id
stringlengths
36
36
question
stringlengths
6
1.22k
opa
stringlengths
1
171
opb
stringlengths
1
241
opc
stringlengths
1
240
opd
stringlengths
1
195
cop
class label
4 classes
choice_type
stringclasses
2 values
exp
stringlengths
1
15k
subject_name
stringclasses
21 values
topic_name
stringclasses
840 values
found_keywords
sequencelengths
1
10
local_id
int64
4
183k
d93b8fa9-f083-4770-ac12-325551bb7bd2
A healthy 10-year-old boy is visiting friends on a farm during the month of July. He presents with fever, cough, and lower respiratory symptoms (no upper respiratory tract symptoms). He has been ill for 5 days. Auscultatory findings are consistent with pneumonia. Chest radiograph, CECT and peripheral smear examination were done The first line drug for the above condition is: -
Liposomal amphotericin B
lamisil
vfend
sporanox
0a
multi
This is a case of acute histoplasmosis. The radiograph shows small, patchy infiltrates with hilar adenopathy. His blood smear shows small, nondescript yeast forms inside monocytic cells. Microconidia are oval and are small enough (2-4 mm) to reach the terminal bronchioles and alveoli. Sholy after infecting the host, mycelia transform into the yeasts that are found inside macrophages and other phagocytes. The yeast forms are characteristically small (2-5 mm), with occasional narrow budding. In the laboratory, mycelia are best grown at room temperature, whereas yeasts are grown at 37degC on enriched media. TREATMENT: - Acute pulmonary, moderate to severe illness: -Lipid AmB Chronic/ cavitatory pulmonary: - Itraconazole Progressive disseminated: - Lipid AmB+ Itraconazole CNS: - Liposomal AmB + Itraconazole
Unknown
Integrated QBank
[ "itraconazole", "voriconazole", "terbinafine" ]
55,617
62c6532d-bdce-4fff-babd-0d56284a927a
Therapeutic level of dilantin is
0-9 mg/ml
10-19 mg/ml
20-29 mg/ml
30-39 mg/ml
1b
single
Phenytoin therapeutic plasma concentration is 10-20 mg/ml. Ref: K D Tripati 7th edition Page no 422. Table 30.2
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "phenytoin" ]
55,618
1102acd9-fd28-45b3-ab41-52d364f89738
All of the following drugs can precipitate prograf toxicity, except:
Gentamycin
platinol
firvanq
Rifampicn
3d
multi
Rifampicin increases the rate of tacrolimus metabolism (Induces CYP4503A) and thereby tends to reduce serum levels of tacrolimus. This may lead to reduced therapeutic efficacy of tacrolimus but not enhanced toxicity. Ref: Applied Clinical Pharmacokinetics By Baver, 2nd Edition, Page 687; Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 681-3; Mechanism of Action of BNP7787, A Novel Chemoprotective Agent By Dakshine Shanmugarajah, The University of Texas Health Science Center at San Antonio, Pages 5-6
Pharmacology
null
[ "vancomycin", "tacrolimus", "cisplatin" ]
55,632
d50b85bb-25a8-4d7b-a90a-423694a67f83
A patient with suspected poisoning has brownish oral mucosa and tongue, constricted pupil and greenish brown urine, poisoning is with -
Carbolic acid
oramorph
H2SO4
Cannabis
0a
single
Brownish oral mucosa and tongue (due to corrosion), constricted pupil and greenish brown urine is seen in carbolic acid (phenol) poisoning.
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "morphine" ]
55,634
0bdecde4-3c8d-47c8-a759-863cc890ad9a
Which of the following is not a feature of brain death?
Complete apnea
Absent pupillary reflex
Absence deep tendon reflex
Hea rate unresponsive to atropen
2c
single
Deep tendon reflexes are of spinal cord origin so they may remain intact, although they are usually absent in a case of brain death. The same applies to Babinski sign. Features of brain death are: Lack of response to internal and external environment Absence of spontaneous breathing movements for 3 minutes, in the absence of hypocarbia and while breathing room air No muscular movements with generalized flaccidity and no evidence of postural activity Falling aerial pressure without suppo by drugs or other means Isoelectric EEG recorded spontaneously and during auditory and tactile stimulation Reflexes and its response: Pupils fixed, dilated and nonreactive Absent corneal reflex Absent supraorbital or other pressure response Absence of snouting or sucking response Absent oculovestibular reflex Absent oculocephalic reflex Absent gag reflex and cough reflex These criteria should be present for at least 2 hours and should be ceified by two physicians other than physician of a potential organ recipient. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 15th Edition, Page 139 ; Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 23rd Edition, Page 135 ; The Transplantation and Replacement of Thoracic Organs By David K. C. Cooper, Page 2 ; Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 119-120
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "atropine" ]
55,654
d4feb5cd-8375-4d44-8207-3b3849513d42
Why disotate and NaOCl can not be combined
disotate inhibits tissue dissolving property of NaOCl
NaOCl inhibits the chelating action of disotate
Both
None
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
[ "edta" ]
55,657
9ff47051-c82a-4cb5-b9cb-07a7e3157a4a
Which one of the following drugs is the most common cause of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
Natalizumab
Cituximab
rituxan
Bevacizumab
0a
single
Causes of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy:AIDSHematological malignanciesTransplant recipientsChronic inflammatory diseasesNatalizumab, a humanized monoclonal antibody(ref:Harrison's 18/e p3427)
Medicine
All India exam
[ "rituximab" ]
55,667
c7be1f89-a2e5-4fa4-8f01-210878b5ab10
All are true about starting of β-blocker therapy in a case of CHF except -
They should be started with optimal doses
They should be gradually increased over weeks
Special precautions should be taken in cases of NYHA class III and IV
coreg and betaloc are the preferred drugs
0a
multi
null
Medicine
null
[ "carvedilol", "metoprolol" ]
55,668
d079fe40-6a44-46b2-bb33-b301584b5087
True about brevibloc is: a) It is a cardioselective β–blocker b) It increases airway resistance c) It causes tachycardia d) Its t 1/2 is 4 hrs e) It has negative inotropic activity
de
cd
ae
bc
2c
multi
Esmolol is an ultrashort acting β-blocker (t1/2 < 10 min.) It is inactivated by esterases in blood. β-blocker decreases heart rate and force of contraction (negative inotropic action). Beta blockers can precipitate or aggravate CHF. Selective beta 1 blocker and are less likely to cause bronchoconstriction, thus do not increase airway resistance.
Pharmacology
null
[ "esmolol" ]
55,681
85580af5-f283-44ca-90e4-c83d70951995
tensilon test is helpful in diagnosing
Marcus gunn jaw winking ptosis
myasthenia gravis
Blepharophismosis syndrome
parkinson's
1b
single
Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg no: 142 edrophonium is very sho acting which helps in differentiating myasthenia and cholinergic crisis
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
[ "edrophonium" ]
55,684
d88f75cc-e20b-4b0b-9085-cfd8b605dbe9
Which of the following induction agent causes least respiratory depression?.
seizalam
ketalar
diprivan
Thiopentone
1b
single
Ketamine maintains upper airway reflex and causes less depression of respiratory center compared to other agents
Anaesthesia
JIPMER 2019
[ "ketamine", "midazolam", "propofol" ]
55,687
30e2a59c-1a59-4eb2-abd2-aa46474669bc
Insulin release due to closure of K+ channels is seen with ?
Nataglinide
precose
byetta
januvia
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nataglinide "Sulfonylureas and Meglititinides (nonsulfonylureas) are the two classes of Insulin secretogogues stimulate insulin secretion by interacting with the ATP-sensitive potassium channel on the beta cell."
Pharmacology
null
[ "sitagliptin", "exenatide", "acarbose" ]
55,688
4df8da90-d1ae-4f0d-a5ae-db86ccc18e90
Inducing agent with maximum incidence of vomiting
ketalar
amidate
Thiopentone
diprivan
1b
single
Postoperative nausea and vomiting are more common following etomidate than following propofol or barbiturate induction. Propofol also possesses significant antiemetic activity with small (sub hypnotic) doses (i.e., 10 mg in adults). The median concentration of propofol with an antiemetic effect was 343 ng/mL, which also causes a mild sedative effect. This concentration can be achieved by an initial dose of propofol infusion of 10 to 20 mg followed by 10 ug/kg/minute. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "etomidate", "ketamine", "propofol" ]
55,692
491fcc8f-fae2-49cd-965c-031eb4447c72
Lalloo, 50 years old, a chronic smoker, presents with history of hemoptysis. He was having truncal obesity and hypeension. He had an elevated ACTH level which was not suppressive with high dose decadron. What would be the most probable diagnosis
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
Adrenal adenoma
Pituitary tumour
Ectopic| ACTH producing lung cancer
3d
multi
ectopic increase in ACTH is not suppressed by high dose of dexamethasone ( Harrison 17 pg 2256 )
Medicine
Endocrinology
[ "dexamethasone" ]
55,708
e5bb2ea7-947c-4378-8f75-bfd92cbfd523
Fluoride content is least in
ethrane
isoflo
ultane
suprane
3d
single
(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no.170-171)
Anaesthesia
All India exam
[ "sevoflurane", "enflurane", "isoflurane", "desflurane" ]
55,714
2bc36abf-cdfc-437b-bada-44ba8bfb042c
Which is a treatment of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy in pregnancy?
