cells are constantly being lost and must be continually replaced by new cells that are derived from tissue stem cells and rapidly proliferating immature progenitors. These types of tissues include hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow and many surface epithelia, such as the basal layers of the squamous epithelia of the skin, oral cavity, vagina, and cervix; the cuboidal epithelia of the ducts draining exocrine organs (e.g., salivary glands, pancreas, biliary tract); the columnar epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract, uterus, and fallopian tubes; and the transitional epithelium of the urinary tract. These tissues can readily regenerate after injury as long as the pool of stem cells is preserved.
Robin’s Textbook of pathology 10th ed Page 88 | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_175 | In the tooth reduction for 3/4th crown the functional
bevel is placed | [
"At 45° angle to the long axis",
"Parallel to cuspal inclination of opposing tooth",
"Such that it forms an acute angle",
"Parallel to inclination of the cuspal plane on which it rests"
] | null | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_176 | In starvation death, Gall bladder - | [
"Distended and empty",
"Distended with bile",
"Atrophied",
"Contracted"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Distended with bile PM appearance in death due to starvationo Complete disappearance of body fat.o Loss of mesenteric and omental fat, atrophic digestive tract, empty stomach no wider than colon, thin and transparent small intestine.o Distension of gall bladder due to accumulation of bile from lack of stimulation. | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_177 | Which is not associated with childhood obesity? | [
"Wilson-Mikity syndrome",
"Cushing's syndrome",
"Froehlich's syndrome",
"Laurence-Moon-Bardet-Biedl syndrome"
] | Wilson-Mikity syndrome is not associated with obesity. Causes of obesity.Endocrine causes: Cushing syndrome; Hypothyroidism; Growth hormone deficiency; Hyperinsulinemia; Hypothalamic dysfunction; Stein-Leventhal syndrome (polycystic ovary); Prader-Willi syndrome; Pseudohypoparathyroidism type I Genetic syndromes: Turner syndrome; Laurence-Moon- Biedl syndrome; Alstrom-Hallgren syndrome Other syndromes: Cohen syndrome; Carpenter syndrome | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_178 | Type 1 Dentinogenesis imperfecta is caused by mutation in: | [
"DMP-1 gene",
"BSP- 1 gene",
"DSPP gene",
"SPP1 gene"
] | Type 1 Dentinogenesis imperfecta is caused by a mutation in the DSPP gene (gene map locus 4q21.3), encoding dentin phosphoprotein and dentin sialoprotein. While Type 2 is caused by DMP-1, BSP-1, SPP1 gene.
Ref: Shafer's textbook of oral pathology 7th edition page55 | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_179 | Which of the cephalometric parameter is used to diagnose a long face syndrome patient? | [
"ANB angle",
"SNA angle",
"Jaraback ratio",
"Saddle angle"
] | null | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_180 | Refeeding syndrome is due to increased release of the following hormone: | [
"Growth hormone",
"Glucocoicoids",
"Insulin",
"Thyroxine"
] | Refeeding syndrome occur with rapid and excessive feeding of patients with severe underlying malnutrition due to starvation, alcoholism, delayed nutritional suppo, anorexia nervosa, or massive weight loss in obese patients. With refeeding, a shift in metabolism from fat to carbohydrate substrate stimulates insulin release, which results in the cellular uptake of electrolytes, paicularly phosphate, magnesium, potassium, and calcium. However, severe hyperglycemia may result from blunted basal insulin secretion. The refeeding syndrome can be associated with enteral or parenteral refeeding, and symptoms from electrolyte abnormalities include cardiac arrhythmias, confusion, respiratory failure, and even death. Ref: Shires G. (2010). Chapter 3. Fluid and Electrolyte Management of the Surgical Patient. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_181 | Intramuscular injection of atropine causes initial bradycardia. The reason for this effect being seen is: | [
