id
stringlengths
36
36
question
stringlengths
6
1.22k
opa
stringlengths
1
171
opb
stringlengths
1
241
opc
stringlengths
1
240
opd
stringlengths
1
195
cop
class label
4 classes
choice_type
stringclasses
2 values
exp
stringlengths
1
15k
subject_name
stringclasses
21 values
topic_name
stringclasses
840 values
found_keywords
sequencelengths
1
10
local_id
int64
4
183k
f937db62-9446-4155-a085-e42c55c64c6f
A male with insulin-dependent diabetes and having macular edema develops glaucoma. Which drug should be used as the least resort to treat?
Alpha agonist
Prostaglandin analogue
pilagan
Beta blocker
1b
single
Ans. B. Prostaglandin analoguesAlthough prostaglandin analogues are the first-line treatment for open angle glaucoma, these should not be given in case a patient with macular edema develops glaucoma. The reason for the same is maculopathy caused by prostaglandin analogues (can cause blurring of vision).Extra Edge: Other drugs causing maculopathy* Niacin* Griseofulvin* Thiazolidinediones* Tamoxifen* Clofazimine, chloroquine (Bulls' eye maculopathy)* PG analoguesDrugs used for treatment of macular degeneration* Monoclonal antibodies: Bevacizumab, Ranibizumab* Photodynamic therapy: Verteporfin* Steroids (Dexamethasone, Prednisolone)* I/V Methotrexate* Pegaptanib: PEGylated oligonucleotide that binds VEGF
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
[ "pilocarpine" ]
57,533
924da240-007f-4b56-bfea-6fbe2c5f4752
Drug of choice for Trigeminal neuralgia is:
tegretol
Phenobabitone
dilantin
Valproic acid
0a
single
Trigeminal and related neuralgias: Carbamazepine is the drug of choice. These neuralgia;. characterized by attacks of high intensity electric shock-like or stabbing pain set off by evening. REF: KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "carbamazepine", "phenytoin" ]
57,540
5dc8c675-2f3f-4065-88ee-b7b5cf17395a
Carbapenem with maximum seizure risk is
doribax
Imipenem
Eapenem
Meropenem
1b
single
* Imipenem is a Carbapenem group of Beta-Lactam antibiotic with highest propensity to induce seizures compared to the other Carbapenem congeners. * Seizure is noted in 1.5% patients receiving Imipenen. Seizure risk is increased in patients receiving high doses in the presence of renal insufficiency and CNS lesions. Ref:- Goodman & Gilman Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics 13th Ed; Pg num:- 1035
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "doripenem" ]
57,544
5a3fb07e-9607-44b4-98d6-e9e2046b8ce4
Which statin is not metabolized by CYP3A4?
mevacor
zocor
lipitor
pravachol
3d
single
Pravastatin causes minimum drug interactions, minimum food interactions and minimum risk of myopathy. They also decreases amount of fibrinogen and it is not metabolised by CYP3A4.
Pharmacology
JIPMER 2019
[ "atorvastatin", "lovastatin", "simvastatin", "pravastatin" ]
57,558
9b2c029d-7c7c-44da-bed0-1e101398a359
Drug of choice in pain relief in diabetic neuropathy is -
neurontin
Lamotrigene
Pregabalin
Mexiletene
2c
single
Arts, is 'c'.i.e., Pregabalin Modalities used to treat painful diabetic neuropathyTreatment of diabetic neuropathyo A management algorithm outlined by a statement published in 2005 from the American Diabetes Association (ADA I recommended treatment in sequential steps ordered as follows:-o Exclude nondiabetic etiologieso Stabilize glycemic control (insulin not always required in type 2 diabetes)o Tricyclic drugs (eg, amitriptyline 25 to 150 mg before bed)o Anticonvulsants (eg, gabapentin, typical dose 1.8 gfday)o Opioid or opioid-like drugs (eg, tramadol or controlled release oxy>codone)o Consider pain clinic referralo The ADA statement noted that nonpharmacologic, topical, or physical therapies might be useful at any stage. These measures include acupuncture, capsaicin, glyceryl trinitrate spray or patches, and other therapies.o The American Academy of Neurology (AAN) performed a systematic review and published guidelines in 2011 for the treatment of painful diabetic neuropathy,o The following observations were made:o Preeabalin was regarded as effective.o A number of treatments were regarded as probably effective.GabapentinSodium valproateAmitriptylineDuloxetineVenlafaxineDextromethorphanMorphine sulphate, titrated Oxycodone, meanTramadolCapsaicinIsosorbide dinitrate sprayPercutaneous electrical nerve stimulation for three to four weeksLidocaine patch was regarded as possibly effective.o Treatments regarded as probably not effective by the AA Y were : -OxcarbazepineLamotrigineLacosamideClonidinePentoxifyllineMexiletine
Medicine
Diabites & Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
[ "gabapentin" ]
57,561
01f15712-2397-4af9-bf30-05be94a0c17a
Drug which decreases efficacy of testosterone
nydrazid
extina
Rifampicin
None
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ketoconazole
Pharmacology
null
[ "isoniazid", "ketoconazole" ]
57,580
43506087-b929-4d04-b5b7-a1f2a561dc6d
diflucan differs from extina in that:
It is not active by the oral route
It is a more potent inhibitor of drug metabolism
It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis
It is unlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects
3d
single
Fluconazole does not have anti-androgenic side effects. Ketoconazole is rarely used now a days because of several limitations like: Poor oral bioavailability Limited CNS penetration Powerful inhibition of microsomal enzymes Used in treatment of Cushing Syndrome Anti-androgenic adverse effects like gynaecomastia Fluconazole is preferred agent because it has: Very good oral absorption Maximum CNS penetration (therefore effective in cryptococcal meningitis). No inhibitory action on microsomal enzymes No anti-androgenic propey.
Pharmacology
Anti-Fungal Drugs
[ "fluconazole", "ketoconazole" ]
57,582
fefc49bd-9767-498a-bf5e-9296493e13ac
Myasthenics are resistant to following muscle relaxant –
quelicin
Pancurium
Atracuronium
norcuron
0a
single
Mysthenic patient Resistant to depolarizing blocker (Sch) Hypersensitive to non deplarizing blocker.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "suxamethonium", "vecuronium" ]
57,597
8f6db1bb-5b83-47da-8e88-b0d5e1d5c316
Which of the following statements is true of toradol ?
Has potent anti-inflammatory activity
Its analgesic efficacy is equal to oramorph in postoperative pain
Is used as preanaesthetic analgesic
It interacts with opioid receptor
1b
multi
Ketorolac is an NSAID promoted for systemic use mainly as an analgesic, not as an anti-inflammatory drug (though it has typical NSAID properties). The drug does appear to have significant analgesic efficacy and has been used successfully to replace morphine in some situations involving mild to moderate postsurgical pain.
Pharmacology
null
[ "morphine", "ketorolac" ]
57,605
3cb002bb-6132-49cd-b688-2bb3242999f1
Longest acting local anaesthetic drug is?
novocaine
Prilocaine
Lignocaine
exparel
3d
single
Ans. (d) BupivacaineRef: Morgan's Anaesthesiology 4/e, p 269
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous (Local and Regional Anesthesia)
[ "procaine", "bupivacaine" ]
57,615
c01986f1-435f-4d9d-9d4e-d2bac392d483
Toxicity of nitrogen mustards can be decreased by
caplenal
Folinic acid
GM-CSF
All
2c
multi
Ans. is `c GM-CSF o Nitrogen mustards and other alkylating agents can cause myelosuppression --> Leukopenia can be reversed by sargramostim (recombinant GM-CSF). o Haemorrhagic cystitis is more common with some (not all) nitrogen mustards, especially cyclophosphamide and ifosphamide, which is blocked by the use of MESNA or acetylcysteine. So, best option amongst the given options is 'c' (GM-CSF) as myelosuppression can be caused by all nitrogen mustard, whereas hemorrhagic cystitis is more common with cyclophosphamide and Ifosphamide.
Pharmacology
null
[ "allopurinol" ]
57,624
1d994b39-9047-41f2-88e0-5ae30b46966b
The dose of lanoxin should be reduced when given along with -
quinora
Rifampicin
indocin
Antacids
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Quinidine Quinidine reduces binding of digoxin to tissue proteins as well as its renal/biliary clearance. Its plasma concentration is then doubled and toxicity may occur if dose is not reduced.
Pharmacology
null
[ "digoxin", "indomethacin", "quinidine" ]
57,627
95bc4e9a-edfc-4ece-880f-335f3485de72
Hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of staticin:
staticin base
staticin stearate
staticin estolate
staticin ethyl succinate
2c
single
Erythromycin estolate is responsible for cholestatic jaundice. It stas after 2-3 weeks of staing treatment. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting and cramping pain in abdomen. Risk of this adverse effect increases significantly in pregnancy. Therefore, erythromycin estolate is contra-indicated in pregnancy.