Levetiracetam
tegretol
['sabril']
dilantin
0a
single
A unique anticonvulsant which suppresses kindled seizures but is ineffective against rna'-'electroshock or PTZ. Clinical efficacy has been sh,,*. -adjuvant medication in refractory paial seizure,; or without secondary generalization. None of the __ anticonvulsant mechanisms of action appear applicable to levetiracetarn. Ref KD Tripati 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "phenytoin", "carbamazepine", "vigabatrin" ]
55,729
1a2a3fb0-7f1f-440c-91ee-9f312240490e
A drug lacking vasodilatory propeies that is effective in angina is:
monoket dinitrate (IDN)
betaloc
adalat
isoptin
1b
single
Beta blockers act in angina by decreasing exercise induced myocardial work by reducing HR. These do not cause vasodilation. Nitrates (IDN) and CCBs (Nifedipine, Verapamil) act by causing vasodilation.
Pharmacology
CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction
[ "isosorbide", "metoprolol", "verapamil", "nifedipine" ]
55,747
0e69f729-4c12-4f7f-b892-9bf11fdec384
Which of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action
tracrium
norcuron
Rocuronimum
Doxacurium
3d
single
Non-depolarising blockers : long acting (>50min): d-tubocurare , pancuronium, doxacurium, pipecuronium Intermediate acting(20-50mins) : Vecuronium, Atracurium, cisatracurium, rocuronium. Sho acting(<20mins) : Mivacurium, Rapacuronium.
Anaesthesia
Muscle relaxants
[ "atracurium", "vecuronium" ]
55,781
9b0f93d8-0581-44a1-a3b9-fd3b0e6cdcb9
All are uses of flagyl except ?
Amoebiasis
Giardiasis
Trichomonas vaginitis
Malaria
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Malaria Metronidazole It has broad spectrum antiprotozoal activity against trichomonas, E. histolytica and G. lamblia. It is also active against many anaerobic bacteria. It does not affect aerobic bacteria. It acts by inhibiting pyruvate : Ferredoxin oxidoreductase (PFOR) enzyme pathway of pyruvate oxidation in anaerobes. In protozoa the mechanism of action is different, i.e. damage to DNA. Metronidazole is a nitroimdazole, nitro group is activated by reduction to form reactive cytotoxic product that damages the DNA. It inhibit cell mediated immunity to induce mutagenesis and causes radiosensitization. Uses Amoebiasis Pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Giardiasis Ulcerative gingivitis, trench mouth. Trichomonas vaginitis H. pylori gastritis, peptic ulcer. Anaerobic bacterial infection
Pharmacology
null
[ "metronidazole" ]
55,788
34d69014-6506-4a39-88eb-bf4e74682d0e
Most common side efiect of mifeprex
Fever
Headache
Diarrhea
Rash
2c
single
Mifepristone (RU 485) It is a 19 norsteroid with potent antiprogestational and significant antiglucocoicoid and antiandrogenic actitity.It is used in termination of pregnancy, cervical ripening postcoital contraceptive, once a month contraceptive, in induction of labour and to treat cushing's syndrome.Commonly repoed side afects include vaginal bleeding, cramping, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dizziness, back pain & tenderness.
Pharmacology
null
[ "mifepristone" ]
55,796
62bb6f97-b300-4164-ade1-c726d87345e4
Patient was given resochin and vibramycin for 7 days. Patients fever decreases in 4 days, but, peripheral smear showed occasional gametocytes of plasmodium falciparum. This type of drug resistance is -
R type
R2 type
R3 type
R4 type
1b
single
Ans. is `b' i.e., R2 type WHO classification of antimalarial drug resistance 1. S-sensitive --> If a sexual parasites have cleared by day 6 from the begining of treatment wihout subsequent recrudescence until day 28. 2. R1-Low grade resistance --> Recrudescence of infection between 7-28 days of completing treatment. 3. R2-High grade resistance --> Reduction of parasitemia by more than 75% at 48 hours of completing treatment but failure to clear the organism within 7 days. 4. R3-4 Parasitemia does not fall by more than 75% within 48 hours of completing treatment and there is no subsequant clearance of asexual parasites.
Pediatrics
null
[ "chloroquine", "doxycycline" ]
55,801
00459d3c-97b5-4885-99a7-56e015febb65
Phase II block is seen with -
SCh infusion
Single doseSCh
mivacron
None of the above
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., SCh infusion o Under certain conditions depolarizing agents produce dual mechanism of neuromuscular blockade which can be divided into two phases :a) Phase 1 blockRapid in onsetResult from persistant depolarization of muscle end plate.Has classical features of depolarization block.Block is not antogonized by anticholinesterases (neostigmine).b) Phase II blockSlow in onsetResults from desensitization of receptor to ACh.Resembles block produced by competitive blockers.Block is partially reversed by anticholinesterases (Neostigmine).o In man normally only phase I block is seen - typical depolarizing block.o Phase II block is seen when fluorinated anaesthetics have been given or when SCh is injected in high dose or infused continuously.o SCh also produces phase II block in patients with atypical or deficient pseudocholinesterase.
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
[ "mivacurium" ]
55,804
3aeeb124-dc7e-4ce8-858e-408aa22b3b24
b blocker with peripheral vasodilator action is ?
coreg
inderal
tenormin
Acebutalol
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carvedilol o Carvedilol is a (31 + 132 + ai adrenoceptor blocker with a : 13 blocking propey of 1 : 9. o It produces peripheral vasodilation due to a-1 blockade as well as calcium channel blockade (direct effect).
Pharmacology
null
[ "propranolol", "atenolol", "carvedilol" ]
55,815
5513c5d3-41f9-49bb-a676-8c1fbf482923
Basanti devi 45 years old women presents with hot flushes after stopping of menstruation. 'Hot Flush' can be relieved by administration of following agents:
Ethinyl estradiol
Testosterone
Fluoxymesteron
danocrine
0a
single
null
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "danazol" ]
55,824
dd5c69d1-6b1b-4d5f-acdf-11576dd117c1
Treatment of tylenol poisoning
N-acetyl cysteine
Activated charcoal
Dialysis
Alkaline diuresis
0a
single
AntidotePoisonAcetylcysteine ParacetamolAmyl nitrite CyanideAtropineOrganophosphateDesferrioxamineIronethanolMethanolFlumazenilBenzodiazepinesGlucoseInsulinREF:THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY: K S NARAYANA REDDY; PAGE NO 367
Forensic Medicine
Poisoning
[ "paracetamol" ]
55,832
21c45d4a-5851-4fc9-9481-a5b387b1f81a
A 45-year-old patient on hemodialysis for one week has noted that his BP is more difficult to control. He repos good compliance with his medications, which include epogen, ferrous sulfate, firvanq, and vitamin D. His BP is 180/99 mm Hg. Most likely cause for the worsening control of his BP is
epogen
Ferrous sulfate
firvanq
Vitamin D
0a
single
The patient most likely has a worsening of his blood pressure due to erythropoietin. This is seen in about 33% of dialysis patients. Vitamin D iron and vancomycin generally do not raise blood pressure. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg 386,499,729
Medicine
Haematology
[ "vancomycin", "erythropoietin" ]
55,840
0712b7f9-44b0-4236-a0c9-9755602c2532
The blood culture from a patient of febrile neutropenia has grown Pseudomonas aeruginosa, It was found to be a producer of extended spectrum beta lactamase enzyme. The best choice of antimicrobial therapy should be -
Ceftazidine + amikin
Aztreonam +amikin
Cefpirome + amikin
Imipenem +amikin
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Impipenem + Amikacin
Pharmacology
null
[ "amikacin" ]
55,844
5bf80900-28cc-4532-a9e5-7c4b4dd20ef1
Effect of oral contraceptive pills is inhibited by :
Rifampicin
tagamet
myambutol
inderal
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Rifampicin
Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics
[ "cimetidine", "ethambutol", "propranolol" ]
55,849
83809729-7e80-45aa-a182-b4415d53c27e
All of the following are side efffect of requip except:
Sedation
Nausea
Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
Hallucination
2c
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ropinirole" ]
55,858
ddfe82fb-d50f-40ee-af29-3e5b72e23c53
Which drug can be safely used in lactating mothers?
penbritin
chloromycetin
proquin
staticin
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin", "chloramphenicol", "ciprofloxacin", "ampicillin" ]
55,894
f316bdfd-28d6-4105-a674-8f6b17df88aa
Drug of choice in Tourette syndrome is -
depakene
Carbamazepene
Haloperiodol
dolophine
2c
single
Ans is 'c' i.e., Haioperidol o Dopamine receptor antagonists are the drugs used to treat tourette syndrome. Haioperidol and pimozide are the most commolnly used drugs.