"Stimulation of medullary vagal centre",
"Stimulation of vagal ganglia",
"Blockade of M2 receptors of SA nodal cells",
"Blockade of muscarinic autoreceptor on vagal nerve endings"
] | Atropine is a non-selective antagonist of M1, M2 and M3 muscarinic receptors. M2 cholinergic receptors are responsible for bradycardia and blockade of these receptors can result in tachycardia. Atropine initially acts on presynaptic M1 receptors (normally decrease the release of ACh) and result in greater release of ACh which is responsible for bradycardia. Later on, blockade of M2 receptors will lead to tachycardia. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_182 | All about Abrus precatorius seeds are true, except | [
"Also called Indian liquorice",
"Active principle is N-methyl tryptophan",
"Inhibits protein synthesis of cells",
"Symptoms resemble cobra snake bite"
] | The plant is found all over India. Though all pas of the plant are poisonous, the seeds are commonly used as poison. They are of the size of a small pea and have an average weight of 120 mg. They are egg-shaped, having bright scarlet colour with a large black spot at one pole. Seeds may be white with black spot, all black, yellow or blue. The seeds contain an active principle abrin, a thermolabile toxalbumin and its actions resemble those of viperine snake bite with intense local symptoms and haemorrhages followed by general symptoms. In addition to this, seeds contain poisonous proteins, fat-splitting enzymes, abrussic acid, haemagglutinin and a quantity of urease. Ref: Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine, 5th edition pg : 477 | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_183 | Residual auditory defect is a common complication in meningitis caused by - | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Meningococcus",
"Escherichia coli",
"Hemophilus influenza"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hemophilus influenzae | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_184 | Cause of athletic pubalgia is | [
"Gluteus medius strain",
"Hamstring strain",
"Abdominal muscle strain",
"Rectus femoris strain"
] | Spos Hernia (Athletic Pubalgia) * Very Painful soft tissue injury that occurs in the lower abdominal or groin area. * Occurs in spos that involve sudden change of direction or intense twisting movement. * Most often affects the muscles within the lower abdomen CLINICAL SIGNS * Pain in the inguinal region, which may radiate to the thigh adductor muscle origins or to the scrotum and testicles, deeper , more proximal and more intense than an adductor or iliopsoas strain * Symptoms are usually unilateral (usually progresses to bilateral) * Point tenderness to the external ring of the inguinal canal and the pubis tubercle, the lower rectus abdominis musculature, or the pubic symphysis, without any palpable hernia. * Acute or chronic * Symptoms are usually exacerbated by kicking, sprinting, side-stepping, cutting, and/or performing sit-ups. * May complain of point tenderness over the superior-lateral pubis. * Pain exacerbation with cough or sneezing, or testicular pain in males Treatment * 4-6 week injury * Non-Surgical treatment: First 7-10 days, rest and ice (not directly to the skin) 15-20 minutes, 3-4 times a day. * 2 weeks in you may sta physical therapy exercises to improve strength and flexibility. * N SAID &;s * If pain returns after 4-6 weeks one may need surgery ref : maheswari 9th ed | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_185 | False vitality results are common in posterior tooth are most commonly due to | [
"Presence of vital pulp tissue in one of the canals",
"Thickness of the enamel",
"Presence of pulp stones",
"Thickness of dentine"
] | null | A |
medmcqa | medmcqa_186 | All the following are true about Laryngeal carcinoma except-a) More common in femalesb) Common in patients over 40 years of agec) After laryngectomy, esophageal voice can be usedd) Poor prognosis | [
"b",
"c",
"ad",
"ab"
] | Cancer Larynx
Most common histological type of laryngeal Ca - Squamous cell carcinoma (seen in 90% cases)
It is more common in males
Male: Female ratio is 4: 1) (option a is incorrect)
Most common age = 60-70 years.
