mkurman/medmcqa-hard · Datasets at Hugging Face

id stringlengths 36 36	input stringlengths 26 1.82k	opa stringlengths 1 287	opb stringlengths 1 287	opc stringlengths 1 286	opd stringlengths 1 301	cop int64 0 3	choice_type stringclasses 2 values	exp stringlengths 1 22.5k ⌀	subject_name stringclasses 21 values	topic_name stringlengths 3 135 ⌀	output stringlengths 4 290	options stringlengths 19 1.16k	letter stringclasses 56 values	incorrect_letters listlengths 3 3	incorrect_answers listlengths 3 3	single_incorrect_answer stringlengths 4 289	system_prompt stringclasses 1 value	messages listlengths 2 2
5e822f88-3b09-44e3-bc37-7655161cd67f	Yuzpe and Lance regimen for 'post -- coital' contraception : (A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours (B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days (C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months (D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours	100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours	Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours	Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months	200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days	0	multi	100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	(D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours	(A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours (B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days (C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months (D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours	(D)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]	[ "(A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours", "(B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days", "(C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months" ]	(C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Yuzpe and Lance regimen for 'post -- coital' contraception :\n\n(A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours\n(B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days\n(C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months\n(D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours", "role": "assistant" } ]
5ddbaad6-17a3-4aac-b91f-8fe5b4eecfcf	Creatinine is formed from all except - (1) Glycine (2) Asparagine (3) Arginine (4) Methionine	Glycine	Arginine	Methionine	Asparagine	3	multi	Ans. is 'd' i.e., Asparagine * The three aminoacids used for the synthesis of creatine are Glycine, Arginine and Methionine* In Kidney, Glycine reacts with Arginine in the presence of Arginine Glycine Amido Transferase to for Guanidoacetate and Ornithine* Guanidoacetate through circulation is taken to liver. In liver Guanidoacetate undergoes transmethylation reaction with S- Adenosyl Methionine in the presence of Guanidoacetate Methyl Transferase to form Creatine.* The creatine through circulation reaches tissues.* 90% of creatine is taken up by skeletal muscles and is phosphorylated by creatine Kinase to form creatine Phosphate.* This creatine phosphate acts as the immediate source of energy for skeletal muscle.	Biochemistry	Proteins and Amino Acids	(2) Asparagine	(1) Glycine (2) Asparagine (3) Arginine (4) Methionine	(2)	[ "(1)", "(3)", "(4)" ]	[ "(1) Glycine", "(3) Arginine", "(4) Methionine" ]	(3) Arginine	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Creatinine is formed from all except -\n\n(1) Glycine\n(2) Asparagine\n(3) Arginine\n(4) Methionine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(2) Asparagine", "role": "assistant" } ]
eee643ca-8dbf-4bf7-8918-e5ee60517976	Concealment of bih is punishable under: NEET 13 [A] Sec. 320 IPC [B] Sec. 317 IPC [C] Sec. 312 IPC [D] Sec. 318 IPC	Sec. 320 IPC	Sec. 312 IPC	Sec. 317 IPC	Sec. 318 IPC	3	single	Ans. Sec. 318 IPC	Forensic Medicine	null	[D] Sec. 318 IPC	[A] Sec. 320 IPC [B] Sec. 317 IPC [C] Sec. 312 IPC [D] Sec. 318 IPC	[D]	[ "[A]", "[B]", "[C]" ]	[ "[A] Sec. 320 IPC", "[B] Sec. 317 IPC", "[C] Sec. 312 IPC" ]	[B] Sec. 317 IPC	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Concealment of bih is punishable under: NEET 13\n\n[A] Sec. 320 IPC\n[B] Sec. 317 IPC\n[C] Sec. 312 IPC\n[D] Sec. 318 IPC", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[D] Sec. 318 IPC", "role": "assistant" } ]
804a6169-8793-47de-a599-88929cbe33b9	Which of the following tetracycline can be used in renal failure without dose adjustment? A. Oxytetracycline B. Tetracycline C. Demeclocycline D. Doxycycline	Oxytetracycline	Doxycycline	Demeclocycline	Tetracycline	1	single	null	Pharmacology	null	D. Doxycycline	A. Oxytetracycline B. Tetracycline C. Demeclocycline D. Doxycycline	D.	[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]	[ "A. Oxytetracycline", "B. Tetracycline", "C. Demeclocycline" ]	A. Oxytetracycline	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following tetracycline can be used in renal failure without dose adjustment?\n\nA. Oxytetracycline\nB. Tetracycline\nC. Demeclocycline\nD. Doxycycline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. Doxycycline", "role": "assistant" } ]
766b8c83-55da-415d-b13b-99fdfc648c46	Widmark's formula helps in the measurement of the blood level of - (A) Barbiturates (B) Cocaine (C) Alcohol (D) Benzodiazepines	Cocaine	Alcohol	Barbiturates	Benzodiazepines	1	single	The basis for calculating the approximate quantity of alcohol in the body, after equilibrium between the blood and the tissues has been reached, is expressed by the Widmark's formula a = p.r.c. a-Weight of alcohol in g in body p- the weight of the body in kg c- concentration of alcohol in blood in g/kg r- a constant obtained by dividing the average concentration of alcohol in the body by the average concentration of alcohol in the blood (0.085 for men, 0.055 for women) For urine, formula is- a=3/4 p.r.q., where q - concentration of alcohol in urine in mg/kg	Forensic Medicine	null	(C) Alcohol	(A) Barbiturates (B) Cocaine (C) Alcohol (D) Benzodiazepines	(C)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(D)" ]	[ "(A) Barbiturates", "(B) Cocaine", "(D) Benzodiazepines" ]	(D) Benzodiazepines	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Widmark's formula helps in the measurement of the blood level of -\n\n(A) Barbiturates\n(B) Cocaine\n(C) Alcohol\n(D) Benzodiazepines", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(C) Alcohol", "role": "assistant" } ]
0ab683cc-6750-413c-a9a4-1257daf47321	Anaerobic bacteria grow [1] in the absence of oxygen [2] differential media [3] in the presence of nitrogen [4] in the presence of oxygen	in the presence of oxygen	in the presence of nitrogen	in the absence of oxygen	differential media	2	single	null	Microbiology	null	[1] in the absence of oxygen	[1] in the absence of oxygen [2] differential media [3] in the presence of nitrogen [4] in the presence of oxygen	[1]	[ "[2]", "[3]", "[4]" ]	[ "[2] differential media", "[3] in the presence of nitrogen", "[4] in the presence of oxygen" ]	[4] in the presence of oxygen	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Anaerobic bacteria grow\n\n[1] in the absence of oxygen\n[2] differential media\n[3] in the presence of nitrogen\n[4] in the presence of oxygen", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[1] in the absence of oxygen", "role": "assistant" } ]
fac35a59-9e31-4f99-ad12-851cd2f2a6dc	What will not happen with inadequate resuspension? I. Malar prominence II. Witch chin III. Angle of mouth drooping IV. Temporal hollowing	Temporal hollowing	Angle of mouth drooping	Witch chin	Malar prominence	3	single	null	Surgery	null	I. Malar prominence	I. Malar prominence II. Witch chin III. Angle of mouth drooping IV. Temporal hollowing	I.	[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]	[ "II. Witch chin", "III. Angle of mouth drooping", "IV. Temporal hollowing" ]	II. Witch chin	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "What will not happen with inadequate resuspension?\n\nI. Malar prominence\nII. Witch chin\nIII. Angle of mouth drooping\nIV. Temporal hollowing", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. Malar prominence", "role": "assistant" } ]
a3721934-173e-44fb-a664-5ed4a9f53614	Bronchoalveloar lavage is beneficial in the evaluation of: a. Squamous cell cancer lung b. Bronchiectasis c. Bronchopleural fistula d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis	Squamous cell cancer lung	Bronchiectasis	Bronchopleural fistula	Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis	3	single	Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis can be diagnosed by Bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy and BAL may be helpful. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid appears "milky". Papanicolaou staining may reveal green and orange globules that are diagnostic for PAP. Electron microscopy of BAL may reveal characteristic multi-lamellar structures. Non small cell cancer lung is diagnosed by bronchoscopy with biopsy Bronchiectasis is diagnosed with HRCT scan Bronchopleural fistula is diagnosed with bronchoscopy and is usually a complication of lung cancer surgery	Medicine	Pleural effusion & Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis	d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis	a. Squamous cell cancer lung b. Bronchiectasis c. Bronchopleural fistula d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. Squamous cell cancer lung", "b. Bronchiectasis", "c. Bronchopleural fistula" ]	c. Bronchopleural fistula	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Bronchoalveloar lavage is beneficial in the evaluation of:\n\na. Squamous cell cancer lung\nb. Bronchiectasis\nc. Bronchopleural fistula\nd. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis", "role": "assistant" } ]
54cd413f-1c56-4c6b-8e7e-0ab46444c065	The toxicity of etambutol includes one of the following: (a) Peripheral neuritis (b) Red urine (c) Yellow colour blindness (d) Green colour blindness	Peripheral neuritis	Green colour blindness	Red urine	Yellow colour blindness	1	single	The optic neuritis is the most serious side effect of ethambutol manifesting as reduced visual acuity, central scotoma, and loss of ability to see green colour. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th edition, page : 1375	Medicine	null	(d) Green colour blindness	(a) Peripheral neuritis (b) Red urine (c) Yellow colour blindness (d) Green colour blindness	(d)	[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]	[ "(a) Peripheral neuritis", "(b) Red urine", "(c) Yellow colour blindness" ]	(b) Red urine	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "The toxicity of etambutol includes one of the following:\n\n(a) Peripheral neuritis\n(b) Red urine\n(c) Yellow colour blindness\n(d) Green colour blindness", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) Green colour blindness", "role": "assistant" } ]
595cadac-f85b-4010-9575-0d1d0380d59d	Most common agents responsible for human bite infections are - (A) Anaerobic streptococci (B) Gram +ve bacilli (C) Spirochaete (D) Gram -ve bacilli	Gram -ve bacilli	Gram +ve bacilli	Spirochaete	Anaerobic streptococci	3	single	null	Microbiology	null	(A) Anaerobic streptococci	(A) Anaerobic streptococci (B) Gram +ve bacilli (C) Spirochaete (D) Gram -ve bacilli	(A)	[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]	[ "(B) Gram +ve bacilli", "(C) Spirochaete", "(D) Gram -ve bacilli" ]	(D) Gram -ve bacilli	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Most common agents responsible for human bite infections are -\n\n(A) Anaerobic streptococci\n(B) Gram +ve bacilli\n(C) Spirochaete\n(D) Gram -ve bacilli", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Anaerobic streptococci", "role": "assistant" } ]
4ed6e899-6187-4086-b16e-87e30e01a2b2	Ethambutol is safer in patient of: [1] Gout [2] Liver disease [3] Kidney disease [4] Both 1 and 2	Liver disease	Kidney disease	Gout	Both 1 and 2	0	multi	All first line drugs used against M.Tuberculosis are hepatotoxic except Ethambutol. But it requires dose adjustment in renal failure.	Pharmacology	null	[2] Liver disease	[1] Gout [2] Liver disease [3] Kidney disease [4] Both 1 and 2	[2]	[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]	[ "[1] Gout", "[3] Kidney disease", "[4] Both 1 and 2" ]	[3] Kidney disease	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Ethambutol is safer in patient of:\n\n[1] Gout\n[2] Liver disease\n[3] Kidney disease\n[4] Both 1 and 2", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Liver disease", "role": "assistant" } ]
3d3978d6-36aa-4e59-8fde-296989eb5724	Maximum risk of carcinoma pancreas is seen in which of these? 1. Familial adenomatous polyposis 2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome 3. Hereditary pancreatitis 4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome	Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome	Hereditary pancreatitis	Peutz-Jegher's syndrome	Familial adenomatous polyposis	2	single	Note - Peutz Jeghers Syndrome - Max Risk for Ca - pancreas * Risk Factors Smoking/tobacco * Associations: Diabetes Obesity Chronic pancreatitis Hereditary Factors /genetic susceptibility Hereditary pancreatitis - AD HNPCC- AD Hereditary Breast and Ovarian Ca (BRCA - 2) - AD Ataxia Telangiectasia - AR Familial atypical multiple mole melanoma (FAMMM) syndrome - AD Peutz Jeghers Syndrome - AD	Surgery	Pancreas	2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome	1. Familial adenomatous polyposis 2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome 3. Hereditary pancreatitis 4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome	2.	[ "1.", "3.", "4." ]	[ "1. Familial adenomatous polyposis", "3. Hereditary pancreatitis", "4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome" ]	3. Hereditary pancreatitis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Maximum risk of carcinoma pancreas is seen in which of these?\n\n1. Familial adenomatous polyposis\n2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome\n3. Hereditary pancreatitis\n4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome", "role": "assistant" } ]
bd64095e-252a-421d-9b64-5b5a1117882c	what is the only phobia that is assosiated with giddiness and falls 1. claustrophobia 2. hydrophobia 3. thanatophobia 4. blood injection phobia	blood injection phobia	thanatophobia	claustrophobia	hydrophobia	0	multi	Applied tension is used for blood injection phobia where there is hypotension and falls, in these patients falls is because of vasodilatations when we use applied tension there may be constriction of hand and leg muscles which prevents vasodilation and prevents falls. Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pgg no. 845	Anatomy	General anatomy	4. blood injection phobia	1. claustrophobia 2. hydrophobia 3. thanatophobia 4. blood injection phobia	4.	[ "1.", "2.", "3." ]	[ "1. claustrophobia", "2. hydrophobia", "3. thanatophobia" ]	2. hydrophobia	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "what is the only phobia that is assosiated with giddiness and falls\n\n1. claustrophobia\n2. hydrophobia\n3. thanatophobia\n4. blood injection phobia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4. blood injection phobia", "role": "assistant" } ]
1a9356ce-7062-404d-a315-dd3147460628	Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix & pap smear shows dysplasia, next step is : 1. Cryosurgery 2. Conization 3. Colposcopy 4. Antibiotics	Antibiotics	Colposcopy	Cryosurgery	Conization	1	multi	Ans. is b i.e. Colposcopy A young lady is presenting with erosion which on cytology shows dysplasia. Now what will be the next step : Friends, here first of all it is impoant to know that erosion (ectopy) : is a condition in which the squamous covering of the vaginal aspect of the cervix is replaced by columnar epithelium lining the ondocervix It appears as a bright red area continuous with the endocervix and with a clearly defined outer edge. It often bleeds on touch and has to distinguished from carcinoma, tuberculosis, syphilitic and other ulcers of the cervix. "Although a cervical smear may be helpful. the distinction may not be possible except by colposcopy or biopsy". Jeffcoate 7/e, p 411 Here in the question : Pap smear has already been done and it shows dysplasia which should be confirmed by colposcopy. Extra Edge : Management of cervical erosion : If it is detected during pregnancy treatment should be deferred for atleast 12 weeks postpaum. Management : - Thermal cauterizations - Cryosurgerydeg - Laser vaporisationdeg Aim : To destroy columnar epithelium so that on healing it is replaced by squamous epithelium.	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	3. Colposcopy	1. Cryosurgery 2. Conization 3. Colposcopy 4. Antibiotics	3.	[ "1.", "2.", "4." ]	[ "1. Cryosurgery", "2. Conization", "4. Antibiotics" ]	2. Conization	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix & pap smear shows dysplasia, next step is :\n\n1. Cryosurgery\n2. Conization\n3. Colposcopy\n4. Antibiotics", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3. Colposcopy", "role": "assistant" } ]
f97b90dd-82bf-4b6e-a29e-e917aa331690	The enzyme that splits hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen is: 1. Catalase 2. Cytochrome P 450 3. Cytoch romes 4. Super oxide dismutase	Cytoch romes	Cytochrome P 450	Super oxide dismutase	Catalase	3	single	null	Biochemistry	null	1. Catalase	1. Catalase 2. Cytochrome P 450 3. Cytoch romes 4. Super oxide dismutase	1.	[ "2.", "3.", "4." ]	[ "2. Cytochrome P 450", "3. Cytoch romes", "4. Super oxide dismutase" ]	3. Cytoch romes	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "The enzyme that splits hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen is:\n\n1. Catalase\n2. Cytochrome P 450\n3. Cytoch romes\n4. Super oxide dismutase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1. Catalase", "role": "assistant" } ]
565c80d5-2136-4df1-87fa-66c07baa1006	Neutropenia is associated with : (1) Carbenicillin (2) Methicillin (3) Nafcillin (4) Ampicillin	Nafcillin	Methicillin	Carbenicillin	Ampicillin	0	single	null	Pharmacology	null	(3) Nafcillin	(1) Carbenicillin (2) Methicillin (3) Nafcillin (4) Ampicillin	(3)	[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]	[ "(1) Carbenicillin", "(2) Methicillin", "(4) Ampicillin" ]	(1) Carbenicillin	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Neutropenia is associated with :\n\n(1) Carbenicillin\n(2) Methicillin\n(3) Nafcillin\n(4) Ampicillin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) Nafcillin", "role": "assistant" } ]
e3ec69ef-a757-463f-8839-0cf72a33861e	Hutchinson triad consists of all except? a. Interstitial keratitis b. Hutchison teeth c. Eight cranial nerve deafness d. Mulberry teeth	Interstitial keratitis	Eight cranial nerve deafness	Hutchison teeth	Mulberry teeth	3	multi	Hutchinson triad (syphilis) :- * Hutchinson teeth * Interstitial keratitis * Eight cranial nerve deafness	Medicine	Bacterial infection	d. Mulberry teeth	a. Interstitial keratitis b. Hutchison teeth c. Eight cranial nerve deafness d. Mulberry teeth	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. Interstitial keratitis", "b. Hutchison teeth", "c. Eight cranial nerve deafness" ]	b. Hutchison teeth	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Hutchinson triad consists of all except?\n\na. Interstitial keratitis\nb. Hutchison teeth\nc. Eight cranial nerve deafness\nd. Mulberry teeth", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Mulberry teeth", "role": "assistant" } ]
f5564d15-516c-4c75-8bf0-0a4824b32c64	Sequence of changes seen in Raynaud's disease is: March 2012 a. White, red, blue b. Red, blue, white c. Red, blue, white d. White, blue, red	Red, blue, white	White, blue, red	Red, blue, white	White, red, blue	1	single	Ans: B i.e. White, blue, red Raynaud's disease is recognized by the characteristic sequence of blanching (constriction of vessels), dusky cyanosis (dilation of capillaries & filling with slowly flowing deoxygenated blood) & red engorgement (relaxation of aerioles & return of oxygenated blood into the dilated capillaries)	Surgery	null	d. White, blue, red	a. White, red, blue b. Red, blue, white c. Red, blue, white d. White, blue, red	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. White, red, blue", "b. Red, blue, white", "c. Red, blue, white" ]	a. White, red, blue	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Sequence of changes seen in Raynaud's disease is: March 2012\n\na. White, red, blue\nb. Red, blue, white\nc. Red, blue, white\nd. White, blue, red", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. White, blue, red", "role": "assistant" } ]
cdc0584b-8fd6-451b-85f7-3cb56770b070	A child presenting with localized patches of complete hair loss with normal appearance of scalp. Diagnosis is - [a] Alopecia areata [b] Telogen effluvium [c] Cradle cap [d] Tinea capitis	Tinea capitis	Cradle cap	Alopecia areata	Telogen effluvium	2	single	alopecia areata develops as single or multiple oval or round patches of hair loss on the scalp, beard area,eyebrows, eyelashes and other hairy areas of the body. Telogen effluvium- generalized and diffuse hair loss over scalp and body Cradle cap - infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis characterized by yellowish, patchy, greasy, scaly and crusty skin rash that occurs on the scalp of recently born babies. Tinea capitis-a dermatophytosis caused by trichophyton and microsporum fungi , can be either an ectothrix or endothrix type of infection. Ectothrix involves both inside and outside of hair shaft. Endothrix involves only inside of hair shaft. Page no.241,242,55,169 ref Harrison20th edition	Dental	Anatomy of skin	[a] Alopecia areata	[a] Alopecia areata [b] Telogen effluvium [c] Cradle cap [d] Tinea capitis	[a]	[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]	[ "[b] Telogen effluvium", "[c] Cradle cap", "[d] Tinea capitis" ]	[d] Tinea capitis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A child presenting with localized patches of complete hair loss with normal appearance of scalp. Diagnosis is -\n\n[a] Alopecia areata\n[b] Telogen effluvium\n[c] Cradle cap\n[d] Tinea capitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Alopecia areata", "role": "assistant" } ]
511bc1db-6bb0-4a4a-a22e-0dba842c0758	Which of the following cause apoptotic damage to sperms? I. Treponema pallidum II. Clostridium III. Hemophilus ducreyi IV. Chlamydia	Treponema pallidum	Chlamydia	Clostridium	Hemophilus ducreyi	1	multi	Apoptotic damage to sperms E.coli Staphylococcus Chlamydia Mycoplasma genitalium	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	IV. Chlamydia	I. Treponema pallidum II. Clostridium III. Hemophilus ducreyi IV. Chlamydia	IV.	[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]	[ "I. Treponema pallidum", "II. Clostridium", "III. Hemophilus ducreyi" ]	I. Treponema pallidum	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following cause apoptotic damage to sperms?\n\nI. Treponema pallidum\nII. Clostridium\nIII. Hemophilus ducreyi\nIV. Chlamydia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. Chlamydia", "role": "assistant" } ]
ea481089-ef05-4e2e-853c-84fb50c4bafb	What is the inheritance pattern of von willebrand disease? i. XR ii. AD iii. XD iv. AR	AR	AD	XR	XD	1	single	Von willebrand disease is inherited as autosomal dominant disorder Refer the byte " mendelian Disorder and their Inheritance pattern"	Pathology	null	ii. AD	i. XR ii. AD iii. XD iv. AR	ii.	[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]	[ "i. XR", "iii. XD", "iv. AR" ]	i. XR	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "What is the inheritance pattern of von willebrand disease?\n\ni. XR\nii. AD\niii. XD\niv. AR", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. AD", "role": "assistant" } ]
f26f22ac-b14c-4ecd-9875-fc4a25727b8f	An obese 50-year-old woman undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. In the recovery room, she is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic. Her aerial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.29, PaO2 of 60 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's problem? a. Pulmonary edema b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum c. Acute pulmonary embolism d. Alveolar hypoventilation	Acute pulmonary embolism	Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum	Alveolar hypoventilation	Pulmonary edema	2	single	Because of the ease with which CO2 diffuses across the alveolar membranes, PaCO2 is a highly reliable indicator of alveolar ventilation. In this postoperative patient with respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia, the hypercarbia is diagnostic of alveolar hypoventilation. Acute hypoxemia can occur with pulmonary embolism, pulmonary edema, and significant atelectasis, but in all those situations the PaCO2 should be normal or reduced, as the patient hyperventilates to improve oxygenation. The absorption of gas from the peritoneal cavity may transiently affect the PaCO2 , but should have no effect on oxygenation.	Anaesthesia	Miscellaneous	d. Alveolar hypoventilation	a. Pulmonary edema b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum c. Acute pulmonary embolism d. Alveolar hypoventilation	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. Pulmonary edema", "b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum", "c. Acute pulmonary embolism" ]	b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "An obese 50-year-old woman undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. In the recovery room, she is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic. Her aerial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.29, PaO2 of 60 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's problem?\n\na. Pulmonary edema\nb. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum\nc. Acute pulmonary embolism\nd. Alveolar hypoventilation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Alveolar hypoventilation", "role": "assistant" } ]
076566aa-1b87-4536-9453-066f10c3d483	Schwalbe&;s line is [A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane [B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane	The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane	The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane	The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane	The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane	2	single	Angle of anterior chamber Angle of anterior chamber plays an impoant role in the process of aqueous drainage. It is formed by root of iris, anterior-most pa of ciliary body, scleral spur, trabecular meshwork and Schwalbe's line (prominent end of Descemet's membrane of cornea). Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-205,206	Ophthalmology	Glaucoma	[B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane	[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane [B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane	[B]	[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]	[ "[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane", "[C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane", "[D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane" ]	[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Schwalbe&;s line is\n\n[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane\n[B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane\n[C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane\n[D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane", "role": "assistant" } ]
c2756dc3-6524-4193-8ac1-1a7a3ab71fb3	Cardiovascular causes of digital clubbing include all of the following Except: (A) Aeriovenous Fistulos (B) Infective Endocarditis (C) Tricuspid Atresia (D) Aoic Dissection	Infective Endocarditis	Aeriovenous Fistulos	Tricuspid Atresia	Aoic Dissection	3	multi	Answer is D (Aoic Dissection) Aoic Dissection is not a known cause for digital clubbing: Digital clubbing results from long standing conditions that take months to develop. It is not associated with acute event like aoic dissection Cardiovascular causes of Digital clubbing (Ultra medicine (2005)/285) Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis(SBE) Cyanotic congenital Hea Disease - Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) - Transposition of Great vessels (TGV) - Total Anomolous pulmonary venous circulation (TAPVC) - Ebstein's Anomaly - Tricuspid Atresia Atrial Myxoma Aerio venous malformations (Brochial aeriovenous fistula) Axillary aery Aneurysms Clubbing is a feature of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE) and is not seen in Acute Bacterial Endocarditis Acute endocarditis is a fitIminant event while clubbing takes months to develop. Acute bacterial endocarditis is not associated with clubbing.	Medicine	null	(D) Aoic Dissection	(A) Aeriovenous Fistulos (B) Infective Endocarditis (C) Tricuspid Atresia (D) Aoic Dissection	(D)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]	[ "(A) Aeriovenous Fistulos", "(B) Infective Endocarditis", "(C) Tricuspid Atresia" ]	(B) Infective Endocarditis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Cardiovascular causes of digital clubbing include all of the following Except:\n\n(A) Aeriovenous Fistulos\n(B) Infective Endocarditis\n(C) Tricuspid Atresia\n(D) Aoic Dissection", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Aoic Dissection", "role": "assistant" } ]
85945b1b-0cd8-40e1-af4c-0859360ad50f	A 12 year old girl presents with tremors and emotional lability. Slit lamp examination of eye shows golden brown discoloration in the Descements membrane. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient? i. Acute Rheumatic fever ii. Wilson's disease iii. Glycogen storage Disease iv. Fabry's disease	Acute Rheumatic fever	Fabry's disease	Wilson's disease	Glycogen storage Disease	2	single	The clinical features in this patient are diagnostic of Wilson's disease. Wilson's disease is an Autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in the ATP7B gene. ATP7B protein deficiency impairs biliary copper excretion, resulting in positive copper balance, hepatic copper accumulation, and copper toxicity from oxidant damage. Clinical presentation can be hepatic, neurologic and psychiatric. Hepatic involvement results in hepatitis, cirrhosis, or hepatic decompensation. Neurologic involvement result in dystonia, incoordination and tremor. Psychiatric manifestations include behavioral disturbances, depression, hyperactivity or loss of sexual inhibition. Investigations show low ceruloplasmin, increased free copper levels and KF rings. The gold standard for diagnosis is liver biopsy with quantitative copper assays. ATP 7A gene mutation: Menkes Kinky Hair Syndrome KESHAN Disease: Endemic cardiomyopathy due to selenium deficiency Acrodermatitis Enteropathica: Abnormality in zinc absorption Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 3188, 3193 ; APLS : The Pediatric Emergency Medicine Resource By Marianne Gausche-Hill, 4th Edition, Page 118	Medicine	null	ii. Wilson's disease	i. Acute Rheumatic fever ii. Wilson's disease iii. Glycogen storage Disease iv. Fabry's disease	ii.	[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]	[ "i. Acute Rheumatic fever", "iii. Glycogen storage Disease", "iv. Fabry's disease" ]	iv. Fabry's disease	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A 12 year old girl presents with tremors and emotional lability. Slit lamp examination of eye shows golden brown discoloration in the Descements membrane. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient?\n\ni. Acute Rheumatic fever\nii. Wilson's disease\niii. Glycogen storage Disease\niv. Fabry's disease", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. Wilson's disease", "role": "assistant" } ]
de87e1a2-c37a-4b1f-930f-7caf40cdf478	In multiple pregnancy, the most impoant complication is : (1) Post paum hemorrhage (2) Interlocking (3) Fetus papyraceous (4) Cord prolapse	Post paum hemorrhage	Interlocking	Cord prolapse	Fetus papyraceous	0	single	Post paum hemorrhage	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	(1) Post paum hemorrhage	(1) Post paum hemorrhage (2) Interlocking (3) Fetus papyraceous (4) Cord prolapse	(1)	[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]	[ "(2) Interlocking", "(3) Fetus papyraceous", "(4) Cord prolapse" ]	(2) Interlocking	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "In multiple pregnancy, the most impoant complication is :\n\n(1) Post paum hemorrhage\n(2) Interlocking\n(3) Fetus papyraceous\n(4) Cord prolapse", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) Post paum hemorrhage", "role": "assistant" } ]
05ebc374-7a11-4211-9641-37cbf0503bfb	All of the following are true about accelerated paial breast irradiation (APBI) except i. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years. iii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation. iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.	APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation.	Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.	Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm	Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.	3	multi	Accelerated paial breast irradiation (APBI) Radiations delivered in an abbreted fashion (twice daily for 5 days) At a dose lower than the standard course of 5 to 6 weeks of radiation (50 Gray with or without a boost) in the case of whole breast irradiation. Suitable patients for APBI: Female >60 years with : Unifocal lesion T1 stage ER-positive No lymphovascular invasion Margins negative by atleast2 mm Unsuitable patients for APBI : T3 or T4 stage , ER-negative disease, Multifocal, Multicentric, Extensive lymphovascular invasion (LVI), Positive margins.	Surgery	Breast	iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.	i. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years. iii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation. iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.	iv.	[ "i.", "ii.", "iii." ]	[ "i. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm", "ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.", "iii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation." ]	ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "All of the following are true about accelerated paial breast irradiation (APBI) except\n\ni. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm\nii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.\niii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation.\niv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.", "role": "assistant" } ]
154d8d70-c1d6-4c02-8d67-37c62491faca	Evacuation of the urinary bladder and stool with profuse sweating is a features of 1) Positive supportive reaction 2) Mass reflex 3) Labyrinthine righting reflex 4) Stretch reflex	Mass reflex	Positive supportive reaction	Labyrinthine righting reflex	Stretch reflex	0	single	(Mass reflex) (210-Ganong 22nd) (683-84-Guyt 11th) (250-Ganong 23rd)MASS REFLEX - In chronic spinal animals, afferent stimuli irradiate from one reflex centre to another when even a relatively minor noxious stimulus is applied to the skin, if may irradiate to autonomic centres and produce evacuation of the bladder and rectum, sweating, pallor and blood pressure swings in addition to the withdrawl response* This distressing mass reflex can sometimes be used to give paraplegic patients a degree of bladder and bowel. They can be trained to initiate urination and defecation by stroking or pinching their thighs thus producing an intentional mass reflex.	Physiology	Kidneys and Body Fluids	2) Mass reflex	1) Positive supportive reaction 2) Mass reflex 3) Labyrinthine righting reflex 4) Stretch reflex	2)	[ "1)", "3)", "4)" ]	[ "1) Positive supportive reaction", "3) Labyrinthine righting reflex", "4) Stretch reflex" ]	4) Stretch reflex	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Evacuation of the urinary bladder and stool with profuse sweating is a features of\n\n1) Positive supportive reaction\n2) Mass reflex\n3) Labyrinthine righting reflex\n4) Stretch reflex", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2) Mass reflex", "role": "assistant" } ]
c9f57ddb-f20f-487e-9c2d-5d5df5d422b9	Reid's index is - [A] Increase in bronchial asthma [B] Increase in chronic bronchitis [C] Decrease in bronchial asthma [D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis	Increase in chronic bronchitis	Decrease in chronic bronchitis	Increase in bronchial asthma	Decrease in bronchial asthma	0	single	null	Pathology	null	[B] Increase in chronic bronchitis	[A] Increase in bronchial asthma [B] Increase in chronic bronchitis [C] Decrease in bronchial asthma [D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis	[B]	[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]	[ "[A] Increase in bronchial asthma", "[C] Decrease in bronchial asthma", "[D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis" ]	[D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Reid's index is -\n\n[A] Increase in bronchial asthma\n[B] Increase in chronic bronchitis\n[C] Decrease in bronchial asthma\n[D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] Increase in chronic bronchitis", "role": "assistant" } ]
13baaafb-42b0-4950-b57e-50c35049cc86	Most sensitive investigation of pancreatic carcinoma is - a. Angiography b. ERCP c. Ultrasound d. CT scan	Angiography	ERCP	Ultrasound	CT scan	3	single	With early chronic pancreatitis, and even in some patients with advanced disease, ductal abnormalities demonstrated by ERCP may be minimal. CT scans provide the most precise information about the size and configuration of the pancreas, information that is used in decisions regarding possible pancreatic resection. ERCP has a sensitivity of 95 percent but a specificity of only 85 percent. This is due to the difficulty in distinguishing between cancer and chronic pancreatitis. The study can be performed successfully in over 90 percent of patients and detects some tumors that are not visualized by CT. ref: Schwartz 7 ed	Unknown	null	d. CT scan	a. Angiography b. ERCP c. Ultrasound d. CT scan	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. Angiography", "b. ERCP", "c. Ultrasound" ]	a. Angiography	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Most sensitive investigation of pancreatic carcinoma is -\n\na. Angiography\nb. ERCP\nc. Ultrasound\nd. CT scan", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. CT scan", "role": "assistant" } ]
53eb8813-c7a2-4a2a-b3fd-05e008136f31	Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except:September 2007 a. Brain b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system c. Neuromuscular junction d. Bronchial smooth muscle	Neuromuscular junction	Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system	Bronchial smooth muscle	Brain	2	multi	Ans. C: Bronchial Smooth MuscleThe nicotinic cholinergic receptors are found in the neuromuscular junctions of somatic muscles; stimulation of these receptors causes muscular contraction. They are also found in the autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system andcentral nervous systemMuscarinic receptors are found in:M 1-brain M 2-heaM 3-smooth muscleM 4-smooth muscle, pancreatic acinar and islet tissue	Physiology	null	d. Bronchial smooth muscle	a. Brain b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system c. Neuromuscular junction d. Bronchial smooth muscle	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. Brain", "b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system", "c. Neuromuscular junction" ]	b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except:September 2007\n\na. Brain\nb. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system\nc. Neuromuscular junction\nd. Bronchial smooth muscle", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Bronchial smooth muscle", "role": "assistant" } ]
a58483f6-6090-413a-acab-124ca50a6aff	A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of new symptoms of a red rash over her cheeks, frequent oral ulcers, and pain and swelling in both wrists, as well as in several small joints in her hands. Medical evaluation confirms the above clinical symptoms and laboratory investigations reveal a positive ANA, and 3+ proteinuria. Which of the following organ involvement will cause the most symptoms during the course of this disease? [a] musculoskeletal pathology [b] renal pathology [c] cardiopulmonary pathology [d] thrombotic events	renal pathology	cardiopulmonary pathology	musculoskeletal pathology	thrombotic events	2	multi	About 95% of patients will develop musculoskeletal symptoms during the course of SLE. Arthralgias and myalgias predominate, but arthritis, hand deformities, myopathy, and avascular necrosis of bone also occur. About 85% of patients will have hematologic disease and 80% will have skin manifestations.	Medicine	Immunology and Rheumatology	[a] musculoskeletal pathology	[a] musculoskeletal pathology [b] renal pathology [c] cardiopulmonary pathology [d] thrombotic events	[a]	[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]	[ "[b] renal pathology", "[c] cardiopulmonary pathology", "[d] thrombotic events" ]	[b] renal pathology	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of new symptoms of a red rash over her cheeks, frequent oral ulcers, and pain and swelling in both wrists, as well as in several small joints in her hands. Medical evaluation confirms the above clinical symptoms and laboratory investigations reveal a positive ANA, and 3+ proteinuria. Which of the following organ involvement will cause the most symptoms during the course of this disease?\n\n[a] musculoskeletal pathology\n[b] renal pathology\n[c] cardiopulmonary pathology\n[d] thrombotic events", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] musculoskeletal pathology", "role": "assistant" } ]
d6a652d0-ecfb-408b-9194-741c8e2ae05e	Which of the following laryngeal muscle is supplied by external laryngeal nerve? a. Thyroarytenoid b. Vocalis c. Cricoarytenoid d. Cricothyroid	Cricothyroid	Thyroarytenoid	Cricoarytenoid	Vocalis	0	single	External laryngeal nerve is a branch of superior laryngeal nerve and supplies cricothyroid muscle. Superior laryngeal nerve arise from inferior ganglion of the vagus descends behind the internal carotid aery and at the level of greater cornua of hyoid bone, divides into external and internal branches. The internal branch pierces the thyrohyoid membrane and supplies sensory innervation to the larynx and hypopharynx.	ENT	null	d. Cricothyroid	a. Thyroarytenoid b. Vocalis c. Cricoarytenoid d. Cricothyroid	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. Thyroarytenoid", "b. Vocalis", "c. Cricoarytenoid" ]	a. Thyroarytenoid	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following laryngeal muscle is supplied by external laryngeal nerve?\n\na. Thyroarytenoid\nb. Vocalis\nc. Cricoarytenoid\nd. Cricothyroid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Cricothyroid", "role": "assistant" } ]
3aef7868-9e52-4de2-af67-effe018ae35b	The aefact seen in a case of suicidal complete hanging is A. Oesophageal banding B. Unequal pupils C. Transverse tears in carotids D. Dribbling of saliva	Transverse tears in carotids	Oesophageal banding	Dribbling of saliva	Unequal pupils	1	single	Banding of the oesophagus is an aefact & non specific. These bands are pale areas in the mucosa caused by postmoem hypostasis being prevented from settling by the external pressure of larynx & trachea.	Forensic Medicine	Hanging and strangulation	A. Oesophageal banding	A. Oesophageal banding B. Unequal pupils C. Transverse tears in carotids D. Dribbling of saliva	A.	[ "B.", "C.", "D." ]	[ "B. Unequal pupils", "C. Transverse tears in carotids", "D. Dribbling of saliva" ]	D. Dribbling of saliva	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "The aefact seen in a case of suicidal complete hanging is\n\nA. Oesophageal banding\nB. Unequal pupils\nC. Transverse tears in carotids\nD. Dribbling of saliva", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A. Oesophageal banding", "role": "assistant" } ]