Psychiatry
Pharmacotherapy Management of Children and Adolescents
[ "valproate", "methadone" ]
55,896
276ae1d3-2bd6-4324-a0aa-1d8fcb9c76b9
narcan is not used during resuscitation of a childwhose mother is on :
>dolophine
>Phenycyclidine
>Amphetamine
>Cocaine
0a
single
Metandone "At the delivery of known opioid dependent women, naloxone should be avoided in resuscitation of the infant because it may precipitate seizures" Naloxone is used to reverse neonatal respiratory depression due to opioid use during labour. It should not be used in cases where mother is opioid dependent. It can result in withdraw! syndrome. When the mother is on opioids, fetus becomes opioid dependent in-utero and the use of naloxone in respiratory resuscitation may result in severe withdrawal symptoms. According to Goodman Gilman "In subjects who are dependent on morphine like opioids (methadone is pharmacologically similar to morphine) small subcutaneous doses of naloxone (5 mg) precipitate a moderate to severe withdraw! syndrome that is very similar to that seen after withdraw' of opioids, except that the syndrome appears within minutes after administration and subsides in about 2 hours."
Pharmacology
null
[ "naloxone", "methadone" ]
55,900
375e55ce-a66b-4ebf-8f93-f93641108b29
glibenese differs from diabinese in that it:
Is more potent
Is longer acting
Does not lower blood sugar in nondiabetic subjects
Is less prone to cause hypoglycemic reaction
0a
single
(Ref: KDT 6/e p266) Second generation (like glipizide) sulfonylureas are more potent than first generation agents (like chlorpropamide). Chlorpropamide is the longest acting sulfonylurea. Sulfonylureas can cause hypoglycemia (even in non-diabetics) due to release insulin.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "glipizide", "chlorpropamide" ]
55,904
b78bcc84-bfd0-4e38-a5df-c71d6225c2b2
The following drug acts by blocking reverse transcriptase
retrovir
Acyclovir
symmetrel
rebetol
0a
single
Zidovudine acts by inhibiting the conversion of RNA to DNA by blocking the enzyme reverse transcriptase. It is a prodrug which has to be conveed to triphosphate form to be active Baveja 5th ed Pg.: 519
Microbiology
Virology
[ "amantadine", "ribavirin", "zidovudine" ]
55,909
b710eccd-1457-4a05-aacd-da390283da29
A patient develops hypoglycemia. He was on insulin and precose. For treatment of above what is to be given?
Glucose
Maltose
Sucrose
Starch
0a
multi
Ans. a. Glucose Hypoglycemic reactions are the most common complication of insulin therapy. All the manifestations of hypoglycemia are relieved by glucose administration. Since the patient is on acarbose, the absorption of complex polysaccharides would be delayed. For this reason, simple sugars like glucose should be administered."Hypoglycemic reactions are the most common complication of insulin therapy. It commonly result from inadequate carbohydrate consumption, unusual physical exertion and targe dose of insulin."Management of Hypoglycemia* All the manifestations of hypoglycemia are relieved by glucose administration* To increase absorption, simple sugar or glucose should be given preferably in liquid form.Management of Hypoglycemia Depends upon the Condition of the PatientMild to Moderate(Patient is conscious, able to swallow)Severe(Patient is unconscious, not able to swallow)* Glucose gel* Dextrose tablets* Any sugar containing beverage* 20-50 ml of 50% glucose solution by IV infusion over a period of 2-3 minutes* If IV therapy is not available, 1 mg of glucagon injected either subcutaneously or IM* If glucagon unavailable, honey syrups* Oral feeding contraindicated
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "acarbose" ]
55,937
a501d215-2f31-4d6e-80ad-39232c9706c3
Side effects of dilantin are :
Gum hypertrophy
Alopecia
Subungal exostosis
Onycholysis
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "phenytoin" ]
55,946
10e57bea-65e2-4048-814b-81d52904552e
All of the following are the advantages of using evista over estrogen in postmenopausal women except:
Reduces fracture rates
Avoids endometrial hyperplasia
Reduces the incidence of venous thrombosis
No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma
2c
multi
Ans. is c, i.e. Reduces the incidence of venous thrombosisRef: Shaw 15th/ed, p69Raloxifene increases the incidence of venous thrombosis rather than decreasing it.It does not have a proliferative effect on endometrium, so it is not associated with an increase in the risk of uterine cancer.Role of raloxifene in breast cancer."The SERM tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist in the breast that is used in the treatment of estrogen-receptor positive breast cancer. Raloxifene also may reduce the risk of breast cancer. Postmenopausal women receiving raloxifene as part of a large osteoporosis treatment trial, experienced a 76% reduction in the risk of invasive breast cancer compared with placebo-treated women." Ref: Novak 14th/ed, pi333
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
[ "raloxifene" ]
55,967
0d7051e7-5621-4e86-b701-8dd5ba768254
pitressin acts by:
Water transpo across collecting duct
Water absorption at medullary ducts
Water secretion at loop of Henle
Water transpo at PCT
0a
single
A i.e. Water transpo across collecting ductVasopressin acts by increasing permeability of collecting ductsQ. to water. The key to the action of vasopressin on collecting duct is aquaporin -2 . The overall effect is retention of water in excess of solute which results in decrease effective osmotic pressure
Physiology
null
[ "vasopressin" ]
55,969
82ddb21b-7ac1-42fb-a030-2974d06a39d7
Lipid lowering drug that significantly reduces lipo protein-a levels is?
lipanthyl
Gemfibrosil
crestor
Nicotinic acid
3d
single
Nicotinic acid is B3 vitamin which in higher doses reduce plasma lipids. When nicotinic acid is given, TGs and VLDL decrease rapidly, followed by a moderate fall in LDH-CH and total CH. It also reduces Lp(a) which is considered more atherogenic. It acts by inhibiting lipoprotein lipase produced from the endothelium From essentials of medical pharmacology K D Tripathi 7th edition page no 640
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "rosuvastatin", "fenofibrate" ]
55,982
b638be33-6277-454b-8b99-ecaea8b47911
A 3–year-old boy is brought to the casualty by his mother with progressive shortness of breath for 1 day. The child has a history of bronchial asthma. On examination, the child is blue, gasping and unresponsive What will you like to do first –
Intubate
Administer 100 % oxygen by mask
Ventilate with bag and mask
Administer nebulised ventolin
1b
single
The symptoms given by the child shows that he is suffering from life-threatening asthma. Presence of any of the following indicates life-threatening Asthma. a) Cyanosis                 b) Silent chest                       c) Poor respiratory effects d) Altered sensorium e) Exhaustion, fatigue        f) PEFR < 30 % of predicted and O2 saturation of < 90 % Management of life-threatening asthma (status asthmaticus) Immediate O2 inhalation Injection of terbutaline or adrenaline (s.c.) Inhalation of salbutamol or terbutaline and ipratropium Injection of hydrocortisone 10mg/kg. After the above-mentioned steps, an arrangement is made to transfer the patient to ICU.
Pediatrics
null
[ "salbutamol" ]
55,985
c22f8aa5-5032-4167-9cba-3b6fdc2f1e55
Which of the following drug is useful in prophylaxis of migraine?
Propranalol
imitrex
Aspirin
Ergotamine
0a
single
Migraine: Propranolol is the most effective drug for chronic prophylaxis or migraine.​ Drug therapy of migraine
Pharmacology
null
[ "sumatriptan" ]
56,015
4180d492-ceed-40ba-bce9-63093b743c5f
Which of the following drug is used for reversal of cerebral vasospasm and infarct following subarachnoid hemorrhage?
nymalize
norvasc
angiozem
isoptin
0a
single
Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) These are the drugs that block L-type of voltage gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and hea. Three groups of CCBs include phenylalkylamines (verapamil, nor-verapamil), benzothiazepines (diltiazem) dihydropyridines (nifedipine, nicardipine, nimodipine, nisoldipine, nitrendipine, isradipine, lacidipine, felodipine and amlodipine). By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents result in vasodilation and decreased activity of the hea (decrease hea rate, AV conduction and contractility). Dihydropyridine (DHP) group has little direct cardiac activity and acts mainly on blood vessels, therefore are also called peripherally acting CCBs. Verapamil and diltiazem have strong direct cardiodepressant (verapamil > diltiazem) activity. CCBs tend to cause reflex tachycardia (because of their vasodilatory action), which is nullified by the direct depressant action on the hea (except DHPs). Nicardipine is longest acting parenteral calcium channel blocker and is drug of choice for hypeensive emergencies. It is combined with beta blockers to avoid tachycardia. Nimodipine is a relatively cerebro-selective vasodilator, thus used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid hemorrhage. Verapamil has maximum depressant action on the hea and it causes vasodilation by causing blockade of calcium channel. It is indicated for the treatment of angina, PSVT, hypeension and hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Diltiazem has lesser effect on the hea than verapamil and is also indicated for these conditions. CCBs are especially suitable for elderly patients, patients with low renin hypeension, patients with diseases like asthma, migraine or peripheral vascular disease and in cases of isolated systolic hypeension. DHPs are safe in pregnancy. CCBs (verapamil and diltiazem) should be avoided in conditions involving decreased conductivity of the hea like sick sinus syndrome, CHF and along with beta blockers (both cause myocardial depression). Clevidipine is an ultrasho acting DHP, recently approved for hypeensive emergencies.
