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|---|---|---|---|---|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Hyperplasia",
"Hyperophy",
"Atrophy",
"Dyplasia"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
|
Chronic urethral obstruction because of urinary calculi, prostatic hyperophy, tumors, normal pregnancy, tumors, uterine prolapse or functional disorders cause hydronephrosis which by definition is used to describe dilatation of renal pelvis and calculus associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney due to obstruction to the outflow of urine Refer Robbins 7yh/9,1012,9/e. P950
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Vitamin C",
"Vitamin B7",
"Vitamin B12",
"Vitamin D"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which vitamin is supplied from only animal source:
|
Ans. (c) Vitamin B12 Ref: Harrison's 19th ed. P 640* Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is synthesized solely by microorganisms.* In humans, the only source for humans is food of animal origin, e.g., meat, fish, and dairy products.* Vegetables, fruits, and other foods of nonanimal origin doesn't contain Vitamin B12 .* Daily requirements of vitamin Bp is about 1-3 pg. Body stores are of the order of 2-3 mg, sufficient for 3-4 years if supplies are completely cut off.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Directly",
"IG1-1",
"Thyroxine",
"Intranuclear receptors"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Growth hormone has its effect on growth through?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., IGI-1GH has two major functions :-i) Growth of skeletal system :- The growth is mediated by somatomedins (IGF). Increased deposition of cailage (including chondroitin sulfate) and bone with increased proliferation of chondrocytes and osteocytes.ii) Metabolic effects :- Most of the metabolic effects are due to direct action of GH. These include gluconeogenesis, decreased peripheral utilization of glucose (decreased uptake), lipolysis and anabolic effect on proteins.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Louse",
"Tick",
"Mite",
"Milk"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Scrub typhus is transmitted by: September 2004
|
Ans. C i.e. Mite
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Anal fissure",
"Hemorrhoid",
"Pilonidal sinus",
"Rectal ulcer"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
|
PILONIDAL SINUS/DISEASE (Jeep Bottom; Driver's Bottom) Pilus--hair; Nidus--nest It is epithelium lined tract, situated sho distance behind the anus, containing hairs and unhealthy diseased granula- tion tissue. It is due to penetration of hairs through the skin into subcutaneous tissue. It forms granuloma/unhealthy granulation tissue in the deeper plane. It is of infective origin and occurs in sacral region between the buttocks, umbilicus, axilla. Other indications of per rectal examination are:Carcinoma rectum, Stricture rectum, Polyps, BPH and carcinoma prostate, Secondaries in the rectovesical pouch (Blumer shelf), Sphincter tone, Pelvic abscess (is felt as boggy swelling), to feel the internal opening of anal fistulas, in bimanual palpation of the bladder or pelvic tumours, in acute abdominal conditions--it reveals dilated empty rectum with tenderness.Reference : page 967 and 952 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"ab",
"bc",
"abc",
"bcd"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Characteristics of Remifentanyl – a) Metabolised by plasma esteraseb) Short half lifec) More potent than Alfentanyld) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal diseasee) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
|
Remifentanil is the shortest acting opioid due to its metabolism by plasma esterase → dose adjustment is not needed in liver or kidney disease. It is more potent than alfentanil : Order of potency is Sufentanil > Fentanyl = Remifentanil > Alfentanil.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Decreased ability to copy",
"Decreased execution",
"Deficit of expression by gesture",
"Deficit of fluent speech"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Hypomimia is ?
|
Ans. C. Deficit of expression by gestureHypomimiaHypomimia or amimia is a deficit or absence of expression by gesture or mimicry.This is usually most obvious as a lack of facial expressive mobility (mask - like facies).This is a feature of frontal subcoical disease.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Clostridium tetani",
"Clostridium botulinum",
"Clostridium perfringens",
"Clostridium septicum"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Naglers reaction is shown by
|
Nagler's reaction - when Clostridium perfringens is grown in media containing 6 % agar, 5% Fildes peptic digest of sheep blood and 20% human serum, with antitoxin spread on one half of plate, colonies in the other half without antitoxin will be surrounded by a zone of opacity. No opacity around the colonies on the half of plate with antitoxin, this is due to the specific neutralization of the alpha-toxin. This specific lecithinase effect, known as the Nagler's reaction. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 263
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Gastric absorption",
"Liver metabolism",
"Renal clearance",
"Hypersensitivity"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
|
One of the most impoant pharmacokinetic changes associated with aging is decreased renal elimination of drugs. After age 40, creatinine clearance decreases an average of 8 mL/min/1.73 m2/decade; however, the age-related decrease varies substantially from person to person. Serum creatinine levels often remain within normal limits despite a decrease in GFR because older adults generally have less muscle mass and are generally less physically active than younger adults and thus produce less creatinine. Maintenance of normal serum creatinine levels can mislead clinicians who assume those levels reflect normal kidney function. Decreases in tubular function with age parallel those in glomerular function. Refer katzung 11/e p1039
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"USG",
"X-ray KUB",
"Urine routine",
"Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
|
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology "Painless haematuria is by far the most common symptom of bladder cancer and should be regarded as indicative of a bladder carcinoma until proven otherwise." Bailey & Love 25/e p1336 (24/e p1363) Cigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts ,for about 50% of bladder cancers Among the given options 'urine microscopy' is the best choice for investigating a pt. with high suspicion for bladder ca. This is not a good screening test but a positive result is highly specific. The best investigation would be cystoscopy & biopsy. Investigations for bladder cancer 1. Urinary cytology - Exfoliated cells from both normal and neoplastic urothelium can be readily identified in voided urine. Examination of cytological specimens can detect the malignant cells either at the time of initial presentation or during follow-up. Cytological examination may be especially useful in screening high-risk population and assessing the response to treatment. 2. Cystourethroscopy and tumor resection - The diagnosis and initial staging of bladder cancer is made by cystoscopy and transurethral resection. 3.Imaging (IVP, CT, MRI) - Although various imaging techniques can detect bladder cancer, its presence is confirmed by cystoscopy & biopsy. - Therefore imaging modalities are used to image the upper urinary tract and, when infiltrating bladder tumors are detected to assess the depth of muscle wall infiltration and the presence of local & distant metastasis. - Intravenous urography remains one of the most common imaging tests for the evaluation of hematuria. However, intravenous pyelography is increasingly being replaced by computed tomography (CT) urography, which is more accurate, for evaluation of the entire abdominal cavity, renal parenchyma, and ureters in patients with hematuria. Bladder tumors may be recognized as pedunculated, radiolucent filling defects projecting into the lumen; nonpapillary, infiltrating tumors may result in fixation or flattening of the bladder wall. 4. Urinary tumor markers - - Several new tests have been developed in order to overcome the shocomings of urinary cytology such as the low sensitivity for low-grade superficial tumors and inter-observer variability. - Commercially available tests include, the BTA test, the BTA stat test, the BTA TRAK assay determination of urinary nuclear matrix protein (NMP22), Immunocyt and UroVysion . - These tests can detect cancer specific proteins in urine (BTA/NMP22) or augment cytology by identifying cell surface or cytogenetic markers in the nucleus. Other tests under investigation include identification of the Lewis X antigen on exfoliated urothelial cells, and the determination of telomerase activity in exfoliated cells. - These tests have been demonstrated to enhance detection of bladder cancer when used either individually or in combination with cytology. They have been used to detect both new index tumors as well as recurrent tumors.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Histamine receptors",
"Bradykinin receptors",
"Adenosine receptors",
"Imidazoline receptors"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Aortic arch",
"Pharyngeal arch",
"Cardinal vein",
"Vitelline vein"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Superior vena cava is derived from:
|
Ans. C Cardinal veinRef; hangman's essesntial medical Embroyology pg. 57# During early embryonic development (through 4th week), paired cardinal veins drain the body. Anterior cardinal veins drain the head and upper limb buds, while posterior cardinal veins drain the body. Both the anterior and posterior veins on each side unite at the common cardinal veins that flow into the sinus venosus and ultimately into the common atrium (Image).# Anterior cardinal veins are retained. An anastomosis between the two forms the left brachiocephalic vein, and anterior segments from both form the jugular system for the head and neck (Image).# Most of the posterior segment on the left disappears except for that forming the left superior intercostal vein, whereas the right posterior segment forms the superior vena cava.Extra mileDefects of SVC Development* Double inferior vena cava occurs when the left supracardinal vein persists, thereby forming an additional inferior vena cava below the level of the kidneys.* Left superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein abnormally regresses.* Double superior vena cava occurs when the left anterior cardinal vein persists, forming a superior vena cava on the left side. The right anterior cardinal vein also forms a superior vena cava on the right side.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Median",
"Paramedian",
"Intermediate",
"Full Abduction"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Position of vocal cord in cadaver is:
|
The vocal fold of the excised larynx is known to be located at an intermediate position(the so-called cadaver position).