12a24d8b-3dbd-4a26-9b70-26d1b8fa8213	Sputum examination is not useful in diagnosis of- (a) Strongyloides (b) Trichuris trichiura (c) Ancylostoma duodenale (d) Paragonimiasis	Trichuris trichiura	Ancylostoma duodenale	Paragonimiasis	Strongyloides	0	single	null	Microbiology	null	(b) Trichuris trichiura	(a) Strongyloides (b) Trichuris trichiura (c) Ancylostoma duodenale (d) Paragonimiasis	(b)	[ "(a)", "(c)", "(d)" ]	[ "(a) Strongyloides", "(c) Ancylostoma duodenale", "(d) Paragonimiasis" ]	(a) Strongyloides	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Sputum examination is not useful in diagnosis of-\n\n(a) Strongyloides\n(b) Trichuris trichiura\n(c) Ancylostoma duodenale\n(d) Paragonimiasis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(b) Trichuris trichiura", "role": "assistant" } ]
0b947405-4650-40a8-bf75-118a165056ce	Which of the following hallucinations is pathognomonic of schizophrenia [1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient [2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary [3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient [4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient	Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient	Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary	Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient	Auditory hallucinations talking to patient	1	multi	Hallucinations are common in schizophrenia. Auditory hallucinations are by far the most frequent, these can be an elementary auditory hallucination (hearing simple words rather than voices), Thought echo, Third person hallucination, Voice commenting on ones on the action. Only the third person hallucinations are believed to be characteristic of schizophrenia (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, page no.56)	Psychiatry	Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders	[2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary	[1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient [2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary [3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient [4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient	[2]	[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]	[ "[1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient", "[3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient", "[4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient" ]	[4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following hallucinations is pathognomonic of schizophrenia\n\n[1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient\n[2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary\n[3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient\n[4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary", "role": "assistant" } ]
192a779f-6d21-4b1f-a518-afb5f5ffd9ef	The parents of a 17-year-old boy with Down syndrome seek counseling because they are concerned that their son may develop a life-threatening disorder known to be associated with his chromosomal abnormality. The physician should be prepared to discuss which of the following disorders in terms of its association with Down syndrome? i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid ii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia iv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease	Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis	Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease	Lymphoblastic leukemia	Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid	2	single	Patients with Down syndrome are at increased risk of lymphoblastic leukemia. In addition, there is common occurrence of congenital hea disease, especially defects of the endocardial cushion (atrioventricular valve malformations and atrial and ventricular septal defects), and increased susceptibility to infection. Many patients with Down syndrome who are > 35 years of age show signs, symptoms of Alzheimer-type dementia	Pathology	Genetics	iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia	i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid ii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia iv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease	iii.	[ "i.", "ii.", "iv." ]	[ "i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid", "ii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis", "iv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease" ]	i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "The parents of a 17-year-old boy with Down syndrome seek counseling because they are concerned that their son may develop a life-threatening disorder known to be associated with his chromosomal abnormality. The physician should be prepared to discuss which of the following disorders in terms of its association with Down syndrome?\n\ni. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid\nii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis\niii. Lymphoblastic leukemia\niv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia", "role": "assistant" } ]
a3a6e237-4c8b-4267-971a-78dd4dc8f864	A 60-years old male has been operated for carcinoma of caecum and right hemicolectomy has been done. On the fouh post - oprative day, the patient develops fever and pain in the legs.The most impoant clinical entity one should look for is - [A] Urinary tract infection [B] Intravenous line infection [C] Chest infection [D] Deep vein thrombosis	Urinary tract infection	Intravenous line infection	Chest infection	Deep vein thrombosis	3	single	Ans. is `d' i.e., Deep vein thrombosis Old age and post operative period are risk factor for deep vein thrombosis	Surgery	null	[D] Deep vein thrombosis	[A] Urinary tract infection [B] Intravenous line infection [C] Chest infection [D] Deep vein thrombosis	[D]	[ "[A]", "[B]", "[C]" ]	[ "[A] Urinary tract infection", "[B] Intravenous line infection", "[C] Chest infection" ]	[C] Chest infection	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A 60-years old male has been operated for carcinoma of caecum and right hemicolectomy has been done. On the fouh post - oprative day, the patient develops fever and pain in the legs.The most impoant clinical entity one should look for is -\n\n[A] Urinary tract infection\n[B] Intravenous line infection\n[C] Chest infection\n[D] Deep vein thrombosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[D] Deep vein thrombosis", "role": "assistant" } ]
c5e748d8-6988-4ef1-afc7-63708e8c5232	Anaesthetic having epileptogenic potential is: [A] Enflurane [B] Ether [C] Desflurane [D] Halothane	Desflurane	Enflurane	Ether	Halothane	1	single	Enflurane may precipitate seizures in epileptic patients. Desflurane , ether and Halothane doesn&;t precipitate seizures and can be safely used in them. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 193	Pharmacology	Anesthesia	[A] Enflurane	[A] Enflurane [B] Ether [C] Desflurane [D] Halothane	[A]	[ "[B]", "[C]", "[D]" ]	[ "[B] Ether", "[C] Desflurane", "[D] Halothane" ]	[B] Ether	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Anaesthetic having epileptogenic potential is:\n\n[A] Enflurane\n[B] Ether\n[C] Desflurane\n[D] Halothane", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[A] Enflurane", "role": "assistant" } ]
442df27d-1e56-4f2b-b981-dca17da04ff3	A new systolic murmur after Acute myocardial infarction may be due to all of the following Except: (1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy (2) Papillary muscle dysfunction (3) Complete hea block (4) Rupture of Interventricular septum	Complete hea block	Rupture of Interventricular septum	Papillary muscle dysfunction	Ischemic cardiomyopathy	0	multi	Answer is A (Complete hea block) Complete hea block iv not a cause for new onset systolic murmur after Acute _Myocardial Infarction. Cause of new systolic murmur after Acute Myocardial infarction Papillary muscle dysfunction/rupture (causing severe mitral regurgitation) Rupture of interventricular septum Right ventricular infarction and tricuspid regurgitation Free wall rupture Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction Note: Ischemic cardiomyopathy is defined as dilated cardiomyopathy in a subject with history of MI. This may lead to papillary muscle dysfunction and hence produce a new onset systolic murmur.	Medicine	null	(3) Complete hea block	(1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy (2) Papillary muscle dysfunction (3) Complete hea block (4) Rupture of Interventricular septum	(3)	[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]	[ "(1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy", "(2) Papillary muscle dysfunction", "(4) Rupture of Interventricular septum" ]	(2) Papillary muscle dysfunction	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A new systolic murmur after Acute myocardial infarction may be due to all of the following Except:\n\n(1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy\n(2) Papillary muscle dysfunction\n(3) Complete hea block\n(4) Rupture of Interventricular septum", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) Complete hea block", "role": "assistant" } ]
a901f300-9169-4957-a2be-1bf19a7de549	Which muscle does not take pa in dorsal digital expansion A) Adductor pollicis B) Lumbricals C) Interossei D) Extensor digitorum	Interossei	Lumbricals	Extensor digitorum	Adductor pollicis	3	single	DORSAL DIGITAL EXPANSION: The dorsal digital expansion {extensor expansion} is a small triangular aponeurosis covering the dorsum of the proximal phalanx. Its base, which is proximal, covers the metacarpophalangeal joint. The main tendon of the extensor digitorium occupies the central pa of the extension and is separated from the MP joint by a bursa. The posterior corners of the extensor expansion are joined by tendons of the interossei {proximal} and {distal} are often called' wing tendons' Near the proximal interphalangeal joint, the extensor tendon divides into a central slip and two collateral slips. The central slip is joined by some fibres from the margins of the expansion, crosses the proximal interphalangeal joint, and is inseed on the dorsum of the base of the middle phalanx. The two collateral slips are joined by the remaining thick margin of the extensor expansion. They then join each other and are inseed on the dorsum of the base of the distal phalanx. As the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints, the extensor expansion forms the dorsal pa of the fibrous capscule of the joints. The retinacular ligaments {limk ligaments} extend from the side of the proximal phalanx, and form its fibrous flexor sheath, to the margins of the extensor expansion to reach the base of the distal phalanx. THE MUSCLES INSEED INTO THE DORSAL DIGITAL EXPANSION OF: INDEX FINGER: First dorsal interosseous, second palmar interosseous, first lumbrical, extensor digitorum slip, and extensor indicis. MIDDLE FINGER: Second and third dorsal interossei, second lumbrical, extensor digitorum slip. RING FINGER: Fouh dorsal interosseous, third palmar interosseous, third lumbrical and extensor digitorum slip. LITTLE FINGER: Fouh palmar interosseous, fouh lumbrical, extensor digitorum slip and extensor digiti minimi.	Anatomy	Upper limb	A) Adductor pollicis	A) Adductor pollicis B) Lumbricals C) Interossei D) Extensor digitorum	A)	[ "B)", "C)", "D)" ]	[ "B) Lumbricals", "C) Interossei", "D) Extensor digitorum" ]	B) Lumbricals	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which muscle does not take pa in dorsal digital expansion\n\nA) Adductor pollicis\nB) Lumbricals\nC) Interossei\nD) Extensor digitorum", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A) Adductor pollicis", "role": "assistant" } ]
ebbfc0ca-0d1e-45c1-a118-2c73bbfbf13d	A crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease is most likely to be caused by A) Decreased CO2 concentration B) Acidosis C) Increased oxygen concentration D) Alkalosis	Alkalosis	Acidosis	Increased oxygen concentration	Decreased CO2 concentration	1	single	A crisis in sickle cell disease occurs when deoxygenated HbS precipitates, deforming (sickling) red blood cells and .blocking capillaries. Variables that increase the propoion of ofHbS in the "deoxy" state tend to increase the probability of a crisis by increasing the extent of sickling. The "deoxy" form of hemoglobin is ored by a decrease in pH (acidosis). An increase in pH (alkalosis), increased oxygen concentration, decreased CO2 concentration and decreased 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate concentration would all or the" oxy" form of hemoglobin. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 692-93	Medicine	Haematology	B) Acidosis	A) Decreased CO2 concentration B) Acidosis C) Increased oxygen concentration D) Alkalosis	B)	[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]	[ "A) Decreased CO2 concentration", "C) Increased oxygen concentration", "D) Alkalosis" ]	A) Decreased CO2 concentration	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease is most likely to be caused by\n\nA) Decreased CO2 concentration\nB) Acidosis\nC) Increased oxygen concentration\nD) Alkalosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) Acidosis", "role": "assistant" } ]
1816658d-239a-41d9-b8e3-123437cabc71	Elisabeth Kubler-Ross classified five stages of i. Delusion ii. None iii. Schizophrenia iv. Grief	Schizophrenia	Delusion	Grief	None	2	multi	Elisabeth Kubler-Ross made a comprehensive and useful organisation of reactions to impending death. Stage1- Shock & Denial Stage2- Anger Stage3- Bargaining Stage4- Depression Stage5- Acceptance Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11e, pg 1352.	Psychiatry	Cognitive development and defence mechanism	iv. Grief	i. Delusion ii. None iii. Schizophrenia iv. Grief	iv.	[ "i.", "ii.", "iii." ]	[ "i. Delusion", "ii. None", "iii. Schizophrenia" ]	iii. Schizophrenia	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Elisabeth Kubler-Ross classified five stages of\n\ni. Delusion\nii. None\niii. Schizophrenia\niv. Grief", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iv. Grief", "role": "assistant" } ]
e5a41f0a-fb9c-4ef8-a8bd-f0a2c51e5e44	Nerve supply of tip of nose ? a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve c. Orbital br of maxillary n d. Inferior orbital nerve	Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of	Inferior orbital nerve	Buccal br of mandibular nerve	Orbital br of maxillary n	0	single	Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of	Anatomy	null	a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of	a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve c. Orbital br of maxillary n d. Inferior orbital nerve	a.	[ "b.", "c.", "d." ]	[ "b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve", "c. Orbital br of maxillary n", "d. Inferior orbital nerve" ]	b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Nerve supply of tip of nose ?\n\na. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of\nb. Buccal br of mandibular nerve\nc. Orbital br of maxillary n\nd. Inferior orbital nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of", "role": "assistant" } ]
c6ec5318-e6d8-47da-a021-0baf83e4bf86	All/except are true about MS: a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques b. Hyper intense T2WI c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation d. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic	Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic	Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation	T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques	Hyper intense T2WI	2	multi	C i.e. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques	Radiology	null	a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques	a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques b. Hyper intense T2WI c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation d. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic	a.	[ "b.", "c.", "d." ]	[ "b. Hyper intense T2WI", "c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation", "d. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic" ]	c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "All/except are true about MS:\n\na. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques\nb. Hyper intense T2WI\nc. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation\nd. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic", "role": "user" }, { "content": "a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques", "role": "assistant" } ]
a6958436-9471-4225-b5d2-c477192da91d	A patient Shweta with raised serum alkaline phosphatase and raised parathormone level along with low calcium and low phosphate level is likely to have (A) Primary hyperparathyroidism (B) Vitamin D deficiency (C) Osteoporosis (D) Paget's disease	Primary hyperparathyroidism	Paget's disease	Osteoporosis	Vitamin D deficiency	3	single	Answer is D (Vitamin D deficiency) Serum Ca Serum phosphorus Alkaline phosphatase PTH * Osteomalacia (Rickets) (\|iNit. D) \| \| \| \| * Primary hyperparathyroidism bone disease \| \| , \| \| * Bone disease in renal failure with secondary hyperparathyroidism N/\| \| \| \| * Lytic bone neoplasms N/\| N/\| N/\| N * Osteoporosis N N N N * Paget's disease N N \| N	Medicine	null	(B) Vitamin D deficiency	(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism (B) Vitamin D deficiency (C) Osteoporosis (D) Paget's disease	(B)	[ "(A)", "(C)", "(D)" ]	[ "(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism", "(C) Osteoporosis", "(D) Paget's disease" ]	(C) Osteoporosis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A patient Shweta with raised serum alkaline phosphatase and raised parathormone level along with low calcium and low phosphate level is likely to have\n\n(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism\n(B) Vitamin D deficiency\n(C) Osteoporosis\n(D) Paget's disease", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(B) Vitamin D deficiency", "role": "assistant" } ]
77fe5300-2efb-4730-9c8e-c75c4ff0b8e5	The notochord formation occurs on approximately what day after conception? (A) Day 17 (B) Day 7 (C) Day 28 (D) Day 2	Day 2	Day 7	Day 17	Day 28	2	single	Formation of the notochord is a third week event, occurring as a relatively early pa of development of the trilaminar disc. More specifically, notochord formation begins about day 16 and the neurenteric canal forms on about day 18. Two days after conception, implantation has not yet occurred. By seven days after conception, the blastocyst has usually implanted in the endometrium. By day 28, gastrulation has occurred, and organogenesis is under way.	Anatomy	null	(A) Day 17	(A) Day 17 (B) Day 7 (C) Day 28 (D) Day 2	(A)	[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]	[ "(B) Day 7", "(C) Day 28", "(D) Day 2" ]	(C) Day 28	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "The notochord formation occurs on approximately what day after conception?\n\n(A) Day 17\n(B) Day 7\n(C) Day 28\n(D) Day 2", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Day 17", "role": "assistant" } ]
c7c30753-0a06-46cc-9442-49f454494833	Chronic amoebic keratitis is seen in: (A) Haemoflagellates (B) Naegleria (C) E. histolytica (D) Acanthamoeba	E. histolytica	Acanthamoeba	Naegleria	Haemoflagellates	1	single	Ans.(b)Acanthamoeba spp have been linked to several clinical conditions, including, Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis, cutaneous infections and amoebic keratitis. The primary group at risk for developing this condition is individuals you wear contact lenses especially the soft and extended wear type. The organism enters through a corneal trauma and there is subsequent colonization. It produces a protein which causes cell Lysis thus causing clinical symptoms of keratitis.	Microbiology	Parasitology	(D) Acanthamoeba	(A) Haemoflagellates (B) Naegleria (C) E. histolytica (D) Acanthamoeba	(D)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]	[ "(A) Haemoflagellates", "(B) Naegleria", "(C) E. histolytica" ]	(C) E. histolytica	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Chronic amoebic keratitis is seen in:\n\n(A) Haemoflagellates\n(B) Naegleria\n(C) E. histolytica\n(D) Acanthamoeba", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Acanthamoeba", "role": "assistant" } ]
d6b6a20a-42d3-48ba-909b-39f15f6ef33a	Pseudojaundice is an adverse effect of: [a] Rifabutin [b] Chlorpromazine [c] Omeprazole [d] Phenytoin	Phenytoin	Rifabutin	Omeprazole	Chlorpromazine	1	single	Rifabutin: It is related to rifampin in structure and. mechanism of action; but less active against M. tuberculi and more active against MAC. Only paial cross resistance occurs between the two. In a dose of 300 mg/ day rifabutii1 is used for prophylaxis of MAC infection in AIDS patient:; For the treatment of established MAC infection, it has beer. added to ethambutol + clarithromycin/ azithrom&; cir Gastrointestinal intolerance, rashes, granulocytopeni	Pharmacology	Chemotherapy	[a] Rifabutin	[a] Rifabutin [b] Chlorpromazine [c] Omeprazole [d] Phenytoin	[a]	[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]	[ "[b] Chlorpromazine", "[c] Omeprazole", "[d] Phenytoin" ]	[d] Phenytoin	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Pseudojaundice is an adverse effect of:\n\n[a] Rifabutin\n[b] Chlorpromazine\n[c] Omeprazole\n[d] Phenytoin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Rifabutin", "role": "assistant" } ]
4cd9227f-3074-423c-ae11-d8655a9982cf	Ideal time for doing quadruple test:- [A] 11-15 weeks [B] 15-18 weeks [C] 8-12 weeks [D] 18-22 weeks	8-12 weeks	11-15 weeks	15-18 weeks	18-22 weeks	2	single	Triple test : screening test It's a screening test for down syndrome ( trisomy 21) Done between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation It involves estimation of three hormones : ( hCG\|, AFP\|, UE3\| ) To the triple test, if the level of a fouh marker dimeric inhibin alpha are added, the test is called as QUAD test or Quadruple test ( inhibin A \|) 1st trimester 2nd trimester Screening test Nuchal tranaslucency + - hCG + PAPP-A Quad test /tirple test Diagnostic test ( karyotyping ) Chronic villi sampling Amniocentesis	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	NEET 2018	[B] 15-18 weeks	[A] 11-15 weeks [B] 15-18 weeks [C] 8-12 weeks [D] 18-22 weeks	[B]	[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]	[ "[A] 11-15 weeks", "[C] 8-12 weeks", "[D] 18-22 weeks" ]	[D] 18-22 weeks	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Ideal time for doing quadruple test:-\n\n[A] 11-15 weeks\n[B] 15-18 weeks\n[C] 8-12 weeks\n[D] 18-22 weeks", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] 15-18 weeks", "role": "assistant" } ]
7cb66b48-e4a6-4b99-bc0c-bd344af53583	Not a branch of posterior cord of Brachial plexus [1] Radial nerve [2] Thoracodorsal nerve [3] Axillary nerve [4] Ulnar nerve	Axillary nerve	Thoracodorsal nerve	Radial nerve	Ulnar nerve	3	single	Long thoracic nerve arises from the nerve root of C5-C7 and it supplies serratus anterior muscle. The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid and teres minor muscles. The thoracodorsal nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi muscle. The radial nerve supplies 3 heads of triceps brachii and 12 muscles on the back of the forearm. Mnemonic Posterior cord - ULTRA U- upper subscapular nerve L-lower subscapular nerve T-thoracodorsal R-radial nerve A-axillary nerve B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 58 Fig: 4.14,page no:55 BD chaurasia 6th edition.	Anatomy	Upper limb	[4] Ulnar nerve	[1] Radial nerve [2] Thoracodorsal nerve [3] Axillary nerve [4] Ulnar nerve	[4]	[ "[1]", "[2]", "[3]" ]	[ "[1] Radial nerve", "[2] Thoracodorsal nerve", "[3] Axillary nerve" ]	[1] Radial nerve	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Not a branch of posterior cord of Brachial plexus\n\n[1] Radial nerve\n[2] Thoracodorsal nerve\n[3] Axillary nerve\n[4] Ulnar nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[4] Ulnar nerve", "role": "assistant" } ]
1e8be4c0-3c47-4e5f-ad24-c494d8474bff	A female neonate with DiGeorge syndrome develops severe muscle cramps and convulsions soon after bih. Which of the following is the cause of convulsions in this neonate? (a) Hypocalcemia (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Hypokalemia (d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis	Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis	Hypocalcemia	Hypoglycemia	Hypokalemia	1	single	DiGeorge syndrome: - Caused by failure in development of 3rd and 4th branchial pouches, resulting in Agenesis/ hypoplasia of thymus & parathyroid glands Congenital hea defects Dysmorphic facies -Occurs secondary to deletions on chromosome 22q11.2 - As a result of parathyroid agenesis, patients with DiGeorge syndrome exhibit hypocalcemia, which manifests as increased neuromuscular excitability. - Symptoms range from mild tingling in hands & feet to severe muscle cramps & convulsions.	Pathology	Parathyroids	(a) Hypocalcemia	(a) Hypocalcemia (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Hypokalemia (d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis	(a)	[ "(b)", "(c)", "(d)" ]	[ "(b) Hypoglycemia", "(c) Hypokalemia", "(d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis" ]	(d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A female neonate with DiGeorge syndrome develops severe muscle cramps and convulsions soon after bih. Which of the following is the cause of convulsions in this neonate?\n\n(a) Hypocalcemia\n(b) Hypoglycemia\n(c) Hypokalemia\n(d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(a) Hypocalcemia", "role": "assistant" } ]
be1c371f-e21d-4ec6-a7ce-022863ca96bb	In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the- A. Post sinusoidal B. Hepatic vein C. Sinusoids D. Extra hepatic portal vein	Hepatic vein	Post sinusoidal	Extra hepatic portal vein	Sinusoids	3	single	null	Surgery	null	C. Sinusoids	A. Post sinusoidal B. Hepatic vein C. Sinusoids D. Extra hepatic portal vein	C.	[ "A.", "B.", "D." ]	[ "A. Post sinusoidal", "B. Hepatic vein", "D. Extra hepatic portal vein" ]	A. Post sinusoidal	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the-\n\nA. Post sinusoidal\nB. Hepatic vein\nC. Sinusoids\nD. Extra hepatic portal vein", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C. Sinusoids", "role": "assistant" } ]
fcf0e851-e66d-4a42-a5e8-11992065b2c1	Role of Fluorine in dental health is the following EXCEPT (a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite (b) To make enamel several times less soluble (c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface (d) To make enamel harder than usual	To make enamel harder than usual	To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite	To make enamel several times less soluble	To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface	0	multi	Ans. a. (To make enamel harder than usual) (Ref. Guyton physiology 11th/994, 879)Role of Fluorine in Preventing Caries. Teeth formed in children who drink water that contains small amounts of fluorine develop enamel that is more resistant to caries than the enamel in children who drink water that does not contain fluorine. Fluorine does not make the enamel harder than usual, but fluorine ions replace many of the hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite crystals, which in turn makes the enamel several times less soluble. Fluorine may also be toxic to the bacteria. Finally, when small pits do develop in the enamel, fluorine is believed to promote deposition of calcium phosphate to "heal" the enamel surface. Regardless of the precise means by which fluorine protects the teeth, it is known that small amounts of fluorine deposited in enamel make teeth about three times as resistant to caries as teeth without fluorine.# Fluorine does not seem to be a necessary element for metabolism & it does not make the teeth themselves stronger but has a poorly understood effect in suppressing the cariogenic process.# Even though the mottled teeth are highly resistant to the development of caries, the structural strength of these teeth may be considerably lessened by the mottling process.	Physiology	Misc.	(d) To make enamel harder than usual	(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite (b) To make enamel several times less soluble (c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface (d) To make enamel harder than usual	(d)	[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]	[ "(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite", "(b) To make enamel several times less soluble", "(c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface" ]	(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Role of Fluorine in dental health is the following EXCEPT\n\n(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite\n(b) To make enamel several times less soluble\n(c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface\n(d) To make enamel harder than usual", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) To make enamel harder than usual", "role": "assistant" } ]
45f15096-fda9-4f57-83f8-0db95c5e3534	Decrease in gastric acid secretion by all except ? 1) Omeprazole 2) Perenzepine 3) Ranitidine 4) Sucalfate	Ranitidine	Omeprazole	Sucalfate	Perenzepine	2	multi	Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sucralfate Drugsarpgalcer 1. Reduce gastric acid secretion H2 antihistaminic - Cimetidine, Ranitidine, Famotidine, Roxatidine. Proton pump inhibitors - Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Pantoprazole, Rabeprazole, Esomeprazole. Anticholinergics - Pirenzepine, propantheline, oxyphenonium. Prostaglandin analogue - Misoprostol, enprostii, rioprostil. 2. Neutralization of gastric acid (antacids) Systemic - Sodium bicarbonate, sodium citrate. Non systemic - Magnesium hydroxide, Mag. trisilicate, aluminium hydroxide, Magaldrate, calcium carbonate. 3. Ulcer protectives Sucral fate, colloidal bismuth subcitrate, Prostaglandin analogue. 4. Anti H. pylori durgs Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, metronidazole, Tinidazole, tetracycline.	Pharmacology	null	4) Sucalfate	1) Omeprazole 2) Perenzepine 3) Ranitidine 4) Sucalfate	4)	[ "1)", "2)", "3)" ]	[ "1) Omeprazole", "2) Perenzepine", "3) Ranitidine" ]	2) Perenzepine	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Decrease in gastric acid secretion by all except ?\n\n1) Omeprazole\n2) Perenzepine\n3) Ranitidine\n4) Sucalfate", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4) Sucalfate", "role": "assistant" } ]
1b1fbe73-6d4c-46c0-aeb5-59a5a67c69e3	A male patient presents with headache, profuse sweating and palpitations with a blood prssure of 180/120 mmHg. The drug of choice would be - a) Prazocin b) Labetalol c) Phenoxy benzamine d) Nifedipine	Nifedipine	Labetalol	Prazocin	Phenoxy benzamine	3	single	Answer- D. Phenoxy benzamineSymptoms of the patient suggests pheochromocytoma .The drug of choice for pheochromocytomas is phenoxybenzamine	Medicine	null	c) Phenoxy benzamine	a) Prazocin b) Labetalol c) Phenoxy benzamine d) Nifedipine	c)	[ "a)", "b)", "d)" ]	[ "a) Prazocin", "b) Labetalol", "d) Nifedipine" ]	a) Prazocin	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A male patient presents with headache, profuse sweating and palpitations with a blood prssure of 180/120 mmHg. The drug of choice would be -\n\na) Prazocin\nb) Labetalol\nc) Phenoxy benzamine\nd) Nifedipine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "c) Phenoxy benzamine", "role": "assistant" } ]
5e41fa11-f4c0-4023-9dc5-8cd2d3b41cee	Reactive ahritis is caused by: I. C. trachomatis II. Staphylococcus III. H. influenzae IV. N. gonorrhoe	Staphylococcus	H. influenzae	N. gonorrhoe	C. trachomatis	3	single	Ans. (d) C. trachomatis Ref CMDT 2014, p 825 Reactive ahritis (formerly called Reiter syndrome) is the clinical tetrad of uretheritis, conjunctivitis (or uveitis), mucocutaneous lesions and aseptic ahritis. Most cases develop within days weeks after either a dysenteric infection or urogential infection. GI Urogenital Shigella Chlamydia trachomatus Salmonella Ureoplasma urealyticum Yersina Compylobacter Associated infection: Ahritis is most commonly assymetric, and frequently involves the large joints (most commonly ankle and knee); Sacroiliatis and ankylosing spondylitis is observed in atleast 20% of patients; especially after frequent recurrences.	Microbiology	null	I. C. trachomatis	I. C. trachomatis II. Staphylococcus III. H. influenzae IV. N. gonorrhoe	I.	[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]	[ "II. Staphylococcus", "III. H. influenzae", "IV. N. gonorrhoe" ]	III. H. influenzae	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Reactive ahritis is caused by:\n\nI. C. trachomatis\nII. Staphylococcus\nIII. H. influenzae\nIV. N. gonorrhoe", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. C. trachomatis", "role": "assistant" } ]
3b67ac3b-f01c-4870-8ebf-c69c1f59ed2a	A 10-year-old child presents with diarrhea and abdominal pain since 4 days. Stool microscopy was done and is shown below. Which of the following can be used for the treatment? I. Praziquantel II. Ivermectin III. Mebendazole IV. Diethylcarbamazine	Mebendazole	Ivermectin	Diethylcarbamazine	Praziquantel	3	single	The given clinical history and the stool microscopy showing the egg are suggestive of infection with Hymenolepis nana. It is treated by Praziquantel. Characteristics of Hymenolepis nana eggs: Colorless, non-bile stained Possesses a single shell with an operculum at one end and a knob at the other end. Reference: Paniker&;s Textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition	Microbiology	miscellaneous	I. Praziquantel	I. Praziquantel II. Ivermectin III. Mebendazole IV. Diethylcarbamazine	I.	[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]	[ "II. Ivermectin", "III. Mebendazole", "IV. Diethylcarbamazine" ]	II. Ivermectin	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A 10-year-old child presents with diarrhea and abdominal pain since 4 days. Stool microscopy was done and is shown below. Which of the following can be used for the treatment?\n\nI. Praziquantel\nII. Ivermectin\nIII. Mebendazole\nIV. Diethylcarbamazine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. Praziquantel", "role": "assistant" } ]
7cbf2a59-8a71-4230-a0db-6a4a70aa40f7	Hyperammonemia blocks which phase of Krebs cycle? 1) Succinate dehydrogenase 2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 3) Malate dehydrogenase 4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase	Malate dehydrogenase	Isocitrate dehydrogenase	a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase	Succinate dehydrogenase	0	single	a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase REF: Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students 6th edition by D. M. Vasudevan page 179, http://en .wikipedia. org/wiki/Citric_acid_ cycle Urea cycle and TCA cycle are interlinked and so it is called as "Urea Bicycle". The absence of a urea cycle enzyme can result in hyperammonemia or in the build-up of one or more urea cycle intermediates, depending on the enzyme that is missing. Excess ammonia has been shown to inhibit the citric acid cycle (Hatch, 1977) One effect of ammonia is the inhibition of the rate limiting TCA cycle enzyme alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (alphaKGDH) and possibly also pyruvate dehydrogenase, but this has been regarded to be of no quantitative impoance. However, recent studies justify a revision of this point of view. Based on published data, the following sequence of events is proposed. Inhibition of alphaKGDH both enhances the detoxification of ammonia by formation of glutamine from alpha-ketoglutarate and reduces the rate of NADH and oxidative ATP production in astrocytic mitochondria. Substrates Products Enzyme Reaction type Comment 1 Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA + H20 Citrate + CoA-SH Citrate synthase Aldol condensation irreversible, extends the 4C oxaloacetate to a 6C molecule 2 Citrate cis-Aconitate + H20 Aconitase Dehydration reversible isomerisation 3 cis-Aconitate + H20 Isocitrate Hydration 4 Isocitrate + NAD+ Oxalosuccinate + NADH + H + Isocitrate dehydrogenase Oxidation generates NADH (equivalent of 2.5 ATP) 5 Oxalosuccinate a-Ketoglutarate + CO2 Decarboxylation rate-limiting, irreversible stage, generates a 5C molecule 6 a-Ketoglutarate + NAD+ + CoA-SH Succinyl-CoA + NADH + H+ + CO2 u-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Oxidative decarboxylation irreversible stage, generates NADH (equivalent of 2.5 ATP), regenerates the 4C chain (CoA excluded) 7 Succinyl-CoA + GDP + Pi Succinate + CoA-SH + GTP Succinyl-CoA synthetase substrate-level phosphorylation ADP ATP or ---o. instead of GDP -- GTP,[91 generates 1 ATP or equivalent 8 Succinate + ubiquinone (Q) Fumarate -F ubiquinol (QH2) Succinate dehydrogenase Oxidation uses FAD as a prosthetic group (FAD FADH2 in first --, the step of the reaction) in the enzyme,'91 generates the quivalent of 1.5 ATP 9 Fumarate + H20 L-Malate Fumarase Hydration 10 L-Malate + NAD+ Oxaloacetate + NADH + H+ Malate dehydrogenase Oxidation reversible (in fact, equilibrium ors inalate), generates NADH (equivalent of 2.5 ATP)	Biochemistry	null	3) Malate dehydrogenase	1) Succinate dehydrogenase 2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 3) Malate dehydrogenase 4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase	3)	[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]	[ "1) Succinate dehydrogenase", "2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase", "4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase" ]	4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Hyperammonemia blocks which phase of Krebs cycle?\n\n1) Succinate dehydrogenase\n2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase\n3) Malate dehydrogenase\n4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Malate dehydrogenase", "role": "assistant" } ]
1b70cf71-747c-49f1-a78d-4b730865982f	World Health Organization 2010 criteria for morphology (strict criteria) for semen analysis includes - A) >=32% normal forms B) >=4% normal forms C) >15% normal forms D) >=25% normal forms	>15% normal forms	>=4% normal forms	>=25% normal forms	>=32% normal forms	1	single	Normal Semen Analysis: World Health Organization 2010 Guideline Volume >=1.5 mL Sperm concentration >=15 million/mL Total sperm number >= 39 million/ ejaculate Sperm motility >40%motile, >32%progressive Morphology >=4% normal forms (kruger's strict criteria) Vitality 58 % White blood cells <1 million/mL Immunobead/Mixed antiglobulin Reaction <50% coated with antibodies reaction	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Infeility (Eggs'plantation!)	B) >=4% normal forms	A) >=32% normal forms B) >=4% normal forms C) >15% normal forms D) >=25% normal forms	B)	[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]	[ "A) >=32% normal forms", "C) >15% normal forms", "D) >=25% normal forms" ]	A) >=32% normal forms	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "World Health Organization 2010 criteria for morphology (strict criteria) for semen analysis includes -\n\nA) >=32% normal forms\nB) >=4% normal forms\nC) >15% normal forms\nD) >=25% normal forms", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) >=4% normal forms", "role": "assistant" } ]
0dc53cf0-ce1a-429a-a781-0ca2f3d4d175	Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors ? (A) Neurofibromas (B) Ependymomas (C) Medulloblastomas (D) Astrocytomas	Astrocytomas	Medulloblastomas	Neurofibromas	Ependymomas	0	single	null	Medicine	null	(D) Astrocytomas	(A) Neurofibromas (B) Ependymomas (C) Medulloblastomas (D) Astrocytomas	(D)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]	[ "(A) Neurofibromas", "(B) Ependymomas", "(C) Medulloblastomas" ]	(B) Ependymomas	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors ?\n\n(A) Neurofibromas\n(B) Ependymomas\n(C) Medulloblastomas\n(D) Astrocytomas", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Astrocytomas", "role": "assistant" } ]
aa7165de-663a-4672-8f08-fdac5cd8aa20	True about revised National Tuberculosis programme (NTP) – a) Active case findingb) DOTS appliedc) Treatment is given only in smear positive casesd) General practitioners are restricted to give the treatmente) It has replaced NTP (a) ab (b) be (c) ad (d) ce	ab	ad	be	ce	2	multi	Government of India, WHO, and World Bank together reviewed the NTP in the year of 1992. Based on the findings revised strategy for NTP, Revised National tuberculosis control programme was made. Under RNTCP case finding is passive. Patient present them - selves with symptoms suspicious of tuberculosis will be screened. Treatment is not only given to smear positive person but also to the smear -ve but X-ray features positive person also. Under RNTCP qualified Medical officer of PHC, cadres of health workers and MPWs also involved in programme of case detection and treatment.	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	(b) be	(a) ab (b) be (c) ad (d) ce	(b)	[ "(a)", "(c)", "(d)" ]	[ "(a) ab", "(c) ad", "(d) ce" ]	(d) ce	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "True about revised National Tuberculosis programme (NTP) – a) Active case findingb) DOTS appliedc) Treatment is given only in smear positive casesd) General practitioners are restricted to give the treatmente) It has replaced NTP\n\n(a) ab\n(b) be\n(c) ad\n(d) ce", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(b) be", "role": "assistant" } ]
093ddf70-8ff0-4a59-b8c0-d68e9dea5c66	Memory disturbance of ECT recovers in - 1) Few months to few year 2) Permanent 3) Few weeks to few months 4) Few days to few weeks	Few days to few weeks	Few weeks to few months	Few months to few year	Permanent	1	single	Amnesia after ECT is almost always reversible within few weeks to 2 months. Remember Amnesia for the memory of 6 months before ECT → Retrograde amnesia for 6 months. Amnesia for 2 months after ECT → Antegrade amnesia for 2 months.	Psychiatry	null	3) Few weeks to few months	1) Few months to few year 2) Permanent 3) Few weeks to few months 4) Few days to few weeks	3)	[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]	[ "1) Few months to few year", "2) Permanent", "4) Few days to few weeks" ]	1) Few months to few year	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Memory disturbance of ECT recovers in -\n\n1) Few months to few year\n2) Permanent\n3) Few weeks to few months\n4) Few days to few weeks", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Few weeks to few months", "role": "assistant" } ]
2a71a98d-c29e-4205-b367-d31be86f878b	A child draws circle at – i. 12 months ii. 24 months iii. 30 months iv. 36 months	12 months	24 months	30 months	36 months	3	single	null	Pediatrics	null	iv. 36 months	i. 12 months ii. 24 months iii. 30 months iv. 36 months	iv.	[ "i.", "ii.", "iii." ]	[ "i. 12 months", "ii. 24 months", "iii. 30 months" ]	i. 12 months	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A child draws circle at –\n\ni. 12 months\nii. 24 months\niii. 30 months\niv. 36 months", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iv. 36 months", "role": "assistant" } ]