Pharmacology
CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction
[ "diltiazem", "verapamil", "amlodipine", "nimodipine" ]
56,019
edf2bb4c-7277-4e6f-95ab-ab1bcadb92d7
Vitamin synthesized from amino acid is?
Thiamine
Riboflavin
appearex
Niacin
3d
single
Ans. (d) NiacinRef Harper's Biochemistry 28/e, chapter 44
Biochemistry
Amino Acids Basics
[ "biotin" ]
56,022
b274a600-1fca-41bd-b3a9-39d0ec46f69d
Shoest acting benzodiazepine is:
seizalam
xanax
ativan
valium
0a
single
Alprazolam is sho acting hypnotic,lorazepam & diazepam are long acting ,while triazolam &midazolam are ultra sho acting benzodiazepines . Ref: KD Tripathi 8TH ed
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "lorazepam", "alprazolam", "midazolam", "diazepam" ]
56,029
97693991-de85-410d-9017-bea5a289a364
In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is -
ganite 67
Technetium-sulphur-colloid
Technetium-99m
Technetium-99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Technetium-99m linked to Methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP) o Tc 99 is the most common radiopharmaceutical used for imaging in nuclear medicine. For skeletal imaging Diphosphonate Ligands are used as these agents are deposited on sites of actively growing bone. The diphosphonate ligand has a high affinity for actively growing bone. 99Tc-MDP is the most widely used of the diphosphonate ligands- Bone Scintigraphy.RadiopharmaceuticalPrimary useTc-99m Medronate (MDP) (most common)Bone imagingTc-99m Oxidronate (HMDP)Bone imagingTc-99m HEDPBone imagingTc-99m ApcitidePeptide imaging of DVTTc-99m ArcitumomabMonoclonal antibody for colorectal cancerTc-99m albumin colloidImaging of RES (liver/spleen)Tc-99m bicisate (ECD)Cerebral perfusion imagingTc-99m DepreotideSomatostatin receptor-bearing pulmonary massesTc-99m disofenin (DISJDA)Hepatobiliary imagingTc-99m exametazine (HMPAO)Cerebral perfusion imagingTc-99m GluceptateRenal imagingTc-99m Human Serum Albumin (HSA)Imaging of cardiac chambersTc-99m Lidofenin (HIDA)Hepatobiliary imagingTc-99m Macroaggregated Albumin (MAA)Pulmonary perfusionTc-99m MebrofeninHepatobiliary imagingTc-99m MertiatideRenal imagingTc-99m nofetumomab Merpentan NR-LU-10Monoclonal antibody Fab fragment for imaging small cell lung cancerTc-99m Pentetate (DTPA)Renal imaging and function studies; radioaerosol ventilation imagingTc-99m Pyrophosphate (PYP)Avid infarct imagingTc-99m Red Blood Cells (RBCs)Imaging of GI bleeds, cardiac chambersTc-99m SestamibiMyocardial perfusion imaging ; breast tumor imagingTc-99m Succimer (DMSA)Renal imagingTc-99m Sulfur Colloid (SC)Imaging of RES (liver/spleen), gastric emptying, GI bleedsTc-99m TeboroximeMyocardial perfusion imagingTc-99m TetrofosminMyocardial perfusion imaging
Radiology
Radionuclide Therapeutic Intervention
[ "gallium" ]
56,036
c58a65cd-4bf5-4a88-8842-798f54032d44
Panda sign in ganite scan seen in -
Sarcoidosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Seronegative spondyloarthropathy
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sarcoidosis o Panda sign on gallium scan indicates increased uptake of gallium in parotid glands, nasopharynx and lacrymal glands due to inflammation resembling the dark markings on the pandas face,o Panda sign on gallium scan in usually described in sarcoidosis but it is not specific for sarcoidosis. It can also be seen in lymphoma, sjogren's syndrome, after irradiation and in AIDS.Note : 'Face of giant panda sign' and 'claustral sign' on MRI are the two signs suggestive of Wilsons disease.
Radiology
Imaging of Interstitial Lung Disease
[ "gallium" ]
56,054
69038c56-c390-4a84-9a67-7fb075fbc446
Stain used for staining fungal elements -
Acid fast stain
Mucicarmine
hiprex silver
Gram stain
2c
single
Routinely used stains for the demonstration for fungal elements in tissue sections are : - Methenamine silver Periodic acid Schiff (PAS)
Microbiology
null
[ "methenamine" ]
56,076
425bfa6b-b71d-466e-b1ac-fdd332a01f58
A patient presents with a lower gastrointestinal bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcers in the sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask-shaped ulcers. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment -
Intravenous rocephin
Intravenous flagyl
Intravenous steroids and sulphasalazine
Hydrocortisone enemas
1b
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "metronidazole", "ceftriaxone" ]
56,108
32806980-4c83-42d5-8b75-6cb23acd230a
One of the following antihypeensive is NOT used in pregnancy: September 2012, March 2013
vasotec
aldomet
apresoline
adalat
0a
single
Ans. A i.e. Enalapril
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "methyldopa", "hydralazine", "nifedipine", "enalapril" ]
56,130
542510bc-7eed-4918-bee3-05c6778d1895
Which of the following drugs is used to control tachycardia and palpitations in persons with acute symptoms of hypehyroidism ?
cytomel
Propanolol
Methimazole
Potassium iodide
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Propanolol
Pharmacology
null
[ "liothyronine" ]
56,131
51264ab1-3a92-4d05-ba15-08845b714147
Most potent form of vitamin D is:
1, 25- dihydroxy cholecalciferol
7-dihydro cholecalciferol
25-hydroxy cholecalciferol
drisdol (Vit. D2)
0a
single
Vitamin D Ergocalciferol (Vitamin D2) =Formed from ergosterol and cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) and are known as Pro-vitamins =Vitamins D2and D3 are not biologically active. 25-OH- cholecalciferol =Major storage and circulating form of vitamin D 1, 25 dihydroxycholecalciferol =aka Calcitriol =most biologically active form of vitamin D Vitamin D encompasses a group of sterols, which have a hormone-like function. Bioactive vitamin D or calcitriol is a steroid hormone that has long been known for its impoant role in regulating body levels of calcium and phosphorus, and in mineralization of bone.
Biochemistry
Vitamins and Minerals
[ "ergocalciferol" ]
56,149
4d987754-0d3d-4867-87d1-16e74acbc01b
Which of the following irrigant is used during opening of a tooth with acute pulpal abscess?
Normal saline
Hydrogen peroxide
Sodium hypochlorite
disotate
0a
single
null
Dental
null
[ "edta" ]
56,154
abd3f71d-54d1-46d4-9edb-f86754f2085d
All are used in heroin poisoning EXCEPT
catapres
Buprenorphine
talwin
Haloperidol
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e Haloperidol Niraj Ahuja gives a list of the following drug used in opium toxicity -Naloxone, Naltrexone]MethadoneClonidineLAAM (levo-alpha-acetyl methadol)PropoxypheneD' PhenoxylateBuprenorphineLofexidineThis leaves us with haloperidel & Pentazocine.I could not find which of them is used but my reason and intuition says to go with pentazocine.Pentazocine must have some use in heroin poisoning. Pentazocine is an opioid and if methadone, another opioid, can be used, so can pentazocine.
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology
[ "pentazocine", "clonidine" ]
56,163
390e52c0-b0e7-4557-8d3d-05e3822e6ca4
IV administration of which drug is most painful among the following
Methohexitol
diprivan
amidate
ketalar
1b
single
* Pain on injection is the most commonly repoed adverse event during propofol administration. Not seen with etomidate due to use of etomidate in lipid emulsion vehicle. Ref:- Stoelting's Pharmacology and Physiology in Anesthetic Practice 5th edition Pg num:- 168,170
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "etomidate", "ketamine", "propofol" ]
56,164
fd09e0ce-7f83-4478-af20-0a22e25cfc63
Which of the following drug is associated with the highest cardiac moality?
Rofecoxib
Nicorandil
Losaan
betaloc
0a
single
Coxibs are selective cox2 inhibitors- Basically, Coxibs are NSAIDS They won't cause gastric acidity as they won't exe their effect on cox-1 but as there is an increased chance of cardiac events like hea attack due to excess thrombosis Excess thrombosis is due to decrease in PGI2 and enhanced TXA2 Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "metoprolol" ]
56,168
1040843f-5d78-4782-b05e-a841fb715174
Which of the following antiepileptic agents acts on the GABAergic system to decrease the uptake of GABA into neurons and glial cells?