Pharmacology
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
[ "erythromycin" ]
57,647
d1c43178-f3fe-40d9-a1f3-f9b0ccf506b0
A 55-year-old male, with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and hypeension, developed severe air-borne contact dermatitis. The most appropriate drug for his treatment would be:
Systemic coicosteroids
['thalomid']
imuran
restasis
2c
single
C i.e. Azathioprine In contact dermatitis, the allergic reaction is mediated by delayed hypersensitivity (cell mediated immunity). It is treated by: - Antihistamincis - Steroids (topical/systemic) - Agents depressing cell mediated immunity as cyclosporine, tacrolimus, azathioprine
Skin
null
[ "azathioprine", "cyclosporine", "thalidomide" ]
57,663
8fbedba2-2b27-4d89-875d-10c0d99df045
False about actos aEUR'
It PPARy agonist
>It metabolized in liver
>Not given in case of diastolic dysfunction
It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin helps in metabolism of carbohydrate
3d
multi
It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin helps in metabolism of carbohydrate km * Pioglitazone belongs to Thiazolidinediones -Other drugs of this group are Troglitazone, Rosiglitazone It is an oral antihyperglycemic agent that acts primarily by decreasing insulin resistance. - Pioglitazone deceases insulin resistance in the muscles, adipose tissues and in the liver resulting in increased L insulin dependent glucose disposal and decreased hepatic glucose output. Mechanism of action Pioglitazone is a potent and higly selective agonist for peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma (PPAR - PPAR receptors are, found in tissues impoant. for insulin action such as adipose tissue, skeletal muscle and liver. - PPAR is .found in highest level in adipose tissue. - Activation of PPAR7 nuclear receptors modulates the transcription of a number of insulin responsive genes involved in the control of glucose and lipid metabolism. -Pioglitazone appears to reduce insulin resistance by enhancing fatty acids storage and possibly by increasing adinopectin levels. - In animal models of diabetes pioglitazone reduces the hyperglycemia, hyperinsulinemia and hyperiglyceridemia which are characteristic of insulin resistant states. Pioglitazone depends on the presence of insulin for its mechanism of action. - Since piogletazone acts by enhancing the effect of circulating insulin it does not lower blood glucose in persons that lack endogenous insulin, - Circulating insulin level decrease with the use of pioglitazone indicating decrease in insulin resistance. Thiazolidinediones are considered euglycemics. -The overall response is similar to sulfonylureas and biguanide monotherapy. - Because their mechanism of action involves gene regulation, the thiazolidinediones have a slow onset and offset of activity over weeks or even months. - Combination therapy with sulfonylurea or insulin may lead to hypoglycemia. Metabolism of Pioglitazone Pioglitazone is extensively metabolized in liver by hydroxylation and oxidation. aiims pgmee answers & explanations - May 2011 Multiple CYP isoforms are involved in the metabolism of pioglitazone. - The cytochromes p450 isoforms primarily invove are : -CYP2 C8 - CYP 3A4 (to a lesser degree) Liver function should be monitored in patients receiving thiazolidinediones even though pioglitazone and rosiglitazone rarely have been associated with hepatotoxicity. Originally three member of thiazolidinedione family were introduced - Pioglitazone - Rosiglitazone - Troglitazone (This was withdrawn from the market due to an increase incidence of drug induced hepatitis). The withdraw! of troglitazone has also led to concerns of other thiazolidinediones also increasing the incidence of hepatitis and potential liver failure. Because of this FDA, recommends two to three months checks of liver enzyme for the first year of thiazolidinedione therapy, to check for this rare but potentially catastrophic complication. - Till date newer thiazolidinediones have been free of this problem. Thiazolidinediones should not be used in patients with NewYork Hea association class III or IV failure. The main side effect of all thiazolidinediones is water retention leading to edema.Sometimes there is significant water retention leading to decompensation of potentially previously unrecognized hea failure. herefore thiazolidinediones should be prescribed with both caution and patient warnings about the potential ,for water retention/weight gain especially in patients with decreased ventricular function.
Pharmacology
null
[ "pioglitazone" ]
57,687
c2a719af-b21f-484e-932a-40df78598200
Drug-induced colitis is most frequently associated with:
Neomycin
Vancomyc in
cleocin
chloromycetin
2c
single
Ans. c. Clindamycin
Pharmacology
null
[ "chloramphenicol", "clindamycin" ]
57,692
6916c480-680a-46bd-9352-b14c8828431d
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS ACTS BY INHIBITING TRANSCRIPTION OF DNS TO RNA?
RIFAMPICIN
macrobid
proquin
OLAXACIN
0a
single
RIFAMPICIN INHIBITS DNA DEPENDENT RNA POLYMERASE REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "ciprofloxacin", "nitrofurantoin" ]
57,702
525b5e51-7207-4c3e-82a9-995c111668f3
prograf level is increased by all except
staticin
sporanox
Danazole
Rifampicin
3d
multi
Ans. (D) Rifampicinwww.medscape.com/druginfo(Ref: KDT 8/e p940, )Erythromycin, itraconazol and danazol inhibit the metabolism of tacrolimus and thus increase the plasma concentration whereas rifampicin is an enzyme inducer and decrease its plasma level.
Pharmacology
Immunomodulatory: DMARDS, Monoclonal Antibodies
[ "erythromycin", "itraconazole", "tacrolimus" ]
57,711
59e2315f-7439-4f37-8342-3ee6d87b05c6
Probencide interacts with
Streptomycin
penbritin
firvanq
staticin
1b
single
Interaction of probeecid Competitively blocks active transpo of organic acids at all sites especially renal tubules. it inhibits excretion of penicillin or ampicellin and increases its blood level It also inhibits urinary excretion of cephalosporins, sulfonamides, methotrexates and indomethacin. It enables tubular secretion of nitrofurantoin Salicylates, pyrazinamide and ethambutol inhibit uricosuric action of probeecid It inhibits biliary excretion of rifampicin Refer kDT 6/e p209
Pharmacology
Autacoids
[ "vancomycin", "erythromycin", "ampicillin" ]
57,716
3deb0bef-09d3-470d-a65c-9d472f3d3109
Monoclonal antibody used for Rheumatoid arthritis:
kineret
Leflunomide
Adalimumab
azulfidine
0a
single
Ans. A. AnakinraAnakinra is IL-1 antagonist, leflunomide inhibit the growth of B cells. Adalimumab is monoclonal antibody which inhibit the TNF alpha. Sulfasalazine is DMARD.
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
[ "anakinra", "sulfasalazine" ]
57,720
eac029ad-0829-4883-b5db-e76a305c9912
All the following drugs are mono amino oxidase inhibitors except
Moclobemide
Tranylcypromine
Selegeline
cymbalta
3d
multi
Duloxetine is antidepressant -SNRI-Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitorRef: Katzung 13thed.Pg 528
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "duloxetine" ]
57,725
210c4122-74d6-4276-8c08-23626f38a844
Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid antagonist -
carospir
Inamrinone
Nicorandil
toradol
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Spironolactone Potassium sparing diureticsAldosterone antagonistsRenal epithelial Ma+ channel inhibitorso Spironolactoneo Eplerononeo Canrenoneo Potassium canrenoneo Prorenoneo MexrenoneoAmilorideo Triamterene
Pharmacology
Diuretic
[ "spironolactone", "ketorolac" ]
57,734
e02944a9-4a90-4a70-be86-2503719d9e4b
All of the following statements about amiloride are true EXCEPT :
It antagonises the action of aldosterone
It is the drug of choice for the treatment of lithium induced diabetes insipidus
It decreases calcium loss in the urine
It is more potent than dyrenium
0a
multi
Amiloride acts by blocking epithelial Na+ channels. It has no effect on aldosterone receptors. It is more potent than triamterene. It decreases Ca2+ loss in the urine It is the drug of choice for lithium-induced DI.
Pharmacology
null
[ "triamterene" ]
57,747
85d272a3-e06c-4c56-a716-3e9329df8677
Canrenone is a metabolite of :
penbritin
carospir
lasix
diamox
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "furosemide", "spironolactone", "acetazolamide", "ampicillin" ]
57,764
31044fdd-b76a-422c-bd46-1ad646a5e6c6
FDA approved drug for the treatment of superficial basal cell carcinoma is ?
Imiquinod
Acyclovir
Clobesterol
lamisil
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., i.e., Imiquimod Imiquimod Immunomodulator and enhances both innate and acquired immunity. It is used in the treatment of actinic keratosis, bowen's disease, keloids, basal cell carcinoma and anogenital was. It is applied for 8 - 12 hrs, 3 days/ week for 16 weeks. Superficial basal cell carcinoma Superficial BCC is characterized microscopically by buds of malignant cells extending into the dermis from the basal layer of the epidermis. The peripheral layer shows palisading cells. There may be epidermal atrophy, and dermal invasion is usually minimal. There may be a chronic inflammatory infiltrate in the upper dermis. This histologic sub- type is encountered most often on the trunk and extremities, but may also appear on the head and neck. Imiquimod (5% cream) has been used in the treatment of skin cancers.Approved in 2004 by the FDA for the topical treatment of biopsy- confirmed, small (less than 2 cm), primary superficial BCC.