4068ae51-1bfa-443a-80c7-1488b612bc37	CO2 level in kPa above which brain stem death is confirmed ? (1) 9 (2) 5 (3) 6.5 (4) 1	1	9	5	6.5	3	multi	Answer- D. 6.5At the end of a period of observation, typically several minutes, aerial Pco2 should be at least > 6.6-8.0 kPa (50-60 mmHg) for the test to be valid.Apnea is confirmed if no respiratory effo has been observed in the presence of a sufficiently elevated Pco2.	Medicine	null	(3) 6.5	(1) 9 (2) 5 (3) 6.5 (4) 1	(3)	[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]	[ "(1) 9", "(2) 5", "(4) 1" ]	(1) 9	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "CO2 level in kPa above which brain stem death is confirmed ?\n\n(1) 9\n(2) 5\n(3) 6.5\n(4) 1", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) 6.5", "role": "assistant" } ]
f1ba21a1-d33c-41c4-a8ef-1fb0e1bf8930	A child , Names 4 colours by the age of I. 36 months II. 24 months III. 48 months IV. 60 months	24 months	36 months	48 months	60 months	3	single	Emerging patterns for language behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Jargon Follows simple commands May name a familiar object (e.g., ball) Responds to his/her name 18months 10 words (average) Names pictures Identifies 1 or more pas of the body 24months Puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object) 30months Refers to self by the pronoun "I" Knows full name 36months Knows age and sex Counts 3 objects correctly Repeats 3 numbers or a sentence of 6 syllables Most of the speech intelligible to strangers 48months Counts 4 pennies accurately Tells story 60months Names 4 colours Repeats sentence of 10 syllables Counts 10 pennies correctly Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1	Pediatrics	Growth and development	IV. 60 months	I. 36 months II. 24 months III. 48 months IV. 60 months	IV.	[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]	[ "I. 36 months", "II. 24 months", "III. 48 months" ]	III. 48 months	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A child , Names 4 colours by the age of\n\nI. 36 months\nII. 24 months\nIII. 48 months\nIV. 60 months", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. 60 months", "role": "assistant" } ]
3feba6d4-7c0f-4809-b2e9-99373100d06c	A sewage worker with fever and jaundice presented to the emergency depament. Lab investigations revealed increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine - indicative of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is preferred in this patient? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Erythromycin (c) Penicillin G (d) Doxycycline	Erythromycin	Doxycycline	Penicillin G	Ciprofloxacin	2	single	The history of fever and jaundice in a sewage worker with features of renal failure is suggestive of Weil's disease Intravenous penicillin G is the preferred antibiotic for treatment of Weil's disease Erythromycin can be used as an alternative In mild cases of leptospirosis, oral therapy with ampicillin / tetracycline is given Doxycycline is used for prophylaxis against leptospirosis Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive medicine	Social & Preventive Medicine	All India exam	(c) Penicillin G	(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Erythromycin (c) Penicillin G (d) Doxycycline	(c)	[ "(a)", "(b)", "(d)" ]	[ "(a) Ciprofloxacin", "(b) Erythromycin", "(d) Doxycycline" ]	(a) Ciprofloxacin	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A sewage worker with fever and jaundice presented to the emergency depament. Lab investigations revealed increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine - indicative of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is preferred in this patient?\n\n(a) Ciprofloxacin\n(b) Erythromycin\n(c) Penicillin G\n(d) Doxycycline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(c) Penicillin G", "role": "assistant" } ]
10f4c2a9-ce35-4656-b9f0-95de7aab14a4	A 69-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with an acute UGI hemorrhage following a bout of repeated vomiting. Fiberoptic gastroscopy reveals three linear mucosal tears at the GE junction. What is the diagnosis? 1) Mallory-Weiss tear 2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration 3) Barrett's esophagus 4) Carcinoma of the esophagus	Reflux esophagitis with ulceration	Barrett's esophagus	Carcinoma of the esophagus	Mallory-Weiss tear	3	multi	A Mallory-Weiss tear is characterized by acute and sometimes massive UGI hemorrhage. It accounts for up to 10%. of UGI bleeds. It is due to arterial bleeding following repeated vomiting (which causes mucosal tears at the GE junction). The cause is the same as that for spontaneous rupture of the esophagus (i.e., an increase in intra-abdominal pressure against a closed glottis). Causes other than vomiting such as paroxysmal coughing or retching, may sometimes lead to this condition. Upper endoscopy confirms the diagnosis. Surgery may occasionally be necessary to stop the bleeding.	Surgery	Stomach & Duodenum	1) Mallory-Weiss tear	1) Mallory-Weiss tear 2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration 3) Barrett's esophagus 4) Carcinoma of the esophagus	1)	[ "2)", "3)", "4)" ]	[ "2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration", "3) Barrett's esophagus", "4) Carcinoma of the esophagus" ]	2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "A 69-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with an acute UGI hemorrhage following a bout of repeated vomiting. Fiberoptic gastroscopy reveals three linear mucosal tears at the GE junction. What is the diagnosis?\n\n1) Mallory-Weiss tear\n2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration\n3) Barrett's esophagus\n4) Carcinoma of the esophagus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1) Mallory-Weiss tear", "role": "assistant" } ]
fc4906e7-a124-4c02-a51b-7370fcae6f85	Which of these statements is false for erythema marginatum? (1) Rash is itchy (2) Rash worsens on application of heat (3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever (4) Lesions are serpiginous	Lesions are serpiginous	Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever	Rash worsens on application of heat	Rash is itchy	3	multi	Erythema marginatum is one of the major criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever. It is an evanescent macular rash which has following characteristics- Pink /erythematous with a clear centre Rounded or serpiginous border Non-pruritic Non-indurated Transient Migratory → moves from place to place Brought on by application of heat Not raised above skin Blanches on pressure Distribution → on trunk and proximal extremities. Face is never involved. Erythema marginatum is extremely rare in Indian patients.	Dental	null	(1) Rash is itchy	(1) Rash is itchy (2) Rash worsens on application of heat (3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever (4) Lesions are serpiginous	(1)	[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]	[ "(2) Rash worsens on application of heat", "(3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever", "(4) Lesions are serpiginous" ]	(4) Lesions are serpiginous	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of these statements is false for erythema marginatum?\n\n(1) Rash is itchy\n(2) Rash worsens on application of heat\n(3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever\n(4) Lesions are serpiginous", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) Rash is itchy", "role": "assistant" } ]
a83b48f3-485f-4afd-b9fd-6bcd8f39f37f	Which of the following enzyme is absent in Wolman's disease? I. Acid lipase II. Acyl-CoA carnitine III. Acid hydrolase IV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase	Cholestrol ester hydrolase	Acid hydrolase	Acyl-CoA carnitine	Acid lipase	3	single	Ans. D. Acid lipase (Ref. H-17th/ pg. 2454; Table 355-1)WOLMAN'S DISEASE# It is a lysosomal storage disorder, that occurs due to acid lipase deficiency.# Features: increased LDL levels, hypercholesterolemia, atherosclerosis, adrenal calcification and death in infancy itself.Disorders of Neutral LipidsDisorderEnzyme Deficiency (Specific Therapy)Stored MaterialClinical Types (Onset)Inheri-tanceNeuro- logic featuresLiver Spleen Enlarge- mentSkeletal DysplasiaEyeHemato logicUnique featuresWolman diseaseAcid lysoso- mal Lipase (BMT)Choles- terol esters, triglyce ridesInfantileARMild mental retarda- tion+++NoneNoneNoneAdrenal calcifi- cationCholes- teryl ester storage diseaseAcid lysoso- mal lipaseCholes- teryl estersChild- hoodARNoneHepato- megalyNoneNoneNoneCirrhosisFarber diseaseAcid cerami daseCeramideInfantile JuvenileAROccasio- nal men- tal retar- dation+-NoneMacular degene- rationNoneArthropa thy, subcu- taneous nodulePompe disease (135)Acid -gluco sidase (ET)Glyco- genInfantile late onsetARNeuro- muscu- lar+-NoneNoneNoneMyocar- diopathy	Biochemistry	Lipids	I. Acid lipase	I. Acid lipase II. Acyl-CoA carnitine III. Acid hydrolase IV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase	I.	[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]	[ "II. Acyl-CoA carnitine", "III. Acid hydrolase", "IV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase" ]	III. Acid hydrolase	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following enzyme is absent in Wolman's disease?\n\nI. Acid lipase\nII. Acyl-CoA carnitine\nIII. Acid hydrolase\nIV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. Acid lipase", "role": "assistant" } ]
f63ec75d-abfe-4911-94f8-8a64b749e2c5	Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus? [A] tRNA synthesis [B] Modification of proteins [C] mRNA synthesis [D] Protein storage	Modification of proteins	mRNA synthesis	Protein storage	tRNA synthesis	0	single	null	Biochemistry	null	[B] Modification of proteins	[A] tRNA synthesis [B] Modification of proteins [C] mRNA synthesis [D] Protein storage	[B]	[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]	[ "[A] tRNA synthesis", "[C] mRNA synthesis", "[D] Protein storage" ]	[A] tRNA synthesis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus?\n\n[A] tRNA synthesis\n[B] Modification of proteins\n[C] mRNA synthesis\n[D] Protein storage", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] Modification of proteins", "role": "assistant" } ]
3f114ea0-538e-4a30-9ab5-9ad83e312b39	Distal and collecting duct cysts are seen in? 1) Tuberous sclerosis 2) Nephronophthisis 3) ARPKD 4) ADPKD	ADPKD	ARPKD	Tuberous sclerosis	Nephronophthisis	1	single	ADPKD: cysts are in coex & medulla (Hepatic cyst manifestation) ARPKD: Distal & Collecting duct cyst (Hepatic fibrosis) MC age- <1yr Protein affected- Fibrocystin(Chr. 6) Presentation- B\L Abdominal mass Hypolasia of lungs Peripoal fibrosis	Medicine	Polycystic Kidneys	3) ARPKD	1) Tuberous sclerosis 2) Nephronophthisis 3) ARPKD 4) ADPKD	3)	[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]	[ "1) Tuberous sclerosis", "2) Nephronophthisis", "4) ADPKD" ]	4) ADPKD	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Distal and collecting duct cysts are seen in?\n\n1) Tuberous sclerosis\n2) Nephronophthisis\n3) ARPKD\n4) ADPKD", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) ARPKD", "role": "assistant" } ]
d25db791-7464-4861-bb3f-e94fe4a38286	Vomar-sphenoidal rostrum junction is? [a] Schindylesis [b] Synostosis [c] Syndesmsis [d] Gomphoiss	Syndesmsis	Synostosis	Schindylesis	Gomphoiss	2	single	C i.e. Schindylesis	Anatomy	null	[a] Schindylesis	[a] Schindylesis [b] Synostosis [c] Syndesmsis [d] Gomphoiss	[a]	[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]	[ "[b] Synostosis", "[c] Syndesmsis", "[d] Gomphoiss" ]	[d] Gomphoiss	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Vomar-sphenoidal rostrum junction is?\n\n[a] Schindylesis\n[b] Synostosis\n[c] Syndesmsis\n[d] Gomphoiss", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Schindylesis", "role": "assistant" } ]
000dd38b-1d32-4390-9840-27452bd2e383	Best diagnosis of ovulation is by : I. Endometrial biopsy II. Laproscopy III. Ultrasound IV. Chromotubation	Ultrasound	Laproscopy	Endometrial biopsy	Chromotubation	0	single	Ultrasound	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null	III. Ultrasound	I. Endometrial biopsy II. Laproscopy III. Ultrasound IV. Chromotubation	III.	[ "I.", "II.", "IV." ]	[ "I. Endometrial biopsy", "II. Laproscopy", "IV. Chromotubation" ]	I. Endometrial biopsy	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Best diagnosis of ovulation is by :\n\nI. Endometrial biopsy\nII. Laproscopy\nIII. Ultrasound\nIV. Chromotubation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "III. Ultrasound", "role": "assistant" } ]
dd005f08-c766-461d-b6bb-b120e50e651e	Most common predisposing factor for chronic pyelonephritis is: [1] Diabetes mellitus [2] Renal stone [3] Vesicoureteric reflux [4] Posterior urethral valve	Diabetes mellitus	Renal stone	Posterior urethral valve	Vesicoureteric reflux	3	single	Chronic pyelonephritis is so often associated with vesicoureteric reflux that some feel that it is better named "Reflux nephropathy". It is impoant cause of renal damage and death from end - stage renal failure.	Surgery	Kidney and ureter	[3] Vesicoureteric reflux	[1] Diabetes mellitus [2] Renal stone [3] Vesicoureteric reflux [4] Posterior urethral valve	[3]	[ "[1]", "[2]", "[4]" ]	[ "[1] Diabetes mellitus", "[2] Renal stone", "[4] Posterior urethral valve" ]	[1] Diabetes mellitus	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Most common predisposing factor for chronic pyelonephritis is:\n\n[1] Diabetes mellitus\n[2] Renal stone\n[3] Vesicoureteric reflux\n[4] Posterior urethral valve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[3] Vesicoureteric reflux", "role": "assistant" } ]
253a8e57-19ce-4247-b7a8-deaea3eafbd9	All of the following are essential for a well to meet the criteria of a sanitary well, EXCEPT: 1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm 2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination 3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres 4) Consumer responsibility	Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination	Consumer responsibility	No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres	A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm	2	multi	The criteria for a sanitary well are: Location: It should be at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination located a higher level than nearby sources of contamination and no user should have to carry water for more than 100m Lining: The inside of the well should be lined with bricks up to a depth of 6 metre and 60-90cm above the ground level. Parapet wall should be up to a height of at least 70-75cm. Platform: A cement concrete platform should be constructed around the well with a radius of at least 1m in all directions. Drain Cover Hand pump Consumer responsibility Quality: The physical chemical and biological parameters of the well water should conform to acceptable standards Ref: Environment and health Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st edition, page-656.	Social & Preventive Medicine	null	3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres	1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm 2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination 3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres 4) Consumer responsibility	3)	[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]	[ "1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm", "2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination", "4) Consumer responsibility" ]	2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "All of the following are essential for a well to meet the criteria of a sanitary well, EXCEPT:\n\n1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm\n2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination\n3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres\n4) Consumer responsibility", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres", "role": "assistant" } ]
0851ad59-4e18-4802-9750-67a3cf02e26b	Which of the following structure passes through inferior orbital fissure? a) Abducent nerve b) Infraorbital nerve c) Oculomotor nerve d) Lacrimal nerve	Abducent nerve	Lacrimal nerve	Infraorbital nerve	Oculomotor nerve	2	single	Ans. C. Infraorbital nerveThe medial wall and the floor of the orbit are separated posteriorly by the inferior orbital fissure.It transmits the:a. Infra-orbital nerve (from the maxillary division of trigeminal nerve)b. Zygomatic nerve (from the maxillary division of trigeminal nerve)c. A branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein and several emissary veins connecting it to the pterygoid venous plexusd. Infra-orbital artery (from the maxillary artery) and veine. Orbital ganglionic branches of the pterygopalatine ganglion from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve	Anatomy	Head & Neck	b) Infraorbital nerve	a) Abducent nerve b) Infraorbital nerve c) Oculomotor nerve d) Lacrimal nerve	b)	[ "a)", "c)", "d)" ]	[ "a) Abducent nerve", "c) Oculomotor nerve", "d) Lacrimal nerve" ]	c) Oculomotor nerve	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following structure passes through inferior orbital fissure?\n\na) Abducent nerve\nb) Infraorbital nerve\nc) Oculomotor nerve\nd) Lacrimal nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b) Infraorbital nerve", "role": "assistant" } ]
ec7a74f3-7f2d-41a2-9e21-26a61534720a	Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypeension is - [1] Pleural effusion [2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation [3] Left atrial enlargement [4] Kerley B Lines	Upper lobar vessel dilatation	Kerley B Lines	Left atrial enlargement	Pleural effusion	0	single	Upper lobe venous diversion is the 1st radiological sign of pulmonary venous hypeension.Kerley B Lines , perihilar haze ,peribronchial cuffing,pumonary ossicles ,fine punctuate calcification and perihilar batwing pattern are the other features seen in PVH.	Radiology	Cardiovascular system	[2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation	[1] Pleural effusion [2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation [3] Left atrial enlargement [4] Kerley B Lines	[2]	[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]	[ "[1] Pleural effusion", "[3] Left atrial enlargement", "[4] Kerley B Lines" ]	[1] Pleural effusion	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypeension is -\n\n[1] Pleural effusion\n[2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation\n[3] Left atrial enlargement\n[4] Kerley B Lines", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation", "role": "assistant" } ]
c4643346-dac7-42a2-ba0b-0300afa178e9	All are true about Boerhaave's syndrome except A) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa C) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis D) Barotrauma	Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third	Barotrauma	Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis	Veical split in the gastric mucosa	3	multi	In Boerhaave's syndrome, vomiting occurs against a closed glottis and pressure builds up in the oesophagus. The pressure in the oesophagus increases rapidly, and the oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third, sending a stream of material into the mediastinum and often the pleural cavity as well. In Mallory-eiss syndrome, forceful vomiting may produce a mucosal tear at the cardia rather than a full perforation. A veical split in the gastric mucosa, immediately below the squamocolumnar junction at the cardia is seen in 90% of cases. In only 10% is the tear in the oesophagusRef: Bailey and love 27e pg: 1072	Surgery	General surgery	B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa	A) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa C) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis D) Barotrauma	B)	[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]	[ "A) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third", "C) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis", "D) Barotrauma" ]	D) Barotrauma	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "All are true about Boerhaave's syndrome except\n\nA) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third\nB) Veical split in the gastric mucosa\nC) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis\nD) Barotrauma", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa", "role": "assistant" } ]
b3386554-fdbc-4b3b-83ab-ca8bee4883fd	Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine the rupture of the hymen? (a) Gaba rod (b) Gram rod (c) Cylinder rod (d) Glaister Keen rod	Gram rod	Glaister Keen rod	Gaba rod	Cylinder rod	1	single	Glaister Keen rod is used for close examination of the hymen or the degree of its rupture. Ref - Krishan Vij 5th edition pg 314	Forensic Medicine	Sexual offences and infanticide	(d) Glaister Keen rod	(a) Gaba rod (b) Gram rod (c) Cylinder rod (d) Glaister Keen rod	(d)	[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]	[ "(a) Gaba rod", "(b) Gram rod", "(c) Cylinder rod" ]	(a) Gaba rod	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine the rupture of the hymen?\n\n(a) Gaba rod\n(b) Gram rod\n(c) Cylinder rod\n(d) Glaister Keen rod", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) Glaister Keen rod", "role": "assistant" } ]
8c4ec18e-dfd5-44a1-80d3-68ab07e52775	The metabolic dearrangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is A. Hyperchloremic alkalosis B. Hypochloremic alkalosis C. Hyperchloremic acidosis D. Hypochloremic acidosis	Hypochloremic alkalosis	Hyperchloremic alkalosis	Hyperchloremic acidosis	Hypochloremic acidosis	0	single	The classical presentation is non bilious vomiting begining at 3-6 weeks of age Severity and frequency of vomiting increases gradually Persistant vomiting leads to malnutrition,dehydration and hypochloremic alkalosis. constipation is usual Diagnosis is based on history and palpability of mass. Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI,PG NO:253,7 th edition	Pediatrics	Gastrointestinal tract	B. Hypochloremic alkalosis	A. Hyperchloremic alkalosis B. Hypochloremic alkalosis C. Hyperchloremic acidosis D. Hypochloremic acidosis	B.	[ "A.", "C.", "D." ]	[ "A. Hyperchloremic alkalosis", "C. Hyperchloremic acidosis", "D. Hypochloremic acidosis" ]	C. Hyperchloremic acidosis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "The metabolic dearrangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is\n\nA. Hyperchloremic alkalosis\nB. Hypochloremic alkalosis\nC. Hyperchloremic acidosis\nD. Hypochloremic acidosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B. Hypochloremic alkalosis", "role": "assistant" } ]
3412b904-11c4-4f45-a4a3-ede791e2670a	False about perikymata is (1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth. (2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius (3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth. (4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.	External manifestation of striae of Retzius	Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.	May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.	May be seen on surface of primary teeth.	3	multi	Perikymata is absent on the surface of primary teeth.	Dental	null	(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth.	(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth. (2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius (3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth. (4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.	(1)	[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]	[ "(2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius", "(3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.", "(4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth." ]	(3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "False about perikymata is\n\n(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth.\n(2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius\n(3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.\n(4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth.", "role": "assistant" } ]
eb4084ae-c79b-4851-aaed-a567e48fc527	Working Formulation in staging of NHL is based on - 1. None of the above 2. Cells of origin 3. Survival characteristics of cells 4. Morphology of cells	Survival characteristics of cells	Morphology of cells	Cells of origin	None of the above	1	multi	null	Pathology	null	4. Morphology of cells	1. None of the above 2. Cells of origin 3. Survival characteristics of cells 4. Morphology of cells	4.	[ "1.", "2.", "3." ]	[ "1. None of the above", "2. Cells of origin", "3. Survival characteristics of cells" ]	3. Survival characteristics of cells	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Working Formulation in staging of NHL is based on -\n\n1. None of the above\n2. Cells of origin\n3. Survival characteristics of cells\n4. Morphology of cells", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4. Morphology of cells", "role": "assistant" } ]
c0c277b5-472d-49dd-ba8b-fac0d004ccf6	Breastfeeding must be initiated within:- (A) Two hour (B) Half an hour (C) One hour (D) Four hours	Half an hour	One hour	Two hour	Four hours	1	single	According to WHO guidelines, initiate breast feeding After a normal vaginal delivery: Within 1 hour After a cesarean section: Within 4 hours Current recommendation : Sta breast feeding as early as possible ASAP. (Do not wait for 1 hour or 4 hours)	Social & Preventive Medicine	Paediatric Care in RCH: BW, BL, PEM, Breast Feeding	(C) One hour	(A) Two hour (B) Half an hour (C) One hour (D) Four hours	(C)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(D)" ]	[ "(A) Two hour", "(B) Half an hour", "(D) Four hours" ]	(B) Half an hour	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Breastfeeding must be initiated within:-\n\n(A) Two hour\n(B) Half an hour\n(C) One hour\n(D) Four hours", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(C) One hour", "role": "assistant" } ]
8bf2d6d7-7f14-4ee9-9127-5cadab8721d1	Assuming a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, calculate the minute ventilation. a. 2 L/min b. 6 L/min c. 1 L/min d. 4 L/min	1 L/min	2 L/min	4 L/min	6 L/min	3	single	Minute ventilation is VT x respiratory rate. VT from the graph is 500 milliliters. Therefore, minute ventilation = 500 x 12 = 6 L/min	Physiology	Gaseous exchange	b. 6 L/min	a. 2 L/min b. 6 L/min c. 1 L/min d. 4 L/min	b.	[ "a.", "c.", "d." ]	[ "a. 2 L/min", "c. 1 L/min", "d. 4 L/min" ]	c. 1 L/min	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Assuming a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, calculate the minute ventilation.\n\na. 2 L/min\nb. 6 L/min\nc. 1 L/min\nd. 4 L/min", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b. 6 L/min", "role": "assistant" } ]
d2780bc0-e9c2-46fc-9fc9-b8aac67a0666	Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy: [1] Verapamil [2] Methyldopa [3] Enatapril [4] Furosemide	Enatapril	Verapamil	Methyldopa	Furosemide	2	single	Ans. c. Methyldopa (Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24/e p100; Dutta 7/e p228, Goodman Gillman 12/e p773, 774; Katzung 12/e p176)Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy is methyldopa.Methyldopa is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent. It is a prodrug that exerts its antihypertensive action via an active metabolite. Although used frequently as an antihypertensive agent in the past, methyldopa s significant adverse effects limit its current use largely to treatment of hypertension in pregnancy, where it has a record for safety. " --Goodman Gillman 12/e p 773"Methyldopa is a preferred drug for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy based on its effectiveness and safety for both mother and fetus. The usual initial dose of methyldopa is 250 mg twice daily, and there is little additional effect with doses >2 g/day. "--Goodman Gillman 12/e p774"Methyldopa was widely used in the past but is now used primarily for hypertension during pregnancy. It lowers blood pressure chiefly by reducing peripheral vascular resistance, with a variable reduction in heart rate and cardiac output. " --Katzung 12/e p176Antihypertensives in PregnancySafeContraindicated* LabetaloQ* Alpha methyldopaQ* Calcium channel blockersQ* Hydralazine* Sodium nitroprusside +-* ACE inhibitorsQ* Reserpine* Loratidine Drug of Choice in PregnancyConditionDrug of ChoiceDOC for malaria in pregnancy* ChloroquineQDOC for anticoagulation in pregnancy* HeparinQAnti hypertensive of choice in pregnancy* Alpha-methyldopaQAnti hypertensive of choice for hypertensive crisis in pregnancy* LabetaloQDOC for nausea in pregnancy* Doxylamine and pyridoxineQAnalgesic of choice during pregnancy* AcitoaminophenQAnti-epileptic of choice during pregnancy* PhenobarbitoneQ	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	Management and Long-Term Consequences	[2] Methyldopa	[1] Verapamil [2] Methyldopa [3] Enatapril [4] Furosemide	[2]	[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]	[ "[1] Verapamil", "[3] Enatapril", "[4] Furosemide" ]	[3] Enatapril	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy:\n\n[1] Verapamil\n[2] Methyldopa\n[3] Enatapril\n[4] Furosemide", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Methyldopa", "role": "assistant" } ]
a5c1d591-6797-40c8-b8a3-7c8a6a83bc30	Hypercalcemia is caused by - a) Thiazide b) Vit D intoxication c) Thyrotoxicosis d) All of the above	Thyrotoxicosis	Vit D intoxication	Thiazide	All of the above	3	multi	null	Medicine	null	d) All of the above	a) Thiazide b) Vit D intoxication c) Thyrotoxicosis d) All of the above	d)	[ "a)", "b)", "c)" ]	[ "a) Thiazide", "b) Vit D intoxication", "c) Thyrotoxicosis" ]	c) Thyrotoxicosis	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Hypercalcemia is caused by -\n\na) Thiazide\nb) Vit D intoxication\nc) Thyrotoxicosis\nd) All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d) All of the above", "role": "assistant" } ]
cc163a0b-4696-4eaf-8d71-a583604aa40e	True regarding Staphylococcal food poisoning is - I. Associated with abnormal movements II. Caused by endotoxins III. Caused by fishes IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs	Caused by eating of dairy producrs	Caused by endotoxins	Caused by fishes	Associated with abnormal movements	0	multi	Cows suffering from mastitis have been responsible for outbreak of staphylococcal food poisoning involving milk and milk products. The foods involved are salads, custards, milk and milk products which get contaminated by staphylococci. The illness becomes manifest by the sudden onset of vomiting, abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition, page 238	Social & Preventive Medicine	Communicable diseases	IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs	I. Associated with abnormal movements II. Caused by endotoxins III. Caused by fishes IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs	IV.	[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]	[ "I. Associated with abnormal movements", "II. Caused by endotoxins", "III. Caused by fishes" ]	III. Caused by fishes	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "True regarding Staphylococcal food poisoning is -\n\nI. Associated with abnormal movements\nII. Caused by endotoxins\nIII. Caused by fishes\nIV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs", "role": "assistant" } ]
c41306f9-506c-41ee-8c9b-0a6ab924dcd6	Putrefaction occurs at (A) Evening (B) Any time (C) Night (D) Early morning	Early morning	Evening	Night	Any time	0	single	Exhumation should be done in early morning under natural light as surroundings have to be observed for unusual changes. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 66.	Forensic Medicine	Death and postmortem changes	(D) Early morning	(A) Evening (B) Any time (C) Night (D) Early morning	(D)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]	[ "(A) Evening", "(B) Any time", "(C) Night" ]	(C) Night	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Putrefaction occurs at\n\n(A) Evening\n(B) Any time\n(C) Night\n(D) Early morning", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Early morning", "role": "assistant" } ]
fd402e68-4e81-47ba-9f86-a2e0c1e21b76	All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except: A. Central serous retinopathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Intraocular tumour D. Central retinal vein occlusion	Intraocular tumour	Central retinal vein occlusion	Diabetic retinopathy	Central serous retinopathy	3	multi	Ans. Central serous retinopathy	Ophthalmology	null	A. Central serous retinopathy	A. Central serous retinopathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Intraocular tumour D. Central retinal vein occlusion	A.	[ "B.", "C.", "D." ]	[ "B. Diabetic retinopathy", "C. Intraocular tumour", "D. Central retinal vein occlusion" ]	C. Intraocular tumour	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except:\n\nA. Central serous retinopathy\nB. Diabetic retinopathy\nC. Intraocular tumour\nD. Central retinal vein occlusion", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A. Central serous retinopathy", "role": "assistant" } ]
8c4098c5-02c3-4fb4-9f25-98fdd3bb1abf	Sleep-wake cycle if external cue is removed will be which of the following? A) Unchanged B) Greater than 12 hours C) Greater than 24 hrs D) Less than 24 hrs	Unchanged	Greater than 24 hrs	Less than 24 hrs	Greater than 12 hours	1	single	Circadian clocks keep running even when the environmental cues (changes in light and dark) are removed, but the period of this free-running rhythm is generally a little less or a little more than 24 hours. More frequent is more than 24 hours. Ref: Chest Medicine: Essentials of Pulmonary and Critical Care Medicine edited by Ronald B. George, Richard W. Light, Michael A. Matthay, Richard A. Matthay, 2010, Page 461. 2. Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing By B. T. Basavanthappa, 2007, Page 141	Physiology	null	C) Greater than 24 hrs	A) Unchanged B) Greater than 12 hours C) Greater than 24 hrs D) Less than 24 hrs	C)	[ "A)", "B)", "D)" ]	[ "A) Unchanged", "B) Greater than 12 hours", "D) Less than 24 hrs" ]	D) Less than 24 hrs	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Sleep-wake cycle if external cue is removed will be which of the following?\n\nA) Unchanged\nB) Greater than 12 hours\nC) Greater than 24 hrs\nD) Less than 24 hrs", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C) Greater than 24 hrs", "role": "assistant" } ]
9bc21e5f-1991-4423-ad33-a578772ea2c4	Which of following is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination – (a) Microaneurysms (b) Neovascularisation (c) Arteriolar dilatation (d) Retinal hemorrhages	Microaneurysms	Retinal hemorrhages	Arteriolar dilatation	Neovascularisation	2	single	null	Ophthalmology	null	(c) Arteriolar dilatation	(a) Microaneurysms (b) Neovascularisation (c) Arteriolar dilatation (d) Retinal hemorrhages	(c)	[ "(a)", "(b)", "(d)" ]	[ "(a) Microaneurysms", "(b) Neovascularisation", "(d) Retinal hemorrhages" ]	(d) Retinal hemorrhages	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which of following is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination –\n\n(a) Microaneurysms\n(b) Neovascularisation\n(c) Arteriolar dilatation\n(d) Retinal hemorrhages", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(c) Arteriolar dilatation", "role": "assistant" } ]
a237a349-cd32-465f-af8a-3bb33a040b44	In Marfan&;s syndrome which of the following is affected i. Fibronectin ii. Collagen iii. Fibrillin iv. Actin	Collagen	Fibrillin	Actin	Fibronectin	1	single	It is a connective tissue disorder. Affects fibrillin 1 gene. Clinical features include; Visual difficulties long limbs hea problems etc Refer robbins 145	Pathology	General pathology	iii. Fibrillin	i. Fibronectin ii. Collagen iii. Fibrillin iv. Actin	iii.	[ "i.", "ii.", "iv." ]	[ "i. Fibronectin", "ii. Collagen", "iv. Actin" ]	i. Fibronectin	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "In Marfan&;s syndrome which of the following is affected\n\ni. Fibronectin\nii. Collagen\niii. Fibrillin\niv. Actin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iii. Fibrillin", "role": "assistant" } ]
7ffc1d49-c00d-4c63-9037-3ba6a24f131f	Neonatal Jaundice first time appears in the 2nd week not a cause is – a. Breast milk Jaundice b. Galactossemia c. Hypothyroidism d. Rh Incompatibility	Galactossemia	Rh Incompatibility	Hypothyroidism	Breast milk Jaundice	1	single	null	Pediatrics	null	d. Rh Incompatibility	a. Breast milk Jaundice b. Galactossemia c. Hypothyroidism d. Rh Incompatibility	d.	[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]	[ "a. Breast milk Jaundice", "b. Galactossemia", "c. Hypothyroidism" ]	b. Galactossemia	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Neonatal Jaundice first time appears in the 2nd week not a cause is –\n\na. Breast milk Jaundice\nb. Galactossemia\nc. Hypothyroidism\nd. Rh Incompatibility", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Rh Incompatibility", "role": "assistant" } ]
ff1808a1-5623-4260-9881-c79f3845cd24	Which structures passes along with esophagus through esophageal opening of diaphragm ? (A) Gastric nerves (B) Thoracic duct (C) NC (D) Aoa	NC	Gastric nerves	Aoa	Thoracic duct	1	single	Gastric nerves	Anatomy	null	(A) Gastric nerves	(A) Gastric nerves (B) Thoracic duct (C) NC (D) Aoa	(A)	[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]	[ "(B) Thoracic duct", "(C) NC", "(D) Aoa" ]	(C) NC	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Which structures passes along with esophagus through esophageal opening of diaphragm ?\n\n(A) Gastric nerves\n(B) Thoracic duct\n(C) NC\n(D) Aoa", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Gastric nerves", "role": "assistant" } ]
110d1286-fd91-4349-a698-29a20b59deee	The most dreadful complication of Kawasaki disease is [1] Lymph node [2] Rash [3] Cardiac involvement [4] Thrombocytosis	Rash	Lymph node	Cardiac involvement	Thrombocytosis	2	single	Kawasaki disease is an acute, febrile, usually self-limited illness of infancy and childhood (80% of the patients are younger than 4 years of age) associated with an aeritis of mainly large to medium-sized vessels. Its clinical significance stems from the involvement of coronary aeries. Coronary aeritis can cause aneurysms that rupture or thrombose, resulting in myocardial infarction. (Robbins basic pathology,9th edition,pg no.352)	Pathology	Cardiovascular system	[3] Cardiac involvement	[1] Lymph node [2] Rash [3] Cardiac involvement [4] Thrombocytosis	[3]	[ "[1]", "[2]", "[4]" ]	[ "[1] Lymph node", "[2] Rash", "[4] Thrombocytosis" ]	[2] Rash	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "The most dreadful complication of Kawasaki disease is\n\n[1] Lymph node\n[2] Rash\n[3] Cardiac involvement\n[4] Thrombocytosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[3] Cardiac involvement", "role": "assistant" } ]
7e257316-6320-4a46-b260-42383e2442aa	Normal function of peritoneum is all EXCEPT: A. Removes excess fluid and particulates B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut C. Fibrinolytic D. Free movement of viscera	Fibrinolytic	Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut	Free movement of viscera	Removes excess fluid and particulates	1	multi	ANSWER: (B) Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to GutREF: Grays anatomy, 39th edition, page 1127, CSDT, 13e Chapter 22Functions of peritoneum are:Both secretion and absorption of peritoneal fluid (fluid exchange wdth the extracellular fluid space at rates of 500 mL or more per hour)The fluid lubricates the visceral peritoneum and allows the mobile viscera to glide freely on the abdominal wall and each other within the limits dictated by their attachmentsPeritoneal fluid contains water, proteins, electrolytes and solutes derived from interstitial fluid in the adjacent tissues and from the plasma in the local blood vessels. It normally contains a few cells, including desquamated mesothelium, peritoneal macrophages, mast cells, fibroblasts, lymphocytes and other leukocytes.Lymphocytes provide both cellular and humoral immunological defense mechanisms within the peritoneal cavity.Complement-mediated antibacterial activityParticulate matter, including bacteria up to 20 mm in size is cleared via stomas in the diaphragmNormally, there is less than 50 mL of free peritoneal fluid, a transudate with the following characteristics: specific gravity below 1.016, protein concentration less than 3 g/dL, white blood cell count less than 3000/L, complement-mediated antibacterial activity, and lack of fibrinogen-related clot formation.	Physiology	G.I.T.	B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut	A. Removes excess fluid and particulates B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut C. Fibrinolytic D. Free movement of viscera	B.	[ "A.", "C.", "D." ]	[ "A. Removes excess fluid and particulates", "C. Fibrinolytic", "D. Free movement of viscera" ]	A. Removes excess fluid and particulates	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Normal function of peritoneum is all EXCEPT:\n\nA. Removes excess fluid and particulates\nB. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut\nC. Fibrinolytic\nD. Free movement of viscera", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut", "role": "assistant" } ]
b03e8631-e407-4c77-9ee5-b147e154422c	All are required for formation of estradiol except A. 11b-hydrolase B. Aromatase C. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase D. Lyase	Lyase	11b-hydrolase	Aromatase	Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase	1	multi	11b hydroxylase is not required for estradiol synthesis. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 967	Physiology	Endocrinology	A. 11b-hydrolase	A. 11b-hydrolase B. Aromatase C. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase D. Lyase	A.	[ "B.", "C.", "D." ]	[ "B. Aromatase", "C. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase", "D. Lyase" ]	D. Lyase	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "All are required for formation of estradiol except\n\nA. 11b-hydrolase\nB. Aromatase\nC. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase\nD. Lyase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A. 11b-hydrolase", "role": "assistant" } ]
cf4382aa-ae9e-4d09-b534-5d10792d9343	45 year old patient develops nausea,vomiting and ascending paralysis on ingestion of broken seeds from a plant. What could be the active present in that seed? (A) Ricin (B) Bhilawanol (C) Atropine (D) Strychnine	Atropine	Strychnine	Ricin	Bhilawanol	1	single	Strychnos Nux vomica is a spinal poison unbroken seeds are not poisinous. The above clinical features are characteristic of strychnine poisoning.	Forensic Medicine	null	(D) Strychnine	(A) Ricin (B) Bhilawanol (C) Atropine (D) Strychnine	(D)	[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]	[ "(A) Ricin", "(B) Bhilawanol", "(C) Atropine" ]	(C) Atropine	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "45 year old patient develops nausea,vomiting and ascending paralysis on ingestion of broken seeds from a plant. What could be the active present in that seed?\n\n(A) Ricin\n(B) Bhilawanol\n(C) Atropine\n(D) Strychnine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Strychnine", "role": "assistant" } ]
04c1b080-16fc-4ba6-b2c8-2da45146a5a9	Special stain for Amyloid which is most diagnostic - A. Lugol’s Iodine B. Sudan black C. Congo red polarized light D. Congo red in Illumination	Lugol’s Iodine	Sudan black	Congo red polarized light	Congo red in Illumination	2	single	Congo red is not used in lipid staining. It is used in the staining of amyloid protein.	Pathology	null	C. Congo red polarized light	A. Lugol’s Iodine B. Sudan black C. Congo red polarized light D. Congo red in Illumination	C.	[ "A.", "B.", "D." ]	[ "A. Lugol’s Iodine", "B. Sudan black", "D. Congo red in Illumination" ]	B. Sudan black	Choose the correct answer from the options below.	[ { "content": "Special stain for Amyloid which is most diagnostic -\n\nA. Lugol’s Iodine\nB. Sudan black\nC. Congo red polarized light\nD. Congo red in Illumination", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C. Congo red polarized light", "role": "assistant" } ]