['sabril']
Progabide
neurontin
Tiagabine
3d
single
It potentiates GABA mediated neuronal inhibition by depressing GABA transpoer GAT 1 which removes synaptically released GABA into neurons and glial cells REF: KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED. page 421
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "gabapentin", "vigabatrin" ]
56,171
a030a480-9736-4d22-8f6c-5304fa13e196
Hoffman's elimination is seen with:
tracrium
pavulon
quelicin
zemuron
0a
single
Ans: A (Atracurium) Ref: Mi Her text hook of Anaesthesia. 6th edition.ExplanationAtracuriumAtracurium and eisatracuriuni (stereoisomer of atracurium) are the only two drugs metabolized by Hoffman eliminationAtracurium is a short acting non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockerAtracurium is metabolized by Non-specific esterases & Hoffman's elimination, independent of renal and hepatic metabolismHence Drug of choice in hepatic and renal failureHoffman's eliminationIt is the spontaneous non-enzymatic chemical breakdown at physiologic PH and temperatureHoffman's elimination of atracurium gives a metabolite called laudanosine which can precipitate seizuresIt triggers the release of histamine leading to hypotension, tachycardia & bronchospasmDosage - 0.5mg/kg (See the following table) AtracuriumCisatracurium(stereoisomer of Atracurium)PotencyLessMoreNon specific ester hydrolysisYesNoHoffman eliminationYesYesMetabolite - LaudanosheQuantity producedMoreLessCNS toxicity seizuresYesNoHistamine releaseYesNo
Unknown
null
[ "suxamethonium", "atracurium", "rocuronium", "pancuronium" ]
56,187
0d648bf2-dcdb-402c-adcc-b1db1b88d291
Drug therapy of Paget's disease (Osteitis Deformans) include all except-
fosamax
Etidronate
Calcitonin
Plicamycin
3d
multi
Paget's disease of bone (PDB) is a common condition characterised by focal areas of increased and disorgan ised bone remodelling. It mostly affects the axial skele ton, and bones that are commonly involved include the pelvis, femur, tibia, lumbar spine, skull and scapula. MANAGEMENT-The main indication for treatment with inhibitors of bone resorption is bone pain thought to be due to increased metabolic activity (Box 25.82). It is often difficult Management The main indication for treatment with inhibitors of bone resorption is bone pain thought to be due to increased metabolic activity (Box 25.82). It is often difficult to dif ferentiate this from pain due to complications such as bone deformity, nerve compression symptoms and OA. If there is doubt, it can be wohwhile giving a therapeu tic trial of antiresorptive therapy to determine whether the symptoms improve. A positive response indicates that the pain was due to increased metabolic activity. The aminobisphosphonates pamidronate, zoledronate and risedronate are more effective than simple bisphos phonates such as etidronate and tiludronate at suppress ing bone turnover in PDB, but their effects on pain are similar. Although bisphosphonates suppress bone turn over in PDB, there is no evidence to show that they alter the natural history or prevent complications. Calcitonin can be used as an alternative but is less convenient to administer and more expensive. Repeated courses of bisphosphonates or calcitonin can be given if symptoms recur. If symptoms do not respond to antiresorptive therapy, it is likely that the pain is due to a complication of the disease and this should be managed according to the principles described on page 1085. DAVIDSONS PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF MEDICINE 22ND EDITION PAGE NO-1128,1129
Medicine
Endocrinology
[ "alendronate" ]
56,189
37024d08-822e-4598-94e9-dd5eeb599266
All of the following are true about ACE inhibitors except
Drug of choice for hypertension in Diabetes Mellites and chronic kidney disease
They are contraindicated in Bilateral Renal Artery stenosis
Fosinopril is safe in renal failure
capoten & zestril are pro drugs
3d
multi
Captopril and lisinopril are the only ACE inhibitors which are not pro drugs.
Pharmacology
null
[ "lisinopril", "captopril" ]
56,229
a46fe610-90f9-411d-b95d-8b81b13af5ed
Which of the following agents is recommended as first line drug for treatment of gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
Sorafenib
Geftinib
gleevec
Erlotinib
2c
single
Imatinib is drug of choice for GIST. Imatinib resistant cases can be treated with sunitinib. Tumors resistant to both imatinib and sunitinib are treated with regorafenib.
Pharmacology
Targeted Anticancer Drugs and Immunosuppressants
[ "imatinib" ]
56,230
4c784044-341f-4d57-b0ff-7140d0f59646
All of the following are true statements about Down syndrome, except:
Most common inheritable cause of mental retardation
In quadruple test, Inhibin-A level is reduced
Most common cause is meiotic non-disjunction
In triple test (AFP |, incurin |, hcG |)
1b
multi
ANTENATAL SCREENING FOR DOWN SYNDROME: TRIPLE TEST b-hCG || Maternal Serum Alpha fetoprotein (MSAFP) || Unconjugated Estriol (uE3) || QUADRUPLE TEST b-hCG || Maternal Serum Alpha fetoprotein (MSAFP) || Unconjugated Estriol (uE3) || Dimeric Inhibin-A || OTHER OPTIONS Down syndrome is most common inheritable cause of mental retardation- true Most common cause of Down syndrome is meiotic non-disjunction, followed by Robesonian translocation- true
Pathology
Specific Cytogenetic Disorders
[ "estriol" ]
56,246
ffd8c577-6d63-484a-8b9f-8336a08a9ba3
Folinic acid is specifically indicated for
Anaemia associated with renal failure
Pernicious anaemia
Counteracting toxicity of high dose trexall
Prophylaxis of neural tube defect in the offspring of women receiving anticonvulsant medication
2c
multi
Methotrexate toxicity:- Folinic acid (Leucovorin, citrovorum factor, 5-formyl-THFA) is an active coenzyme form which does not need to be reduced by DHFRase before it can act. Methotrexate is a DHFRase inhibitor; its toxicity is not counteracted by folic acid, but antagonized by folinic acid. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-611
Pharmacology
Hematology
[ "methotrexate" ]
56,267
9d1da956-d88a-4b03-bb64-307844bd92e0
Which of the following is the best inotrope agent for use in Right Hea Failure Secondary to pulmonary hypeension-
dobutrex
lanoxin
Milrinone
fluothane
2c
multi
Milrinone, commonly known and marketed under the brand name Primacor, is a medication used in patients who have hea failure. It is a phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor that works to increase the hea's contractility and decrease pulmonary vascular resistance. Milrinone also works to vasodilate which helps allete increased pressures (afterload) on the hea, thus improving its pumping action. While it has been used in people with hea failure for many years, studies suggest that milrinone may exhibit some negative side effects that have caused some debate about its use clinically Overall, milrinone suppos ventricular functioning of the hea by decreasing the degradation of cAMP and thus increasing phosphorylation levels of many components in the hea that contribute to contractility and hea rate. Milrinone use following cardiac surgery has been under some debate because of the potential increase risk of postoperative atrial arrhythmias.] However, in the sho term milrinone has been deemed beneficial to those experiencing hea failure and an effective therapy to maintain hea function following cardiac surgeries. There is no evidence of any long term beneficial effects on survival.In critically ill patients with evidence of cardiac dysfunction there is limited good quality evidence to recommend its use Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) causes increased activation of protein kinase A (PKA). PKA is an enzyme that phosphorylates many elements of the contractile machinery within the hea cell. In the sho term this leads to an increased force of contraction. Phosphodiesterases are enzymes responsible for the breakdown of cAMP. Therefore, when phosphodiesterases lower the level of cAMP in the cell they also lower the active fraction of PKA within the cell and reduce the force of contraction. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase-3 inhibitor. This drug inhibits the action of phosphodiesterase-3 and thus prevents degradation of cAMP. With increased cAMP levels there is an increase in the activation of PKA. This PKA will phosphorylate many components of the cardiomyocyte such as calcium channels and components of the myofilaments. Phosphorylation of calcium channels permits an increase in calcium influx into the cell. This increase in calcium influx results in increased contractility. PKA also phosphorylates potassium channels promoting their action. Potassium channels are responsible for repolarization of the cardiomyocytes therefore increasing the rate at which cells can depolarize and generate contraction. PKA also phosphorylates components on myofilaments allowing actin and myosin to interact more easily and thus increasing contractility and the inotropic state of the hea. Milrinone allows stimulation of cardiac function independently of b-adrenergic receptors which appear to be down-regulated in those with hea failure. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 467
Medicine
C.V.S
[ "digoxin", "halothane", "dobutamine" ]
56,272
f8da2bfc-2400-4bfa-9e7d-5948a17036d1
All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic disease except -a) cytotec is the drug of choice in patients on NSAIDSb) DU is preventable by the use of single night time H2 blockersc) losec may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockersd) Mesoprostol is DOC in pregnant patients
b
c
ad
ab
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
[ "misoprostol", "omeprazole" ]
56,279
2ded09d1-0bcb-48a4-a9ae-ae629e0b941d
All are used in nicotine de-addiction, except: NIMHANS 10, 11
wellbutrin
catapres
Nicotine gum
Buspirone
3d
multi
Ans. Buspirone
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "bupropion", "clonidine" ]
56,292
f5f9cc7a-0ab0-4742-ab72-df9fc9067ce5
Falsely elevated HbA1C is seen in?