Skin
null
[ "terbinafine" ]
57,771
2ff87d5d-12b1-461e-b326-72ca92d34af8
Which of the following causes significant Alopecia (epilation agent):
adriamycin
taxotere
rituxan
paraplatin
0a
single
Ans. A. Doxorubicina. Epilation - cancer drugs causing significant alopeciab. Anthracyclines - Doxorubicin, Daunorubicinc. Cyclophosphamide, Ifosfamided. Paclitaxele. Etoposide
Pharmacology
Anti-Cancer
[ "docetaxel", "carboplatin", "doxorubicin", "rituximab" ]
57,785
bcc58b04-ff90-4ae9-9779-a83b009f8f8f
A 35 year old female patient presents with proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easily fatiguability. September 2011
Muscle biopsy
CPK levels
EMG
tensilon test
3d
single
Ans. D: Edrophonium test The intravenous injection of the sho acting anticholinesterase, edrophonium bromide, is a valuable diagnostic aid (the tensilon test) for myasthenia gravis Myasthenia gravis/ MG: A disease characterized by episodic muscle weakness, chiefly in muscle innervated by cranial nerves and characteristically improved by anti-cholinesterase inhibiting drug There is decreased myoneural junction transmission due to auto-immune attack on the acetylcholine receptor of the post-synaptic neuromuscular junction, which results in loss of dysfunction of Ach receptors and jeopardizing normal neuromuscular transmission Dysahria, dysphagia and proximal limb weakness is common Sensory modalities and deep tendon reflexes are normal Pyridostigmine/ Neostigmine are the MC used cholinergic drugs Thymectomy is indicated in all patients with generalized MG Plasmapheresis may be useful for preparing refractory cases fro thymectomy and during respiratory crisis
Medicine
null
[ "edrophonium" ]
57,800
b33993d1-bea0-4a58-aa0b-2c48eea4a344
Second generation antihistaminics used in allergic rhinitis are :
Azelastine
allegra
Desloratadine
All of these
3d
multi
Chlorpheniramine and promethazine are first generation antihistaminics.
Pharmacology
null
[ "fexofenadine" ]
57,855
58aacbff-4913-4091-95dc-ec7624f60405
Which of the following anesthetic drugs produces powerful stimulation of the cerebral cortex
Cocaine
novocaine
xylocaine
Tetracaine
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "procaine", "lidocaine" ]
57,860
98a26025-fbee-4f92-91d6-08b6667c0e45
All of the following agents are used in obesity EXCEPT :
xenical
Sibutramine
Olestra
Neuropeptide Y analogues
3d
multi
Drugs used for the treatment of obesity are: Fenfluramine Sibutramine (serotonin and NA reuptake inhibitor) Sucrose polyester (olestra) β3 agonists Dexfenfluramine Orlistat (a Pancreatic lipase inhibitor) Neuropeptide Y antagonists
Pharmacology
null
[ "orlistat" ]
57,875
6735d722-fd49-45ad-a557-c248bb7409c5
Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of COX enzyme
Aspirin
Phenylbutazone
indocin
feldene
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "piroxicam", "indomethacin" ]
57,892
72a4d628-3a19-4bc9-b8b3-caf63d25211c
Which of the following drug increases the duration of orthodontic treatment?
dilantin
Aspirin
tylenol
Vitamin D
1b
single
null
Dental
null
[ "paracetamol", "phenytoin" ]
57,916
ff2f26ab-b306-4cba-b62e-b5a24902debf
How to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction
Nocturnal penile tumescence
PIPE therapy
viagra induced erection
Squeeze technique
0a
single
Psychological impotence usually occurs acutely. The early morning erections and erections during REM sleep (nocturnal penile tumescence; NPT) are usually preserved. If a man repos of spontaneous erections at times when he does not plan to have an intercourse, having morning erections, or having good erections with masturbation or with paners other then his usual one, the organic causes can be considered negligible. Nocturnal penile tumescence is a normal physiological phenomenon seen in males during early morning hours. Squeeze technique is used in pre mature ejacualtion Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 128, 130 Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11e, pg 577.
Psychiatry
Sleep disorders and eating disorders
[ "sildenafil" ]
57,917
6d8e5608-5edc-4569-b073-dfee6b60a6b7
Which of the following drugs does not possess even slightest agonist action ?
Buprenorphine
stadol
Nalbuphine
Nalmefene
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "butorphanol" ]
57,927
fc302976-7c53-4f8e-b170-a9a7a7411dfd
Drugs used in lepra reaction is:
['thalomid']
lamprene
resochin
All of the above
3d
multi
All of the above
Skin
null
[ "clofazimine", "thalidomide", "chloroquine" ]
57,929
6dcbcaa9-656d-400f-af61-cc343aead66a
Drug used for the management of ectopic pregnancy:
trexall
mifeprex
matulane
Cytosine arabinoside
0a
single
Ans: a (Methotrexate) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed. p. 258Drugs used - Methotrexate. KC1, hyperosmolar glucose, Ru - 486, PGF,oc and Actinomycin D.Indication for Methotrexate in ectopic pregnancy:(1) Patient haemodynamically stable(2) Tubal diameter < 4 cm without cardiac activities(3) Beta-HCG level < 10,000SurgeryLinear salpingostomyLineal- salpingotomySalpingectomyMilking of tubeMedical management and drugs used in gynaecologial conditions is an often asked question. Go through the list given below.Endometriosis:To decrease vascularity of fibroid:OCPsMifepristoneProgesteroneProgesteroneDanazolDanazolGnRH analoguesGnRH analoguesLetrazole PCOD:DUB:Clomiphene citrateCyproterone acetateOCPsGnRH analoguesDexamethasone and prednisoloneMetforminOCPsProgesteroneMDPADanazolIUCDs - Mirena, progestasertEthamsylateAntifibrinolytics - EACAGnRH analoguesNSAIDsEmergency contraception:DrugsDoseShould be usedFailure rateEstrogen1 mg x 5daysWith in 72 hrs1.5 %Levonorgestrel2 tabs 12 hrs apartWith in 120 hrs(5 days)1.1%Mifepristone600 mg single doseWith in 72 hrs0.9%Centchroman2 tabs twice in 24 hrsWith in 24 hrs1%IUCD-With in 5 days0.1%Danazol400 mg b.d x 5 days 2.5%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
[ "methotrexate", "procarbazine", "mifepristone" ]
57,932
7b0946a7-5111-463f-9fc3-ac5e5275a4f6
In treatment of Parkinsonism, L–Dopa is combined with lodosyn mainly :
To decrease dose requirement of L–Dopa
To decrease side effects of L–Dopa
To decrease effectiveness of L–Dopa
To increase crossing of L–Dopa through BBB
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "carbidopa" ]
57,961
bee66401-a54b-47e8-9920-030f94973b3b
Which of the following is a uterine relaxant?
detrol
Ritodrine
spiriva
serevent
1b
single
Ans. B. Ritodrine. (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 6th ed., p 125; 323)SELECTIVE b2 STIMULANTSThese include, salbutamole, terbutaline, salmeterol, formoterol and ritodrine. They cause bronchodilatation, vasodilatation and uterine relaxation, without producing significant cardiac stimulation. b2 selectivity is only relative. Salbutamol has b2:bj action ratio of about 10. They are primarily used in bronchial asthma. Other uses are:# As uterine relaxant to delay premature labour. Ritodrine is the preferred drug;# In hyperkalemic familial periodic paralysis - benefit by enhancing K+ uptake into muscles a lowering plasma K+ levels.The most important side effect is muscle tremor; tachycardia and arrhythmias are less likely.THERAPEUTIC CLASSIFICATION OF ADRENERGIC DRUGSI.Pressor agentsNoradrenalineMethoxaminePhenylephrineDopamineeEphedrineMephentermineII.Cardiac stimulantsAdrenalineeDobutamineeIsoprenalineeIII.BronchodilatorsAdrenalineSalmeterolTerbutalineSalbutamoleIsoprenalineFormoterolIV.Nasal decongestantsPhenylephrineePseudoephedrineNaphazolineOxymetazolineXylometazolinePhenylpropanolamineV.CNS stimulantsAmphetamineMethamphetamineDexamphetamineVI.AnorecticsFenfluramineSibutramineDexfenfluramineVII.Uterine relaxant and vasodilatorsRitodrineSalbutamol IsoxsuprineeTerbutalineeTocolytic drugsSr. no.Tocolytic AgentsComments1Isosuprine (DUVADILAN)It is an orally effective long acting selective b receptor stimulant, which has direct smooth muscle relaxant property as well. It has been used as uterine relaxant for threatened abortion and dysmenorrhoea, but efficacy is poor.Side effects: nausea, tachycardia, flushing, dizziness, and tremor. Isoxsuprine has been used in threatened abortion and dysmenorrhoea, but efficacy is doubtful.2Ritodrine (Selective b2 stimulants)infused i.v. have been successfully used to postpone labour but maternal morbidity and mortality may be increased due to their cardiac and metabolic actions and incidents of pulmonary edema.3Atosiban & nifedipineAlthough atosiban and nifedipine seem equally effective in delaying preterm labour, there is increasing concern in twin pregnancies about the adverse CVS effects of nifedipine. Nifedipine should not be used in multiple pregnancies due to fear of pul edema. However, atosiban, which is principally an AVP receptor antagonists is oxytocin receptor antagonist, used for the treatment of preterm labour.4Magnesium sulphateAlso acts as a tocolytic agent. With the withdrawal of sympathomimetic drugs and the failure of atosiban, an oxytocinantagonist, to obtain FDA approval, magnesium sulphate is therefore in commonly used tocolytic drug.Educational points:# Tolterodine is being developed as a vasicoselective antimuscarinic.# Tiotropiumbromide Congener of ipratropium bromide, which binds very tightly to bronchial M1/M3 muscarinic receptors producing long lasting bronchodilatation. Binding to M2 receptors is less tight confering relative M1/M3 selectivity. Like ipratropium, it is not absorbed from respiratory and g. i. mucosa and has exhibited high bronchial selectivity of action.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
[ "tiotropium", "salmeterol", "tolterodine" ]
57,992
978ef597-1e96-464b-86ee-28e6e6067cd4
refolin is used for side effect reduction in which anticancer drug?