Mnemonic
Aetiology: Risk factors:- Mnemonic “CA LARGES”
C – Chronic laryngitis
A – Alcohol
L – Leukoplakia
A – Asbestosis
R – Radiation
G – Mustard Gas
E – Exposure to petroleum products
S – Smoking
Prognosis of Laryngeal Cancer
Cure for larynx cancer, defined as 5 year disease free survival is generally better than for other primary site tumors of the aerodigestive tract. This reflects the prevalence of primary glottic tumors over supraglottic tumors and the early age at which glottic tumours are diagnosed (Hence option d is incorrect)
So option a and d are both incorrect but if one option is to be chosen, go for option ‘a’. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_187 | The first virological marker following acute hepatic infection if he has | [
"IgM Anti Hbc Ag",
"Hbs Ag",
"Anti Hbs Ag",
"Anti Hbe Ag"
] | null | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_188 | Radioiodine ablation is preferred in | [
"Pregnancy",
"Graves disease",
"Young patients",
"Post surgery papillary carcinoma"
] | Surgery is followed by RIA if thyroid tissue is left.
I131 is used which has a half life of 8 days. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_189 | Interferon gamma is used for treatment of - | [
"HBV",
"HCV",
"Osteopetrosis",
"Both HBV and HCV"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Osteopetrosis o Interferon alfa-2b and alfa-2a are used in --> chronic hepatitis B and C, and in some malignancies. o Interferon beta-la is used in multiple sclerosis. o Interferon gamma-lb is used in chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis. | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_190 | Which of the following surface protein is most often expressed in human hematopoietic stem cells? | [
"CD22",
"CD45",
"CD15",
"CD34"
] | . | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_191 | What is the treatment of choice for benign teian malaria ? | [
"Sulfamethaxazole - pyrimethamine",
"Quinine",
"Mefloquine",
"Chloroquine"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chloroquine . Benign teian malaria is caused by plasmodium vivax "Despite recent evidence of chloroquine resistance in P. vivax, chloroquine remains the treatment of choice for the benign human malarias (P vivax, P ovate, P malariae)". - Harrison | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_192 | Total body water at bih is:- | [
"90%",
"75%",
"60%",
"30%"
] | Total body water (TBW) constitutes: 90% of body weight in early fetal life 75% of body weight at bih 60% by the end of 1styear & remains so till pubey | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_193 | A laceration on the scalp is mistaken for | [
"Firearm wound",
"Incised wound",
"Stab wound",
"Contusion"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Incised wound LACERATIONS (Tear or Rupture)* Lacerations are tears or splits of skin, mucous membrane and underlying tissue (e.g., muscle or internal organs). Lacerations are produced by application of blunt force to broad area of the body, which crush or stretch tissues beyond the limits of their elasticity. Localized portions of tissue are displaced by the impact of the blunt force, which sets up traction forces and causes tearing of tissues. Features of lacerations arei) Hair and hair bulb, nerves and blood vessels are crushed - There may be paralysis (nerve crushed) and hemorrhage is not pronounced (blood vessels crushed).ii) Site of injury is the site of impact.iii) Shape of injury is irregular, margins are irregular and contused/abraded and show tags of tissue.iv) Size of injury does not corresponds to impacting surface.* There are following types of laceration: -1) Split laceration: Splitting occurs by crushing of skin between two hard objects. Blunt force on areas where the skin is close to rigid structures like bone with scanty subcutaneous tissue, may produce a wound that by linear splitting of tissue may look like incised wound, i.e., incised like or incised looking wound. Examples of such area are scalp, eye brows, cheek bones (zygomatic), lower jaw, iliac crest, perineum and skin. A wound produced by a fall on knee or elbow with limb flexed and by a sharp stone also simulates incised wound.2) Strech lacerations: Overstretching of the skin, if it is fixed, will cause laceration, for example, by kicking, sudden deformity of bone occurs after fracture, making it compound.3) Avulsion (shearing laceration): An avulsion is a laceration produced by sufficient force (shearing force) delivered at an acute angle to detach (tear off) a portion of a traumatized surface or viscus from its attachment, the shearing and grinding force by a weight. Flaying is type of avulsion in which shearing and grinding force by weight (such as of lorry wheel passing over a limb) may produce avulsion (separation of skin from underlying tissue/degloving of a large area).4) Tears: Tears of the skin and tissues can occur from imact by a against irregular or semi-sharp objects, such as door handle of a car. This is another form of overstretching.5) Cut laceration: Cut lacerations may be produced by a heavy sharp edged instrument. | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_194 | In plasmodium vivax malaria, relapse in caused by: | [