5e822f88-3b09-44e3-bc37-7655161cd67f

Yuzpe and Lance regimen for 'post -- coital' contraception : (A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours (B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days (C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months (D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours

100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours

Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours

Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months

200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days

0

multi

100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

(D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours

(A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours (B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days (C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months (D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours

(D)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]

[ "(A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours", "(B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days", "(C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months" ]

(C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Yuzpe and Lance regimen for 'post -- coital' contraception :\n\n(A) Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours\n(B) 200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days\n(C) Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months\n(D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours", "role": "assistant" } ]

5ddbaad6-17a3-4aac-b91f-8fe5b4eecfcf

Creatinine is formed from all except - (1) Glycine (2) Asparagine (3) Arginine (4) Methionine

Glycine

Arginine

Methionine

Asparagine

3

multi

Ans. is 'd' i.e., Asparagine * The three aminoacids used for the synthesis of creatine are Glycine, Arginine and Methionine* In Kidney, Glycine reacts with Arginine in the presence of Arginine Glycine Amido Transferase to for Guanidoacetate and Ornithine* Guanidoacetate through circulation is taken to liver. In liver Guanidoacetate undergoes transmethylation reaction with S- Adenosyl Methionine in the presence of Guanidoacetate Methyl Transferase to form Creatine.* The creatine through circulation reaches tissues.* 90% of creatine is taken up by skeletal muscles and is phosphorylated by creatine Kinase to form creatine Phosphate.* This creatine phosphate acts as the immediate source of energy for skeletal muscle.