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"0.7",
"0.8",
"0.9",
"1"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Normal waist hip ratio of a female is below
|
WHO CUT-OFF POINTS OF WHR Indicator CUT-OFF points Risk of metabolic complications Waist circumference >94 cm (M) >80 cm (W) Increased Hip cirrcumference >102 cm (M) >88 cm (W) Substantially increased Waist-Hip ratio >= 0.95(M) >= 0.80(W) Substantially increased Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 400 WC & WHR, WHO Consultation 2008
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Trauma",
"Tuberculosis",
"Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis",
"Interstitial nephritis"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is -
|
Chronic pyelonephritis is characterized by renal inflammation and scarring induced by recurrent or persistent renal infection, vesicoureteral reflux, or other causes of urinary tract obstruction. VUR is a congenital condition that results from incompetence of the ureterovesical valve due to a sho intramural segment Ref Harrison20th edition pg 234
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Incision and suction",
"Wait and watch",
"Local subcutaneous antisnake venom",
"Intravenous antisnake venom"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
|
All patients with a history of snake bite should be observed for 8-12 h after the bite, if the skin is broken and the offending snake cannot be positively identified as non-poisonous. Ref: Krishnan vij ; 5th ed; Page no: 484
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Meningococci",
"Pneumococci",
"Hemophilus Influenza",
"E. Coli"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
|
Intracranial CSF leaks cause bacterial meningitis, about 80% are caused by S. Pneumoniae. Other causative organisms are meningococcus, Hemophilus species and S.aurues. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Neurology By Ronald B. David, Page 217
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Facial sling",
"Facial nerve repair",
"Conservative management",
"Systemic corticosteroids"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
|
(b) Facial nerve repair(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1404)Since generally following trauma the facial nerve injury occurs as sudden onset. Facial decompression should be the best option.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Chalk and talk/Lecture",
"Demonstrations",
"Role play",
"Flash cards"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
|
Ans. B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Puncture wound",
"Blood",
"Lungs",
"Gastrointestinal tract"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
|
Aspergillus species are widely distributed on decaying plants, producing chains of conidia. Aspergillus species unlike Candida species do not form the pa of normal flora of humans. They are ubiquitous in the environment; hence transmission of infection is mostly exogenous. Aspergillus transmission occurs by inhalation of airborne conidia. Risk Factors for invasive aspergillosis are: Glucocoicoid use (the most impoant risk factor) Profound neutropenia or Neutrophil dysfunction Underlying pneumonia or COPD, tuberculosis or sarcoidosis Antitumor necrosis factor therapy.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Class - 1",
"Class - 2",
"Class - 3",
"Class - 4"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Mode - Mean/ SD",
"Mean - Mode/ SD",
"SD/Mode - mean",
"Mean - Mode/ SD"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Pearsonian measure of skewness -
|
Ans. is b' i.e., Mean-Mode Measures of Skewness o There are following measures of skewness 1. Karl pearson's measure The formula for measuring skewness is divided into a) absolute measure Skewness = Mean - Mode b) relative measure The relative measure is known as the Coefficient of Skewness and is more frequently used than the absolute measure of skewness. Fuher, when a comparison between two or more distributions is involved, it is the relative measure of Skewness which is used.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"NADP",
"NAD+",
"NADPH",
"FADH"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
|
Ans : B (NAD+) & C (NADPH) In chronic alcoholism rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism is NAD* & NADPHOxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenaseQ & NADQ leads to excess production of NADHSome metabolism of ethanol takes place via a cytochrome P450 dependent microsomal ethanol oxidising systme (MEOS) Q involving NADPH & O2:, This system increase in activity in chronic alcoholism & may account for the increased metabolic clearnce in this condition.Ethanol + NADPH + H+ O2 MEOS Acetaldehyde
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"5 ppm",
"30 ppm",
"15 ppm",
"20 ppm"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
|
National Iodine deficiency disorder programme , 1992: - National goitre control programme, 1962 is conveed to NIDDCP, 1992 - Impact indicators: Major indicator - Urinary iodine excretion levels ( generally measured in pregnant women over 24hrs) Others - Neonatal hypothyroidism , Goitre - Level of salt iodinisation: 30 ppm at production level 15 ppm at consumer level - Two-in-one salt: 40mcg iodine + 1mg iron/gm of salt MBI kits- Field Test Kits that allow Iodised salt manufacturers, quality controllers, health inspectors, social workers, NGO activists and even school children to assess the amount of iodine in iodised salt.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90",
"0, 3, 7, 28, 90",
"0, 3",
"0, 7, 28"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
|
New recommended regimen/Schedule (New guidelines( Type of prophylaxis Regimen Post exposure Intramuscular Essen Regimen (1-1-1-1-1) Day 0,3,7,14,28 Post exposure intradermal Updated Thai Red Cross Regimen (2-2-2-0-2) Day 0,3,7,28 Post exposure in vaccinated individuals Day 0,3 Pre-exposure prophylaxis Day 0,7,21/28 Minimum potency: 2.5 IU per IM dose Zagreb regimen of rabies Vaccine (Intramuscular Post-exposure) : 1. 4-dose abbreted multisite regimen 2-0-1-0-1 (2 doses on Day 0,1 dose on Day 7, 1 dose on day 21 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 297-298
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Thalassemia",
"G6PD deficiency"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Splenomegaly may be a feature of: March 2013
|
Ans. B i.e. Sickle cell anemia Splenomegaly Splenomegaly refers strictly to spleen enlargement, and is distinct from hyperspineism , which connotes overactive function by a spleen of any size. Splenomegaly and hypersplenism should not be confused. Each may be found separately, or they may coexist. Clinically if a spleen is palpable, it means it is enlarged as it has to undergo enlargement by at least two folds to become palpable. However, the tip of the spleen may be palpable in a newborn baby up to 3 months of age Early sickle cell anemia may present with splenomegaly
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"He is from corporate hospital",
"Negligence is from inadveent error",
"Simple negligence",
"Gross negligence"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