"Sporozoite",
"Schizont",
"Hypnozoite",
"Gametocyte"
] | Option A: In salivary glands of mosquitoes, infective to human beings Option B: They cause destruction of RBC leading to haemolysis Option D: Infective to mosquitoes. Male & female gametocytes fuse to form Oocyst / Ookinete - conveed to Sporozoite - Infectivity is spread Option C: Relapse for P. vivax & P. ovale | C |
medmcqa | medmcqa_195 | Middle conchae of nose are a part of? | [
"Nasal Bone",
"Ethmoid",
"Vomer",
"Maxilla"
] | null | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_196 | Rasmussen's aneurysm is seen in: | [
"Bronchial artery",
"Pulmonary",
"Vertebral artery",
"Internal carotid artery"
] | Rtf: American journal of Roentology, Jan 2000, vol 174, 262-263Explanation:The pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood from the R V across the pulmonary capillary- % bed & returns oxygenated blood via the pulmonary veins. This is a low pressure circuit.The bronchial circulation is a nutritional source for the lung. They branch from the aorta & is at systemic pressure, hence bleed profusely.Rasmussen's aneurysm is the aneurysm of small & medium pulmonary artey branches adjacent a tuberculous cavityDistributed peripherally, beyond the main pul. arteryCaused by granulomatous infiltration of intima & media of the artery by the tuberculous process in the nearby cavityCan cause hemoptysis, sometimes litethreateningTreatment- Pulmonary and bronchial artery embolisationOther causes of hemoptysis in a patient with PTB are1. Tubercular cavity2. Endobronchial tuberculosis3. Brock's syndrome4. Post-tubercular bronchiectasis5. AspergiHoina(funga] ball)6. Scar carcinomaCauses of hemoptysis:Tuberculosis, lung abscess, bronchiectasis, pneumonia, fungal infections (aspergillosis, nocardiosis, blastomycosis)Bronchogenic ca, bronchial adenoma, mets to lung (chorio ea, renal cell ca).Bronchiectasis, bronchial cyst, sequestration lungMitral stenosis. PAH, aortic aneurysm, AVM, pulmonary embolismVasculitis, wegner's, Goodpasture'sBleeding disorders | B |
medmcqa | medmcqa_197 | Which of the following regulators would MOST likely inhibit the lower esophageal sphincter in normal individuals? | [
"Acetylcholine and substance P",
"Substance P and nitric oxide",
"Substance P only",
"Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide and nitric oxide"
] | Physiologically impoant inhibitors of the lower esophageal sphincter include nitric oxide and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide. Physiologically impoant substances that stimulate the lower esophageal sphincter include acetylcholine and substance P. Also Know: VIP contains 28 amino acid residues. It is found in nerves in the gastrointestinal tract and thus is not itself a hormone, despite its similarities to secretin. VIP is, however, found in blood, in which it has a half-life of about 2 min. GIP contains 42 amino acid residues and is produced by K cells in the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum. Its secretion is stimulated by glucose and fat in the duodenum, and because in large doses it inhibits gastric secretion and motility, it was named gastric inhibitory peptide. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 25. Overview of Gastrointestinal Function & Regulation. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_198 | What should be the loss of hearing at least for weber's test to lateralise | [
"5 db",
"10 db",
"15 db",
"20 db"
] | Lateralisation of sound in Weber test with a tuning fork of 512Hz implies a conductive loss of 15-25 dB in the ipsilateral ear or an SNHL in the contralateral ear. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 22 | D |
medmcqa | medmcqa_199 | True regarding sick euthyroid syndrome | [
"Normal TSH, T3 , T4 level",
"Normal TSH, low T3, normal T4 level",
"High TSH, low T3, low T4 level",
"High TSH, low T3, high T4 level."
] | Hormone level in sick euthyroid syndrome usually of
Low T3 , nomal T4 , TSH – low T3 syndrome
Low T3, low T4 , normal TSH – low T4 syndrome- severe cases | B |
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