trexall
5-FU
Adriamycin
platinol
0a
single
ANSWER: (A) MethotrexateREF: KDT 6th Edn Page: 387, 590, 591See APPENDIX-37 below for "CLASSIFICATION OF CANCER CHEMOTHERAPY AGENTS"See APPENDIX-42 below for "ANTIDOTES TOXICOLOGY"Repeat Pharmacology 2001Note: Leucovorin is also known as Folinic add APPENDIX - 37Classification of Cancer Chemotherapy Agents:GroupSubgroups & AgentsAcute ToxicityDelayed ToxicityUsesAlkylatingAgentsNitrogen Mustard Alkylation of DNA at N7 &06 position of Guanine -DNA crosslinking I; b/n 2 strands - prevents duplication(1) Mechiorethamine(First anticancer drug)CINV-chemo induced nausea vomiting (4hr- 48hrs)MyelosuppressionMyelosuppression (delayed type-onset = 7d, Nadir = 10-14d, reco%rerv = 21-28d)AlopeciaMOPP-HodgkinslymphomaAA are commonly used in chronic leukemia(2) Cyclophosphamide1CP - 4hydroxyCP -aldophosphamide- Acrolein (toxic) & phosphamide mustard (active)]CINVMyelosuppression(CP>Ifo)Myelosuppression (CP>Ifo) Alopecia, SIADHHemorrhagic cystitis (Ifo>CP)Sec cancer-transitional cell cancer of bladderWagner'sgranulomatosis DOC CMF-Breast, small cell lung ca Broad spectrumAA are nonphase specific(3) Ifosfamide 4hydroxy ifosfamide (active)CINVMyelosuppression(CP>Ifo)Myelosuppression(CP>Ifo)AlopeciaHemorrhagic cystitis (Ifo>CP)Broad spectrum Lung, breast, ovary, sarcoma, testis, germ cell tumorAA causes secondary leukemia in 4-5 years(4) Melphanamino acid derivative ofmechloretamineCINVMyelosuppressionMyelosuppression No alopeciaMultiple myeloma DOCCan replace C in CMF (5) ChlorambucilMyelosuppression CINV is rareMyelosuppression No alopeciaCLL, Hodgkin's Nitrosoureas(lipophilic-crosses BBB) Nitrosoureas causes delayedMyelosuppression (onset-15d, Nadir-4wks, recovery-6wks) (1) Carmustine (BCNU- bis chloro nitroso urea)CINV (severe-2hrs)Myelosuppression, male infertility,Pulmonary fibrosisBrain tumors DOC(Glioblastomamultiforme.Astrocytoma,Medulloblastoma) (2) Lomustine (CCNU)CINV (severe-2hrs)Myelosuppression Interstitial lung diseasedo (3) Semustine (methyl CCNU)CINV (severe-2hrs)Myelosuppressiondo (4) Streptozocin (methylation of protein & nucleic acid)CINV (severe-2 hrs)No MyelosuppressionPancreatic islet cell tumorCarcinoid tumor Alkyl Sulfonates(Intra strand cross linking of DNA by 2 N7 Guanine) BUSULFAN {Dealkylating agent)Hyperuricemia(MC)Sterility, gynecomastia, seizures, Skin pigmentation, Adrenal insufficiency Pulmonary fibrosis (specific)CM L-DOC until imatinibConditioning of BM transplant Ethyl Enimines Thiotepa(Organophosphorous)CINVMyelosuppressionSeldom used nowNon ClassicalAlkylatingAgentsTriazenes Acts on RNA &Protein synthesis not/ mild DNADacarbazine (Active- methyl carbonium ion)CINV-severePermanent sterility Myelos uppre ssion (early/classical)MAID-sarcoma, ABVD-Hodgkins Malignant melanoma (most active agent) Procarbazine (autoxidize spontaneously, Active- Azoprocarbazine, crosses BBB)CINV, MAO inhibitor Disulfiram like reactionMyelosuppression,DermatitisLeukenogenic,teratogenicMOPP-Hodgkin'sPCV-Glioblastoma AltretamineCINV-severe HypotensionNeuro toxic NephrotoxicRefractory ovarian cancerAlkylating Like AgentsPlatinum Compounds 1st gen platinum Inactivated by aluminumCisplatinCINV (most emitogenic)Hypo Mg, K, Ca sec to hypo Mg)Myelosuppression N ephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity Secondary leukemiaCMF-Solidmalignancies2nc generation platinum, Cross resistance- cisplatinCarboplatinCINV (cis>carbo)Myelosuppression(carbo>ds)No nephrotoxicityLess potent than cisplatin (1:4) GemCarco-Iung cancer3rd generation platinum No cross resistanceOxaliplatinPSN pathy (reversible hand & foot, temp loss)Neurotoxicity (dose limiting)No nephrotoxicity PSN pathyflrreversible, hand, foot, leg, arm, temp loss, propio loss)FOLFOX- colon cancerCis/carboplatin resistance AntimetabolitesFolate Antagonists S phase specificMethotrexate HepatotoxicityMyelosuppressionMucositisChoriocarcinoma DOC, ALL, Osteosarcoma. RA, ectopic Myasthenia, psoriasis, meningeal leukemia (intrathecal route)Inhibits DMA syn thesisPemetrexed : Mesothelioma, nonsmall cell lungNo acute toxicidesPurine Analogue Commonly used in acute leukemias6 THIO Guanine MyelosuppressionHepatotoxicityAdult acute leukemia 6 Mercapto Purine Myelosupp ression, hepatotoxicityChildhood acute leukemia Fludrabine Myelosuppression, Flu like symptom (fever, myalgia, arthralgia) Cladribine Myelosuppression, Nephrotoxic, ClXVHairy cell leukemia Pentostatin NephrotoxicHairy cell leukemia Pyrimidine Analogue 5 Fluorouracil (5-FU) GI upset-diarrhea (MC) Hand foot syndrome, CINVMyelosuppression, neurotoxicity Cerebellar ataxia Cytrabine Stomatitis, CINV, Cerebellar ataxia MyelosuppressionAML Capecitabine CINV, Diarrhea, Hand foot syndrome Myelosupp ression (<5FU)Metastatic breast cancer, Metastatic colorectal cancer Gamecitabine CINV, Myelosuppression (dose limiting)Pancreatic cancer DOC Bladder & Nonsmall cell lung CaAntibioticsAnthracyclinsTopoisomerase 2 inhibitor (me)Quinone Free radical injury & intercalation b/n DNA strandsMembrane binding (responsible for cardiotoxicity) Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)CINV, AlopeciaMyelosuppression (dose limiting, neutropenia >th rombocytopenia) Cardiotoxicity(cardiomy opathy, CHF)Radiation recall Hand foot syndromeBroad spectrum Solid tumors & sarcomas (rhabdo/ leiomyosarcoma, Kaposi sarcoma) DaunorubcinCl MV, AlopeciaMyelosuppression, cardiotoxicity, radiation recallNarrow spectrum AML Idarubcin (synthetic Daunorubicin analogue)CINV, Alopecia, Red urine (not hematuria)Myelosuppression, cardiotoxicity, radiation recallAML (more efficacious than daunorubicin) MitoxantroneCINV, Bluish discoloration of nailsMyelosuppression (dose limiting)Lower cardiotoxicity? Other Antibiotics Bleomycin(Glyco peptide Antibiotic) Free radical injury - ds- ss DMA breaks, have both DNA & Fe binding domainAllergic reaction HypotensionPulmonary fibrosis (dose limiting)Mucocutaneous toxicity? Marrow sparingHL, NHL, SCC Malignant pleural effusionAscitis (sclerosing agent) Mitomycin- CActs as alkylating agentCINVHemolytic uremic syndrome. Pulmonary- fibrosis, 8th nerve damageRadiosensitizer- DOC, SCC Dactinomycin Inhibits all forms of DMA dependent RMA synthesis, r-RNA most sensitiveCINVMyelosupp ression Alopecia Radiation recallPediatric tumors (Ewing's, witm's, Rhabdomyosarcoma) Radiosensitizer ActinomycinCINVDesquamationMyelosuppressionAlopeciaPediatric tumors (Ewing's, wilm's, Rhab domyosarcoma) Radiosensitizer PlicamycinCINV EnzymeL-ASPARGINASE (inhibits protein synthesis of tumor cell by depletion of L-Aspargine)Anaphylaxis/ hyper sensitivity- fever, chills, rash, urticaria (brochospasm, hypotension if severe)Hypercoagulable state Pancreatitis, Hepatotoxicity Marrow sparing, no alopeciaALLIneffective in solid tumors(normal cells spared)Plant DerivedVinca AlkaloidsM phase specificInhibits tubulin polymerizationMitotic inhibitors VincristineAlopeciaPSNpathySIADH, Marrow sparingLymphosarcoma, wilm's, Ewing's Remission of childhood acute leukemia. VinblastineAlopecia (Vc >Vb)PSNpathy (Vc >Vb) MyelosuppressionHodgkin s, testicular carcinoma EpipodophylotoxinsTopoisomerase 2 inhibitor Etopside (VP-16)CINV, HypotensionMyelosuppression, early onset secondary leukemia (1-3 years) alopecia Teniposide (VP-26) TaxansM phase specificEnhance tubulin polymerizationSpindle poison PaclitaxelHypersensitivityPSNpathy (stocking glove type) Myelosuppression,Cisplatin resistance Relapse &resistant breast/ovary ca Docetaxel (more potent)HypersensitivityMyelosuppression, PSNpathy (is less frequent)Cisplatin resistance, Relapse-resistant br/ovary ca CamptothecinTopoisomerase 1 inhibitorss DNA breaks TopothecanCINVMyelosuppression (dose limiting) Irinothecan (active = SN-38)CINV, Cholinergic syndrome (SLUDGE) including early diarrhea-24hrsMyelosuppression, cholinergic