|
Ans. Gross negligence
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Flexion, abduction & external rotation",
"Flexion, adduction & internal rotation",
"Flexion, adduction & external rotation",
"Flexion, abduction & internal rotation"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Position of limb in posterior dislocation of hip -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Flexion, adduction & internal rotation Hip conditionDeformitySynovitisArthritisPosterior dislocationAnterior dislocationFemoral neck fractureIntertrochantric fractureFlexion, abduction, external rotation, apparent lengtheningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, true shorteningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, apparent & true shorteningFlexion, abduction, external rotation, true lengtheningExternal rotation, later adduction & flexionMarked external rotation, later adduction & flexion
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Cisatracurium",
"Suxamethonium",
"Propofol",
"Thiopentone"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
|
Ans. b. SuxamethoniumSuxamethonium is the drug most commonly responsible for causing malignant hyperthermia.'Drugs causing malignant hyperthermia are- succinylcholine (most common cause), halothane (MC inhalational agent), iso/des/sevo/methoxy- fluranes, lignocaine, TCA, MAO inhibitors and phenothiazines.''Thiopentone and pancuronium are protective drugs for malignant hyperthermia, as these raise the triggering threshold.''In malignant hyperthermia susceptible patients, safe anesthetics are N2O, Non-depolarizing muscle relaxants (atracurium), opiates, tranquilizers, etomidate, barbiturates (thiopentone) and propofol.'Malignant Hyperthermia* Autosomal dominant genetic disorder of skeletal muscle* Occurs in susceptible individuals due to exposure to some triggering agents, typically Suxamethonium or volatile agents, which cause an abnormal increase in intracellular calcium.* It is caused by dysregulation of excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle.Triggering Agents:* Succinylcholine (most common cause)* Halothane (MC inhalational agent)* Halogenated Anesthesia:- Fluranes: Isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane. methoxy-flurane- Ether- Cyclopropane* Lignocaine* TCA* MAO inhibitors* PhenothiazinesClinical Features:* Rise in end tidal CO2 (1st sign)* Masseter muscle rigidity (MMR) and tachycardia are earliest sign* Hypermetabolic features, metabolic acidosis, fever, hyperthermia* Sympathetic over activity: Tachycardia, arrhythmia, unstable BP. initial hypertension* Muscle damage: Masseter muscle spasm, generalized rigidity, hyperkalemiaTretment:* Triggering agent must be stopped and hyperventilate with 100% oxygen* The mainstay of therapy is immediate administration of IV dantrolene.* Dantrolene is the only drug effective in reversing the symptoms and preventing the episode.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Fetal echocardiography",
"Fetal scalp pH",
"Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring",
"Physical examination"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
|
Electrical Fetal hea monitoring is useful as: (1) Provides accurate information, (2) Helpful in diagnosing fetal distress, (3) Directs about intervention to prevent fetal death or morbidity, (4) It is superior to intermittent monitoring methods.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"TLC",
"RV",
"Closing volume",
"ERV"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
|
The spirometer is a simple device for measuring gas volumes. The frequently used water spirometer, rolling seal spirometer and bellows spirometer. The last two are not water-filled and are more poable. The VT, IRV, ERV, IC, and VC can all be measured with a spirometer (as can the forced expiratory volume in 1 second , forced vital capacity , and forced expiratory flow ). The RV, the FRC, and the TLC, however, cannot be determined with a spirometer because the subject cannot exhale all the gas in the lungs. The lung volumes not measurable with spirometry can be determined by the nitrogen-washout technique, by the helium-dilution technique, and by body plethysmography. The FRC is usually determined, and RV (which is equal to FRC minus ERV) and the TLC (which is equal to VC plus RV) are then calculated from volumes obtained by spirometry. Ref: Levitzky M.G. (2007). Chapter 3. Alveolar Ventilation. In M.G. Levitzky (Ed), Pulmonary Physiology, 7e.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Smooth muscle",
"Media",
"Adventitia",
"Endothelium"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Endothelium The most acceptable hypothesis for the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis is "the response to injury hypothesis". According to this hypothesis, atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory response of the aerial wall initiated by injury to endothelium. Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis Following stages occurs in the pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis: Endothelial injury Earliest stages of the development of atherosclerosis are mediated by the inflammatory cascade. Inflammation mediated injury to endothelium is the cornestone in the development of atherosclerosis. After injury, endothelium is activated and there is increased expression of adhesion molecule-VCAM-1 and there is increased permeability to endothelium. TNF is the major cytokine to induce this expression. Migration of leukocytes When VCAM-1 is expressed on endothelium, leukocytes adhere to the endothelium. Leukocytes than cross the endothelial barrier and begin to accumulate in subendothelial intimal space. Macrophages engulf LDL cholesterol and form foam cells - formation of earliest lesion, i.e. fatty streak. Macrophages also form oxygen free radicals that cause oxidation of LDL to yield oxidized LDL (modified LDL). Smooth muscle cell migration and proliferation Inflammatory cells in subendothelial intimal space secrete cytokines, mainly PDGF, TGF-ct and FGF which cause migration of smooth muscle cells from media to subendothelial intimal space as well as their proliferation. Maturation of plaque Smooth muscle cells synthesize extracellular matrix (especially collegen) and conve a fatty streak into a mature fibrofatty atheroma, and contribute to the progressive growth of atherosclerotic lesions.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Neutrophil",
"Eosinophil",
"Basophil",
"Monocyte"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
|
Monocyte is considered as the second line of defence.
Phagocytosis by Macrophages.
Macrophages are the end-stage product of monocytes that enter the tissues from the blood. When activated by the immune system, they are much more powerful phagocytes than neutrophils, often capable of phagocytizing as many as 100 bacteria. They also have the ability to engulf much larger particles, even whole RBCs or, occasionally, malarial parasites, whereas neutrophils are not capable of phagocytizing particles much larger than bacteria. Also, after digesting particles, macrophages can extrude the residual products and often survive and function for many more months.