Thalassemia
Recovery from acute blood loss
epogen supplementation in CKD
Splenectomy
3d
multi
HbA1C values are affected by conditions that affect RBC survival or mean erythrocyte age. Falsely low HbA1C Falsely elevated HbA1C Recovery from acute blood loss Haemolytic anaemia IV iron EPO injections for CKD Vitamin C supplements Vitamin E supplements Splenectomy Iron deficiency Anaemia
Medicine
Diabetes Mellitus
[ "erythropoietin" ]
56,293
287b089f-0815-4ce6-a1b3-b3b011d5e4e2
Enterobacteriacae is classfied based on-
osmitrol fermentation
Catalase and oxidase reaction
Oxygen requirment
Lactose fermentation
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lactose fermentation o Initially Enterobacteriacea was classifed on the bases of their lactose fermenting ability on MacConkey's medium, the most popular medium for the isolation of fecal bacilli.o Lactose fermenters produce pink/bright red colonies on MacConkey's agar , while lactose non-fermenters produce pale colonies :Lactose fermenters (rapid) : These are Coliforms, e.g. Escherichia. Klebsiella and Enterobacter aerogenes.Late lactose fermenters (slow) : These are Shigella Sonnei, Serratia, Citrobacter, Arizona, Providencia and Ervinia.Non-lactose fermenters : Shigella except Shigella Sonnei, Salmonella, Proteus.
Microbiology
Bacteria
[ "mannitol" ]
56,296
5652acbf-adaa-4b10-9a04-6a666fb003d5
Intraocular pressure is increased by which anaesthetic-
ketalar
diprivan
ultane
isoflo
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ketamine o Ketamine increases intra-ocular tension ->> Contraindicated in glaucoma & open eye surgery.
Anaesthesia
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation And Mechanical Ventilation
[ "ketamine", "isoflurane", "sevoflurane", "propofol" ]
56,307
69a2d92a-bb44-4ad5-9d8b-5aa3e08fe76a
All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer Chemotherapy regimen EXCEPT:
matulane
vincasar
Mechlorethamine
trexall
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "procarbazine", "vincristine", "methotrexate" ]
56,366
064ad927-e0d6-47bd-bf46-1d5359affbfa
Second messenger for oxoject-
cAMP
cGMP
IP3-DAG
NO
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., IP3-DAGPhospholipase IP3 - DAG system* Activation of phospholipase (by stimulatory G protein) hydrolyses the membrane phospholipid phosphatidyl inositol 4, 5 bisphosphate (PIP2) to generate the second messenger inositol I, 4, 5 - triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).* IP3 mobilizes Ca+2 from intracellular organelles - increased cytosolic Ca+2. DAG enhances Protein Kinase 'C' activation by Ca+2. Ca+2 acts as third messenger in this type of transduction mechanism and mediates the physiological effects of drugs.* Protein kinase-C phosphorylates various intracellular proteins (threonine, serine or tyrosine residue), causing their activation or inactivation.* Example - Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), GnRh, ADH Vasopressin (VI receptor, vasopressor action), oxytocin, cholecystokinin, PDGF, Gastrin, Catecholamines (some actions via a1 receptors), Angiotensin II (vascular smooth muscle), Substance P, Histamine - H1, muscarinic M1, M3
Physiology
Endocrinology and Reproduction
[ "oxytocin" ]
56,367
0a7ced91-ce32-4bcf-85ec-6207a2964cbf
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding sulfonamides?
azulfidine is absorbed well from GIT
Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus
Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to Nocardia species.
0a
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "sulfasalazine" ]
56,368
99391035-d305-481b-926c-c70a3754fafa
Which of the following is the treatment of choice in patients with neurogenic diabetes insipidus?
pitressin
stimate
Terlipressin
cordarone
1b
single
The signs and symptoms of uncomplicated pituitary DI can be eliminated completely by treatment with Desmopressin (DDAVP), a synthetic analogue of AVP. It acts selectively at V2 receptors to increase urine concentration and decrease urine flow in a dose-dependent manner. It is also more resistant to degradation than AVP and has a three-to four fold longer duration of action. Desmopressin (DDAVP) can be given by IV or SC injection, nasal inhalation, or oral tablet.
Medicine
null
[ "desmopressin", "vasopressin", "amiodarone" ]
56,374
c86b6dbf-71c9-4fc8-9b1e-8fe9445b5307
A patient presented with fever for 8 days and difficulty in breathing for two days, on examination there is red painless rash found on the left side of the chest. Treatment will be
tamiflu
Streptomycin
vibramycin
rocephin
2c
single
(c) DoxycyclineRef: Harrison 18th ed.,pg. 14081,1413The presence of rash over the chest is typically an eschar, which is black necrotic, painless. Usually it is present in axilla, groin region.INFECTIOUS AGENTSRickettsial infections are caused by various bacterial species from the genera Rickettsia, Orientia, Ehrlichia, Neorickettsia, Neoehrlichia, and Anaplasma. Rickettsia spp. are classically divided into the typhus group and spotted fever group (SFG). Orientia spp, make up the scrub typhus group. The rickettsial pathogens most likely to be encountered during travel outside the United States include R. africae (African tick- bite fever), R. conorii (Mediterranean spotted fever), R. rickettsii (known as both Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Brazilian spotted fever), O. tsutsugamushi (scrub typhus), and R. typhi (murine or fleaborne typhus).TRANSMISSIONMost rickettsial pathogens are transmitted by ectoparasites such as fleas, lice, mites, and ticks. Organisms can be transmitted by bites from these ectoparasites or by inoculating infectious fluids or feces from the ectoparasites into the skin. Inhaling or inoculating conjunctiva with infectious material may also cause infection for some of these organisms. Transmission of some rickettsial diseases after transfusion or organ transplantation is rare but has been reported.EPEDIMIOLOGYEhrlichia, Neorickettsia, Neoehrlichia, and Anaplasma are not seen in Indian subcontinent.Rickettsial infections have been reported in India for several decades. During the World War II era, there were many deaths due to scrub typhus in this region. It was thought that these infections declined over time; however, several reports in the past decade indicate the presence of disease in various parts of India, such as the Himalayan region, the northeast, and the south.TREATMENTThe drug most commonly used is doxycycline or tetracycline, but Azithromycin or chloramphenicol is an alternative. As Rickettsial spp. Lack specific cell wall, so beta lactams and cephalosporins are not indicated in management of Rickettsial diseases.
Medicine
Infection
[ "ceftriaxone", "doxycycline", "oseltamivir" ]
56,387
48fc119d-a635-4132-af4d-5958ac33625f
Which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs has selective action on hypoxic tumor cells -
Mitomycin C
platinol
adriamycin
5 Flurouracil
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mitomycin Mitomycin belongs to the antibiotic anticancer group.These anticancer drugs are obtained from microorganisms and have prominent antitumour action.Mechanism of action of mitomycinIntracellularly it is converted to a metabolite, which acts as an alkylating agent that kills cells at G1-M phase.It inhibits DNA synthesis and cross links DNA at the N6 position of adenine and at the O6 and N7 position of guanine.In addition single stranded breakage of DNA and chromosomal breaks are caused by mitomycin.Some important points about mitomycin.Mitomycin acts preferentially on hypoxic cellsIt is a potent radiosensitizerIt is absorbed consistently from G.L tract so it administered by intravenous infusionUses of mitomycinUsed as a combination therapy for the t/t of carcinoma of the colon or stomach.It is also used by direct instillation into the bladder to treat superficial carcinomas of bladder.Adverse effectMajor toxic effect is myelosuppression (Pancytopenia)Hemolytic uremic syndrome, it is caused due to drug induced endothelial damage.
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
[ "doxorubicin", "cisplatin" ]
56,390
eeb89a1e-eaa1-4715-b411-1cab52fe130e
A 30-year-old construction worker presented with exeional pain in his B/L forearms and hands. There is history of chronic cigarette smoking. O/E, Faint radial and ulnar pulses Easily palpable brachial pulse Angiography of the hand was done. Which of the following is the best treatment of the above condition: -
lovenox
orapred
jantoven
Smoking cessation
3d
multi
1st image shows the gangrene of the digits. 2nd image shows the smooth tapering segmental lesions in small aerial distal vesels. This is a case of Thromboangitis obliterans/ Buerger's disease. Young male Heavy cigarette smoker Inflammatory occlusive vascular disorder Triad of claudication, Raynaud's phenomena and migratory superficial vein thrombophlebitis. Prognosis is worse in patients who continue to smoke. Best treatment is cessation of smoking. Cilastozol has no proven role.