Biochemistry

Proteins and Amino Acids

(2) Asparagine

(1) Glycine (2) Asparagine (3) Arginine (4) Methionine

(2)

[ "(1)", "(3)", "(4)" ]

[ "(1) Glycine", "(3) Arginine", "(4) Methionine" ]

(3) Arginine

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Creatinine is formed from all except -\n\n(1) Glycine\n(2) Asparagine\n(3) Arginine\n(4) Methionine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(2) Asparagine", "role": "assistant" } ]

eee643ca-8dbf-4bf7-8918-e5ee60517976

Concealment of bih is punishable under: NEET 13 [A] Sec. 320 IPC [B] Sec. 317 IPC [C] Sec. 312 IPC [D] Sec. 318 IPC

Sec. 320 IPC

Sec. 312 IPC

Sec. 317 IPC

Sec. 318 IPC

3

single

Ans. Sec. 318 IPC

Forensic Medicine

null

[D] Sec. 318 IPC

[A] Sec. 320 IPC [B] Sec. 317 IPC [C] Sec. 312 IPC [D] Sec. 318 IPC

[D]

[ "[A]", "[B]", "[C]" ]

[ "[A] Sec. 320 IPC", "[B] Sec. 317 IPC", "[C] Sec. 312 IPC" ]

[B] Sec. 317 IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Concealment of bih is punishable under: NEET 13\n\n[A] Sec. 320 IPC\n[B] Sec. 317 IPC\n[C] Sec. 312 IPC\n[D] Sec. 318 IPC", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[D] Sec. 318 IPC", "role": "assistant" } ]

804a6169-8793-47de-a599-88929cbe33b9

Which of the following tetracycline can be used in renal failure without dose adjustment? A. Oxytetracycline B. Tetracycline C. Demeclocycline D. Doxycycline

Oxytetracycline

Doxycycline

Demeclocycline

Tetracycline

1

single

null

Pharmacology

null

D. Doxycycline

A. Oxytetracycline B. Tetracycline C. Demeclocycline D. Doxycycline

D.

[ "A.", "B.", "C." ]

[ "A. Oxytetracycline", "B. Tetracycline", "C. Demeclocycline" ]

A. Oxytetracycline

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following tetracycline can be used in renal failure without dose adjustment?\n\nA. Oxytetracycline\nB. Tetracycline\nC. Demeclocycline\nD. Doxycycline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "D. Doxycycline", "role": "assistant" } ]

766b8c83-55da-415d-b13b-99fdfc648c46

Widmark's formula helps in the measurement of the blood level of - (A) Barbiturates (B) Cocaine (C) Alcohol (D) Benzodiazepines

Cocaine

Alcohol

Barbiturates

Benzodiazepines

1

single

The basis for calculating the approximate quantity of alcohol in the body, after equilibrium between the blood and the tissues has been reached, is expressed by the Widmark's formula a = p.r.c. a-Weight of alcohol in g in body p- the weight of the body in kg c- concentration of alcohol in blood in g/kg r- a constant obtained by dividing the average concentration of alcohol in the body by the average concentration of alcohol in the blood (0.085 for men, 0.055 for women) For urine, formula is- a=3/4 p.r.q., where q - concentration of alcohol in urine in mg/kg

Forensic Medicine

null

(C) Alcohol

(A) Barbiturates (B) Cocaine (C) Alcohol (D) Benzodiazepines

(C)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(D)" ]

[ "(A) Barbiturates", "(B) Cocaine", "(D) Benzodiazepines" ]

(D) Benzodiazepines

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Widmark's formula helps in the measurement of the blood level of -\n\n(A) Barbiturates\n(B) Cocaine\n(C) Alcohol\n(D) Benzodiazepines", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(C) Alcohol", "role": "assistant" } ]

0ab683cc-6750-413c-a9a4-1257daf47321

Anaerobic bacteria grow [1] in the absence of oxygen [2] differential media [3] in the presence of nitrogen [4] in the presence of oxygen

in the presence of oxygen

in the presence of nitrogen

in the absence of oxygen

differential media

2

single

null

Microbiology

null

[1] in the absence of oxygen

[1] in the absence of oxygen [2] differential media [3] in the presence of nitrogen [4] in the presence of oxygen

[1]

[ "[2]", "[3]", "[4]" ]

[ "[2] differential media", "[3] in the presence of nitrogen", "[4] in the presence of oxygen" ]

[4] in the presence of oxygen

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Anaerobic bacteria grow\n\n[1] in the absence of oxygen\n[2] differential media\n[3] in the presence of nitrogen\n[4] in the presence of oxygen", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[1] in the absence of oxygen", "role": "assistant" } ]

fac35a59-9e31-4f99-ad12-851cd2f2a6dc

What will not happen with inadequate resuspension? I. Malar prominence II. Witch chin III. Angle of mouth drooping IV. Temporal hollowing

Temporal hollowing

Angle of mouth drooping

Witch chin

Malar prominence

3

single

null

Surgery

null

I. Malar prominence

I. Malar prominence II. Witch chin III. Angle of mouth drooping IV. Temporal hollowing

I.

[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]

[ "II. Witch chin", "III. Angle of mouth drooping", "IV. Temporal hollowing" ]

II. Witch chin

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "What will not happen with inadequate resuspension?\n\nI. Malar prominence\nII. Witch chin\nIII. Angle of mouth drooping\nIV. Temporal hollowing", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. Malar prominence", "role": "assistant" } ]

a3721934-173e-44fb-a664-5ed4a9f53614

Bronchoalveloar lavage is beneficial in the evaluation of: a. Squamous cell cancer lung b. Bronchiectasis c. Bronchopleural fistula d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis

Squamous cell cancer lung

Bronchiectasis

Bronchopleural fistula

Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis

3

single

Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis can be diagnosed by Bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy and BAL may be helpful. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid appears "milky". Papanicolaou staining may reveal green and orange globules that are diagnostic for PAP. Electron microscopy of BAL may reveal characteristic multi-lamellar structures. Non small cell cancer lung is diagnosed by bronchoscopy with biopsy Bronchiectasis is diagnosed with HRCT scan Bronchopleural fistula is diagnosed with bronchoscopy and is usually a complication of lung cancer surgery

Medicine

Pleural effusion & Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis

a. Squamous cell cancer lung b. Bronchiectasis c. Bronchopleural fistula d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. Squamous cell cancer lung", "b. Bronchiectasis", "c. Bronchopleural fistula" ]

c. Bronchopleural fistula

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Bronchoalveloar lavage is beneficial in the evaluation of:\n\na. Squamous cell cancer lung\nb. Bronchiectasis\nc. Bronchopleural fistula\nd. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Pulmonary alveolar Proteinosis", "role": "assistant" } ]

54cd413f-1c56-4c6b-8e7e-0ab46444c065

The toxicity of etambutol includes one of the following: (a) Peripheral neuritis (b) Red urine (c) Yellow colour blindness (d) Green colour blindness

Peripheral neuritis

Green colour blindness

Red urine

Yellow colour blindness

1

single

The optic neuritis is the most serious side effect of ethambutol manifesting as reduced visual acuity, central scotoma, and loss of ability to see green colour. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th edition, page : 1375

Medicine

null

(d) Green colour blindness

(a) Peripheral neuritis (b) Red urine (c) Yellow colour blindness (d) Green colour blindness

(d)

[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]

[ "(a) Peripheral neuritis", "(b) Red urine", "(c) Yellow colour blindness" ]

(b) Red urine

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "The toxicity of etambutol includes one of the following:\n\n(a) Peripheral neuritis\n(b) Red urine\n(c) Yellow colour blindness\n(d) Green colour blindness", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) Green colour blindness", "role": "assistant" } ]

595cadac-f85b-4010-9575-0d1d0380d59d

Most common agents responsible for human bite infections are - (A) Anaerobic streptococci (B) Gram +ve bacilli (C) Spirochaete (D) Gram -ve bacilli

Gram -ve bacilli

Gram +ve bacilli

Spirochaete

Anaerobic streptococci

3

single

null

Microbiology

null

(A) Anaerobic streptococci

(A) Anaerobic streptococci (B) Gram +ve bacilli (C) Spirochaete (D) Gram -ve bacilli

(A)

[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]

[ "(B) Gram +ve bacilli", "(C) Spirochaete", "(D) Gram -ve bacilli" ]

(D) Gram -ve bacilli

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Most common agents responsible for human bite infections are -\n\n(A) Anaerobic streptococci\n(B) Gram +ve bacilli\n(C) Spirochaete\n(D) Gram -ve bacilli", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Anaerobic streptococci", "role": "assistant" } ]

4ed6e899-6187-4086-b16e-87e30e01a2b2

Ethambutol is safer in patient of: [1] Gout [2] Liver disease [3] Kidney disease [4] Both 1 and 2

Liver disease

Kidney disease

Gout

Both 1 and 2

0

multi

All first line drugs used against M.Tuberculosis are hepatotoxic except Ethambutol. But it requires dose adjustment in renal failure.

Pharmacology

null

[2] Liver disease

[1] Gout [2] Liver disease [3] Kidney disease [4] Both 1 and 2

[2]

[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]

[ "[1] Gout", "[3] Kidney disease", "[4] Both 1 and 2" ]

[3] Kidney disease

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Ethambutol is safer in patient of:\n\n[1] Gout\n[2] Liver disease\n[3] Kidney disease\n[4] Both 1 and 2", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Liver disease", "role": "assistant" } ]

3d3978d6-36aa-4e59-8fde-296989eb5724

Maximum risk of carcinoma pancreas is seen in which of these? 1. Familial adenomatous polyposis 2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome 3. Hereditary pancreatitis 4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome

Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome

Hereditary pancreatitis

Peutz-Jegher's syndrome

Familial adenomatous polyposis

2

single

Note - Peutz Jeghers Syndrome - Max Risk for Ca - pancreas * Risk Factors Smoking/tobacco * Associations: Diabetes Obesity Chronic pancreatitis Hereditary Factors /genetic susceptibility Hereditary pancreatitis - AD HNPCC- AD Hereditary Breast and Ovarian Ca (BRCA - 2) - AD Ataxia Telangiectasia - AR Familial atypical multiple mole melanoma (FAMMM) syndrome - AD Peutz Jeghers Syndrome - AD

Surgery

Pancreas

2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome

1. Familial adenomatous polyposis 2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome 3. Hereditary pancreatitis 4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome

2.

[ "1.", "3.", "4." ]

[ "1. Familial adenomatous polyposis", "3. Hereditary pancreatitis", "4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome" ]

3. Hereditary pancreatitis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Maximum risk of carcinoma pancreas is seen in which of these?\n\n1. Familial adenomatous polyposis\n2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome\n3. Hereditary pancreatitis\n4. Hereditary atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome", "role": "assistant" } ]

bd64095e-252a-421d-9b64-5b5a1117882c

what is the only phobia that is assosiated with giddiness and falls 1. claustrophobia 2. hydrophobia 3. thanatophobia 4. blood injection phobia

blood injection phobia

thanatophobia

claustrophobia

hydrophobia

0

multi

Applied tension is used for blood injection phobia where there is hypotension and falls, in these patients falls is because of vasodilatations when we use applied tension there may be constriction of hand and leg muscles which prevents vasodilation and prevents falls. Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pgg no. 845

Anatomy

General anatomy

4. blood injection phobia

1. claustrophobia 2. hydrophobia 3. thanatophobia 4. blood injection phobia

4.

[ "1.", "2.", "3." ]

[ "1. claustrophobia", "2. hydrophobia", "3. thanatophobia" ]

2. hydrophobia

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "what is the only phobia that is assosiated with giddiness and falls\n\n1. claustrophobia\n2. hydrophobia\n3. thanatophobia\n4. blood injection phobia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4. blood injection phobia", "role": "assistant" } ]

1a9356ce-7062-404d-a315-dd3147460628

Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix & pap smear shows dysplasia, next step is : 1. Cryosurgery 2. Conization 3. Colposcopy 4. Antibiotics

Antibiotics

Colposcopy

Cryosurgery

Conization

1

multi

Ans. is b i.e. Colposcopy A young lady is presenting with erosion which on cytology shows dysplasia. Now what will be the next step : Friends, here first of all it is impoant to know that erosion (ectopy) : is a condition in which the squamous covering of the vaginal aspect of the cervix is replaced by columnar epithelium lining the ondocervix It appears as a bright red area continuous with the endocervix and with a clearly defined outer edge. It often bleeds on touch and has to distinguished from carcinoma, tuberculosis, syphilitic and other ulcers of the cervix. "Although a cervical smear may be helpful. the distinction may not be possible except by colposcopy or biopsy". Jeffcoate 7/e, p 411 Here in the question : Pap smear has already been done and it shows dysplasia which should be confirmed by colposcopy. Extra Edge : Management of cervical erosion : If it is detected during pregnancy treatment should be deferred for atleast 12 weeks postpaum. Management : - Thermal cauterizations - Cryosurgerydeg - Laser vaporisationdeg Aim : To destroy columnar epithelium so that on healing it is replaced by squamous epithelium.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

3. Colposcopy

1. Cryosurgery 2. Conization 3. Colposcopy 4. Antibiotics

3.

[ "1.", "2.", "4." ]

[ "1. Cryosurgery", "2. Conization", "4. Antibiotics" ]

2. Conization

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix & pap smear shows dysplasia, next step is :\n\n1. Cryosurgery\n2. Conization\n3. Colposcopy\n4. Antibiotics", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3. Colposcopy", "role": "assistant" } ]

f97b90dd-82bf-4b6e-a29e-e917aa331690

The enzyme that splits hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen is: 1. Catalase 2. Cytochrome P 450 3. Cytoch romes 4. Super oxide dismutase

Cytoch romes

Cytochrome P 450

Super oxide dismutase

Catalase

3

single

null

Biochemistry

null

1. Catalase

1. Catalase 2. Cytochrome P 450 3. Cytoch romes 4. Super oxide dismutase

1.

[ "2.", "3.", "4." ]

[ "2. Cytochrome P 450", "3. Cytoch romes", "4. Super oxide dismutase" ]

3. Cytoch romes

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "The enzyme that splits hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen is:\n\n1. Catalase\n2. Cytochrome P 450\n3. Cytoch romes\n4. Super oxide dismutase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1. Catalase", "role": "assistant" } ]

565c80d5-2136-4df1-87fa-66c07baa1006

Neutropenia is associated with : (1) Carbenicillin (2) Methicillin (3) Nafcillin (4) Ampicillin

Nafcillin

Methicillin

Carbenicillin

Ampicillin

0

single

null

Pharmacology

null

(3) Nafcillin

(1) Carbenicillin (2) Methicillin (3) Nafcillin (4) Ampicillin

(3)

[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]

[ "(1) Carbenicillin", "(2) Methicillin", "(4) Ampicillin" ]

(1) Carbenicillin

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Neutropenia is associated with :\n\n(1) Carbenicillin\n(2) Methicillin\n(3) Nafcillin\n(4) Ampicillin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) Nafcillin", "role": "assistant" } ]

e3ec69ef-a757-463f-8839-0cf72a33861e

Hutchinson triad consists of all except? a. Interstitial keratitis b. Hutchison teeth c. Eight cranial nerve deafness d. Mulberry teeth

Interstitial keratitis

Eight cranial nerve deafness

Hutchison teeth

Mulberry teeth

3

multi

Hutchinson triad (syphilis) :- * Hutchinson teeth * Interstitial keratitis * Eight cranial nerve deafness

Medicine

Bacterial infection

d. Mulberry teeth

a. Interstitial keratitis b. Hutchison teeth c. Eight cranial nerve deafness d. Mulberry teeth

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. Interstitial keratitis", "b. Hutchison teeth", "c. Eight cranial nerve deafness" ]

b. Hutchison teeth

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Hutchinson triad consists of all except?\n\na. Interstitial keratitis\nb. Hutchison teeth\nc. Eight cranial nerve deafness\nd. Mulberry teeth", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Mulberry teeth", "role": "assistant" } ]

f5564d15-516c-4c75-8bf0-0a4824b32c64

Sequence of changes seen in Raynaud's disease is: March 2012 a. White, red, blue b. Red, blue, white c. Red, blue, white d. White, blue, red

Red, blue, white

White, blue, red

Red, blue, white

White, red, blue

1

single

Ans: B i.e. White, blue, red Raynaud's disease is recognized by the characteristic sequence of blanching (constriction of vessels), dusky cyanosis (dilation of capillaries & filling with slowly flowing deoxygenated blood) & red engorgement (relaxation of aerioles & return of oxygenated blood into the dilated capillaries)

Surgery

null

d. White, blue, red

a. White, red, blue b. Red, blue, white c. Red, blue, white d. White, blue, red

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. White, red, blue", "b. Red, blue, white", "c. Red, blue, white" ]

a. White, red, blue

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Sequence of changes seen in Raynaud's disease is: March 2012\n\na. White, red, blue\nb. Red, blue, white\nc. Red, blue, white\nd. White, blue, red", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. White, blue, red", "role": "assistant" } ]

cdc0584b-8fd6-451b-85f7-3cb56770b070

A child presenting with localized patches of complete hair loss with normal appearance of scalp. Diagnosis is - [a] Alopecia areata [b] Telogen effluvium [c] Cradle cap [d] Tinea capitis

Tinea capitis

Cradle cap

Alopecia areata

Telogen effluvium

2

single

alopecia areata develops as single or multiple oval or round patches of hair loss on the scalp, beard area,eyebrows, eyelashes and other hairy areas of the body. Telogen effluvium- generalized and diffuse hair loss over scalp and body Cradle cap - infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis characterized by yellowish, patchy, greasy, scaly and crusty skin rash that occurs on the scalp of recently born babies. Tinea capitis-a dermatophytosis caused by trichophyton and microsporum fungi , can be either an ectothrix or endothrix type of infection. Ectothrix involves both inside and outside of hair shaft. Endothrix involves only inside of hair shaft. Page no.241,242,55,169 ref Harrison20th edition

Dental

Anatomy of skin

[a] Alopecia areata

[a] Alopecia areata [b] Telogen effluvium [c] Cradle cap [d] Tinea capitis

[a]

[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]

[ "[b] Telogen effluvium", "[c] Cradle cap", "[d] Tinea capitis" ]

[d] Tinea capitis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A child presenting with localized patches of complete hair loss with normal appearance of scalp. Diagnosis is -\n\n[a] Alopecia areata\n[b] Telogen effluvium\n[c] Cradle cap\n[d] Tinea capitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Alopecia areata", "role": "assistant" } ]

511bc1db-6bb0-4a4a-a22e-0dba842c0758

Which of the following cause apoptotic damage to sperms? I. Treponema pallidum II. Clostridium III. Hemophilus ducreyi IV. Chlamydia

Treponema pallidum

Chlamydia

Clostridium

Hemophilus ducreyi

1

multi

Apoptotic damage to sperms E.coli Staphylococcus Chlamydia Mycoplasma genitalium

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

IV. Chlamydia

I. Treponema pallidum II. Clostridium III. Hemophilus ducreyi IV. Chlamydia

IV.

[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]

[ "I. Treponema pallidum", "II. Clostridium", "III. Hemophilus ducreyi" ]

I. Treponema pallidum

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following cause apoptotic damage to sperms?\n\nI. Treponema pallidum\nII. Clostridium\nIII. Hemophilus ducreyi\nIV. Chlamydia", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. Chlamydia", "role": "assistant" } ]

ea481089-ef05-4e2e-853c-84fb50c4bafb

What is the inheritance pattern of von willebrand disease? i. XR ii. AD iii. XD iv. AR

AR

AD

XR

XD

1

single

Von willebrand disease is inherited as autosomal dominant disorder Refer the byte " mendelian Disorder and their Inheritance pattern"

Pathology

null

ii. AD

i. XR ii. AD iii. XD iv. AR

ii.

[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]

[ "i. XR", "iii. XD", "iv. AR" ]

i. XR

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "What is the inheritance pattern of von willebrand disease?\n\ni. XR\nii. AD\niii. XD\niv. AR", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. AD", "role": "assistant" } ]

f26f22ac-b14c-4ecd-9875-fc4a25727b8f

An obese 50-year-old woman undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. In the recovery room, she is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic. Her aerial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.29, PaO2 of 60 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's problem? a. Pulmonary edema b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum c. Acute pulmonary embolism d. Alveolar hypoventilation

Acute pulmonary embolism

Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum

Alveolar hypoventilation

Pulmonary edema

2

single

Because of the ease with which CO2 diffuses across the alveolar membranes, PaCO2 is a highly reliable indicator of alveolar ventilation. In this postoperative patient with respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia, the hypercarbia is diagnostic of alveolar hypoventilation. Acute hypoxemia can occur with pulmonary embolism, pulmonary edema, and significant atelectasis, but in all those situations the PaCO2 should be normal or reduced, as the patient hyperventilates to improve oxygenation. The absorption of gas from the peritoneal cavity may transiently affect the PaCO2 , but should have no effect on oxygenation.

Anaesthesia

Miscellaneous

d. Alveolar hypoventilation

a. Pulmonary edema b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum c. Acute pulmonary embolism d. Alveolar hypoventilation

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. Pulmonary edema", "b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum", "c. Acute pulmonary embolism" ]

b. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "An obese 50-year-old woman undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. In the recovery room, she is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic. Her aerial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.29, PaO2 of 60 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's problem?\n\na. Pulmonary edema\nb. Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) absorption from induced pneumoperitoneum\nc. Acute pulmonary embolism\nd. Alveolar hypoventilation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Alveolar hypoventilation", "role": "assistant" } ]

076566aa-1b87-4536-9453-066f10c3d483

Schwalbe&;s line is [A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane [B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane

The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane

The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane

The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane

The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane

2

single

Angle of anterior chamber Angle of anterior chamber plays an impoant role in the process of aqueous drainage. It is formed by root of iris, anterior-most pa of ciliary body, scleral spur, trabecular meshwork and Schwalbe's line (prominent end of Descemet's membrane of cornea). Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-205,206

Ophthalmology

Glaucoma

[B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane

[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane [B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane [D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane

[B]

[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]

[ "[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane", "[C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane", "[D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane" ]

[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Schwalbe&;s line is\n\n[A] The anterior limit of the Bowman's membrane\n[B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane\n[C] The posterior limit of the Descemet's membrane\n[D] The posterior limit of the Bowman's membrane", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] The anterior limit of the Descemet's membrane", "role": "assistant" } ]

c2756dc3-6524-4193-8ac1-1a7a3ab71fb3

Cardiovascular causes of digital clubbing include all of the following Except: (A) Aeriovenous Fistulos (B) Infective Endocarditis (C) Tricuspid Atresia (D) Aoic Dissection

Infective Endocarditis

Aeriovenous Fistulos

Tricuspid Atresia

Aoic Dissection

3

multi

Answer is D (Aoic Dissection) Aoic Dissection is not a known cause for digital clubbing: Digital clubbing results from long standing conditions that take months to develop. It is not associated with acute event like aoic dissection Cardiovascular causes of Digital clubbing (Ultra medicine (2005)/285) Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis(SBE) Cyanotic congenital Hea Disease - Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) - Transposition of Great vessels (TGV) - Total Anomolous pulmonary venous circulation (TAPVC) - Ebstein's Anomaly - Tricuspid Atresia Atrial Myxoma Aerio venous malformations (Brochial aeriovenous fistula) Axillary aery Aneurysms Clubbing is a feature of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE) and is not seen in Acute Bacterial Endocarditis Acute endocarditis is a fitIminant event while clubbing takes months to develop. Acute bacterial endocarditis is not associated with clubbing.

Medicine

null

(D) Aoic Dissection

(A) Aeriovenous Fistulos (B) Infective Endocarditis (C) Tricuspid Atresia (D) Aoic Dissection

(D)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]

[ "(A) Aeriovenous Fistulos", "(B) Infective Endocarditis", "(C) Tricuspid Atresia" ]

(B) Infective Endocarditis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Cardiovascular causes of digital clubbing include all of the following Except:\n\n(A) Aeriovenous Fistulos\n(B) Infective Endocarditis\n(C) Tricuspid Atresia\n(D) Aoic Dissection", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Aoic Dissection", "role": "assistant" } ]

85945b1b-0cd8-40e1-af4c-0859360ad50f

A 12 year old girl presents with tremors and emotional lability. Slit lamp examination of eye shows golden brown discoloration in the Descements membrane. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient? i. Acute Rheumatic fever ii. Wilson's disease iii. Glycogen storage Disease iv. Fabry's disease

Acute Rheumatic fever

Fabry's disease

Wilson's disease

Glycogen storage Disease

2

single

The clinical features in this patient are diagnostic of Wilson's disease. Wilson's disease is an Autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in the ATP7B gene. ATP7B protein deficiency impairs biliary copper excretion, resulting in positive copper balance, hepatic copper accumulation, and copper toxicity from oxidant damage. Clinical presentation can be hepatic, neurologic and psychiatric. Hepatic involvement results in hepatitis, cirrhosis, or hepatic decompensation. Neurologic involvement result in dystonia, incoordination and tremor. Psychiatric manifestations include behavioral disturbances, depression, hyperactivity or loss of sexual inhibition. Investigations show low ceruloplasmin, increased free copper levels and KF rings. The gold standard for diagnosis is liver biopsy with quantitative copper assays. ATP 7A gene mutation: Menkes Kinky Hair Syndrome KESHAN Disease: Endemic cardiomyopathy due to selenium deficiency Acrodermatitis Enteropathica: Abnormality in zinc absorption Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 3188, 3193 ; APLS : The Pediatric Emergency Medicine Resource By Marianne Gausche-Hill, 4th Edition, Page 118

Medicine

null

ii. Wilson's disease

i. Acute Rheumatic fever ii. Wilson's disease iii. Glycogen storage Disease iv. Fabry's disease

ii.

[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]

[ "i. Acute Rheumatic fever", "iii. Glycogen storage Disease", "iv. Fabry's disease" ]

iv. Fabry's disease

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A 12 year old girl presents with tremors and emotional lability. Slit lamp examination of eye shows golden brown discoloration in the Descements membrane. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient?\n\ni. Acute Rheumatic fever\nii. Wilson's disease\niii. Glycogen storage Disease\niv. Fabry's disease", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. Wilson's disease", "role": "assistant" } ]

de87e1a2-c37a-4b1f-930f-7caf40cdf478

In multiple pregnancy, the most impoant complication is : (1) Post paum hemorrhage (2) Interlocking (3) Fetus papyraceous (4) Cord prolapse

Post paum hemorrhage

Interlocking

Cord prolapse

Fetus papyraceous

0

single

Post paum hemorrhage

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

(1) Post paum hemorrhage

(1) Post paum hemorrhage (2) Interlocking (3) Fetus papyraceous (4) Cord prolapse

(1)

[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]

[ "(2) Interlocking", "(3) Fetus papyraceous", "(4) Cord prolapse" ]

(2) Interlocking

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "In multiple pregnancy, the most impoant complication is :\n\n(1) Post paum hemorrhage\n(2) Interlocking\n(3) Fetus papyraceous\n(4) Cord prolapse", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) Post paum hemorrhage", "role": "assistant" } ]

05ebc374-7a11-4211-9641-37cbf0503bfb

All of the following are true about accelerated paial breast irradiation (APBI) except i. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years. iii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation. iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.

APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation.

Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.

Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm

Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.

3

multi

Accelerated paial breast irradiation (APBI) Radiations delivered in an abbreted fashion (twice daily for 5 days) At a dose lower than the standard course of 5 to 6 weeks of radiation (50 Gray with or without a boost) in the case of whole breast irradiation. Suitable patients for APBI: Female >60 years with : Unifocal lesion T1 stage ER-positive No lymphovascular invasion Margins negative by atleast2 mm Unsuitable patients for APBI : T3 or T4 stage , ER-negative disease, Multifocal, Multicentric, Extensive lymphovascular invasion (LVI), Positive margins.

Surgery

Breast

iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.

i. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years. iii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation. iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.

iv.