syndrome (SLUDGE) including late diarrhea 3-10d (dose limiting)Advanced colorectal ca- DOCMiscellaneousArsenic Trioxide (degradation of PM LI & RARa protein)Headache, lightheadednessCINVCardiotoxicity (QT prolongation, arrhythmias), Myelosuppression Syndrome-fever, fluid retention, wt gain, rashAPL-induction in tretinoin relapse and refractoryHydroxyurea has 100% oral bioavailabilityHydroxyurea (inhibits ribonucleotide reductase - inhibits DMA synthesis)CINVMyelosuppression (dose limiting)HyperpigmentationCMLAML-blast crisis Imatinib (Bcr-Abl Tyrosine kinase inhibitor)CINVFluid retention, Ankle & perioral edemaCML-chronic phase GIST with Ckit tyrosine kinase Dasatinib & Nilotinib (novel agents- TK inhibitors) CML- imatinibresistance/intoleranceAnticancer Drug Toxicities:MYELOSUPPRESSIONAll except Asparginase, Vincristine, BleomycinCARDIOTONICAnthracyclins, arsenic trioxideNEPHROTOXICPlatinum compounds (cisplatin>carboplatin>oxaliplatin)PULMONARY FIBROSISBleomycin. Busulfan, CarmustinePERIPHERAL NEUROPATHYGxaliplatin, vincristine Taxans (stoking & glove type)HAEMORRHAGIC CYSTITISCyclophosphamide, IfosfamideHAND FOOT SYNDROME5FU, Capecitabine, DoxorubicinCEREBELLAR ATAXIAPyrimidine analogs like Cytrabine & 5FUSIADHCyclophosphamide, VincristineSECONDARY LEUKEMIAAll alkylating agents & alkylating like agents (in 4-5 years) E topside (in 1-3 years)STERLITYAlkylating agentsDISULFIRAM LIKE REACTIONProcarbazineCHOLINERGIC SYNDROMEIrinitecanRADIATION RECALL SYNDROMEAnthracydinsAnticancer Drugs Toxic Amelioration:ToxicityMeasuresMethotrexateFolinic acidAlkalization of urine (Mtz is weak acid & reabsorbed in acidic urine)Hemorrhagic cystitis (cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide)ME SNA (2 mercapto ethyl sulfonyl sodium) systemic ACETYLCYSTEINE irrigation of bladderHigh fluid intakeFrequent voidingCINV (Cytotoxic drug induced nausea Stvomiting )Ondansetron (5HT3 Antagonist)Cytotoxic drug induced MucositisPabfermin (human recombinant keratinocyte growth factor)TUMOR LYSIS SYNDROME (hyperkalemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperuricemia, hypemricosuria, hypocalcaemia, acute renal failure)prophylactic ALLOPURINOL (xanthine oxidase inhibitor)alternatively RASBURICASE (urkase)Aggressive hydrationHigh urine outputAlkalization of urine not recommended/controversialDiuresis is reserved for well hydrated patientsHEMODIALYSIS (if above fails) MYE LOS OPPRESSIONFor AnemiaERYTHROPOIETIN (recombinant)For NeutropeniaFILGRASTIM- Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) analogSARGRAMOSTTM - Recombinant granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)For ThrombocytopeniaOPRELVEKIN (IL-11)BONE MARROW TRANSPLANT (for extreme suppression)CANCER CACHEXIATHALIDOMIDECYTOPROTECTION of normal tissueAMIFOSTINE= WTR-2721=prodrug(active = free thiol=WR-1065. activation normal tissue)USES=cispIatin based chemotherapy & radiation therapyAnthracyclins induced CARDIOTOXICITYDEXRAZOXAXE (ICRF-187) Iron chelating agent Cardio protective agent, derivative of EDTA APPENDIX - 42AntidotesAntidotePoison/drug/toxinN-AcetylcysteineAcetaminophenCarbon tetrachlorideOther hepatotoxinsAmyl nitrite, sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate (Cyanide antidote kit)NitrilesBromatesChloratesCyanide (e.g., HCN, KCX and NaCN)Mustard agentsNitroprussideSmoke inhalation (combustion of synthetic materials)Antivenin, Crotalidae Polyvalent (Equine Origin)Pit viper envenomation (e.g. rattlesnakes, cottonmouths, timber rattlers and copperheads)Antivenin, Crotalidae Polyvalent Immune Fab - Ovine (CroFab)Pit viper envenomation (e.g.. rattlesnakes, cottonmouths, timber rattlers and copperheads)Atropine sulfateAlpba2 agonists (e.g., clonidine)Alzheimer drugs (e.g., donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine)Antimyesthenk agents (e.g., pyridostigmine)Bradyarrhythmia-producing agents (e.g., beta blockers, calcium channel blockers and digitalis glycosides)Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) .Muscarine-containing mushrooms Nerve agents (sarin, soman, tabun and VX)Organophosphate and carbamate insecticidesDigoxin immune FabCardiac glycoside-containing plants (foxglove and oleander)Digitoxin, DigoxinEthanolEthylene glycolMethanolFlumazenilBenzodiazepinesZaleplonZolpidemFolic acid and Folinic acid (Leucovorin)Formaldehyde/Formie AcidMethanolMethotrexate, trimetrexatePyrimethamineTrimethoprimFomepizoleEthylene glycolMethanolGlucagonBeta blockersCalcium channel blockersHypoglycemiaHypoglycemic agentsHydroxocobalaminNitrilesBromatesChloratesCyanide (e.g., HCN, KCN and NaCN)Mustard agents NitroprussideSmoke inhalation (combustion of synthetic materials)Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO)Carbon monoxideCarbon tetrachlorideCyanideHydrogen sulfideMethemoglobinemiaMethylene blueMethemoglobin-inducing agents including;Aniline dyesDapsoneLocal anesthetics (e.g., benzocaine)MetoclopramideNaphthaleneNitrates and nitritesNitrobenzenePhenazopyridineNalmefene and NaloxoneACE inhibitorsAlpha2 agonists (e.g., clonidine)Imidazoline decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline and tetrahydrozoline) LoperamideOpioids (e.g., codeine, fentanyl, heroin, meperidine, morphine)Physostigmine salicylateAntihistaminesAtropine and other anticholinergic agentsDhatura poisoningIntrathecal baclofenPhytonadione (Vitamin Kl)Long-acting anticoagulant rodenticides (e.g., brodifacoum and bromadiolone) WarfarinPralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)Antimyesthenic agents (e.g., pyridostigmine)Nerve agents (sarin, soman, tabun and VX)Organophosphate insecticidesTacrineProtamine sulfateEnoxaparinHeparinPyridoxine hydrochloride (Vitamin B6)Acrylamide Ethylene glycol Hydrazine Isoniazid (INH)Sodium bicarbonateChlorine gasHyperkalemiaSerum Alkalinization:Agents producing a quinidine-like effect as noted by widened QRS complex on EKG (e.g., amantadine, carbamazepine, chloroquine,cocaine, diphenhydramine, flecainide,tricyclic antidepressants, quinidine)Urine Alkalinization:Weakly acidic agents (chlorpropamide, methotrexate, phenobarbital and salicylates)Deferoxamine and DeferasiroxAcute iron poisoningDimercaprol (BAL in oil)Hydrofluoric acid (HF)Hyperkalemia (not digoxin-induced)HypermagnesemiaCalcium disodium EDTA (Versenate)Acute arsenic poisoning,Acute mercury poisoning,Lead poisoning (in addition to EDTA)Dicobalt EDTACyanide poisoningSucdmer/ Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)Lead poisoning,Arsenic poisoning,Mercury poisoningDimercapto-propane sulfonate (DMPS)Severe acute arsenic poisoning,Severe acute mercury poisoningD-Penicillamine (Cuprimine)Mainly in: copper toxicityOccasionally adjunctive therapy in: Gold toxicity, Arsenic poisoning, Lead poisoning, Rheumatoid arthritisBotulinum antitoxin * Bivalent (types AB)<< Trivalent (types ABE)Food-borne botulismWound botulismBotulism as a biological weaponNote: Not currently recommended for infant botulismL-CarnitineValproic acidCyproheptadine HCLMedications causing serotonin symdromeDantrolene sodiumMedications causing neuroleptic malignant symdrome (NMS)Medications causing malignant hyperthermiaInsulin and dextroseBeta blockersCalcium channel blockers (diltiazem, nifedipine, verapamil)Octreotide acetateSulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents (e.g., glipizide, glyburide)Sodium thiosulfateBromatesChloratesMustard agentsNitroprussideThiamineEthanolEthylene glycolPrussian blue, ferric hexacyan ofer rateRadioactive cesium (Cs-137), radioactive thallium (Tl-201), and nonradioactive thallium
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
[ "methotrexate", "adriamycin", "cisplatin", "leucovorin" ]
58,010
fd954304-0b00-4aba-9e90-70a57268a6a4
Which of the following statements regarding toxicity of local anesthetics is false?