Unknown
Integrated QBank
[ "prednisolone", "enoxaparin", "warfarin" ]
56,394
1e06a8d9-7877-4bd1-aa98-3aad06b830e8
fluothane causes -
Bradycardia
Fall in BP
Uterine relaxation
All of the above
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., AH of the above Halothaneo It is a volatile liquid with sweet odour, nonirritating and noninflammable.o It is a potent anaesthetic with poor analgesic and muscle relaxant properties.o Halothane causes direct depression of myocardial contractility by reducing intracellular Ca+2.o It causes fall in BP and CO.o Heart rate decreases due to vagal stimulation.o It tends to sensitize the heart to arrhythmogenic action of adrenaline - contraindicated in pheochromocytoma.o It causes greater depression of respiration and ventilation perfusion mismatch.o It dilates the bronchi - inhalation agent of choice in asthmatics (intravaneous anaesthetic of choice in asthmatics is ketamine).o It is a hepatotoxic drug and can also cause malignant hyperthermia (Succinylcholine accentuate it),o Recovery' is smooth and reasonably quick,o It causes postanaesthetic shivering and chills.o It inhibits intestinal and uterine contrac tions - agent of choice for assisting external or internal version during late pregnancy.o Because its uterine relaxant action it is contraindicated during labour.o It is particularly suitable for induction and maintenance in children and as maintenance anaesthetic in adults.
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
[ "halothane" ]
56,402
a577ab7b-9a6f-466d-9a82-3f9251fa3ca5
Which among the following is not formed by kidney?
epogen
Renin
Vitamin D
Aldosterone
3d
single
Ans: d (Aldosterone) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/ p.454)Kidney produces 3 hormones1) 1,25(OH) cholecalciferol (vitamin D)2) Renin3) ErythropoietinAldosterone: is produced by Zona Glomerulosa of adrenal cortex.Erythropoietin: by the interstitial cells in the peritubular capillaries in kidneys (85%) and perivenous hepatocytes of liver (15%).Renin: by the juxta glomerular cells of the kidney.Renin Angiotensin SystemAngiotensinogen (from liver) - found in alpha 2 globulin fraction of plasma Renin (from JG cells)Angiotensin I ACE (Angiotensin converting enz. from Pulm. endothelium)Angiotensin IIMetabolism of vitamin D
Physiology
Kidneys and Body Fluids
[ "erythropoietin" ]
56,405
d6976712-a822-4707-969f-d9724434b601
Hallucination of worms crawling over the body occurs in:
Cocaine
oramorph
Cannabis
LSD
0a
multi
Ans: a (Cocaine) Ref: Reddy, 27th ed, p. 535Hallucination of worms crawling over the body occurs in cocaine poisoning - Magnan symptoms.Tactile hallucination -Delerium tremens.Amphetamine poisoning.Chronic cocaine poisoning.Atropine overdose.Lilliputian hallucination -Acute cocaine poisoning.Delirium tremens.
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology
[ "morphine" ]
56,409
d0203507-a565-48dd-af29-890f9e1b9b3c
The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is -
proquin
Amphotericin B
5-Fluorocytosine
griseofulvic
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amphoterecin B o In this question most probably the question has been wrongly framed. o None of the drugs given in the question inhibits synthesis of ergosterol. o Anyway, the drugs having any action on ergosterol is Amphotericin B.
Pharmacology
null
[ "ciprofloxacin", "griseofulvin" ]
56,415
8e2cc24c-7b7d-47de-b773-055e39566f6d
Arrange the following drugs according to their half life in increasing order 1. cordarone 2. Adenosine 3. brevibloc 4. losec
1-2-4-3
2-3-1-4
4-3-1-2
2-3-4-1
3d
single
Amiodarone is longest acting anti-arhythmic drug. Its half life is more than 3 weeks. Adenosine is shoest acting anti-arrhythmic drug having half life less than 10 seconds. Esmolol is an ultra sho acting beta blocker. It is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase and thus has half life less than 5 minutes. Omeprazole has half life of 1-2 hours but works for 24 hours due to irreversible inhibition of proton pump. Thus, the sequence is Adenosine < Esmolol < Omeprazole < Amiodarone
Pharmacology
Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia
[ "amiodarone", "esmolol", "omeprazole" ]
56,417
61cd7a4e-7376-40ef-9044-20cec5af5408
fosamax acts by
Inhibit osteoclast
Inhibit osteoblast
Inhibit both
None of these
0a
multi
(Refer: K. D. Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6th edition, pg no:334) Inhibit osteoclast
Unknown
null
[ "alendronate" ]
56,423
8371d96f-87c1-4f25-8c83-ddef2624c05c
Which of the following is true regarding 5-HT derivatives: March 2009
Cisapride is selective 5-HT4 antagonist
Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 agonist
periactin is 5-HT2A agonist
imitrex action is agonistically 5-HT 1B/1D receptor mediated
3d
multi
Ans. D: Sumatriptan action is agonistically 5-HT 113/1D receptor mediated Cisapride and renzapride are selective 5-HT4 agonists. Ondansetron is a selective 5-HT3 antagonist which inhibits vomiting by blocking these receptors in brainstem as well as in gut wall. Cyproheptadine is 5-HT2A antagonist and has additional H1 antihistaminic, anticholinergic and sedative propeies. Sumatriptan and other triptan are selective 5-HT 113/1D agonists, constricts cerebral blood vessels and has emerged as the most effective treatment of acute migraine attacks.
Pharmacology
null
[ "sumatriptan", "cyproheptadine" ]
56,430
19ad9221-dab8-4f5e-921c-08de1358b3ad
A 55-year-old man presents with gradually increasing shortness of breath and leg swelling over the past month. He has also noticed orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. He takes zocor for hypercholesterolemia and esidrix for hypertension. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg; there is mild jugular venous distension, soft bibasilar crackles, an S3 gallop, and minimal pedal edema. An echocardiogram shows left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 40% without segmental wall-motion abnormality. The patient desires to keep medications to a minimum What change in his management would you recommend at this time?
Add carospir
Add an ACE inhibitor and a beta-blocker
Add lanoxin
Add a calcium-channel blocker
1b
multi
There is very good evidence that ACE inhibitors should be used in patients with heart failure (HF) and a depressed left ventricular ejection fraction. ACE inhibitors stabilize left, ventricular remodeling, improve symptoms, reduce hospitalization, and decrease mortality. Beta- blocker therapy represents a major advance in the treatment of patients with HF and depressed systolic function. These drugs interfere with the harmful effects of sustained activation of the adrenergic nervous system by competitively blocking beta-receptors. When given with ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers stabilize left ventricular remodeling, improve patient symptoms, reduce hospitalization, and decrease mortality. An aldosterone antagonist is recommended for patients with NYHA class III or IV symptoms who have a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 35% and who are still symptomatic despite receiving standard therapy with diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Likewise, digoxin may improve symptoms and decrease hospitalization rates in patients with HF but has not been shown to prolong life. Neither of these drugs is indicated in this patient with mild symptoms. Furosemide is used to improve symptoms but does not prolong survival. Since this patient wants to minimize medications, an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker are better first choices because they confer a survival advantage. An implantable defibrillator is indicated in systolic heart failure with left ventricular ejection fraction less than 35% in order to prevent sudden cardiac death but is not indicated in this patient whose ejection fraction is 40%.
Medicine
C.V.S.
[ "digoxin", "spironolactone", "simvastatin", "hydrochlorothiazide" ]
56,445
a71c8a8e-5186-4e84-b283-87e3e0f7d893
Treatment of choice for Luminal infection of E. histolytica
Tinidazole
flagyl
humatin
stromectol
2c
single
Amoebic dysentry or amebic liver abscess - Tinidazole and metronidazole. Luminal infection - Paramomycin and Iodoquinol.