[ "i.", "ii.", "iii." ]

[ "i. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm", "ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.", "iii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation." ]

ii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "All of the following are true about accelerated paial breast irradiation (APBI) except\n\ni. Suitable patients for APBI include patients whose tumor Margins negative by atleast 2 mm\nii. Suitable patients for APBI include women older than or equal to 60 years.\niii. APBI is delivered in an abbreted fashion and a lower total dose than standard course of whole breast radiation.\niv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iv. Suitable patients for APBI include those with multifocal disease.", "role": "assistant" } ]

154d8d70-c1d6-4c02-8d67-37c62491faca

Evacuation of the urinary bladder and stool with profuse sweating is a features of 1) Positive supportive reaction 2) Mass reflex 3) Labyrinthine righting reflex 4) Stretch reflex

Mass reflex

Positive supportive reaction

Labyrinthine righting reflex

Stretch reflex

0

single

(Mass reflex) (210-Ganong 22nd) (683-84-Guyt 11th) (250-Ganong 23rd)MASS REFLEX - In chronic spinal animals, afferent stimuli irradiate from one reflex centre to another when even a relatively minor noxious stimulus is applied to the skin, if may irradiate to autonomic centres and produce evacuation of the bladder and rectum, sweating, pallor and blood pressure swings in addition to the withdrawl response* This distressing mass reflex can sometimes be used to give paraplegic patients a degree of bladder and bowel. They can be trained to initiate urination and defecation by stroking or pinching their thighs thus producing an intentional mass reflex.

Physiology

Kidneys and Body Fluids

2) Mass reflex

1) Positive supportive reaction 2) Mass reflex 3) Labyrinthine righting reflex 4) Stretch reflex

2)

[ "1)", "3)", "4)" ]

[ "1) Positive supportive reaction", "3) Labyrinthine righting reflex", "4) Stretch reflex" ]

4) Stretch reflex

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Evacuation of the urinary bladder and stool with profuse sweating is a features of\n\n1) Positive supportive reaction\n2) Mass reflex\n3) Labyrinthine righting reflex\n4) Stretch reflex", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2) Mass reflex", "role": "assistant" } ]

c9f57ddb-f20f-487e-9c2d-5d5df5d422b9

Reid's index is - [A] Increase in bronchial asthma [B] Increase in chronic bronchitis [C] Decrease in bronchial asthma [D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis

Increase in chronic bronchitis

Decrease in chronic bronchitis

Increase in bronchial asthma

Decrease in bronchial asthma

0

single

null

Pathology

null

[B] Increase in chronic bronchitis

[A] Increase in bronchial asthma [B] Increase in chronic bronchitis [C] Decrease in bronchial asthma [D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis

[B]

[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]

[ "[A] Increase in bronchial asthma", "[C] Decrease in bronchial asthma", "[D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis" ]

[D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Reid's index is -\n\n[A] Increase in bronchial asthma\n[B] Increase in chronic bronchitis\n[C] Decrease in bronchial asthma\n[D] Decrease in chronic bronchitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] Increase in chronic bronchitis", "role": "assistant" } ]

13baaafb-42b0-4950-b57e-50c35049cc86

Most sensitive investigation of pancreatic carcinoma is - a. Angiography b. ERCP c. Ultrasound d. CT scan

Angiography

ERCP

Ultrasound

CT scan

3

single

With early chronic pancreatitis, and even in some patients with advanced disease, ductal abnormalities demonstrated by ERCP may be minimal. CT scans provide the most precise information about the size and configuration of the pancreas, information that is used in decisions regarding possible pancreatic resection. ERCP has a sensitivity of 95 percent but a specificity of only 85 percent. This is due to the difficulty in distinguishing between cancer and chronic pancreatitis. The study can be performed successfully in over 90 percent of patients and detects some tumors that are not visualized by CT. ref: Schwartz 7 ed

Unknown

null

d. CT scan

a. Angiography b. ERCP c. Ultrasound d. CT scan

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. Angiography", "b. ERCP", "c. Ultrasound" ]

a. Angiography

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Most sensitive investigation of pancreatic carcinoma is -\n\na. Angiography\nb. ERCP\nc. Ultrasound\nd. CT scan", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. CT scan", "role": "assistant" } ]

53eb8813-c7a2-4a2a-b3fd-05e008136f31

Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except:September 2007 a. Brain b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system c. Neuromuscular junction d. Bronchial smooth muscle

Neuromuscular junction

Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system

Bronchial smooth muscle

Brain

2

multi

Ans. C: Bronchial Smooth MuscleThe nicotinic cholinergic receptors are found in the neuromuscular junctions of somatic muscles; stimulation of these receptors causes muscular contraction. They are also found in the autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system andcentral nervous systemMuscarinic receptors are found in:M 1-brain M 2-heaM 3-smooth muscleM 4-smooth muscle, pancreatic acinar and islet tissue

Physiology

null

d. Bronchial smooth muscle

a. Brain b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system c. Neuromuscular junction d. Bronchial smooth muscle

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. Brain", "b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system", "c. Neuromuscular junction" ]

b. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except:September 2007\n\na. Brain\nb. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous system\nc. Neuromuscular junction\nd. Bronchial smooth muscle", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Bronchial smooth muscle", "role": "assistant" } ]

a58483f6-6090-413a-acab-124ca50a6aff

A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of new symptoms of a red rash over her cheeks, frequent oral ulcers, and pain and swelling in both wrists, as well as in several small joints in her hands. Medical evaluation confirms the above clinical symptoms and laboratory investigations reveal a positive ANA, and 3+ proteinuria. Which of the following organ involvement will cause the most symptoms during the course of this disease? [a] musculoskeletal pathology [b] renal pathology [c] cardiopulmonary pathology [d] thrombotic events

renal pathology

cardiopulmonary pathology

musculoskeletal pathology

thrombotic events

2

multi

About 95% of patients will develop musculoskeletal symptoms during the course of SLE. Arthralgias and myalgias predominate, but arthritis, hand deformities, myopathy, and avascular necrosis of bone also occur. About 85% of patients will have hematologic disease and 80% will have skin manifestations.

Medicine

Immunology and Rheumatology

[a] musculoskeletal pathology

[a] musculoskeletal pathology [b] renal pathology [c] cardiopulmonary pathology [d] thrombotic events

[a]

[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]

[ "[b] renal pathology", "[c] cardiopulmonary pathology", "[d] thrombotic events" ]

[b] renal pathology

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of new symptoms of a red rash over her cheeks, frequent oral ulcers, and pain and swelling in both wrists, as well as in several small joints in her hands. Medical evaluation confirms the above clinical symptoms and laboratory investigations reveal a positive ANA, and 3+ proteinuria. Which of the following organ involvement will cause the most symptoms during the course of this disease?\n\n[a] musculoskeletal pathology\n[b] renal pathology\n[c] cardiopulmonary pathology\n[d] thrombotic events", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] musculoskeletal pathology", "role": "assistant" } ]

d6a652d0-ecfb-408b-9194-741c8e2ae05e

Which of the following laryngeal muscle is supplied by external laryngeal nerve? a. Thyroarytenoid b. Vocalis c. Cricoarytenoid d. Cricothyroid

Cricothyroid

Thyroarytenoid

Cricoarytenoid

Vocalis

0

single

External laryngeal nerve is a branch of superior laryngeal nerve and supplies cricothyroid muscle. Superior laryngeal nerve arise from inferior ganglion of the vagus descends behind the internal carotid aery and at the level of greater cornua of hyoid bone, divides into external and internal branches. The internal branch pierces the thyrohyoid membrane and supplies sensory innervation to the larynx and hypopharynx.

ENT

null

d. Cricothyroid

a. Thyroarytenoid b. Vocalis c. Cricoarytenoid d. Cricothyroid

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. Thyroarytenoid", "b. Vocalis", "c. Cricoarytenoid" ]

a. Thyroarytenoid

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following laryngeal muscle is supplied by external laryngeal nerve?\n\na. Thyroarytenoid\nb. Vocalis\nc. Cricoarytenoid\nd. Cricothyroid", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Cricothyroid", "role": "assistant" } ]

3aef7868-9e52-4de2-af67-effe018ae35b

The aefact seen in a case of suicidal complete hanging is A. Oesophageal banding B. Unequal pupils C. Transverse tears in carotids D. Dribbling of saliva

Transverse tears in carotids

Oesophageal banding

Dribbling of saliva

Unequal pupils

1

single

Banding of the oesophagus is an aefact & non specific. These bands are pale areas in the mucosa caused by postmoem hypostasis being prevented from settling by the external pressure of larynx & trachea.

Forensic Medicine

Hanging and strangulation

A. Oesophageal banding

A. Oesophageal banding B. Unequal pupils C. Transverse tears in carotids D. Dribbling of saliva

A.

[ "B.", "C.", "D." ]

[ "B. Unequal pupils", "C. Transverse tears in carotids", "D. Dribbling of saliva" ]

D. Dribbling of saliva

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "The aefact seen in a case of suicidal complete hanging is\n\nA. Oesophageal banding\nB. Unequal pupils\nC. Transverse tears in carotids\nD. Dribbling of saliva", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A. Oesophageal banding", "role": "assistant" } ]

12a24d8b-3dbd-4a26-9b70-26d1b8fa8213

Sputum examination is not useful in diagnosis of- (a) Strongyloides (b) Trichuris trichiura (c) Ancylostoma duodenale (d) Paragonimiasis

Trichuris trichiura

Ancylostoma duodenale

Paragonimiasis

Strongyloides

0

single

null

Microbiology

null

(b) Trichuris trichiura

(a) Strongyloides (b) Trichuris trichiura (c) Ancylostoma duodenale (d) Paragonimiasis

(b)

[ "(a)", "(c)", "(d)" ]

[ "(a) Strongyloides", "(c) Ancylostoma duodenale", "(d) Paragonimiasis" ]

(a) Strongyloides

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Sputum examination is not useful in diagnosis of-\n\n(a) Strongyloides\n(b) Trichuris trichiura\n(c) Ancylostoma duodenale\n(d) Paragonimiasis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(b) Trichuris trichiura", "role": "assistant" } ]

0b947405-4650-40a8-bf75-118a165056ce

Which of the following hallucinations is pathognomonic of schizophrenia [1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient [2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary [3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient [4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient

Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient

Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary

Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient

Auditory hallucinations talking to patient

1

multi

Hallucinations are common in schizophrenia. Auditory hallucinations are by far the most frequent, these can be an elementary auditory hallucination (hearing simple words rather than voices), Thought echo, Third person hallucination, Voice commenting on ones on the action. Only the third person hallucinations are believed to be characteristic of schizophrenia (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, page no.56)

Psychiatry

Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders

[2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary

[1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient [2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary [3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient [4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient

[2]

[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]

[ "[1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient", "[3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient", "[4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient" ]

[4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following hallucinations is pathognomonic of schizophrenia\n\n[1] Auditory hallucinations criticizing the patient\n[2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary\n[3] Auditory hallucinations commanding the patient\n[4] Auditory hallucinations talking to patient", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Auditory hallucinations giving running commentary", "role": "assistant" } ]

192a779f-6d21-4b1f-a518-afb5f5ffd9ef

The parents of a 17-year-old boy with Down syndrome seek counseling because they are concerned that their son may develop a life-threatening disorder known to be associated with his chromosomal abnormality. The physician should be prepared to discuss which of the following disorders in terms of its association with Down syndrome? i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid ii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia iv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Lymphoblastic leukemia

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

2

single

Patients with Down syndrome are at increased risk of lymphoblastic leukemia. In addition, there is common occurrence of congenital hea disease, especially defects of the endocardial cushion (atrioventricular valve malformations and atrial and ventricular septal defects), and increased susceptibility to infection. Many patients with Down syndrome who are > 35 years of age show signs, symptoms of Alzheimer-type dementia

Pathology

Genetics

iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia

i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid ii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia iv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

iii.

[ "i.", "ii.", "iv." ]

[ "i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid", "ii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis", "iv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease" ]

i. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "The parents of a 17-year-old boy with Down syndrome seek counseling because they are concerned that their son may develop a life-threatening disorder known to be associated with his chromosomal abnormality. The physician should be prepared to discuss which of the following disorders in terms of its association with Down syndrome?\n\ni. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid\nii. Berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis\niii. Lymphoblastic leukemia\niv. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iii. Lymphoblastic leukemia", "role": "assistant" } ]

a3a6e237-4c8b-4267-971a-78dd4dc8f864

A 60-years old male has been operated for carcinoma of caecum and right hemicolectomy has been done. On the fouh post - oprative day, the patient develops fever and pain in the legs.The most impoant clinical entity one should look for is - [A] Urinary tract infection [B] Intravenous line infection [C] Chest infection [D] Deep vein thrombosis

Urinary tract infection

Intravenous line infection

Chest infection

Deep vein thrombosis

3

single

Ans. is `d' i.e., Deep vein thrombosis Old age and post operative period are risk factor for deep vein thrombosis

Surgery

null

[D] Deep vein thrombosis

[A] Urinary tract infection [B] Intravenous line infection [C] Chest infection [D] Deep vein thrombosis

[D]

[ "[A]", "[B]", "[C]" ]

[ "[A] Urinary tract infection", "[B] Intravenous line infection", "[C] Chest infection" ]

[C] Chest infection

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A 60-years old male has been operated for carcinoma of caecum and right hemicolectomy has been done. On the fouh post - oprative day, the patient develops fever and pain in the legs.The most impoant clinical entity one should look for is -\n\n[A] Urinary tract infection\n[B] Intravenous line infection\n[C] Chest infection\n[D] Deep vein thrombosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[D] Deep vein thrombosis", "role": "assistant" } ]

c5e748d8-6988-4ef1-afc7-63708e8c5232

Anaesthetic having epileptogenic potential is: [A] Enflurane [B] Ether [C] Desflurane [D] Halothane

Desflurane

Enflurane

Ether

Halothane

1

single

Enflurane may precipitate seizures in epileptic patients. Desflurane , ether and Halothane doesn&;t precipitate seizures and can be safely used in them. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 193

Pharmacology

Anesthesia

[A] Enflurane

[A] Enflurane [B] Ether [C] Desflurane [D] Halothane

[A]

[ "[B]", "[C]", "[D]" ]

[ "[B] Ether", "[C] Desflurane", "[D] Halothane" ]

[B] Ether

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Anaesthetic having epileptogenic potential is:\n\n[A] Enflurane\n[B] Ether\n[C] Desflurane\n[D] Halothane", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[A] Enflurane", "role": "assistant" } ]

442df27d-1e56-4f2b-b981-dca17da04ff3

A new systolic murmur after Acute myocardial infarction may be due to all of the following Except: (1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy (2) Papillary muscle dysfunction (3) Complete hea block (4) Rupture of Interventricular septum

Complete hea block

Rupture of Interventricular septum

Papillary muscle dysfunction

Ischemic cardiomyopathy

0

multi

Answer is A (Complete hea block) Complete hea block iv not a cause for new onset systolic murmur after Acute _Myocardial Infarction. Cause of new systolic murmur after Acute Myocardial infarction Papillary muscle dysfunction/rupture (causing severe mitral regurgitation) Rupture of interventricular septum Right ventricular infarction and tricuspid regurgitation Free wall rupture Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction Note: Ischemic cardiomyopathy is defined as dilated cardiomyopathy in a subject with history of MI. This may lead to papillary muscle dysfunction and hence produce a new onset systolic murmur.

Medicine

null

(3) Complete hea block

(1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy (2) Papillary muscle dysfunction (3) Complete hea block (4) Rupture of Interventricular septum

(3)

[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]

[ "(1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy", "(2) Papillary muscle dysfunction", "(4) Rupture of Interventricular septum" ]

(2) Papillary muscle dysfunction

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A new systolic murmur after Acute myocardial infarction may be due to all of the following Except:\n\n(1) Ischemic cardiomyopathy\n(2) Papillary muscle dysfunction\n(3) Complete hea block\n(4) Rupture of Interventricular septum", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) Complete hea block", "role": "assistant" } ]

a901f300-9169-4957-a2be-1bf19a7de549

Which muscle does not take pa in dorsal digital expansion A) Adductor pollicis B) Lumbricals C) Interossei D) Extensor digitorum

Interossei

Lumbricals

Extensor digitorum

Adductor pollicis

3

single

DORSAL DIGITAL EXPANSION: The dorsal digital expansion {extensor expansion} is a small triangular aponeurosis covering the dorsum of the proximal phalanx. Its base, which is proximal, covers the metacarpophalangeal joint. The main tendon of the extensor digitorium occupies the central pa of the extension and is separated from the MP joint by a bursa. The posterior corners of the extensor expansion are joined by tendons of the interossei {proximal} and {distal} are often called' wing tendons' Near the proximal interphalangeal joint, the extensor tendon divides into a central slip and two collateral slips. The central slip is joined by some fibres from the margins of the expansion, crosses the proximal interphalangeal joint, and is inseed on the dorsum of the base of the middle phalanx. The two collateral slips are joined by the remaining thick margin of the extensor expansion. They then join each other and are inseed on the dorsum of the base of the distal phalanx. As the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints, the extensor expansion forms the dorsal pa of the fibrous capscule of the joints. The retinacular ligaments {limk ligaments} extend from the side of the proximal phalanx, and form its fibrous flexor sheath, to the margins of the extensor expansion to reach the base of the distal phalanx. THE MUSCLES INSEED INTO THE DORSAL DIGITAL EXPANSION OF: INDEX FINGER: First dorsal interosseous, second palmar interosseous, first lumbrical, extensor digitorum slip, and extensor indicis. MIDDLE FINGER: Second and third dorsal interossei, second lumbrical, extensor digitorum slip. RING FINGER: Fouh dorsal interosseous, third palmar interosseous, third lumbrical and extensor digitorum slip. LITTLE FINGER: Fouh palmar interosseous, fouh lumbrical, extensor digitorum slip and extensor digiti minimi.

Anatomy

Upper limb

A) Adductor pollicis

A) Adductor pollicis B) Lumbricals C) Interossei D) Extensor digitorum

A)

[ "B)", "C)", "D)" ]

[ "B) Lumbricals", "C) Interossei", "D) Extensor digitorum" ]

B) Lumbricals

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which muscle does not take pa in dorsal digital expansion\n\nA) Adductor pollicis\nB) Lumbricals\nC) Interossei\nD) Extensor digitorum", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A) Adductor pollicis", "role": "assistant" } ]

ebbfc0ca-0d1e-45c1-a118-2c73bbfbf13d

A crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease is most likely to be caused by A) Decreased CO2 concentration B) Acidosis C) Increased oxygen concentration D) Alkalosis

Alkalosis

Acidosis

Increased oxygen concentration

Decreased CO2 concentration

1

single

A crisis in sickle cell disease occurs when deoxygenated HbS precipitates, deforming (sickling) red blood cells and .blocking capillaries. Variables that increase the propoion of ofHbS in the "deoxy" state tend to increase the probability of a crisis by increasing the extent of sickling. The "deoxy" form of hemoglobin is ored by a decrease in pH (acidosis). An increase in pH (alkalosis), increased oxygen concentration, decreased CO2 concentration and decreased 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate concentration would all or the" oxy" form of hemoglobin. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 692-93

Medicine

Haematology

B) Acidosis

A) Decreased CO2 concentration B) Acidosis C) Increased oxygen concentration D) Alkalosis

B)

[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]

[ "A) Decreased CO2 concentration", "C) Increased oxygen concentration", "D) Alkalosis" ]

A) Decreased CO2 concentration

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease is most likely to be caused by\n\nA) Decreased CO2 concentration\nB) Acidosis\nC) Increased oxygen concentration\nD) Alkalosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) Acidosis", "role": "assistant" } ]

1816658d-239a-41d9-b8e3-123437cabc71

Elisabeth Kubler-Ross classified five stages of i. Delusion ii. None iii. Schizophrenia iv. Grief

Schizophrenia

Delusion

Grief

None

2

multi

Elisabeth Kubler-Ross made a comprehensive and useful organisation of reactions to impending death. Stage1- Shock & Denial Stage2- Anger Stage3- Bargaining Stage4- Depression Stage5- Acceptance Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11e, pg 1352.

Psychiatry

Cognitive development and defence mechanism

iv. Grief

i. Delusion ii. None iii. Schizophrenia iv. Grief

iv.

[ "i.", "ii.", "iii." ]

[ "i. Delusion", "ii. None", "iii. Schizophrenia" ]

iii. Schizophrenia

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Elisabeth Kubler-Ross classified five stages of\n\ni. Delusion\nii. None\niii. Schizophrenia\niv. Grief", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iv. Grief", "role": "assistant" } ]

e5a41f0a-fb9c-4ef8-a8bd-f0a2c51e5e44

Nerve supply of tip of nose ? a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve c. Orbital br of maxillary n d. Inferior orbital nerve

Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of

Inferior orbital nerve

Buccal br of mandibular nerve

Orbital br of maxillary n

0

single

Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of

Anatomy

null

a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of

a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve c. Orbital br of maxillary n d. Inferior orbital nerve

a.

[ "b.", "c.", "d." ]

[ "b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve", "c. Orbital br of maxillary n", "d. Inferior orbital nerve" ]

b. Buccal br of mandibular nerve

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Nerve supply of tip of nose ?\n\na. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of\nb. Buccal br of mandibular nerve\nc. Orbital br of maxillary n\nd. Inferior orbital nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "a. Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of", "role": "assistant" } ]

c6ec5318-e6d8-47da-a021-0baf83e4bf86

All/except are true about MS: a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques b. Hyper intense T2WI c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation d. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic

Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic

Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation

T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques

Hyper intense T2WI

2

multi

C i.e. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques

Radiology

null

a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques

a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques b. Hyper intense T2WI c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation d. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic

a.

[ "b.", "c.", "d." ]

[ "b. Hyper intense T2WI", "c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation", "d. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic" ]

c. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "All/except are true about MS:\n\na. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques\nb. Hyper intense T2WI\nc. Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation\nd. Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic", "role": "user" }, { "content": "a. T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques", "role": "assistant" } ]

a6958436-9471-4225-b5d2-c477192da91d

A patient Shweta with raised serum alkaline phosphatase and raised parathormone level along with low calcium and low phosphate level is likely to have (A) Primary hyperparathyroidism (B) Vitamin D deficiency (C) Osteoporosis (D) Paget's disease

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Paget's disease

Osteoporosis

Vitamin D deficiency

3

single

Medicine

null

(B) Vitamin D deficiency

(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism (B) Vitamin D deficiency (C) Osteoporosis (D) Paget's disease

(B)

[ "(A)", "(C)", "(D)" ]

[ "(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism", "(C) Osteoporosis", "(D) Paget's disease" ]

(C) Osteoporosis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A patient Shweta with raised serum alkaline phosphatase and raised parathormone level along with low calcium and low phosphate level is likely to have\n\n(A) Primary hyperparathyroidism\n(B) Vitamin D deficiency\n(C) Osteoporosis\n(D) Paget's disease", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(B) Vitamin D deficiency", "role": "assistant" } ]

77fe5300-2efb-4730-9c8e-c75c4ff0b8e5

The notochord formation occurs on approximately what day after conception? (A) Day 17 (B) Day 7 (C) Day 28 (D) Day 2

Day 2

Day 7

Day 17

Day 28

2

single

Formation of the notochord is a third week event, occurring as a relatively early pa of development of the trilaminar disc. More specifically, notochord formation begins about day 16 and the neurenteric canal forms on about day 18. Two days after conception, implantation has not yet occurred. By seven days after conception, the blastocyst has usually implanted in the endometrium. By day 28, gastrulation has occurred, and organogenesis is under way.

Anatomy

null

(A) Day 17

(A) Day 17 (B) Day 7 (C) Day 28 (D) Day 2

(A)

[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]

[ "(B) Day 7", "(C) Day 28", "(D) Day 2" ]

(C) Day 28

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "The notochord formation occurs on approximately what day after conception?\n\n(A) Day 17\n(B) Day 7\n(C) Day 28\n(D) Day 2", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Day 17", "role": "assistant" } ]

c7c30753-0a06-46cc-9442-49f454494833

Chronic amoebic keratitis is seen in: (A) Haemoflagellates (B) Naegleria (C) E. histolytica (D) Acanthamoeba

E. histolytica

Acanthamoeba

Naegleria

Haemoflagellates

1

single

Ans.(b)Acanthamoeba spp have been linked to several clinical conditions, including, Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis, cutaneous infections and amoebic keratitis. The primary group at risk for developing this condition is individuals you wear contact lenses especially the soft and extended wear type. The organism enters through a corneal trauma and there is subsequent colonization. It produces a protein which causes cell Lysis thus causing clinical symptoms of keratitis.

Microbiology

Parasitology

(D) Acanthamoeba

(A) Haemoflagellates (B) Naegleria (C) E. histolytica (D) Acanthamoeba

(D)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]

[ "(A) Haemoflagellates", "(B) Naegleria", "(C) E. histolytica" ]

(C) E. histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Chronic amoebic keratitis is seen in:\n\n(A) Haemoflagellates\n(B) Naegleria\n(C) E. histolytica\n(D) Acanthamoeba", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Acanthamoeba", "role": "assistant" } ]

d6b6a20a-42d3-48ba-909b-39f15f6ef33a

Pseudojaundice is an adverse effect of: [a] Rifabutin [b] Chlorpromazine [c] Omeprazole [d] Phenytoin

Phenytoin

Rifabutin

Omeprazole

Chlorpromazine

1

single

Rifabutin: It is related to rifampin in structure and. mechanism of action; but less active against M. tuberculi and more active against MAC. Only paial cross resistance occurs between the two. In a dose of 300 mg/ day rifabutii1 is used for prophylaxis of MAC infection in AIDS patient:; For the treatment of established MAC infection, it has beer. added to ethambutol + clarithromycin/ azithrom&; cir Gastrointestinal intolerance, rashes, granulocytopeni

Pharmacology

Chemotherapy

[a] Rifabutin

[a] Rifabutin [b] Chlorpromazine [c] Omeprazole [d] Phenytoin

[a]

[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]

[ "[b] Chlorpromazine", "[c] Omeprazole", "[d] Phenytoin" ]

[d] Phenytoin

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Pseudojaundice is an adverse effect of:\n\n[a] Rifabutin\n[b] Chlorpromazine\n[c] Omeprazole\n[d] Phenytoin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Rifabutin", "role": "assistant" } ]

4cd9227f-3074-423c-ae11-d8655a9982cf

Ideal time for doing quadruple test:- [A] 11-15 weeks [B] 15-18 weeks [C] 8-12 weeks [D] 18-22 weeks

8-12 weeks

11-15 weeks

15-18 weeks

18-22 weeks

2

single

Triple test : screening test It's a screening test for down syndrome ( trisomy 21) Done between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation It involves estimation of three hormones : ( hCG|, AFP|, UE3| ) To the triple test, if the level of a fouh marker dimeric inhibin alpha are added, the test is called as QUAD test or Quadruple test ( inhibin A |) 1st trimester 2nd trimester Screening test Nuchal tranaslucency + - hCG + PAPP-A Quad test /tirple test Diagnostic test ( karyotyping ) Chronic villi sampling Amniocentesis

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

NEET 2018

[B] 15-18 weeks

[A] 11-15 weeks [B] 15-18 weeks [C] 8-12 weeks [D] 18-22 weeks

[B]

[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]

[ "[A] 11-15 weeks", "[C] 8-12 weeks", "[D] 18-22 weeks" ]

[D] 18-22 weeks

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Ideal time for doing quadruple test:-\n\n[A] 11-15 weeks\n[B] 15-18 weeks\n[C] 8-12 weeks\n[D] 18-22 weeks", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] 15-18 weeks", "role": "assistant" } ]

7cb66b48-e4a6-4b99-bc0c-bd344af53583

Not a branch of posterior cord of Brachial plexus [1] Radial nerve [2] Thoracodorsal nerve [3] Axillary nerve [4] Ulnar nerve

Axillary nerve

Thoracodorsal nerve

Radial nerve

Ulnar nerve

3

single

Long thoracic nerve arises from the nerve root of C5-C7 and it supplies serratus anterior muscle. The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid and teres minor muscles. The thoracodorsal nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi muscle. The radial nerve supplies 3 heads of triceps brachii and 12 muscles on the back of the forearm. Mnemonic Posterior cord - ULTRA U- upper subscapular nerve L-lower subscapular nerve T-thoracodorsal R-radial nerve A-axillary nerve B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 58 Fig: 4.14,page no:55 BD chaurasia 6th edition.

Anatomy

Upper limb

[4] Ulnar nerve

[1] Radial nerve [2] Thoracodorsal nerve [3] Axillary nerve [4] Ulnar nerve

[4]

[ "[1]", "[2]", "[3]" ]

[ "[1] Radial nerve", "[2] Thoracodorsal nerve", "[3] Axillary nerve" ]

[1] Radial nerve

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Not a branch of posterior cord of Brachial plexus\n\n[1] Radial nerve\n[2] Thoracodorsal nerve\n[3] Axillary nerve\n[4] Ulnar nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[4] Ulnar nerve", "role": "assistant" } ]

1e8be4c0-3c47-4e5f-ad24-c494d8474bff

A female neonate with DiGeorge syndrome develops severe muscle cramps and convulsions soon after bih. Which of the following is the cause of convulsions in this neonate? (a) Hypocalcemia (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Hypokalemia (d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis

Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis

Hypocalcemia

Hypoglycemia

Hypokalemia

1

single

DiGeorge syndrome: - Caused by failure in development of 3rd and 4th branchial pouches, resulting in Agenesis/ hypoplasia of thymus & parathyroid glands Congenital hea defects Dysmorphic facies -Occurs secondary to deletions on chromosome 22q11.2 - As a result of parathyroid agenesis, patients with DiGeorge syndrome exhibit hypocalcemia, which manifests as increased neuromuscular excitability. - Symptoms range from mild tingling in hands & feet to severe muscle cramps & convulsions.