The first signs of toxicity are dizziness, tinnitus, and nystagmus
Systematic convulsions are rare and usually self- limited
Most allergic reactions are to aminoamide compounds
For patients allergic to local anesthetics, benadryl hydrochloride 1% can be injected into the wound.
2c
multi
Most allergic reactions are to aminoamide compounds * Slow injections limit the chance for local anesthetic toxicity. When history of allergy is unceain, an antihistamine such as diphenhydrarnine injected directly into the wound can be used as an alternative and achieves anesthesia in approximately 30 mm. * True allergic reactions to local anesthetics are rare, especially to aminoamide compounds such as lidocaine and bupivicaine. The ester derivatives of paraaminobenzoic acid, such as procaine, are responsible for most local anesthetic allergic reactions. * Toxicity should be suspected in patients who complain of dizziness, tinnitus, and periorbital tingling. Rarely, systemic convulsions follow. * These are usually self-limited because of rapid redistribution of the drug, with resultant lower serum levels.
Surgery
null
[ "diphenhydramine" ]
58,011
7b57516a-b15f-4f70-bcdc-29fb55a12ffd
The first step in management of head injury is:
Secure airway
I.V. osmitrol
I.V. decadron
Blood transfusion
0a
multi
null
Surgery
null
[ "mannitol", "dexamethasone" ]
58,018
d3ffc5f6-7b23-4148-8aec-252059e2b80a
The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of a patient of pneumonic plague is :
Penicillin.
Rifampicin
staticin.
panmycin.
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Tetracycline Park writes- "The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis is Tetracycline. For adults the dose in 500 mg 6 hourly for 5 days. A cheaper alternative is sulfonamideRemember that -DOC for treatment of Plague is streptomycin*. Tetracycline is an alternative drug.Also Remember-The DOC for chemoprophylaxis and treatment of the following diseases- :DiseaseDOC for ChemoprophylaxisDOC for TreatmentPlagueTetracycline*Streptomycin*InfluenzaAmantadine or RimantadineAmantadine* or RimantadineDiptheriaErythromycin*Penicillin* or ErythromycinMeningococcal meningitisRifampicin* is the DOC (unless the organism is known to be sensitive tosulfadiazine)Penicillin*CholeraTetracycline*DOC for adults (except pregnant females is -Doxycycline*)DOC for Children -Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole* DOC for Pregnancy -Furazolidone*Bacterial ConjunctivitisErythromycin ointment
Social & Preventive Medicine
Infectious Disease Epidemiology
[ "erythromycin", "tetracycline" ]
58,025
2af4ac43-57ff-4592-8728-9420c2af5491
Drug of choice for paracoccidioidomycosis is
nilstat
diflucan
extina
Amphotericin B
3d
single
Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for most of the systemic fungal infections It acts by forming pores in the cell membrane leading to escape of various major electrolytes from fungus Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 554
Microbiology
mycology
[ "fluconazole", "nystatin", "ketoconazole" ]
58,026
62350f50-3c8a-48d8-ba84-f27225692181
Which is/ are not desirable for a patient with pacemaker?
Thiopentone sodium
ECG monitoring
quelicin
Unipolar diathermy
3d
single
unipolar diathermy is not desirable it is preferable to use Bipolar diathermy.
Anaesthesia
Inhalational Anesthetic Agents
[ "suxamethonium" ]
58,049
16b06559-faa7-4cf3-a5f8-7980bc025c71
Savlon contains:
Cetrimide and cetavlon
Cetrimide and Chlorhexidiine
Cetrimide, chloraprep and butyl alcohol
Cetrimide and butyl alcohol
1b
single
Cetrimide along with chlorhexidine is most popularly used antiseptic and disinfectant for surgical instruments, utensils, baths, etc- savlon ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:900
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "chlorhexidine" ]
58,064
7c06cf4e-7810-4136-b91a-cc5a96341996
Streptococcus toxin which is responsible for connective tissue breakdown ?
hylenex
Streptolysin 0
Streptolysin S
Streptococcus pyogenic exotoxin
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyaluronidase Hyaluronidase splits hyaluronic acid, an impoant component of the ground substance of connective tissue. Thus, hyaluronidase aids in spreading infecting microorganisms (spreading factor).Hyaluronidases are antigenic and specific for each bacterial or tissue source. Following infection with hyaluronidase-producing organisms, specific antibodies are found in the serum.
Microbiology
null
[ "hyaluronidase" ]
58,068
84d967ce-51d6-4392-b821-4c31d534413c
Drug of choice in rhinoscleromatosis is:
panmycin
Fluoroquinolone
Aminoglycosides
None of the above
0a
multi
In rhinoscleromatosis, organism may be difficult to eradicate, despite aggressive therapy. A combination of conservative surgical debridement and long-term antibiotic coverage is the mainstay of therapy for rhinoscleroma. Tetracycline has been shown to be effective and inexpensive for patients unless contraindicated. Fluoroquinolones may be used as an alternative, given their excellent gram-negative activity and convenient dosing regimen
ENT
null
[ "tetracycline" ]
58,080
16accff7-46f8-4fa3-aaa6-fd189adafd7d
Hyperprolactinemia is a side effect of:
Bromocriiptine
dopar
symmetrel
reglan
3d
single
Metoclopramide
Pharmacology
null
[ "amantadine", "metoclopramide", "levodopa" ]
58,082
9a20c13d-0231-4e54-b412-26f555619a47
A 40 weeks pregnant developed postpaum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. Which of the following drug can be given to this patient to stop the bleeding?
oxoject
Methergine
Progesterone
Prostaglandins
1b
single
Ergot alkaloids markedly increase the motor activity of the uterus. Although their capacity to induce sustained uterine tetany precludes their use in the induction or facilitation of labor, they are used to prevent or treat postpaum hemorrhage in normotensive women. In this setting, the preferred ergot alkaloids are ergonovine or its methyl analog methylergonovine (methergine). They are administered intramuscularly or intravenously, exhibit rapid onsets of action, and their effects persist for 45 minutes to 3 hours depending on the route of administration. Adverse effects include nausea and vomiting, elevated blood pressure, and decreased pain threshold requiring analgesia. Ref: Schimmer B.P., Parker K.L. (2011). Chapter 66. Contraception and Pharmacotherapy of Obstetrical and Gynecological Disorders. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "oxytocin" ]
58,098
f26f37a3-4638-4a3a-9591-f93e01aa7dad
Anaesthetic agent which is explosive in the presence of cautery –
Nitrous oxide
Ether
Trilene
fluothane
1b
single
null
Anaesthesia
null
[ "halothane" ]
58,126
b34269d9-22cc-4f3f-9e54-e4e6ae353df1
30 yrs female presented with unilateral breast cancer associated with axilary lymph node enlargement. Modified radical mastectomy was done, further treatment plan will be
Observation and follow-up
Adriamycin based chemotherapy followed by nolvadex depending on estrogen/progesterone receptor status
Adriamycin based chemotherapy only
nolvadex only
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Adriamycin based chemotherapy followed by tamoxifen depending on.... Stage I & II breast cancers (Early invasive breast cancers) are managed byPrimary therapy for local management &Adjuvant therapyPrimary therapy consists of:Mastectomy with assessment of axillary lymph node status (or modified radical mastectomy) orBreast conservation (lumpectomy, wide local excision or quadrantectomy) with assessment of axillary lymph node status + radiotherapy.Various trials have found both these methods to be equally effective. Breast conservation is the preferred form of treatment because of cosmetic advantages However there are certain contraindications for conservative surgery (described in subsequent question)Management of axillary lymph nodesEarlier dissection of axillary lymph nodes (level I and II) was performed to assess the lymph node status (i.e. presence or absence of occult metastasis)Now Sentinel lymph node biopsy is considered the standard for evaluation of the axillary lymph nodes for metastasis in women who have clinically negative lymph nodes, (the sentinel lymph node is the first regional lymph node to receive tumor cells that metastasize along the lymphatic pathway from the primary breast cancer)Axillary Lymph node dissection is performed for clinically palpable axillary lymph nodes or metastatic disease detected in sentinel lymph node biopsy.Adjuvant chemotherapy is given to all node-positive cancersnode negative cancers if > 1 cm in size * node negative cancer > .5 cm in size with adverse prognostic factors such as blood vessel or lymph vessel invasion high nuclear grade high histological grade HER 2/neu overexpression negative hormone receptor statusAdjuvant hormone therapy (tamoxifen) is added to all those with estrogen receptor positive tumors.HER-2/neu expression is determined for all patients with newly diagnosed breast cancer and may be used to provide prognostic information in patients with node-negative breast cancer and predict the relative efficacy of various chemotherapy regimens. Trastuzumab is the HER-2/neu-targeted agent that is added to the adjuvant therapy is the tumor shows overexpression of HER-2/neu receptors.Advanced Local-Regional Breast Cancer (Stage III)(Neoadjuvant chemotherapy + MRM + adjuvant radiation therapy + chemotherapy + antiestrogen therapy)Here the disease is advanced on the chest wall or in regional lymph nodes (or both), with no evidence of metastasis to distant sites. Such patients are recognized to be at significant risk for the development of subsequent metastases, and treatment addresses the risk for both local and systemic relapse.In an effort to provide optimal local-regional disease-free survival as well as distant disease-free survival for these women, surgery is integrated with radiation therapy and chemotherapy.Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (administration of therapeutic agents prior to the main treatment) should be considered in the initial management of all patients with locally advanced stage III breast cancer.Surgical therapy for women with stage III disease is usually a modified radical mastectomy, followed by adjuvant radiation therapy and chemotherapy. Antiestrogen therapy (tamoxifen) is added for hormone receptor positive tumors.Chemotherapy is used to maximize distant disease-free survival, whereas radiation therapy is used to maximize local-regional disease-free survival.In selected patients with stage IIIA cancer, neoadjuvant (preoperative) chemotherapy can reduce the size of the primary cancer and permit breast-conserving surgery.Distant Metastases (Stage IV)(mainly palliative treatment)Treatment for stage IV breast cancer is not curative but may prolong survival and enhance a woman's quality of life.Hormonal therapies that are associated with minimal toxicity are preferred to cytotoxic chemotherapy. Appropriate candidates for initial hormonal therapy include women with hormone receptor-positive cancers; women with bone or soft tissue metastases only; and women with limited and asymptomatic visceral metastases.Systemic chemotherapy is indicated for women with hormone receptor-negative cancers, symptomatic visceral metastases, and hormone-refractory metastases.Bisphosphonates, which may be given in addition to chemotherapy or hormone therapy, should be considered in women with bone metastases.About Adjuvant TherapyAdjuvant therapy is the use of systemic therapy (chemotherapy or/and hormone therapy) in patients who have received local therapy but are at risk of relapse.The objective is to eliminate the occult metastasis responsible for late recurrences while they are microscopic and theoretically most vulnerable to anticancer agents.Adjuvant chemotherapy is given to all node-positive cancersnode negative cancers if > 1 cm in size node negative cancer > .5 cm in size with adverse prognostic factors such as blood vessel or lymph vessel invasion high nuclear grade high histological grade HER 2/neu overexpression negative hormone receptor statusAdjuvant hormone therapy (tamoxifen) is added to all those with estrogen receptor positive.* The use of chemotherapy in post-menopausal women is controversial.In post menopausal women, chemotherapy is frequently used upto age 70 yrs, if she can tolerate it.In older women, chemotherapy is performed less frequently.In estrogen positive tumors, in postmenopausal women, antiestrogen (tamoxifen/ aromatase inhibitors) therapy is the preferred form of adjuvant systemic treatment.Neoadjuvant chemotherapy it involves the administration of adjuvant therapy before primary therapy (surgery & radiation therapy) it has shown to down-stage the tumor.Previously CMF (cyclophosphamide, methotrexate & 5-fluorouracil) was the chemotherapeutic regimen of choice. "CMF is no longer considered adequate adjuvant chemotherapy and modem regimens include an anthracycline (doxorubicin or epirubicin) and the newer agents such as the taxanes (paclitaxel and docetaxel)"- Bailey and Love 25/e p844Anti-HER-2/neu antibody therapy (Trastuzumab)HER-2/neu expression for all newly diagnosed patients with breast cancer is now recommended.Trastuzumab is added to the chemotherapy for tumors overexpressing HER-2/neu receptors. (Trastuzumab is added along with taxanes)
Surgery
Breast Cancer - Treatments
[ "adriamycin", "tamoxifen" ]
58,131
4f95ef67-f81a-41b4-8e4b-af6a6e943d73
Which of the following hormone decreases intestinal motility?
glucagen
CCK
Serotonin
Gastrin
0a
single
Glucagon is produced by the A cells of the pancreatic islets and the upper gastrointestinal tract. It is glycogenolytic, gluconeogenic, lipolytic, and ketogenic. Large doses of glucagon produce profound relaxation of the intestine. It has a potent inotropic and chronotropic effect on the hea, mediated by the cAMP mechanism. It also stimulates the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and pancreatic somatostatin. CCK (Cholecystokinin), gastrin, and serotonin increases intestinal motility. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 24. Endocrine Functions of the Pancreas & Regulation of Carbohydrate Metabolism. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
Physiology
null
[ "glucagon" ]
58,145
aea8ba8c-385b-45f2-b9cc-36a196e5520e
Drug highly distributed to body fat ?
lanoxin
Heparin
osmitrol
Thiopentone
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thiopentone Redistribution of drugs Highly lipid soluble drugs get initially distributed to organs with high blood flow i. e. brain, hea, kidney etc. Later, less vascular but more bulky tissues take up the drug- plasma concentration falls and the drug is withdrawn from the highly perfused sites. If the site of action was in the highly perfused tissues, redistribution results in termination of the action of drug. Greater the lipid solubility of the drug faster is its redistribution. The drugs with high lipid solubility and faster redistribution are - thiopentone and diazepam.
Pharmacology
null
[ "digoxin", "mannitol" ]
58,152
0a352295-31c3-44f6-851c-9993eea0c9bc
Which of the following causes minimum bone marrow suppression ?
Bleomyc
5FU
cytosar
['hycamtin']
0a
single
Ans. is `a' i.e., Bleomycin Marrow sparing anticancer drugs- Vicristine, bleomycine and L-asparaginase.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cytarabine", "topotecan" ]
58,154
41fd6139-d73a-4d41-925d-1a8b324b982d
Drug causing megaloblastic anemia is :
INH
chloromycetin
Pyrimethamine
aldomet
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "methyldopa", "chloramphenicol" ]
58,172
a29ce887-4c57-445a-8bd3-203c1b65bda5
Complication of restasis therapy is:
Hypeension
Pulmonary fibrosis
corneal deposits
Nephrotoxicity
0a
single
Cyclosporine selectively suppresses cell-mediated immunity, prevents graft rejection and vet leaves the recipient with enough immune ctivity to combat bacterial infection. Unlike cytotoxic immunosuppressants, it is free of toxic effects on bone marrow and RE system. Humoral immunity remains intact. However, it is a nephrotoxic-the major limitation and impairs liver function. Other adverse effects are sustained the rise in BP, precipitation of diabetes, anorexia, lethargy, hyperkalemia, oppounistic infections, hirsutism, gum hyperplasia, tremor and seizures. Cyclosporine is the most effective drug for the prevention and treatment of graft rejection reaction. It is routinely used in the renal, hepatic, cardiac, bone marrow and other transplantations. For induction, it is staed orally 12 hours before the transplant and continued for as-long-as needed. ESSENTIALS of MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:854
Pharmacology
Immunomodulators
[ "cyclosporine" ]
58,176
05084280-941a-44d6-84f0-3ca65dc21a53
Latest (most recent) oral direct thrombin inhibitor is -
Ximelagatran
Indraparinux
Dabigatran
arixtra
2c
single
Ans is 'c' i.e. Dabigatran o Ximelagatran was the first oral direct thrombin inhibitor approved; however, it was subsequently withdrawn from the market because of repos of liver failure. o Recently a new oral direct inhibitor, dabigatran, was approved for use in Europe for prevention of various thromboembolism in patients who have undergone hip or knee replacement surgery.
Pharmacology
null
[ "fondaparinux" ]
58,177
87db442a-c2df-445e-b60e-1da74d0f48b4
All of the following are used for secondary prevention of MI except?
Aspirin
Statins
Beta-blockers
jantoven
3d
multi
Aspirin and clopidogrel have been shown to reduce moality due to MI. Statins regress atherosclerosis and b blockers which have an oxygen conserving action will prevent future episode of MI. Warfarin is not routinely used in post-MI patients.