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 458
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Unrelated donors",
"Related donors",
"Monozygotic twins",
"From the same individual"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between -
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy",
"Becker muscular dystrophy",
"Limb-girdle dystrophy",
"Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
|
Facial muscle involvement is not seen with Becker and Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy Emery Dreifuss and Becker are XLR disease so can't be present in a girl child. Hence by exclusion the diagnosis is Dx: Scapulo-Faciohumeraldystrophy. Facio-Scapulo-humeral dystrophy Autosomal dominant inheritance and has an onset in childhood or young adulthood. Facial weakness is the initial manifestation-->inability to smile, whistle or fully close the eyes. Weakness of the shoulder girdles-->makes arm elevation difficult. Scapular winging becomes apparent with attempts at abduction and forward movement of the arms. The serum CK level may be normal or mildly elevated. No specific treatment is available, ankle-foot ohoses are helpful for foot-drop.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Pectoralis major",
"Extensor digitorum",
"Flexor digitorum profundus",
"Brachialis"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
|
Extensor digitorum Hybrid muscles are the muscles having more than one nerve supply Pctoralis major: lateral & medial pectoral nerves Brachialis: additional proprioceptive fibres from radial nerve, in addition to its muscular nerve, musculocutaneous nerve. Extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous nerve only.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"50%",
"68%",
"95%",
"100%"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
|
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7%
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Measles",
"EBV",
"Molluscum contagiosum",
"RSV"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., EBV EBV encephalomyelitis shows :Abnormal white matter with perivascular infiltrates of inflammatory cells and foam cells.Some myelin is replaced by lipid-filled macrophages and hyperplastic astrocytes.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 60 min after thrombolysis",
"Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 30 min after thrombolysis",
"Persistent Chest pain with ST elevation >90 min after thrombolysis",
"Pain with ST elevation for >120minutes after thrombolysis"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Rescue P.C.I is done for which of the following?
|
Option C = Rescue P.C.I. After thrombolysis ST Elevation begin to reduce If ST Elevation persisting in spite of thrombolysis. So it's failure of thrombolysis | within 90 minutes Rescue PCI Types of PCI Primary PCI done for STEMI (Door to device time < 90 minutes). Delayed PCI done for Unstable Angina NSTEMI Rescue PCI Failure of thrombolysis (within 90 minutes).
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Accelerates bacterial and viral replication",
"Left shifts the oxygen dissociation curve",
"Is due to interleukin-1 released from CD4 T-helper cells",
"Increase oxygen release to tissue"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Fever associated with infection
|
Fever right shifts the oxygen dissociation curve, which allows for a greater release of oxygen to the tissue, making oxygen easily available to neutrophils and monocytes for use in the oxygen-dependent myeloperoxidase system of bactericidal killing. Having more oxygen available to tissue also enhances wound healing. In addition, fever interferes with bacterial and viral replication by providing a hostile environment for incubation. Fever is produced by the release of interleukin-I from macrophages. Interleukin-I, in turn, stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize prostaglandins, which interact with the thermoregulatory center to produce fever.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Liver",
"Uterus",
"Brain",
"Breast"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Last organ to putrefy in females is?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Uterus Order of putrefactiono Order of appearance of putrefaction from earliest to last is : larynx, trachea > stomach, intestine > spleen, liver > brain, lungs > heart > kidney, bladder > uterus/prostate > bone.o Amongst the soft tissues uterus in female and prostate in malesm are last to undergo putrefaction, as uterus and prostate resist putrefaction. Otherwise bones are last to undergo putrefaction, overall.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Hypoplasia of lung",
"Congenital cyst",
"Lobar sequestration",
"Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Hamartomatous lung tissue is?
|
Ans. (d) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 670; 8th/pg 679)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM): Hamartomatous Q or dysplastic lung tissue, usually confined to one lobe.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Widal",
"CSF PCR",
"CSF examination",
"PET scan"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Test for diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis is?
|
ANSWER: (C) CSF examinationREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 376The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made by examination of the CSF. The need to obtain neuroimaging studies (CT or MRI) prior to LP requires clinical judgment.A broad-range PCR can detect small numbers of viable and nonviable organisms in CSF and is expected to be useful for making a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis in patients who have been pretreated with oral or parenteral antibiotics and in whom Gram's stain and CSF culture are negative
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Some side",
"Opposite side",
"Up",
"Do\\vn"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Opposite side [Ref: Dhingra 5th/e p. 48}o Each ear is irrigated twice : once with cold water (70C below the body temperature, i. e. 300C) and then with warm water (70C above the body temperature, i.e. 440C).o Cold water provokes nystagmus towards the opposite ear, while warm water provokes nystagmus towardssame ear (COWS Cold - oppsite, Warm - same).
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Etches the dentin",
"It increases the surface energy & wets the dentin surface",
"Removes the smear layer",
"Conditions the dentin"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
A Dentin 'Primer'?
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Pubic symphysis",
"Fronto parietal suture",
"Manubrio sternal joint",
"Inf. radio ulnar joint"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Following are fibrous joints :
|
B. i.e. Frontoparietal sutureSkull sutures (except sphen-occipital), vomer- sphenoid rostrum schindylesisQ, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis and dentoalveolar gomphosis (tooth socket) joints are fibrous joints. A Schindylesis is a specialized suture where a rigid bone fits into a groove on a neighbouring element eg a cleft between the alae of vomer, which receives the rostrum of the sphenoid. (i.e. vomer - sphenoidal rostrum junction)Q- Epiphyseo-diaphyseal growth plateQ, costochondral, 1st chondrosternal and sphenoocipital joints are synchondrosis/ syncendrosis or primary cailaginous joints; whereas, symphysis pubis, symphysis menti, sacrococcygeal, interveebral and manubriosternal jointsQ are symphyses or secondary cailaginous joints.Aicular cailage of most (not all) synol joints are lined by hyaline cailage Q. In some synol joints the cavity is paially or completely subdivided into two by an aicular disc, made up of fibrocailage eg. Temporomadibular jt, sternoclavicular jt, menisci of knee joint. More mobile the joint the more commonly it discloates eg shoulder jtQ. MCP Jt. is a condylar - synol joint
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Chief judicial magistrate",
"Executive magistrate",
"Police officer",
"Session judge"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
For exhumation the order should be passed by -
|
The body is exhumed only when, there is written order from the executive magistrate.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Malaria",
"Japanese encephalitis",
"Paragonimus",
"Plague"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Which of the following disease with bird, ahropod and human chain
|
Agent factors :- * Caused by group B arbovirus (flavivirus) * The main reservoirs are Ardeid birds and pigs * Pigs are amplifiers of the virus and they do not manifest ove symptoms but circulates the virus Host factors :- * Most common in the age group of <15 years of age * Man - incidental dead end host * Affects other animals also and horse is the only animal which does not shows symptoms of encephalitis Vector:- * Transmitted by culex tritaeniorrhynchus - most impoant vector, others are C.Vishnuii and c. Gelidus * Incubation period is 5-15 days * Case fatality rate - 20-40% Ref:- K Park, 24th ed; pg num:- 302-303
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Good prognosis",
"Impaction",
"More chances of displacement",
"Trabecular alignment displacement"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Increase in pauwel's angle indicate
|
Pauwel's classification - depending on angle (Pauwel's angle) formed by the line with the horizontal. More the Pauwell's angle, more unstable is the fracture with poorer prognosis Type I : <30deg Type II : 30-50deg Type III: >50deg(worst prognosis)
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"1 month",
"3 months",
"6 months",
"1 year"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Ifa Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6 months
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Denture contains broken teeth",
"There is excessive resorption of the ridge",
"Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and has to be changed",
"Centric relation does not coincide with centric occlusion"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Relining of complete denture is not indicated when
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Rupture of membranes",
"Scanty liquor amnii",
"Adequate liquor amnii",
"Air inside the uterine cavity"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which of the following condition is necessary prerequisite for this change?