Pathology

Parathyroids

(a) Hypocalcemia

(a) Hypocalcemia (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Hypokalemia (d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis

(a)

[ "(b)", "(c)", "(d)" ]

[ "(b) Hypoglycemia", "(c) Hypokalemia", "(d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis" ]

(d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A female neonate with DiGeorge syndrome develops severe muscle cramps and convulsions soon after bih. Which of the following is the cause of convulsions in this neonate?\n\n(a) Hypocalcemia\n(b) Hypoglycemia\n(c) Hypokalemia\n(d) Acute hemorrhagic adrenalitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(a) Hypocalcemia", "role": "assistant" } ]

be1c371f-e21d-4ec6-a7ce-022863ca96bb

In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the- A. Post sinusoidal B. Hepatic vein C. Sinusoids D. Extra hepatic portal vein

Hepatic vein

Post sinusoidal

Extra hepatic portal vein

Sinusoids

3

single

null

Surgery

null

C. Sinusoids

A. Post sinusoidal B. Hepatic vein C. Sinusoids D. Extra hepatic portal vein

C.

[ "A.", "B.", "D." ]

[ "A. Post sinusoidal", "B. Hepatic vein", "D. Extra hepatic portal vein" ]

A. Post sinusoidal

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the-\n\nA. Post sinusoidal\nB. Hepatic vein\nC. Sinusoids\nD. Extra hepatic portal vein", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C. Sinusoids", "role": "assistant" } ]

fcf0e851-e66d-4a42-a5e8-11992065b2c1

Role of Fluorine in dental health is the following EXCEPT (a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite (b) To make enamel several times less soluble (c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface (d) To make enamel harder than usual

To make enamel harder than usual

To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite

To make enamel several times less soluble

To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface

0

multi

Ans. a. (To make enamel harder than usual) (Ref. Guyton physiology 11th/994, 879)Role of Fluorine in Preventing Caries. Teeth formed in children who drink water that contains small amounts of fluorine develop enamel that is more resistant to caries than the enamel in children who drink water that does not contain fluorine. Fluorine does not make the enamel harder than usual, but fluorine ions replace many of the hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite crystals, which in turn makes the enamel several times less soluble. Fluorine may also be toxic to the bacteria. Finally, when small pits do develop in the enamel, fluorine is believed to promote deposition of calcium phosphate to "heal" the enamel surface. Regardless of the precise means by which fluorine protects the teeth, it is known that small amounts of fluorine deposited in enamel make teeth about three times as resistant to caries as teeth without fluorine.# Fluorine does not seem to be a necessary element for metabolism & it does not make the teeth themselves stronger but has a poorly understood effect in suppressing the cariogenic process.# Even though the mottled teeth are highly resistant to the development of caries, the structural strength of these teeth may be considerably lessened by the mottling process.

Physiology

Misc.

(d) To make enamel harder than usual

(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite (b) To make enamel several times less soluble (c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface (d) To make enamel harder than usual

(d)

[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]

[ "(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite", "(b) To make enamel several times less soluble", "(c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface" ]

(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Role of Fluorine in dental health is the following EXCEPT\n\n(a) To replace several hydroxyl ions in hydroxyapatite\n(b) To make enamel several times less soluble\n(c) To promote deposition of calcium phosphate to 'heal' pits in enamel surface\n(d) To make enamel harder than usual", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) To make enamel harder than usual", "role": "assistant" } ]

45f15096-fda9-4f57-83f8-0db95c5e3534

Decrease in gastric acid secretion by all except ? 1) Omeprazole 2) Perenzepine 3) Ranitidine 4) Sucalfate

Ranitidine

Omeprazole

Sucalfate

Perenzepine

2

multi

Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sucralfate Drugsarpgalcer 1. Reduce gastric acid secretion H2 antihistaminic - Cimetidine, Ranitidine, Famotidine, Roxatidine. Proton pump inhibitors - Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Pantoprazole, Rabeprazole, Esomeprazole. Anticholinergics - Pirenzepine, propantheline, oxyphenonium. Prostaglandin analogue - Misoprostol, enprostii, rioprostil. 2. Neutralization of gastric acid (antacids) Systemic - Sodium bicarbonate, sodium citrate. Non systemic - Magnesium hydroxide, Mag. trisilicate, aluminium hydroxide, Magaldrate, calcium carbonate. 3. Ulcer protectives Sucral fate, colloidal bismuth subcitrate, Prostaglandin analogue. 4. Anti H. pylori durgs Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, metronidazole, Tinidazole, tetracycline.

Pharmacology

null

4) Sucalfate

1) Omeprazole 2) Perenzepine 3) Ranitidine 4) Sucalfate

4)

[ "1)", "2)", "3)" ]

[ "1) Omeprazole", "2) Perenzepine", "3) Ranitidine" ]

2) Perenzepine

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Decrease in gastric acid secretion by all except ?\n\n1) Omeprazole\n2) Perenzepine\n3) Ranitidine\n4) Sucalfate", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4) Sucalfate", "role": "assistant" } ]

1b1fbe73-6d4c-46c0-aeb5-59a5a67c69e3

A male patient presents with headache, profuse sweating and palpitations with a blood prssure of 180/120 mmHg. The drug of choice would be - a) Prazocin b) Labetalol c) Phenoxy benzamine d) Nifedipine

Nifedipine

Labetalol

Prazocin

Phenoxy benzamine

3

single

Answer- D. Phenoxy benzamineSymptoms of the patient suggests pheochromocytoma .The drug of choice for pheochromocytomas is phenoxybenzamine

Medicine

null

c) Phenoxy benzamine

a) Prazocin b) Labetalol c) Phenoxy benzamine d) Nifedipine

c)

[ "a)", "b)", "d)" ]

[ "a) Prazocin", "b) Labetalol", "d) Nifedipine" ]

a) Prazocin

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A male patient presents with headache, profuse sweating and palpitations with a blood prssure of 180/120 mmHg. The drug of choice would be -\n\na) Prazocin\nb) Labetalol\nc) Phenoxy benzamine\nd) Nifedipine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "c) Phenoxy benzamine", "role": "assistant" } ]

5e41fa11-f4c0-4023-9dc5-8cd2d3b41cee

Reactive ahritis is caused by: I. C. trachomatis II. Staphylococcus III. H. influenzae IV. N. gonorrhoe

Staphylococcus

H. influenzae

N. gonorrhoe

C. trachomatis

3

single

Ans. (d) C. trachomatis Ref CMDT 2014, p 825 Reactive ahritis (formerly called Reiter syndrome) is the clinical tetrad of uretheritis, conjunctivitis (or uveitis), mucocutaneous lesions and aseptic ahritis. Most cases develop within days weeks after either a dysenteric infection or urogential infection. GI Urogenital Shigella Chlamydia trachomatus Salmonella Ureoplasma urealyticum Yersina Compylobacter Associated infection: Ahritis is most commonly assymetric, and frequently involves the large joints (most commonly ankle and knee); Sacroiliatis and ankylosing spondylitis is observed in atleast 20% of patients; especially after frequent recurrences.

Microbiology

null

I. C. trachomatis

I. C. trachomatis II. Staphylococcus III. H. influenzae IV. N. gonorrhoe

I.

[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]

[ "II. Staphylococcus", "III. H. influenzae", "IV. N. gonorrhoe" ]

III. H. influenzae

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Reactive ahritis is caused by:\n\nI. C. trachomatis\nII. Staphylococcus\nIII. H. influenzae\nIV. N. gonorrhoe", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. C. trachomatis", "role": "assistant" } ]

3b67ac3b-f01c-4870-8ebf-c69c1f59ed2a

A 10-year-old child presents with diarrhea and abdominal pain since 4 days. Stool microscopy was done and is shown below. Which of the following can be used for the treatment? I. Praziquantel II. Ivermectin III. Mebendazole IV. Diethylcarbamazine

Mebendazole

Ivermectin

Diethylcarbamazine

Praziquantel

3

single

The given clinical history and the stool microscopy showing the egg are suggestive of infection with Hymenolepis nana. It is treated by Praziquantel. Characteristics of Hymenolepis nana eggs: Colorless, non-bile stained Possesses a single shell with an operculum at one end and a knob at the other end. Reference: Paniker&;s Textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition

Microbiology

miscellaneous

I. Praziquantel

I. Praziquantel II. Ivermectin III. Mebendazole IV. Diethylcarbamazine

I.

[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]

[ "II. Ivermectin", "III. Mebendazole", "IV. Diethylcarbamazine" ]

II. Ivermectin

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A 10-year-old child presents with diarrhea and abdominal pain since 4 days. Stool microscopy was done and is shown below. Which of the following can be used for the treatment?\n\nI. Praziquantel\nII. Ivermectin\nIII. Mebendazole\nIV. Diethylcarbamazine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. Praziquantel", "role": "assistant" } ]

7cbf2a59-8a71-4230-a0db-6a4a70aa40f7

Hyperammonemia blocks which phase of Krebs cycle? 1) Succinate dehydrogenase 2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 3) Malate dehydrogenase 4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Malate dehydrogenase

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

Succinate dehydrogenase

0

single

a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase REF: Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students 6th edition by D. M. Vasudevan page 179, http://en .wikipedia. org/wiki/Citric_acid_ cycle Urea cycle and TCA cycle are interlinked and so it is called as "Urea Bicycle". The absence of a urea cycle enzyme can result in hyperammonemia or in the build-up of one or more urea cycle intermediates, depending on the enzyme that is missing. Excess ammonia has been shown to inhibit the citric acid cycle (Hatch, 1977) One effect of ammonia is the inhibition of the rate limiting TCA cycle enzyme alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (alphaKGDH) and possibly also pyruvate dehydrogenase, but this has been regarded to be of no quantitative impoance. However, recent studies justify a revision of this point of view. Based on published data, the following sequence of events is proposed. Inhibition of alphaKGDH both enhances the detoxification of ammonia by formation of glutamine from alpha-ketoglutarate and reduces the rate of NADH and oxidative ATP production in astrocytic mitochondria. Substrates Products Enzyme Reaction type Comment 1 Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA + H20 Citrate + CoA-SH Citrate synthase Aldol condensation irreversible, extends the 4C oxaloacetate to a 6C molecule 2 Citrate cis-Aconitate + H20 Aconitase Dehydration reversible isomerisation 3 cis-Aconitate + H20 Isocitrate Hydration 4 Isocitrate + NAD+ Oxalosuccinate + NADH + H + Isocitrate dehydrogenase Oxidation generates NADH (equivalent of 2.5 ATP) 5 Oxalosuccinate a-Ketoglutarate + CO2 Decarboxylation rate-limiting, irreversible stage, generates a 5C molecule 6 a-Ketoglutarate + NAD+ + CoA-SH Succinyl-CoA + NADH + H+ + CO2 u-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Oxidative decarboxylation irreversible stage, generates NADH (equivalent of 2.5 ATP), regenerates the 4C chain (CoA excluded) 7 Succinyl-CoA + GDP + Pi Succinate + CoA-SH + GTP Succinyl-CoA synthetase substrate-level phosphorylation ADP ATP or ---o. instead of GDP -- GTP,[91 generates 1 ATP or equivalent 8 Succinate + ubiquinone (Q) Fumarate -F ubiquinol (QH2) Succinate dehydrogenase Oxidation uses FAD as a prosthetic group (FAD FADH2 in first --, the step of the reaction) in the enzyme,'91 generates the quivalent of 1.5 ATP 9 Fumarate + H20 L-Malate Fumarase Hydration 10 L-Malate + NAD+ Oxaloacetate + NADH + H+ Malate dehydrogenase Oxidation reversible (in fact, equilibrium ors inalate), generates NADH (equivalent of 2.5 ATP)

Biochemistry

null

3) Malate dehydrogenase

1) Succinate dehydrogenase 2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 3) Malate dehydrogenase 4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

3)

[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]

[ "1) Succinate dehydrogenase", "2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase", "4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase" ]

4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Hyperammonemia blocks which phase of Krebs cycle?\n\n1) Succinate dehydrogenase\n2) a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase\n3) Malate dehydrogenase\n4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Malate dehydrogenase", "role": "assistant" } ]

1b70cf71-747c-49f1-a78d-4b730865982f

World Health Organization 2010 criteria for morphology (strict criteria) for semen analysis includes - A) >=32% normal forms B) >=4% normal forms C) >15% normal forms D) >=25% normal forms

>15% normal forms

>=4% normal forms

>=25% normal forms

>=32% normal forms

1

single

Normal Semen Analysis: World Health Organization 2010 Guideline Volume >=1.5 mL Sperm concentration >=15 million/mL Total sperm number >= 39 million/ ejaculate Sperm motility >40%motile, >32%progressive Morphology >=4% normal forms (kruger's strict criteria) Vitality 58 % White blood cells <1 million/mL Immunobead/Mixed antiglobulin Reaction <50% coated with antibodies reaction

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Infeility (Eggs'plantation!)

B) >=4% normal forms

A) >=32% normal forms B) >=4% normal forms C) >15% normal forms D) >=25% normal forms

B)

[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]

[ "A) >=32% normal forms", "C) >15% normal forms", "D) >=25% normal forms" ]

A) >=32% normal forms

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "World Health Organization 2010 criteria for morphology (strict criteria) for semen analysis includes -\n\nA) >=32% normal forms\nB) >=4% normal forms\nC) >15% normal forms\nD) >=25% normal forms", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) >=4% normal forms", "role": "assistant" } ]

0dc53cf0-ce1a-429a-a781-0ca2f3d4d175

Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors ? (A) Neurofibromas (B) Ependymomas (C) Medulloblastomas (D) Astrocytomas

Astrocytomas

Medulloblastomas

Neurofibromas

Ependymomas

0

single

null

Medicine

null

(D) Astrocytomas

(A) Neurofibromas (B) Ependymomas (C) Medulloblastomas (D) Astrocytomas

(D)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]

[ "(A) Neurofibromas", "(B) Ependymomas", "(C) Medulloblastomas" ]

(B) Ependymomas

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors ?\n\n(A) Neurofibromas\n(B) Ependymomas\n(C) Medulloblastomas\n(D) Astrocytomas", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Astrocytomas", "role": "assistant" } ]

aa7165de-663a-4672-8f08-fdac5cd8aa20

True about revised National Tuberculosis programme (NTP) – a) Active case findingb) DOTS appliedc) Treatment is given only in smear positive casesd) General practitioners are restricted to give the treatmente) It has replaced NTP (a) ab (b) be (c) ad (d) ce

ab

ad

be

ce

2

multi

Government of India, WHO, and World Bank together reviewed the NTP in the year of 1992. Based on the findings revised strategy for NTP, Revised National tuberculosis control programme was made. Under RNTCP case finding is passive. Patient present them - selves with symptoms suspicious of tuberculosis will be screened. Treatment is not only given to smear positive person but also to the smear -ve but X-ray features positive person also. Under RNTCP qualified Medical officer of PHC, cadres of health workers and MPWs also involved in programme of case detection and treatment.

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

(b) be

(a) ab (b) be (c) ad (d) ce

(b)

[ "(a)", "(c)", "(d)" ]

[ "(a) ab", "(c) ad", "(d) ce" ]

(d) ce

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "True about revised National Tuberculosis programme (NTP) – a) Active case findingb) DOTS appliedc) Treatment is given only in smear positive casesd) General practitioners are restricted to give the treatmente) It has replaced NTP\n\n(a) ab\n(b) be\n(c) ad\n(d) ce", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(b) be", "role": "assistant" } ]

093ddf70-8ff0-4a59-b8c0-d68e9dea5c66

Memory disturbance of ECT recovers in - 1) Few months to few year 2) Permanent 3) Few weeks to few months 4) Few days to few weeks

Few days to few weeks

Few weeks to few months

Few months to few year

Permanent

1

single

Amnesia after ECT is almost always reversible within few weeks to 2 months. Remember Amnesia for the memory of 6 months before ECT → Retrograde amnesia for 6 months. Amnesia for 2 months after ECT → Antegrade amnesia for 2 months.

Psychiatry

null

3) Few weeks to few months

1) Few months to few year 2) Permanent 3) Few weeks to few months 4) Few days to few weeks

3)

[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]

[ "1) Few months to few year", "2) Permanent", "4) Few days to few weeks" ]

1) Few months to few year

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Memory disturbance of ECT recovers in -\n\n1) Few months to few year\n2) Permanent\n3) Few weeks to few months\n4) Few days to few weeks", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Few weeks to few months", "role": "assistant" } ]

2a71a98d-c29e-4205-b367-d31be86f878b

A child draws circle at – i. 12 months ii. 24 months iii. 30 months iv. 36 months

12 months

24 months

30 months

36 months

3

single

null

Pediatrics

null

iv. 36 months

i. 12 months ii. 24 months iii. 30 months iv. 36 months

iv.

[ "i.", "ii.", "iii." ]

[ "i. 12 months", "ii. 24 months", "iii. 30 months" ]

i. 12 months

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A child draws circle at –\n\ni. 12 months\nii. 24 months\niii. 30 months\niv. 36 months", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iv. 36 months", "role": "assistant" } ]

4068ae51-1bfa-443a-80c7-1488b612bc37

CO2 level in kPa above which brain stem death is confirmed ? (1) 9 (2) 5 (3) 6.5 (4) 1

1

9

5

6.5

3

multi

Answer- D. 6.5At the end of a period of observation, typically several minutes, aerial Pco2 should be at least > 6.6-8.0 kPa (50-60 mmHg) for the test to be valid.Apnea is confirmed if no respiratory effo has been observed in the presence of a sufficiently elevated Pco2.

Medicine

null

(3) 6.5

(1) 9 (2) 5 (3) 6.5 (4) 1

(3)

[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]

[ "(1) 9", "(2) 5", "(4) 1" ]

(1) 9

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "CO2 level in kPa above which brain stem death is confirmed ?\n\n(1) 9\n(2) 5\n(3) 6.5\n(4) 1", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) 6.5", "role": "assistant" } ]

f1ba21a1-d33c-41c4-a8ef-1fb0e1bf8930

A child , Names 4 colours by the age of I. 36 months II. 24 months III. 48 months IV. 60 months

24 months

36 months

48 months

60 months

3

single

Emerging patterns for language behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Jargon Follows simple commands May name a familiar object (e.g., ball) Responds to his/her name 18months 10 words (average) Names pictures Identifies 1 or more pas of the body 24months Puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object) 30months Refers to self by the pronoun "I" Knows full name 36months Knows age and sex Counts 3 objects correctly Repeats 3 numbers or a sentence of 6 syllables Most of the speech intelligible to strangers 48months Counts 4 pennies accurately Tells story 60months Names 4 colours Repeats sentence of 10 syllables Counts 10 pennies correctly Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1

Pediatrics

Growth and development

IV. 60 months

I. 36 months II. 24 months III. 48 months IV. 60 months

IV.

[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]

[ "I. 36 months", "II. 24 months", "III. 48 months" ]

III. 48 months

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A child , Names 4 colours by the age of\n\nI. 36 months\nII. 24 months\nIII. 48 months\nIV. 60 months", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. 60 months", "role": "assistant" } ]

3feba6d4-7c0f-4809-b2e9-99373100d06c

A sewage worker with fever and jaundice presented to the emergency depament. Lab investigations revealed increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine - indicative of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is preferred in this patient? (a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Erythromycin (c) Penicillin G (d) Doxycycline

Erythromycin

Doxycycline

Penicillin G

Ciprofloxacin

2

single

The history of fever and jaundice in a sewage worker with features of renal failure is suggestive of Weil's disease Intravenous penicillin G is the preferred antibiotic for treatment of Weil's disease Erythromycin can be used as an alternative In mild cases of leptospirosis, oral therapy with ampicillin / tetracycline is given Doxycycline is used for prophylaxis against leptospirosis Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive medicine

Social & Preventive Medicine

All India exam

(c) Penicillin G

(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Erythromycin (c) Penicillin G (d) Doxycycline

(c)

[ "(a)", "(b)", "(d)" ]

[ "(a) Ciprofloxacin", "(b) Erythromycin", "(d) Doxycycline" ]

(a) Ciprofloxacin

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A sewage worker with fever and jaundice presented to the emergency depament. Lab investigations revealed increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine - indicative of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is preferred in this patient?\n\n(a) Ciprofloxacin\n(b) Erythromycin\n(c) Penicillin G\n(d) Doxycycline", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(c) Penicillin G", "role": "assistant" } ]

10f4c2a9-ce35-4656-b9f0-95de7aab14a4

A 69-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with an acute UGI hemorrhage following a bout of repeated vomiting. Fiberoptic gastroscopy reveals three linear mucosal tears at the GE junction. What is the diagnosis? 1) Mallory-Weiss tear 2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration 3) Barrett's esophagus 4) Carcinoma of the esophagus

Reflux esophagitis with ulceration

Barrett's esophagus

Carcinoma of the esophagus

Mallory-Weiss tear

3

multi

A Mallory-Weiss tear is characterized by acute and sometimes massive UGI hemorrhage. It accounts for up to 10%. of UGI bleeds. It is due to arterial bleeding following repeated vomiting (which causes mucosal tears at the GE junction). The cause is the same as that for spontaneous rupture of the esophagus (i.e., an increase in intra-abdominal pressure against a closed glottis). Causes other than vomiting such as paroxysmal coughing or retching, may sometimes lead to this condition. Upper endoscopy confirms the diagnosis. Surgery may occasionally be necessary to stop the bleeding.

Surgery

Stomach & Duodenum

1) Mallory-Weiss tear

1) Mallory-Weiss tear 2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration 3) Barrett's esophagus 4) Carcinoma of the esophagus

1)

[ "2)", "3)", "4)" ]

[ "2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration", "3) Barrett's esophagus", "4) Carcinoma of the esophagus" ]

2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "A 69-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with an acute UGI hemorrhage following a bout of repeated vomiting. Fiberoptic gastroscopy reveals three linear mucosal tears at the GE junction. What is the diagnosis?\n\n1) Mallory-Weiss tear\n2) Reflux esophagitis with ulceration\n3) Barrett's esophagus\n4) Carcinoma of the esophagus", "role": "user" }, { "content": "1) Mallory-Weiss tear", "role": "assistant" } ]

fc4906e7-a124-4c02-a51b-7370fcae6f85

Which of these statements is false for erythema marginatum? (1) Rash is itchy (2) Rash worsens on application of heat (3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever (4) Lesions are serpiginous

Lesions are serpiginous

Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever

Rash worsens on application of heat

Rash is itchy

3

multi

Erythema marginatum is one of the major criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever. It is an evanescent macular rash which has following characteristics- Pink /erythematous with a clear centre Rounded or serpiginous border Non-pruritic Non-indurated Transient Migratory → moves from place to place Brought on by application of heat Not raised above skin Blanches on pressure Distribution → on trunk and proximal extremities. Face is never involved. Erythema marginatum is extremely rare in Indian patients.

Dental

null

(1) Rash is itchy

(1) Rash is itchy (2) Rash worsens on application of heat (3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever (4) Lesions are serpiginous

(1)

[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]

[ "(2) Rash worsens on application of heat", "(3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever", "(4) Lesions are serpiginous" ]

(4) Lesions are serpiginous

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of these statements is false for erythema marginatum?\n\n(1) Rash is itchy\n(2) Rash worsens on application of heat\n(3) Characteristically it is seen in Rheumatic fever\n(4) Lesions are serpiginous", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) Rash is itchy", "role": "assistant" } ]

a83b48f3-485f-4afd-b9fd-6bcd8f39f37f

Which of the following enzyme is absent in Wolman's disease? I. Acid lipase II. Acyl-CoA carnitine III. Acid hydrolase IV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase

Cholestrol ester hydrolase

Acid hydrolase

Acyl-CoA carnitine

Acid lipase

3

single

Ans. D. Acid lipase (Ref. H-17th/ pg. 2454; Table 355-1)WOLMAN'S DISEASE# It is a lysosomal storage disorder, that occurs due to acid lipase deficiency.# Features: increased LDL levels, hypercholesterolemia, atherosclerosis, adrenal calcification and death in infancy itself.Disorders of Neutral LipidsDisorderEnzyme Deficiency (Specific Therapy)Stored MaterialClinical Types (Onset)Inheri-tanceNeuro- logic featuresLiver Spleen Enlarge- mentSkeletal DysplasiaEyeHemato logicUnique featuresWolman diseaseAcid lysoso- mal Lipase (BMT)Choles- terol esters, triglyce ridesInfantileARMild mental retarda- tion+++NoneNoneNoneAdrenal calcifi- cationCholes- teryl ester storage diseaseAcid lysoso- mal lipaseCholes- teryl estersChild- hoodARNoneHepato- megalyNoneNoneNoneCirrhosisFarber diseaseAcid cerami daseCeramideInfantile JuvenileAROccasio- nal men- tal retar- dation+-NoneMacular degene- rationNoneArthropa thy, subcu- taneous nodulePompe disease (135)Acid -gluco sidase (ET)Glyco- genInfantile late onsetARNeuro- muscu- lar+-NoneNoneNoneMyocar- diopathy

Biochemistry

Lipids

I. Acid lipase

I. Acid lipase II. Acyl-CoA carnitine III. Acid hydrolase IV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase

I.

[ "II.", "III.", "IV." ]

[ "II. Acyl-CoA carnitine", "III. Acid hydrolase", "IV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase" ]

III. Acid hydrolase

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following enzyme is absent in Wolman's disease?\n\nI. Acid lipase\nII. Acyl-CoA carnitine\nIII. Acid hydrolase\nIV. Cholestrol ester hydrolase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "I. Acid lipase", "role": "assistant" } ]

f63ec75d-abfe-4911-94f8-8a64b749e2c5

Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus? [A] tRNA synthesis [B] Modification of proteins [C] mRNA synthesis [D] Protein storage

Modification of proteins

mRNA synthesis

Protein storage

tRNA synthesis

0

single

null

Biochemistry

null

[B] Modification of proteins

[A] tRNA synthesis [B] Modification of proteins [C] mRNA synthesis [D] Protein storage

[B]

[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]

[ "[A] tRNA synthesis", "[C] mRNA synthesis", "[D] Protein storage" ]

[A] tRNA synthesis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus?\n\n[A] tRNA synthesis\n[B] Modification of proteins\n[C] mRNA synthesis\n[D] Protein storage", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] Modification of proteins", "role": "assistant" } ]

3f114ea0-538e-4a30-9ab5-9ad83e312b39

Distal and collecting duct cysts are seen in? 1) Tuberous sclerosis 2) Nephronophthisis 3) ARPKD 4) ADPKD

ADPKD

ARPKD

Tuberous sclerosis

Nephronophthisis

1

single

ADPKD: cysts are in coex & medulla (Hepatic cyst manifestation) ARPKD: Distal & Collecting duct cyst (Hepatic fibrosis) MC age- <1yr Protein affected- Fibrocystin(Chr. 6) Presentation- B\L Abdominal mass Hypolasia of lungs Peripoal fibrosis

Medicine

Polycystic Kidneys

3) ARPKD

1) Tuberous sclerosis 2) Nephronophthisis 3) ARPKD 4) ADPKD

3)

[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]

[ "1) Tuberous sclerosis", "2) Nephronophthisis", "4) ADPKD" ]

4) ADPKD

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Distal and collecting duct cysts are seen in?\n\n1) Tuberous sclerosis\n2) Nephronophthisis\n3) ARPKD\n4) ADPKD", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) ARPKD", "role": "assistant" } ]

d25db791-7464-4861-bb3f-e94fe4a38286

Vomar-sphenoidal rostrum junction is? [a] Schindylesis [b] Synostosis [c] Syndesmsis [d] Gomphoiss

Syndesmsis

Synostosis

Schindylesis

Gomphoiss

2

single

C i.e. Schindylesis

Anatomy

null

[a] Schindylesis

[a] Schindylesis [b] Synostosis [c] Syndesmsis [d] Gomphoiss

[a]

[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]

[ "[b] Synostosis", "[c] Syndesmsis", "[d] Gomphoiss" ]

[d] Gomphoiss

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Vomar-sphenoidal rostrum junction is?\n\n[a] Schindylesis\n[b] Synostosis\n[c] Syndesmsis\n[d] Gomphoiss", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Schindylesis", "role": "assistant" } ]

000dd38b-1d32-4390-9840-27452bd2e383

Best diagnosis of ovulation is by : I. Endometrial biopsy II. Laproscopy III. Ultrasound IV. Chromotubation

Ultrasound

Laproscopy

Endometrial biopsy

Chromotubation

0

single

Ultrasound

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

III. Ultrasound

I. Endometrial biopsy II. Laproscopy III. Ultrasound IV. Chromotubation

III.