Microbiology
null
[ "metronidazole", "ivermectin", "paromomycin", "luminal" ]
56,458
8e7c25fb-54fb-4999-8d6d-48a431192008
The following is the anesthetic of choice in status asthamaticus
Thiopentone
Althesin
ketalar
Barbiturate
2c
single
Ketamine
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine" ]
56,466
2cedb231-a155-4666-8a35-5bb9bb15a9af
The syndrome of geographic tongue should be treated by
Excision of the lesion
Penicillin therapy
Topical application of nilstat
Routine observation at recall time
3d
multi
null
Pathology
null
[ "nystatin" ]
56,474
d1c5087f-183e-4c58-aa4d-1b82d4b6459f
Drug used for post-operative shivering ?
atropen
demerol
Thiopenone
quelicin
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pethidine Post-anaesthesia shivering (PAS) Post anaesthesia (post operative) shivering occurs in 40% of patients recovering from general anaesthesia. Some time it is preceded by central hypothermia and peripheral vasoconstriction, indicating that it is a thermoregulatory mechanism. Pethidine is most effective drug for treatment of PAS. Other drugs used are -clonidine, doxapram, ketanserin, alfentonil, butorphanol, chlorpromazine.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "suxamethonium", "pethidine", "atropine" ]
56,475
3c0afc14-51d9-4b53-abd4-4ebc84af13ea
Potassium supplementation often is necessary for patients taking which drug?
carospir
dyrenium
lasix
Amiloride
2c
single
Spironolactone is a competitive antagonist of aldosterone and therefore, may cause hyperkalemia if administered concomitantly with potassium supplements. Likewise, the potassium-sparing diuretics triamterene and amiloride cause potassium retention. Furosemide promotes renal potassium excretion and often requires concomitant supplemental potassium administration. Ref: Reilly R.F., Jackson E.K. (2011). Chapter 25. Regulation of Renal Function and Vascular Volume. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds),Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Pharmacology
null
[ "furosemide", "spironolactone", "triamterene" ]
56,476
01a61937-4e59-4020-8794-3004c5e23e48
Drug used to prolong the action of LA in Hypeensive pts
catapres
Felypressin
Dexmeditomidate
Noradrenalin
1b
single
Vasoconstrictor are used along with local anaestheticsAdrenaline is the most commonly used vasoconstrictor. Less commonly phenylephrine is also used. Felypressin (synthetic vasopressin) does not affect BP & HR - Preferred in patients with cardiovascular disease(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no.270-271)
Anaesthesia
All India exam
[ "clonidine" ]
56,480
a66063f7-5950-4154-b5a4-58e471a15cf1
The erectile disorder in males is more specifically treated with which of the following agents ?
viagra
valium
prozac
Zolpidem
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sildenafil o Sildenafil, vardenafil and tadalafil are phosphodiesterase V inhibitors indicated for erectile dysfunction.
Pharmacology
null
[ "sildenafil", "fluoxetine", "diazepam" ]
56,488
829d554a-475c-406e-9164-a167f4d410ee
Endoscope tube is sterilized by -
glutarol
Formalin
Autoclaving
Boiling
0a
single
Glutaraldehyde is especially effective against the tubercle bacilli, fungi, and viruses. It is less toxic and irritant to eyes and skin than formaldehyde. it has no deleterious effects on the cement or lenses of instruments such as cystoscope and bronchoscpe. It can be safely used to treat corrugated rubber, anesthetic tubes, face masks, plastic endotracheal tubes, metal instruments, and polythene tubings REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:36
Microbiology
general microbiology
[ "glutaraldehyde" ]
56,511
3696c929-35e4-445c-91d0-2a47bd424d33
Which of the following is used to treat trexall toxicity :
Folic acid
Folinic acid
Riboflavin
Cyanocobalamine
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "methotrexate" ]
56,521
9b7f895c-66ee-4de5-a529-97ffb53db393
Drugs that can be used for treatment of hypeension in a diabetic patient are Except
Losaan
capoten
Amilodipine
Hydrochlohiaxide
3d
multi
ACE inhibitor (captopril) and AT1 antagonists(losaan) First Choice antihypeensive drugs for diabetic patients Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine and Alpha blockers like Prisoner also safe in diabetics Thiazidess and diuretics should be avoided in diabetics
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "captopril" ]
56,529
3ad0d5c5-ab36-4819-8a72-1ddfc29fcff5
Which of following HMG CoA reductase inhibitor has longest half life?
lipitor
zocor
crestor
Pitavastatin
2c
single
Rosuvastatin - Longest acting Pitavastatin - most potent - Statins have maximum LDL lowering capacity. - Given at night because HMG CoA reductase is maximum active at night but Atorvastatin and Rosuvastatin are long acting drugs, thus can be given any time of the day. - Statins can cause myopathy
Pharmacology
Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia
[ "atorvastatin", "rosuvastatin", "simvastatin" ]
56,530
ea553791-31c7-4052-b3a4-dc0f1eedb0c4
Anesthectic agent with least minimum alveolar concentration (MAC):
Nitrous oxide
isoflo
suprane
Xenon
1b
single
Ans: (b) IsofluraneRef: Stoelting's Pharmacology and Physiology in Anesthetic Practice, 4th editionMAC (MINIMUM ALVEOLAR CONCENTRATION)MAC is the concentration of inhalational agent in alveoli at 1 atm that prevents skeletal muscle movement in response to a supra-maximal painful stimulus (surgical skin incision) in 50% of patients.It is used to measure potency of inhalational agentsMAC[?]1/PotencyPotency is a measure of drug activity expressed in terms of the amount required to produce an effect of given intensity.Lesser amounts of drug required to produce maximum effect is called as more potent drug.For inhalational anaesthetic agents potency are measured by MAC valueLesser the MAC more is the potency (MAC [?]1 /Potency)Inhalational agents order from maximum potent to minimum potentMeth oxyflurane>Trilene>Halothane>Chloroform>Isoflurane>Enflurane>Sevoflurane>Ether>Sevoflurane>Xenon>N2O*MAC of Common Inhalational Agents:Inhalational agentsMACMethoxyflurane0.16Trilene0.2Halothane0.75Chloroform0.8Isoflurane1.17Enflurane1.63Sevoflurane1.8Ether1.9Desflurane6.6Xenon71N20104Factor Affecting MAC:Increase of MACDecrease of MACNo Change of MAC*. Hyperthermia*. Hypernatremia (|Na)*. Sympathomimetic drugs*. Cyclosporine*. Excessive pheomelanin production (red hair)*. Hypothermia*. Increasing age (6% per decade)*. Alpha 2 agonist agents*. Acute alcohol ingestion*. Pregnancy and postpartum upto 72 hours*. Lithium*. Lidocaine*. Hyponatremia*. Ketanserine*. Adrenergic antagonist agents*. BP<40 mm Hg*. PaO<38 mm Hg*. Chronic alcohol abuse*. Gender*. Duration of anaesthesia*. PaCO 15 - 95 mm Hg*. PaO>38 mm Hg*. BP>40 mm Hg*. Hyper or Hypokalemia*. Thyroid dysfunction*. Anaesthetic metabolism
Anaesthesia
General Anesthesia
[ "isoflurane", "desflurane" ]
56,533
1fb0c8e6-be65-48ab-9d2d-24191ab7671f
A sexually active, long distance truck driver&;s wife comes with vaginal discharge. Under Syndromic Approach, which drug should be given?
flagyl, zithromax, diflucan
flagyl
zithromax
flagyl and diflucan
0a
multi
<p> Metronidazole,azythromycin,fluconazole. It is syndromic management of vaginal discharge for symptomatic paner. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:334. <\p>
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
[ "metronidazole", "azithromycin", "fluconazole" ]
56,536
861c5fb1-4985-4255-ba23-dc69701301a0
Which of the following is not monitored in a patient on trexall therapy
Liver function tests
Lung function test
Eye examnination
Hemogramz
2c
single
Methotrexate toxicities include. Myelosuprresion. Nephrotoxicity Hepatotoxicity Nuerotoxicity Photosentivity Pulmonary toxicity Refer CMDT 2010,1501
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "methotrexate" ]
56,552
8c143d16-cf1b-477a-b7a4-b223b901fe56
Which of the following is being used in trauma patients to control bleeding
Traneximic acid
Haemocoagulase
Aprotinin
arixtra
0a
single
Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic drug that reduces the risk of moality from bleeding in both blunt and penetrating trauma. One gram is given intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by a fuher 1 g dose over 8 hours. Tranexamic acid should be given to all trauma patients suspected to have significant haemorrhage, including those with a systolic blood pressure of <110 mmHg or a pulse of over 110 per minute.It needs to be administered within 3 hours of injuryBailey and love 27e 324
Surgery
Trauma
[ "fondaparinux" ]
56,559
c7013ca3-5f53-4784-9b48-e094b6d8800e
Which of the following anti-metabolites act as an antifungal agent?
taxol
5-ancobon (5 FC)
leukeran
Decarbazine
1b
single
ANTIFUNGAL DRUGS: CLASS IFICATION 1. Antibiotics A. Polyenes:AmphotericinB (AMB),Nystatin, Hamycin, Natamycin (Pimaricin) B. Heterocyclic benzofuran: Griseofulvin 2. Antimetabolite Flucytosine (5-FC) 3 Azofes A. lmidazoles (topical): Clotrimazole, Econazole, Miconazole, Oxiconazole (systemic): Ketoconazole B. Triazoles (systemic): Fluconazole, Itraconazole, Voriconazole 4. Allylamine: Terbinafine 5. Other topical agents Tolnaftate, Undecylenic acid, Benzoic acid, Quiniodochlor, Ciclopirox olamine, Butenafine,sod thiosulfate ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:757
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "flucytosine", "paclitaxel", "chlorambucil" ]
56,586
b7e03865-100d-4d18-a0d5-c777177f7590
The mydriatic drug with sho duration of action is
Cyclopentolate
tropicacyl
Homatropine
atropen
1b
single
Tropicamide, is a medication used to dilate the pupil and help with examination of the eye. Specifically it is used to help examine the back of the eye. It is applied as eye drops. Effects occur within 40 minutes and last for up to a day.
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
[ "atropine", "tropicamide" ]
56,612