|
Ans. (C). Adequate liquor amniiThe photograph shows maceration, a sign of intrauterine death.Conditions favoring maceration: Intact membranes; adequate liquor amnii & NO air.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin C",
"Vitamin D",
"Vitamin B12"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which of the following vitamin reduces the risk of insulin resistance, obesity, and the metabolic syndrome?
|
Higher Intakes of Vitamin D May Be Beneficial There is evidence that Vitamin D intake considerably higher than that required to maintain calcium homeostasis reduce the risk of insulin resistance, obesity, and the metabolic syndrome, as well as various cancers. There is growing evidence that higher vitamin D status is protective against various cancers, including prostate and colorectal cancer, and also against prediabetes and the metabolic syndrome. Desirable levels of intake may be considerably higher than current reference intakes, and ceainly could not be met from unfoified foods. While increased sunlight exposure would meet the need, it carries the risk of developing skin cancer. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 552, 553
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Isolated secundum ASD",
"Mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation",
"Prior coronary aery bypass graft",
"Coarctation of aoa"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Antiboiotic Prophylaxis for infective endocarditis is indicated in:
|
Answer is D (Coarctation of Aoa) Coarctation of Aoa is a high risk cardiac lesion fior the development of infective endocarditis and an indication fir antibiotic prophyloxis.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"X-ray",
"USG",
"IVP",
"CT"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Adder Head" appearance is found in:
|
VP
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Congenial dislocation of the knee joints",
"Congenital dislocation of the hip joints",
"Congenital dislocation of the shoulder joints",
"Congenital dislocation of the elbow joints"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Ortolani's test is done for
|
B. i.e. (Congenital dislocation of hip joints) (410 - Apley 8th)Important Tests**Ortolani's and Barlow's test Galeazzi test (604 CDT 4th)Congenital dislocation of hip joints** Apprehension testRecurrent dislocation of shoulder joints* Bryant's Call ways Hamilton ruler testHamilton ruler testAnterior dislocation of shoulder joints* **Pivot-shift testAnterior cruciate ligament* Lachman testAnterior cruciate ligament* Drawer testCruciate ligament (Ant & Post)* **Mc-Murray's testMeniscus injury* Appley's grinding testMeniscus injury* **Thomas testHip flexion deformity* ** Ankle joint has LEAST chances for recurrent dislocations
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"The indirect retainer",
"The direct retainer",
"Intimate contact between the denture bases and the underlying tissues",
"Direct and indirect retainers"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Secondary retention for a removable partial denture is provided by
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"The back of the neck",
"Under angle of jaw",
"Below the chin",
"Choice of hangman"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Where does the "knot" is put in the neck during judicial hanging?
|
In judicial hanging, a rope to allow a drop of five to seven metres according to the weight, build and age of the person, is looped round the neck, with the knot under the angle of the jaw. This causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of the second and third, or third and fouh cervical veebrae. Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology by Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 306.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Listeria",
"Erysipelothrix",
"Corynebacterium",
"Treponema"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Seal finger and whale finger are associated with -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Erysipelothrix
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Gracilis",
"Popliteus",
"Saorius",
"Biceps femoris"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Which of the following muscle acts as unlocker of knee?
|
Popliteus rotates the tibia medially on the femur or, when the tibia is fixed, rotates the femur laterally on the tibia. At the beginning of flexion of the fully extended knee, lateral femoral rotation by popliteus muscle unlocks the joint.Must know:Locking of knee joint is due to the the action of quadriceps femoris, that brings about medial rotation of femur on tibia in later stages of extension. Ref: Snells, Clinical anatomy, 7th Edition, Page 650.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"USG",
"X-ray KUB",
"Urine routine",
"Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Which is the investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria?
|
A chronic smoker with painless gross hematuria should be suspected as having bladder cancer. The most common form of bladder cancer is transitional cell carcinoma (TCC). Tobacco use, followed by occupational exposure to various carcinogenic materials such as automobile exhaust or industrial solvents are the most frequent risk factors. Hematuria is the presenting symptom in 85-90% of patients with bladder cancer. It may be gross or microscopic, intermittent rather than constant. Exfoliated cells from both normal and neoplastic urothelium can be readily identified in voided urine. Ref: Scher H.I., Motzer R.J. (2012). Chapter 94. Bladder and Renal Cell Carcinomas. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Direct fluorescent antibody test",
"Enzyme immunoassay",
"Polymerase chain reaction",
"Culture on irradiated McConkey cells"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Polymerase chain reactionRef: Harrison, 17th/e, p. 1074,19th/e, p. 1165 and Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 415Amplification assays such as ligase chain reaction and polymerase chain reaction are the most sensitive chlamydial diagnostic method.Other methods are:(a) Cell culture: Sensitivity (60-80%).(b) Direct immunofluorescent antibody test: Sensitivity 70-80% and quite specific.(c) ELISA: 60-80%.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Weil Felix test",
"Paul Bunnell test",
"Microscopic agglutination test",
"Microimmunofluorescence test"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is -
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Eversion of sac",
"Excision of sac",
"Lord's procedure",
"Herniotomy"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Congenital hydrocele is best treated by
|
Congenital hydrocele is best treated with herniotomy if they do not resolve spontaneously. Established acquired hydrocele often have thick walls. They are treated by subtotal excision of the sac. If the sac is small, thin walled and contains clear fluid, Lord's operation is done. Jaboulay's operation where the sac is eveed with placement of testis in a pouch created by dissection in the fascial planes of the scrotum, is an alternative. Reference : page 1328 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 25th edition and page 1072 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Typhoral live",
"H1n1 killed",
"H1n1 live",
"Yellow fever live"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Vaccine administered by following route is
|
Hlnl live (Intranasal route)
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Pseudomonas",
"Candida",
"E. coli",
"Mucor"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
A 40-year old diabetic patient presents with proptosis of one eye and black eschar over palate. The likely organism is :
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Anti depressants",
"Anti psychotics",
"Anti epileptics",
"Mood stabilizers"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Schizophrenia is treated by
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anti psychotics
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Gonorrhoea",
"Herpes",
"Chanchroid",
"Granuloma venereum"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Fries test is used in the diagnosis of:
|
Granuloma venereum
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"optimizing w:p",
"using cold water",
"prolonged manipulation",
"using humidor"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Dimension stability of hydrocollids may be achieved by
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Choroid plexus cyst",
"Nuchal translucency",
"Cystic hygroma",
"Single umbilical aery"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which of the following ultrasound finding has the highest association with aneuploidy?