[ "I.", "II.", "IV." ]

[ "I. Endometrial biopsy", "II. Laproscopy", "IV. Chromotubation" ]

I. Endometrial biopsy

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Best diagnosis of ovulation is by :\n\nI. Endometrial biopsy\nII. Laproscopy\nIII. Ultrasound\nIV. Chromotubation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "III. Ultrasound", "role": "assistant" } ]

dd005f08-c766-461d-b6bb-b120e50e651e

Most common predisposing factor for chronic pyelonephritis is: [1] Diabetes mellitus [2] Renal stone [3] Vesicoureteric reflux [4] Posterior urethral valve

Diabetes mellitus

Renal stone

Posterior urethral valve

Vesicoureteric reflux

3

single

Chronic pyelonephritis is so often associated with vesicoureteric reflux that some feel that it is better named "Reflux nephropathy". It is impoant cause of renal damage and death from end - stage renal failure.

Surgery

Kidney and ureter

[3] Vesicoureteric reflux

[1] Diabetes mellitus [2] Renal stone [3] Vesicoureteric reflux [4] Posterior urethral valve

[3]

[ "[1]", "[2]", "[4]" ]

[ "[1] Diabetes mellitus", "[2] Renal stone", "[4] Posterior urethral valve" ]

[1] Diabetes mellitus

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Most common predisposing factor for chronic pyelonephritis is:\n\n[1] Diabetes mellitus\n[2] Renal stone\n[3] Vesicoureteric reflux\n[4] Posterior urethral valve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[3] Vesicoureteric reflux", "role": "assistant" } ]

253a8e57-19ce-4247-b7a8-deaea3eafbd9

All of the following are essential for a well to meet the criteria of a sanitary well, EXCEPT: 1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm 2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination 3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres 4) Consumer responsibility

Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination

Consumer responsibility

No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres

A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm

2

multi

The criteria for a sanitary well are: Location: It should be at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination located a higher level than nearby sources of contamination and no user should have to carry water for more than 100m Lining: The inside of the well should be lined with bricks up to a depth of 6 metre and 60-90cm above the ground level. Parapet wall should be up to a height of at least 70-75cm. Platform: A cement concrete platform should be constructed around the well with a radius of at least 1m in all directions. Drain Cover Hand pump Consumer responsibility Quality: The physical chemical and biological parameters of the well water should conform to acceptable standards Ref: Environment and health Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st edition, page-656.

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres

1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm 2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination 3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres 4) Consumer responsibility

3)

[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]

[ "1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm", "2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination", "4) Consumer responsibility" ]

2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "All of the following are essential for a well to meet the criteria of a sanitary well, EXCEPT:\n\n1) A parapet wall up to a height of at least 70-75cm\n2) Located at least 15m away from possible sources of contamination\n3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres\n4) Consumer responsibility", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) No user should have to carry water more than 500 metres", "role": "assistant" } ]

0851ad59-4e18-4802-9750-67a3cf02e26b

Which of the following structure passes through inferior orbital fissure? a) Abducent nerve b) Infraorbital nerve c) Oculomotor nerve d) Lacrimal nerve

Abducent nerve

Lacrimal nerve

Infraorbital nerve

Oculomotor nerve

2

single

Ans. C. Infraorbital nerveThe medial wall and the floor of the orbit are separated posteriorly by the inferior orbital fissure.It transmits the:a. Infra-orbital nerve (from the maxillary division of trigeminal nerve)b. Zygomatic nerve (from the maxillary division of trigeminal nerve)c. A branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein and several emissary veins connecting it to the pterygoid venous plexusd. Infra-orbital artery (from the maxillary artery) and veine. Orbital ganglionic branches of the pterygopalatine ganglion from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

Anatomy

Head & Neck

b) Infraorbital nerve

a) Abducent nerve b) Infraorbital nerve c) Oculomotor nerve d) Lacrimal nerve

b)

[ "a)", "c)", "d)" ]

[ "a) Abducent nerve", "c) Oculomotor nerve", "d) Lacrimal nerve" ]

c) Oculomotor nerve

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following structure passes through inferior orbital fissure?\n\na) Abducent nerve\nb) Infraorbital nerve\nc) Oculomotor nerve\nd) Lacrimal nerve", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b) Infraorbital nerve", "role": "assistant" } ]

ec7a74f3-7f2d-41a2-9e21-26a61534720a

Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypeension is - [1] Pleural effusion [2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation [3] Left atrial enlargement [4] Kerley B Lines

Upper lobar vessel dilatation

Kerley B Lines

Left atrial enlargement

Pleural effusion

0

single

Upper lobe venous diversion is the 1st radiological sign of pulmonary venous hypeension.Kerley B Lines , perihilar haze ,peribronchial cuffing,pumonary ossicles ,fine punctuate calcification and perihilar batwing pattern are the other features seen in PVH.

Radiology

Cardiovascular system

[2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation

[1] Pleural effusion [2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation [3] Left atrial enlargement [4] Kerley B Lines

[2]

[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]

[ "[1] Pleural effusion", "[3] Left atrial enlargement", "[4] Kerley B Lines" ]

[1] Pleural effusion

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypeension is -\n\n[1] Pleural effusion\n[2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation\n[3] Left atrial enlargement\n[4] Kerley B Lines", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Upper lobar vessel dilatation", "role": "assistant" } ]

c4643346-dac7-42a2-ba0b-0300afa178e9

All are true about Boerhaave's syndrome except A) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa C) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis D) Barotrauma

Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third

Barotrauma

Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis

Veical split in the gastric mucosa

3

multi

In Boerhaave's syndrome, vomiting occurs against a closed glottis and pressure builds up in the oesophagus. The pressure in the oesophagus increases rapidly, and the oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third, sending a stream of material into the mediastinum and often the pleural cavity as well. In Mallory-eiss syndrome, forceful vomiting may produce a mucosal tear at the cardia rather than a full perforation. A veical split in the gastric mucosa, immediately below the squamocolumnar junction at the cardia is seen in 90% of cases. In only 10% is the tear in the oesophagusRef: Bailey and love 27e pg: 1072

Surgery

General surgery

B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa

A) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa C) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis D) Barotrauma

B)

[ "A)", "C)", "D)" ]

[ "A) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third", "C) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis", "D) Barotrauma" ]

D) Barotrauma

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "All are true about Boerhaave's syndrome except\n\nA) Oesophagus bursts at its weakest point in the lower third\nB) Veical split in the gastric mucosa\nC) Vomiting occurs against a closed glottis\nD) Barotrauma", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B) Veical split in the gastric mucosa", "role": "assistant" } ]

b3386554-fdbc-4b3b-83ab-ca8bee4883fd

Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine the rupture of the hymen? (a) Gaba rod (b) Gram rod (c) Cylinder rod (d) Glaister Keen rod

Gram rod

Glaister Keen rod

Gaba rod

Cylinder rod

1

single

Glaister Keen rod is used for close examination of the hymen or the degree of its rupture. Ref - Krishan Vij 5th edition pg 314

Forensic Medicine

Sexual offences and infanticide

(d) Glaister Keen rod

(a) Gaba rod (b) Gram rod (c) Cylinder rod (d) Glaister Keen rod

(d)

[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]

[ "(a) Gaba rod", "(b) Gram rod", "(c) Cylinder rod" ]

(a) Gaba rod

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of the following is used in rape victims to determine the rupture of the hymen?\n\n(a) Gaba rod\n(b) Gram rod\n(c) Cylinder rod\n(d) Glaister Keen rod", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) Glaister Keen rod", "role": "assistant" } ]

8c4ec18e-dfd5-44a1-80d3-68ab07e52775

The metabolic dearrangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is A. Hyperchloremic alkalosis B. Hypochloremic alkalosis C. Hyperchloremic acidosis D. Hypochloremic acidosis

Hypochloremic alkalosis

Hyperchloremic alkalosis

Hyperchloremic acidosis

Hypochloremic acidosis

0

single

The classical presentation is non bilious vomiting begining at 3-6 weeks of age Severity and frequency of vomiting increases gradually Persistant vomiting leads to malnutrition,dehydration and hypochloremic alkalosis. constipation is usual Diagnosis is based on history and palpability of mass. Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI,PG NO:253,7 th edition

Pediatrics

Gastrointestinal tract

B. Hypochloremic alkalosis

A. Hyperchloremic alkalosis B. Hypochloremic alkalosis C. Hyperchloremic acidosis D. Hypochloremic acidosis

B.

[ "A.", "C.", "D." ]

[ "A. Hyperchloremic alkalosis", "C. Hyperchloremic acidosis", "D. Hypochloremic acidosis" ]

C. Hyperchloremic acidosis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "The metabolic dearrangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is\n\nA. Hyperchloremic alkalosis\nB. Hypochloremic alkalosis\nC. Hyperchloremic acidosis\nD. Hypochloremic acidosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B. Hypochloremic alkalosis", "role": "assistant" } ]

3412b904-11c4-4f45-a4a3-ede791e2670a

False about perikymata is (1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth. (2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius (3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth. (4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.

External manifestation of striae of Retzius

Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.

May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.

May be seen on surface of primary teeth.

3

multi

Perikymata is absent on the surface of primary teeth.

Dental

null

(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth.

(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth. (2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius (3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth. (4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.

(1)

[ "(2)", "(3)", "(4)" ]

[ "(2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius", "(3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.", "(4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth." ]

(3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "False about perikymata is\n\n(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth.\n(2) External manifestation of striae of Retzius\n(3) Mostly seen in cervical region of permanent teeth.\n(4) May be seen on surface of permanent teeth.", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(1) May be seen on surface of primary teeth.", "role": "assistant" } ]

eb4084ae-c79b-4851-aaed-a567e48fc527

Working Formulation in staging of NHL is based on - 1. None of the above 2. Cells of origin 3. Survival characteristics of cells 4. Morphology of cells

Survival characteristics of cells

Morphology of cells

Cells of origin

None of the above

1

multi

null

Pathology

null

4. Morphology of cells

1. None of the above 2. Cells of origin 3. Survival characteristics of cells 4. Morphology of cells

4.

[ "1.", "2.", "3." ]

[ "1. None of the above", "2. Cells of origin", "3. Survival characteristics of cells" ]

3. Survival characteristics of cells

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Working Formulation in staging of NHL is based on -\n\n1. None of the above\n2. Cells of origin\n3. Survival characteristics of cells\n4. Morphology of cells", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4. Morphology of cells", "role": "assistant" } ]

c0c277b5-472d-49dd-ba8b-fac0d004ccf6

Breastfeeding must be initiated within:- (A) Two hour (B) Half an hour (C) One hour (D) Four hours

Half an hour

One hour

Two hour

Four hours

1

single

According to WHO guidelines, initiate breast feeding After a normal vaginal delivery: Within 1 hour After a cesarean section: Within 4 hours Current recommendation : Sta breast feeding as early as possible ASAP. (Do not wait for 1 hour or 4 hours)

Social & Preventive Medicine

Paediatric Care in RCH: BW, BL, PEM, Breast Feeding

(C) One hour

(A) Two hour (B) Half an hour (C) One hour (D) Four hours

(C)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(D)" ]

[ "(A) Two hour", "(B) Half an hour", "(D) Four hours" ]

(B) Half an hour

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Breastfeeding must be initiated within:-\n\n(A) Two hour\n(B) Half an hour\n(C) One hour\n(D) Four hours", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(C) One hour", "role": "assistant" } ]

8bf2d6d7-7f14-4ee9-9127-5cadab8721d1

Assuming a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, calculate the minute ventilation. a. 2 L/min b. 6 L/min c. 1 L/min d. 4 L/min

1 L/min

2 L/min

4 L/min

6 L/min

3

single

Minute ventilation is VT x respiratory rate. VT from the graph is 500 milliliters. Therefore, minute ventilation = 500 x 12 = 6 L/min

Physiology

Gaseous exchange

b. 6 L/min

a. 2 L/min b. 6 L/min c. 1 L/min d. 4 L/min

b.

[ "a.", "c.", "d." ]

[ "a. 2 L/min", "c. 1 L/min", "d. 4 L/min" ]

c. 1 L/min

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Assuming a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, calculate the minute ventilation.\n\na. 2 L/min\nb. 6 L/min\nc. 1 L/min\nd. 4 L/min", "role": "user" }, { "content": "b. 6 L/min", "role": "assistant" } ]

d2780bc0-e9c2-46fc-9fc9-b8aac67a0666

Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy: [1] Verapamil [2] Methyldopa [3] Enatapril [4] Furosemide

Enatapril

Verapamil

Methyldopa

Furosemide

2

single

Ans. c. Methyldopa (Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24/e p100; Dutta 7/e p228, Goodman Gillman 12/e p773, 774; Katzung 12/e p176)Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy is methyldopa.Methyldopa is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent. It is a prodrug that exerts its antihypertensive action via an active metabolite. Although used frequently as an antihypertensive agent in the past, methyldopa s significant adverse effects limit its current use largely to treatment of hypertension in pregnancy, where it has a record for safety. " --Goodman Gillman 12/e p 773"Methyldopa is a preferred drug for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy based on its effectiveness and safety for both mother and fetus. The usual initial dose of methyldopa is 250 mg twice daily, and there is little additional effect with doses >2 g/day. "--Goodman Gillman 12/e p774"Methyldopa was widely used in the past but is now used primarily for hypertension during pregnancy. It lowers blood pressure chiefly by reducing peripheral vascular resistance, with a variable reduction in heart rate and cardiac output. " --Katzung 12/e p176Antihypertensives in PregnancySafeContraindicated* LabetaloQ* Alpha methyldopaQ* Calcium channel blockersQ* Hydralazine* Sodium nitroprusside +-* ACE inhibitorsQ* Reserpine* Loratidine Drug of Choice in PregnancyConditionDrug of ChoiceDOC for malaria in pregnancy* ChloroquineQDOC for anticoagulation in pregnancy* HeparinQAnti hypertensive of choice in pregnancy* Alpha-methyldopaQAnti hypertensive of choice for hypertensive crisis in pregnancy* LabetaloQDOC for nausea in pregnancy* Doxylamine and pyridoxineQAnalgesic of choice during pregnancy* AcitoaminophenQAnti-epileptic of choice during pregnancy* PhenobarbitoneQ

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Management and Long-Term Consequences

[2] Methyldopa

[1] Verapamil [2] Methyldopa [3] Enatapril [4] Furosemide

[2]

[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]

[ "[1] Verapamil", "[3] Enatapril", "[4] Furosemide" ]

[3] Enatapril

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy:\n\n[1] Verapamil\n[2] Methyldopa\n[3] Enatapril\n[4] Furosemide", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[2] Methyldopa", "role": "assistant" } ]

a5c1d591-6797-40c8-b8a3-7c8a6a83bc30

Hypercalcemia is caused by - a) Thiazide b) Vit D intoxication c) Thyrotoxicosis d) All of the above

Thyrotoxicosis

Vit D intoxication

Thiazide

All of the above

3

multi

null

Medicine

null

d) All of the above

a) Thiazide b) Vit D intoxication c) Thyrotoxicosis d) All of the above

d)

[ "a)", "b)", "c)" ]

[ "a) Thiazide", "b) Vit D intoxication", "c) Thyrotoxicosis" ]

c) Thyrotoxicosis

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Hypercalcemia is caused by -\n\na) Thiazide\nb) Vit D intoxication\nc) Thyrotoxicosis\nd) All of the above", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d) All of the above", "role": "assistant" } ]

cc163a0b-4696-4eaf-8d71-a583604aa40e

True regarding Staphylococcal food poisoning is - I. Associated with abnormal movements II. Caused by endotoxins III. Caused by fishes IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs

Caused by eating of dairy producrs

Caused by endotoxins

Caused by fishes

Associated with abnormal movements

0

multi

Cows suffering from mastitis have been responsible for outbreak of staphylococcal food poisoning involving milk and milk products. The foods involved are salads, custards, milk and milk products which get contaminated by staphylococci. The illness becomes manifest by the sudden onset of vomiting, abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition, page 238

Social & Preventive Medicine

Communicable diseases

IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs

I. Associated with abnormal movements II. Caused by endotoxins III. Caused by fishes IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs

IV.

[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]

[ "I. Associated with abnormal movements", "II. Caused by endotoxins", "III. Caused by fishes" ]

III. Caused by fishes

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "True regarding Staphylococcal food poisoning is -\n\nI. Associated with abnormal movements\nII. Caused by endotoxins\nIII. Caused by fishes\nIV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. Caused by eating of dairy producrs", "role": "assistant" } ]

c41306f9-506c-41ee-8c9b-0a6ab924dcd6

Putrefaction occurs at (A) Evening (B) Any time (C) Night (D) Early morning

Early morning

Evening

Night

Any time

0

single

Exhumation should be done in early morning under natural light as surroundings have to be observed for unusual changes. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 66.

Forensic Medicine

Death and postmortem changes

(D) Early morning

(A) Evening (B) Any time (C) Night (D) Early morning

(D)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]

[ "(A) Evening", "(B) Any time", "(C) Night" ]

(C) Night

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Putrefaction occurs at\n\n(A) Evening\n(B) Any time\n(C) Night\n(D) Early morning", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Early morning", "role": "assistant" } ]

fd402e68-4e81-47ba-9f86-a2e0c1e21b76

All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except: A. Central serous retinopathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Intraocular tumour D. Central retinal vein occlusion

Intraocular tumour

Central retinal vein occlusion

Diabetic retinopathy

Central serous retinopathy

3

multi

Ans. Central serous retinopathy

Ophthalmology

null

A. Central serous retinopathy

A. Central serous retinopathy B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Intraocular tumour D. Central retinal vein occlusion

A.

[ "B.", "C.", "D." ]

[ "B. Diabetic retinopathy", "C. Intraocular tumour", "D. Central retinal vein occlusion" ]

C. Intraocular tumour

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except:\n\nA. Central serous retinopathy\nB. Diabetic retinopathy\nC. Intraocular tumour\nD. Central retinal vein occlusion", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A. Central serous retinopathy", "role": "assistant" } ]

8c4098c5-02c3-4fb4-9f25-98fdd3bb1abf

Sleep-wake cycle if external cue is removed will be which of the following? A) Unchanged B) Greater than 12 hours C) Greater than 24 hrs D) Less than 24 hrs

Unchanged

Greater than 24 hrs

Less than 24 hrs

Greater than 12 hours

1

single

Circadian clocks keep running even when the environmental cues (changes in light and dark) are removed, but the period of this free-running rhythm is generally a little less or a little more than 24 hours. More frequent is more than 24 hours. Ref: Chest Medicine: Essentials of Pulmonary and Critical Care Medicine edited by Ronald B. George, Richard W. Light, Michael A. Matthay, Richard A. Matthay, 2010, Page 461. 2. Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing By B. T. Basavanthappa, 2007, Page 141

Physiology

null

C) Greater than 24 hrs

A) Unchanged B) Greater than 12 hours C) Greater than 24 hrs D) Less than 24 hrs

C)

[ "A)", "B)", "D)" ]

[ "A) Unchanged", "B) Greater than 12 hours", "D) Less than 24 hrs" ]

D) Less than 24 hrs

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Sleep-wake cycle if external cue is removed will be which of the following?\n\nA) Unchanged\nB) Greater than 12 hours\nC) Greater than 24 hrs\nD) Less than 24 hrs", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C) Greater than 24 hrs", "role": "assistant" } ]

9bc21e5f-1991-4423-ad33-a578772ea2c4

Which of following is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination – (a) Microaneurysms (b) Neovascularisation (c) Arteriolar dilatation (d) Retinal hemorrhages

Microaneurysms

Retinal hemorrhages

Arteriolar dilatation

Neovascularisation

2

single

null

Ophthalmology

null

(c) Arteriolar dilatation

(a) Microaneurysms (b) Neovascularisation (c) Arteriolar dilatation (d) Retinal hemorrhages

(c)

[ "(a)", "(b)", "(d)" ]

[ "(a) Microaneurysms", "(b) Neovascularisation", "(d) Retinal hemorrhages" ]

(d) Retinal hemorrhages

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which of following is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination –\n\n(a) Microaneurysms\n(b) Neovascularisation\n(c) Arteriolar dilatation\n(d) Retinal hemorrhages", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(c) Arteriolar dilatation", "role": "assistant" } ]

a237a349-cd32-465f-af8a-3bb33a040b44

In Marfan&;s syndrome which of the following is affected i. Fibronectin ii. Collagen iii. Fibrillin iv. Actin

Collagen

Fibrillin

Actin

Fibronectin

1

single

It is a connective tissue disorder. Affects fibrillin 1 gene. Clinical features include; Visual difficulties long limbs hea problems etc Refer robbins 145

Pathology

General pathology

iii. Fibrillin

i. Fibronectin ii. Collagen iii. Fibrillin iv. Actin

iii.

[ "i.", "ii.", "iv." ]

[ "i. Fibronectin", "ii. Collagen", "iv. Actin" ]

i. Fibronectin

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "In Marfan&;s syndrome which of the following is affected\n\ni. Fibronectin\nii. Collagen\niii. Fibrillin\niv. Actin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iii. Fibrillin", "role": "assistant" } ]

7ffc1d49-c00d-4c63-9037-3ba6a24f131f

Neonatal Jaundice first time appears in the 2nd week not a cause is – a. Breast milk Jaundice b. Galactossemia c. Hypothyroidism d. Rh Incompatibility

Galactossemia

Rh Incompatibility

Hypothyroidism

Breast milk Jaundice

1

single

null

Pediatrics

null

d. Rh Incompatibility

a. Breast milk Jaundice b. Galactossemia c. Hypothyroidism d. Rh Incompatibility

d.

[ "a.", "b.", "c." ]

[ "a. Breast milk Jaundice", "b. Galactossemia", "c. Hypothyroidism" ]

b. Galactossemia

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Neonatal Jaundice first time appears in the 2nd week not a cause is –\n\na. Breast milk Jaundice\nb. Galactossemia\nc. Hypothyroidism\nd. Rh Incompatibility", "role": "user" }, { "content": "d. Rh Incompatibility", "role": "assistant" } ]

ff1808a1-5623-4260-9881-c79f3845cd24

Which structures passes along with esophagus through esophageal opening of diaphragm ? (A) Gastric nerves (B) Thoracic duct (C) NC (D) Aoa

NC

Gastric nerves

Aoa

Thoracic duct

1

single

Gastric nerves

Anatomy

null

(A) Gastric nerves

(A) Gastric nerves (B) Thoracic duct (C) NC (D) Aoa

(A)

[ "(B)", "(C)", "(D)" ]

[ "(B) Thoracic duct", "(C) NC", "(D) Aoa" ]

(C) NC

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Which structures passes along with esophagus through esophageal opening of diaphragm ?\n\n(A) Gastric nerves\n(B) Thoracic duct\n(C) NC\n(D) Aoa", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(A) Gastric nerves", "role": "assistant" } ]

110d1286-fd91-4349-a698-29a20b59deee

The most dreadful complication of Kawasaki disease is [1] Lymph node [2] Rash [3] Cardiac involvement [4] Thrombocytosis

Rash

Lymph node

Cardiac involvement

Thrombocytosis

2

single

Kawasaki disease is an acute, febrile, usually self-limited illness of infancy and childhood (80% of the patients are younger than 4 years of age) associated with an aeritis of mainly large to medium-sized vessels. Its clinical significance stems from the involvement of coronary aeries. Coronary aeritis can cause aneurysms that rupture or thrombose, resulting in myocardial infarction. (Robbins basic pathology,9th edition,pg no.352)

Pathology

Cardiovascular system

[3] Cardiac involvement

[1] Lymph node [2] Rash [3] Cardiac involvement [4] Thrombocytosis

[3]

[ "[1]", "[2]", "[4]" ]

[ "[1] Lymph node", "[2] Rash", "[4] Thrombocytosis" ]

[2] Rash

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "The most dreadful complication of Kawasaki disease is\n\n[1] Lymph node\n[2] Rash\n[3] Cardiac involvement\n[4] Thrombocytosis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[3] Cardiac involvement", "role": "assistant" } ]

7e257316-6320-4a46-b260-42383e2442aa

Normal function of peritoneum is all EXCEPT: A. Removes excess fluid and particulates B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut C. Fibrinolytic D. Free movement of viscera

Fibrinolytic

Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut

Free movement of viscera

Removes excess fluid and particulates

1

multi

ANSWER: (B) Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to GutREF: Grays anatomy, 39th edition, page 1127, CSDT, 13e Chapter 22Functions of peritoneum are:Both secretion and absorption of peritoneal fluid (fluid exchange wdth the extracellular fluid space at rates of 500 mL or more per hour)The fluid lubricates the visceral peritoneum and allows the mobile viscera to glide freely on the abdominal wall and each other within the limits dictated by their attachmentsPeritoneal fluid contains water, proteins, electrolytes and solutes derived from interstitial fluid in the adjacent tissues and from the plasma in the local blood vessels. It normally contains a few cells, including desquamated mesothelium, peritoneal macrophages, mast cells, fibroblasts, lymphocytes and other leukocytes.Lymphocytes provide both cellular and humoral immunological defense mechanisms within the peritoneal cavity.Complement-mediated antibacterial activityParticulate matter, including bacteria up to 20 mm in size is cleared via stomas in the diaphragmNormally, there is less than 50 mL of free peritoneal fluid, a transudate with the following characteristics: specific gravity below 1.016, protein concentration less than 3 g/dL, white blood cell count less than 3000/L, complement-mediated antibacterial activity, and lack of fibrinogen-related clot formation.

Physiology

G.I.T.

B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut

A. Removes excess fluid and particulates B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut C. Fibrinolytic D. Free movement of viscera

B.

[ "A.", "C.", "D." ]

[ "A. Removes excess fluid and particulates", "C. Fibrinolytic", "D. Free movement of viscera" ]

A. Removes excess fluid and particulates

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Normal function of peritoneum is all EXCEPT:\n\nA. Removes excess fluid and particulates\nB. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut\nC. Fibrinolytic\nD. Free movement of viscera", "role": "user" }, { "content": "B. Peritoneal fluid provides nourishment to Gut", "role": "assistant" } ]

b03e8631-e407-4c77-9ee5-b147e154422c

All are required for formation of estradiol except A. 11b-hydrolase B. Aromatase C. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase D. Lyase

Lyase

11b-hydrolase

Aromatase

Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

1

multi

11b hydroxylase is not required for estradiol synthesis. Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 967

Physiology

Endocrinology

A. 11b-hydrolase

A. 11b-hydrolase B. Aromatase C. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase D. Lyase

A.

[ "B.", "C.", "D." ]

[ "B. Aromatase", "C. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase", "D. Lyase" ]

D. Lyase

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "All are required for formation of estradiol except\n\nA. 11b-hydrolase\nB. Aromatase\nC. Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase\nD. Lyase", "role": "user" }, { "content": "A. 11b-hydrolase", "role": "assistant" } ]

cf4382aa-ae9e-4d09-b534-5d10792d9343

45 year old patient develops nausea,vomiting and ascending paralysis on ingestion of broken seeds from a plant. What could be the active present in that seed? (A) Ricin (B) Bhilawanol (C) Atropine (D) Strychnine

Atropine

Strychnine

Ricin

Bhilawanol

1

single

Strychnos Nux vomica is a spinal poison unbroken seeds are not poisinous. The above clinical features are characteristic of strychnine poisoning.

Forensic Medicine

null

(D) Strychnine

(A) Ricin (B) Bhilawanol (C) Atropine (D) Strychnine

(D)

[ "(A)", "(B)", "(C)" ]

[ "(A) Ricin", "(B) Bhilawanol", "(C) Atropine" ]

(C) Atropine

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "45 year old patient develops nausea,vomiting and ascending paralysis on ingestion of broken seeds from a plant. What could be the active present in that seed?\n\n(A) Ricin\n(B) Bhilawanol\n(C) Atropine\n(D) Strychnine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(D) Strychnine", "role": "assistant" } ]

04c1b080-16fc-4ba6-b2c8-2da45146a5a9

Special stain for Amyloid which is most diagnostic - A. Lugol’s Iodine B. Sudan black C. Congo red polarized light D. Congo red in Illumination

Lugol’s Iodine

Sudan black

Congo red polarized light

Congo red in Illumination

2

single

Congo red is not used in lipid staining. It is used in the staining of amyloid protein.

Pathology

null

C. Congo red polarized light

A. Lugol’s Iodine B. Sudan black C. Congo red polarized light D. Congo red in Illumination

C.

[ "A.", "B.", "D." ]

[ "A. Lugol’s Iodine", "B. Sudan black", "D. Congo red in Illumination" ]

B. Sudan black

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

[ { "content": "Special stain for Amyloid which is most diagnostic -\n\nA. Lugol’s Iodine\nB. Sudan black\nC. Congo red polarized light\nD. Congo red in Illumination", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C. Congo red polarized light", "role": "assistant" } ]

Datasets:

mkurman
/

medmcqa-hard

medmcqa-hard

Why “hard”?

Intended uses

Data schema (fields)

Example

Source & attribution