|
All the above mentioned are ultrasound findings associated with increased risk of aneuploidy although the highest association is seen with cystic hygroma Nuchal translucency and cystic hygroma are both measured in the first trimesterTrisomy 21 is the most common aneuploidy associated with increased NT and cystic hygroma While monosomy X presents as second-trimester hygroma.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Less tha 69",
"Between 69 and 76",
"Between 77 and 80",
"Between 81 and 82"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
To feel comfoable and cool in a factory the conrrected effective temperature ( in degree Farenheit) should be -
|
Comfo zones: In deg C of corrected effective temperature Pleasant and cool 20 Comfoable and cool 20-25 (69-76F) Comfoable 25- 27 (77-80F) Hot and uncomfoable 27-28 Extremely hot 28+ Intolerably hot 30+. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 792
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"PT",
"APTT",
"D dimer",
"FDP"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Test used for factor VIII deficiency identification is-
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., APTT o Factor VIII is a part of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. The test used to identity1 the defects in the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation is PTT. Thus prolonged PTT is a feature of patient with factor VIII deficiency.o Patients with hemophilia have deficiency of factor VIII that results in prolonged PTT.o Tests used to evaluate different aspects of hemostasis.Bleeding timeo It is not a test for coagulation rathers it tests the ability of the vessels to vasoconstrict and the platelets to form a hemostatic plug.o It is the time taken for a standardized skin puncture to stop bleeding,o Normal reference value is between 2-9 minutes.o Prolongation generally indicates the defect in platelet number or function.Prothrombin time (PT)o This assay tests the extrinsic and common coagulation pathway.o So, a Prolonged PT can result from deficiency of factor V, VII. X, prothrombin or fibrinogen.Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)o This assay tests the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways.o So, a prolonged PTT. can results from the deficiency of factor V, VHI, IX, X, XI, XII, prothrombin or fibrinogen.Thrombin timeo It is the time taken for clotting to occur when thrombin is added to the plasma,o It tests the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and depends on adequate fibrinogen level,o Prolonged thrombin time results from decreased level of fibrinogen.Defective coagulation pathwayPTAPTTExtrinsicIntrinsicCommonIncreasedNormalIncreasedNormalIncreasedIncreased
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Ductus aeriosus",
"Umbilical aery",
"Umbilical vein",
"Ductus venosus"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Ligament teres is a remnant of ?
|
Umbilical vein
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"HRCT",
"CT Angiography",
"Captopril enhanced radionucleotide scan",
"Doppler ultrasound of renal aeries"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Which of the following is the most specific and sensitive screening test for renovascular hypeension?
|
Hypeension due to an occlusive lesion of a renal aery is renovascular hypeensionIn the initial stages, the mechanism of hypeension generally is related to activation of the renin-angiotensin system. Obstruction of the renal aery leads to decreased renal perfusion pressure, thereby stimulating renin secretion. Over time, possibly as a consequence of secondary renal damage, this form of hypeension may become less renin-dependent.As a screening test, renal blood flow may be evaluated with a radionuclide -ohoiodohippurate (OIH) scan, or glomerular filtration rate may be evaluated with a - diethylenetriamine pentaacetic acid (DTPA) scan before and after a single dose of captopril (or another ACE inhibitor).Contrast aeriography remains the "gold standard" for evaluation and identification of renal aery lesions.Harrison 19e pg: 1618
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"antral stenosis",
"Tricuspid regurgitation",
"Aoic stenosis",
"Aoic regurgitation"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
A 63 year old man presents with a triad of angina, syncope and congestive hea failure. Which of the following valvular hea lesion can be suspected-
|
Even severe AS may exist for many years without producing any symptoms because of the ability of the hyperophied LV to generate the elevated intraventricular pressures required to maintain a normal stroke volume. Most patients with pure or predominant AS have gradually increasing obstruction over years, but do not become symptomatic until the sixth to eighth decades. Exeional dyspnea, angina pectoris, and syncope are the three cardinal symptoms. Dyspnea results primarily from elevation of the pulmonary capillary pressure caused by elevations of LV diastolic pressures secondary to reduced left ventricular compliance and impaired relaxation. Angina pectoris usually develops somewhat later and reflects an imbalance between the augmented myocardial oxygen requirements and reduced oxygen availability. Exeional syncope may result from a decline in aerial pressure caused by vasodilation in the exercising muscles and inadequate vasoconstriction in nonexercising muscles in the face of a fixed CO, or from a sudden fall in CO produced by an arrhythmia. ( Harrison&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no.1939 )
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Osteopetrosis",
"Pagets disease",
"Osteogenesis imperfecta",
"Infantile hyperostosis"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Hemoglobinuria",
"Hemosiderinuria",
"Hematuria",
"Myoglobinuria"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
An athelete presented with red coloured urine after 2 days of history of severe exeion. The most probable cause is?
|
Myoglobinuria REF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition chapter 382, Physiology and pathology of the urine by john dixon p. 49 Red color urine may be due to hemoglobin or myoglobin. In the question clue is given that patient is an athlete who competed in an event which lead to sternous exercise and hence increased myoglobin in the urine. "The states of energy deficiency cause activity-related muscle breakdown accompanied by myoglobinuria, appearing as light-brown- to dark-brown-colored urine"
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Orexin",
"Cortisol releasing hormone",
"Neuropeptide",
"Ghrelin"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Which of the following is released from hypothalamus?
|
There are 6 established hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones :
Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH),
Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH),
Growth hormone releasing hormone (GRH),
Growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GIH),
Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) and
Prolactin inhibiting hormone(PIH).
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Infeility",
"Menorrhagia",
"Repeated early pregnancy losses",
"Associated vaginal atresia"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which of these is the most impoant indication for Strassmans Metroplasty done for a bicornuate uterus?
|
Habitual aboion is the most impoant indication for surgical treatment of women who have a double uterus. The aboion rate in women who have a double uterus is to three times greater than that of the general population. Best diagnosis of the condition is made by laparohysteroscopy. Strassmans Metroplasty
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Bleaching powder",
"Cresol",
"Phenol",
"Lime"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Best disinfectant of cholera stool is-
|
Cresol is an excellent coal-tar disinfectant. It is 3 to 10 times as powerful as phenol, yet no more toxic. Cresol is best used in 5 to 20 percent strength for disinfection of farces and urine. Cresol is an all-purpose general disinfectant. (refer pgno :128 park 23 rd edition)
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Patterend abrasion",
"Ectopic abrasion",
"Ectopic bruise",
"Friction abrasion"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Black eye is a type of -
|
The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s.narayan reddy ; 28th edition ; Pg .no . 107 Black eye is the most common example for ectopic bruising or percolated contusion .
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"LDL deficiency",
"VLDL overproduction",
"Apo C-2 deficiency",
"Apo E deficiency"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
In a patient with a type of familial dyslipidemias he presented with palmar Xanthomas and he ias at increased risk of atherosclerosis and CAD.In Lipid profile there was elevation of triacylglycerols and cholesterol.And the IDL and chylomicrons were elevated.What is the pathophysiology of the condition?
|
Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition page 275
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Central zone",
"Peripheral zone",
"Transitional zone",
"Periurethral zone"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Carcinoma of the prostate arise from -
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Adrenal hyperplasia",
"Adrenal adenoma",
"Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production",
"Pituitary microadenoma"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
A patient with cushinoid features presents with hemoptysis; he shows no response to dexamethasone suppression test; most likely diagnosis here is:
|
Answer is C (Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production); Lack of suppression to dexamethasone challenge (ACTH producing tumor) and presence of hemoptysis (Carcinoma lung) in a patient with Cushinoid features suggests a diagnosis of Carcinoma lung with ectopic ACTH secretion. As a method of diagnostic workup of any patient with suspected Cushings we screen the patient with plasma coisol levels at 8:00 a.m. in the morning. Those with increased coisol levels are subjected to a dexamethasone supression test. In the given question there is lack of suppression to dexamethasone challenge so option (d) is out. Out of the choices remaining the presence of hemoptysis points towards the diagnosis of carcinoma lung with ectopic ACTH.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"< 1 year",
"< 2 years",
"2-5 years",
"> 5 years"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Under transplantation of humans organs act, the punishment for the doctor involved is
|
The Transplantation of Human Organs Act 1994, amended in 2011, and 2012 Chapter VI and VII deals with the trial and punishment of offences under this act. Under this act, doctors involved will be punished for a period of 2-5yrs. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr. PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO: 389
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Less than 15 years",
"Less than 16 years",
"Less than 18 years",
"Less than 20 years"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Statuary rape is -
|
Ref:Textbook of Forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.388 Minimum age at which female can give consent for sex by what age is 18 years. As per Sec.375IPC unlawful sexual intercourse by man with a woman with or without her consent when she is under 18 years of age. The criminal law (Amendment) Act,2013 has increased the previous recomended age of consent from 16 to 18 years, which means any sexual activity irespective of presence of consent with a woman below the age of 18 will constitute statutory rape.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Metastatic neoplasm",
"Lymphoma",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Bronchiectasis"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Mediastinal lymph node calcification is seen in which one of the following-
|
Ref:Robbins Basic Pathology (9th Edition),page no.478,479 Sarcoidosis Although sarcoidosis is considered here as an example of a restrictive lung disease, it is impoant to note that sarcoidosis is a multisystem disease of unknown etiology characterized by noncaseating granulomas in many tissues and organs. MORPHOLOGY The diagnostic histopathologic feature of sarcoidosis is the noncaseating epithelioid granuloma, irrespective of the organ involved. This is a discrete, compact collection of epithelioid cells rimmed by an outer zone of largely CD4+ T cells. The epithelioid cells are derived from macrophages and are characterized by abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei. It is not uncommon to see intermixed multinucleate giant cells formed by fusion of macrophages. A thin layer of laminated fibroblasts is present peripheral to the granuloma; over time, these proliferate and lay down collagen that replaces the entire granuloma with a hyalinized scar. Two other microscopic features are sometimes seen in the granulomas: (1) Schaumann bodies, laminated concretions composed of calcium and proteins; and (2) asteroid bodies, stellate inclusions enclosed within giant cells. Their presence is not required for diagnosis of sarcoidosis--they also may occur in granulomas of other origins. Rarely, foci of central necrosis may be present in sarcoid granulomas, suggesting an infectious process. Caseation necrosis typical of tuberculosis is absent The lungs are involved at some stage of the disease in 90% of patients. The granulomas predominantly involve the interstitium rather than air spaces, with some tendency to localize in the connective tissue around bronchioles and pulmonary venules and in the pleura ("lymphangitic" distribution). The bronchoalveolar lavage fluid contains abundant CD4+ T cells. In 5% to 15% of patients, the granulomas eventually are replaced by diffuse interstitial fibrosis, resulting in a so-called honeycomb lung. Intrathoracic hilar and paratracheal lymph nodes are enlarged and calcification in 75% to 90% of patients, while a third present with peripheral lymphadenopathy. The nodes are characteristically painless and have a firm, rubbery texture. Unlike in tuberculosis, lymph nodes in sarcoidosis are "nonmatted" (nonadherent) and do not ulcerate.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"14",
"5",
"3",
"1"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
The number of doses recommended for oral Ty21a typhoid vaccine is:
|
The Ty21a vaccine is licensed for use in individuals > 5 years. A three dose regimen is recommended. Vaccine is administered on alternate days: 0n days 1, 3 and 5. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 215.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Lamotrigine",
"Ethosuximide",
"Phenytoin",
"Primidone"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
The drug used in petit mal seizures and has a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is
|
Ethosuximide and valproate are the drugs of choice for absence seizures and are more effective than lamotrigineReference: Katzung Pharmacology; 12th edition; Page no: 418
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Electrophysiological testing",
"Tilt Table testing",
"PET Scan",
"Holter monitoring"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which test is not useful in a patient with history of Syncopal attack?
|
Answer is C (PET Scan) : PET scan has- not been mentioned as a test to investigate syncope in Harrisons text. It is the single best answer of exclusion. Electrophysiological tests and 24 hour ECG Holter monitoring are indicated in patients where history suggests a cardiac disease. Upright tilt table testing is indicated for suspected neurogenic / vasodepressor syncope in patients with normal history / examination. Invasive Cardiac Electrophysiologic testing : provides diagnostic and prognostic information regarding Sinus Node function, AV conduction and Supraventricular and Ventricular arrhythmia. Holter monitor : provides 24 - 48 hours monitoring of ECG rhythm on an outpatient basis and is indicated for detection of conduction abnormalities. Upright tilt table testing : Is a test for vasodepressor / neurogenic syncope in patients with normal history / examination. In susceptible patients upright tilt at an angle between 60deg to 80deg for 30 to 60 minutes induces a vasovagal episode. Indications for Table Tilt test include : Recurrent syncope - Single syncope episode that caused injury - Single syncope event in high risk setting (pilot, commercial vehicle driver) Syncope The choice of diagnostic test should be guided by the history and physical examination For All patients Serum electrolytes Glucose Haematocrit
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Coracoacromial ligament",
"Coracoclavicular ligament",
"Costoclavicular ligament",
"Coracohumeral ligament"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
In a 24 year old man weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
|
The axial skeleton shapes the longitudinal axis of the human body. Coracoclavicular ligament suspends the scapula from the lower one third of the clavicle and forms a strong bond between them. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton through this ligament. A fracture of the clavicle, medial to the attachment of this ligament leads to drooping of upper limb. Ref: TB of Anatomy and Physiology PR Ashalatha, 1st Ed, Page 110
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Anti depressants",
"Anti psychotics",
"Anti epileptics",
"Mood stabilizers"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Schizophrenia is treated by:
| null |
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"P53",
"PTEN",
"RB",
"Ras"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Gene involved in Cowden syndrome is
|
(B) PTENo"Phosphatase and Tensin'' homolog (PTEN) - protein in humans encoded by the PTEN gene. Gene mutations promotes development of cancers.[?]Cowden's disease/Multiple Hamartoma Syndrome:-Part of PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome-An autosomal dominant syndrome-Trichilemmomas - Numerous tumors of hair follicles in face-Multiple hamartomatous polyps in GI tract, Lipomas, Granulomas-Very high risk of breast, Follicular endometrail carcinoma & thyroid carcinomaoTreatment: Bilateral mastectomies recommended-Contraindicated are mammography & other radiation exposure of breast tissue.-Mean age at presentation <10 years-Very high risk of breast, follicular carcinoma of thyroid & Endometrial carcinomaoPTEN (phosphatase and tensin homologue) is a membrane-associated phosphatase encoded by a gene on chromosome 10q23 that is mutated in Cowden syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder marked by frequent benign growths, such as skin appendage tumors, and an increased incidence of epithelial cancers, particularly of the breast, endometrium, and thyroid.oPTEN acts as a tumor suppressor by serving as a brake on the PI3K/AKT arm of the receptor tyrosine kinase pathway.oPTEN gene function is lost in many cancers through deletion, deleterious point mutations, or epigenetic silencing.SELECTED TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES & ASSOCIATED FAMILIAL SYNDROMES & CANCERS, SORTED BY CANCER HALLMARKS*Gene (Protein)Familial SyndromesAssociated CancersInhibitors of Mitogenic Signaling PathwaysAPC (Adenomatous polyposis coli protein)Familial colonic polyps and carcinomasCarcinomas of stomach, colon, pancreas; melanoma*. NF1 (Neurofibromin-1)Neurofibromatosis type 1 (neurofibromas and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors)Neuroblastoma, juvenile myeloid leukemia*. NF2 (Merlin)Neurofibromatosis type 2 (acoustic schwannoma and meningioma)Schwannoma, meningioma*. PTCH (Patched)Gorlin syndrome (basal cell carcinoma, medulloblastoma, several benign tumors)Basal cell carcinoma, medulloblastoma*. PTEN (Phosphatase and tension homologue)Cowden syndrome (variety of benign skin, GI, and CNS growths; breast, endometrial, and thyroid carcinoma)Diverse cancers, particularly carcinomas and lymphoid tumors*. SMAD2, SMAD4 (SMAD2, SMAD4)Juvenile polyposisFrequently mutated (along with other components of TGFb signaling pathway) in colonic & pancreatic CaInhibitors of Ceil Cycle Progression*. RB Retinoblastoma (RB) proteinFamilial retinoblastoma syndrome (retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, other sarcomas)Retinoblastoma; osteosarcoma carcinomas of breast, colon, lung*. CDKN2A p16/INK4a & pU/ARFFamilial melanomaPancreatic, breast, and esophageal carcinoma, melanoma, certain leukemiasInhibitors of "Pro-growth" Programs of Metabolism and Angiogenesis*. VHL (Von Hippel Lindau (VHL) protein)Von Hippel Lindau syndrome (cerebellar hemangioblastoma, retinal angioma, renal cell carcinoma)Renal cell carcinoma*. STK11 (Liver kinase B1 (LKB1) or STK11)Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (GI polyps, GI cancers, pancreatic carcinoma and other carcinomas)Diverse carcinomas (5%-20% of cases, depending on type)*. SDHB, SDHD (Succinate dehydrogenase complex subunits B & D)Familial paraganglioma, familial pheochromocytomaParaganglioma
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Pharyngobasilar fascia",
"Palatopharyngeal fold",
"Buccopharyngeal fascia",
"Palatoglossal fold"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Tonsillar fossa is bounded anteriorly by
|
Tonsilar fossa is bounded by Anterior - Palatoglossal fold containing palatoglossal muscle Posterior - Palatopharyngeal fold containing palato pharyngeal muscle Apex - Soft palate, where both arches meet Base - Dorsal surface of posterior one-third of tongue. (Ref: Anatomy of head, neck and brain. Vishram Singh. P 227 )
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"50-69",
"35-49",
"20-34",
"< 20"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
In Profound MR, IQ is
|
IQ range for categoriesICD-10DSM-IVMild50-6950-55 to 70Moderate35-4935-40 to 50-55Severe20-3420-25 to 35-40ProfoundBelow 20Below 20-25Reference: Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry; 3rd edition; Chapter 18; Learning Disability
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Monoiodotyrosine (MIT)",
"Diiodotyrosine (DIT)",
"T3",
"Reverse T3"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Which of the following iodinated compound is present in a maximum concentration in the thyroid?
|
THYROID HORMONE SYNTHESIS AND SECRETIONThyroid hormones are synthesized in the colloid, near the apical cell membrane of the follicular cells. Catalyzed by the enzyme thyroidal peroxidase, iodide in the thyroid cell is oxidized to iodine.The iodine enters the colloid and is rapidly bound at the 3 position to tyrosine molecules attached to thyroglobulin, forming monoiodotyrosine (MIT).MIT is next iodinated at the 5 position, forming diiodotyrosine (DIT).Two DIT molecules then condense in an oxidative process ("coupling reaction") to form one thyroxine (T4) molecule.Some T3 is probably formed within the thyroid gland by condensation of MIT with DIT. A small amount of reverse T3 (rT3) is also formed.In the normal thyroid, the average distribution of iodinated compounds is 23% MIT, 33% DIT, 35% T4, 7% T3, and 2% reverse T3.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Gold",
"Coal",
"CO",
"Silica"
]
}
|
[
"C"
] |
Silicosis caused by ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Silica
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Albuterol",
"Metaproterenol",
"Terbutaline",
"Pirbuterol"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Which of the following drugs can be administered by subcutaneous route?
|
terbutaline can be given as s.c (0.25mg) in asthma.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Uveo-parotid fever",
"Mumps",
"Debilitation after major surgery",
"After administration of iodine"
]
}
|
[
"B"
] |
Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid gland is most common after: March 2008
|
Ans. C: Debilitation after major surgery Acute bacterial parotitis is now infrequent, but its historical impoance. Mumps and bacterial parotitis were differentiated by 1800, but neither was effectively treated. The moality rate for bacterial parotitis was 80%. Before antibiotics and intravenous administration of fluids were available, bacterial parotitis occurred in postoperative patients or other severely ill patients who became dehydrated and contributed to their demise as an incurable sepsis.
|
MedMCQA
|
{
"label": [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
],
"text": [
"Low grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia",
"High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia",
"Squamous intraepithelial associated with HPV 16",
"Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HIV"
]
}
|
[
"A"
] |
Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma;
|
High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion have a propensity to progress and become invasive, therefore need investigations and treatment Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 410.
|
MedMCQA
|
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