Medicine
Acute coronary syndrome
[ "warfarin" ]
58,203
a349a3b9-f511-4876-ad9c-232139b7309f
Drug of choice in postpaum hemorrhage resistant to oxoject and Ergomterine:
hemabate
cervidil
Dinoprost
cytotec
0a
single
Treatment for PPH - IV oxytocin ( 10 - 20 units drip ) ( DOC ) .when oxytocin given in bolus it can cause profound hypotension. thus, oxytocin should be given as a dilute solution by continuous intravenous infusion IV methyl ergometrine 0.2 mg ( peak act at 90 sec ) - IM also can be given Tab misoprostol ( PGE1 ) - 1000 mg / rectum Injection carboprost ( PGF2 a) * IM only * IV - sudden HTW
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
JIPMER 2018
[ "carboprost", "oxytocin", "misoprostol", "dinoprostone" ]
58,211
76c5cb90-d172-48df-a76c-8e6ed1280bc4
A patient presented with Hypovolemeia and Na is 154, The initial treatment includes
Normal saline
1/2 N saline with 5% dextrose
macrodex 40
Ringer's lactate
0a
single
(A) Normal saline
Surgery
Miscellaneous
[ "dextran" ]
58,227
9d7e0a18-df18-4326-884f-95d456778070
Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic is?
exparel
novocaine
Prilocaine
rectacaine
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bupivacaine Bupivacaine (Sensoricaine, Marcaine) Bupivacaine is 2nd most commonly used local anaesthetic (after lidocaine). Bupivacaine has the highest local tissue irritancy amongst local anaesthetics. It is the most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic. Levobupivacaine (The S(-) enantiomer of bupivacaine) is less cardiotoxic and less prone to cause seizure. o Concentrations used for bupivacaine are : - Nerve block : 0.5%, Epidural : 0.25 - 0.5 %, and spinal : 0.5%. o Maximum safe dose is 2 mg/kg without adrenaline and 3mg/kg with epinephrine.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "procaine", "bupivacaine", "dibucaine" ]
58,236
942042a7-c08a-4450-88d4-c7b95ff64f55
oxoject challenge test for assessing fetal well-being is contraindicated in all except :
Placenta pre
Previous 2 LSCS
Breech
Premature labour
2c
multi
Contraindications compromised fetus previous history of CS Complications likely to produce premature labour APH multiple pregnancy D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,pg no:501,7th edition
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis in obstetrics
[ "oxytocin" ]
58,256
fba9a718-4b25-403d-97d1-4a1b318b90e6
Substrate controlled hormone is:
glucagen
FSH
LH
TRH
0a
single
Blood glucose and amino acids are the substrates for glucagon. The levels of these substrates control the glucagon secretion. Glucagon secretion is stimulated by: Hypoglycemia, increase amino acids, stress, exercise, sympathetic stimulation Glucagon secretion is inhibited by: Insulin, increase blood glucose, somatostatin. Hypoglycemia is the most impoant stimulus. Protein rich meal and serum amino acids stimulate glucagon and insulin secretion. Arginine stimulates both glucagon and insulin secretion; alanine stimulates only glucagon secretion directly.
Physiology
Endocrine System
[ "glucagon" ]
58,265
aebac434-fee8-4c15-a158-956d02511d1f
Plasma concentrations (g/mL) after administration of 5. 1 mg/kg of garamycin intravenously to a hypothetical patient has shown in the Graph. The red color depicted in the graph is dose given at
24 hours
12 hours
8 hours
Threshold
0a
single
Ans: A
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
[ "gentamicin" ]
58,276
a894d0aa-4698-4e9b-a9fa-3f227f929f03
The chemotherapeutic agents "endoxana" is associated with which side effects (SELECT 1 SIDE EFFECT)
Hemorrhagic cystitis
Renal failure
Tympanic membrane fibrosis
Necrotizing enterocolitis
0a
single
Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent that cross-links DNA and also inhibits DNA synthesis. Hemorrhagic cystitis and alopecia are common side effects. Cisplatin causes renal damage and neural toxicity. Patients must be well hydrated. Its mode of action does not fit a specific category. Taxol can produce allergic reactions and bone marrow depression. Bleomycin and doxorubicin are antibiotics whose side effects are pulmonary fibrosis and cardiac toxicity, respectively Vincristine arrests cells in metaphase by binding microtubular proteins and preventing the formation of mitotic spindles. Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
[ "cyclophosphamide" ]
58,289
4303ca51-83ff-48b1-b426-97246f310a5e
Lactic acidosis is a side effect of
diuril
glucophage
restasis
nebupent
1b
single
(B) Metformin # LACTIC ACIDOSIS: occurs when the rate of production of lactic acid from pyruvate in muscle, skin, brain & erythrocytes exceeds the rate of removal by liver & kidney.# Causes of Lactic Acidosis:# Group A (Due to poor tissue perfusion)> Shock from any cause, Respiratory failure, Severe anaemia, Mitochondrial enzyme inhibitor (Cyanide or CO)# Group B (Due to aerobic disorder)> Diabetes mellitus; Hepatic failure; Renal failure; Severe infection (cholera, malaria)> Malignancies; Seizures> Drugs (biguanides such as metformin, salicylates, isoniazid, sorbitol, AZT analogues, fructose)> Toxins (ethanol, methanol), Congenital enzyme defect
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
[ "pentamidine", "cyclosporine", "metformin", "chlorothiazide" ]
58,291
02bec161-a6e1-4209-8ce0-c76d7bcd392a
Which is NOT an alkylating agent?
5-FU
leukeran
Melphalan
endoxana
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5 Fluorouracil Alkylating agentsAlkylating agents are antineoplastic agents having alkyl groups in their structure. They exert their cytotoxic effect via transfer of their alkyl group to the various cellular constituents.Alkylation of D.N.A. is the major interaction that leads to cell death.Before transferring their alkyl group, the drugs undergo intramolecular cyclization to form an ethylene immonium ion that may directly or through formation of carbonium ion transfer an alkyl group.The major site of alkylation within the DNA is the N7 position of Guanine with D.N.A.Major types of Alkylating agents used in the chemotherapy of neoplastic diseases B15 (chloro ethylamines), Nitrogen mustardsCyclophosphamideMechlorethamineChlorambucilMelphalanIfosfamide NitrosoureasCarmustineLomustineSemustineStreptozocin AziridinesThiotepaAltretamine Alkyl sulfonateBusulfanIn addition for pedagogical reasons, the methyl hydrazine and platinum complexes are included under alkylating agents even though the latter do not formally alkylate DNA and exhibit a different means to form covalent adducts.Platinum compoundsCisplatinOxaliplatinCarboplatinNedaplatinTriazene, methyl hydrazineProcarbazineAltretamine (hexamethyl melamine)Dacarbazine
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
[ "cyclophosphamide", "chlorambucil" ]
58,294
0a2cc35a-a16d-4882-838a-4e8c57511a29
All are true regarding oral hypoglycemic agent, EXCEPT :
Effective only after total pancreatectomy
glucophage causes lactic acidosis
Causes release of insulin from beta-cells
Useful in obese maturity onset diabetics
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' Effective only after total pancreatectomy Mechanism of action of sulfonylureasPresence of at least 30% functional pancreas is necessary for the action of oral hypoglycemics (Sulfonyl ureas).They act on sulfonylurea receptors present on beta cells of pancreas. This increase insulin secretion.Oral hypoglycemics are used only in uncomplicated type 11 diabetes (N1DDM).Both phenformin and metformin cause lactic acidosis (Phenformin > metformin).
Pharmacology
Anti Diabetes
[ "metformin" ]
58,296
79bb99af-ec35-4d8c-882c-8254e7db2444
A 60-year-old diabetic woman develops angina and will need a coronary angiogram for evaluation of coronary artery disease. She has a creatinine of 2.2. Which of the following is the most effective in reducing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?
Administer osmitrol immediately after the contrast is given.
Perform prophylactic hemodialysis after the procedure.
Give IV hydration with normal saline or sodium bicarbonate prior to and following the procedure.
indocin 25 mg the morning of the procedure.
2c
single
Contrast agents harm the kidney by causing the production of oxygen radicals and by causing vasoconstriction, both of which can lead to acute kidney injury. Patients with underlying kidney disease at baseline, those with diabetes, congestive heart failure, multiple myeloma, and dehydration are at greatest risk of this complication. Pre-hydration with IV normal saline or bicarbonate has been proven to decrease the risk of contrast nephropathy. V-acetylcysteine is also used by some clinicians for prevention, though studies have not been as convincing as those using saline or bicarbonate. Mannitol, dopamine, and prophylactic hemodialysis have been studied and found ineffective in preventing contrast nephropathy. Indomethacin would cause further vasoconstriction and is contraindicated in patients with renal insufficiency.
Medicine
Kidney
[ "indomethacin", "mannitol" ]
58,298
b4544941-7c0b-4eaf-959e-7b7c11c457a2
Stage 2 block (Phase II block) is seen with:
quelicin
isoflo
ultane
ethrane
0a
single
Ref: Miller Textbook of Anaesthesia. 6th edition.Explanation:Succinyl Choline - Mechanism of action1. Phase 1 block (depolarizing)Succinylcholine is the only clinically useful depolarizing blocking drug.Its neuromuscular effects are like those of acetylcholine except that succinylcholine produces a longer effect at the myoneural junction.Succinylcholine reacts with the nicotinic receptor to open the channel and cause depolarization of the motor end plate, and this in turn spreads to the adjacent membranes, causing contractions of muscle motor units.Because succinylcholine is not metabolized effectively at the synapse, the depolarized membranes remain depolarized and unresponsive to subsequent impulses (ie, in a state of depolarizing block).Furthermore, because excitation-contraction coupling requires end plate repolarization ("reprintmg") and repetitive firing to maintain muscle tension, a flaccid paralysis results.This so-called phase 1 (depolarizing) block is thus augmented, not reversed, by cholinesterase inhibitors.2. Phase II block (desensitizing)With continued exposure to succinylcholine, the initial end plate depolarization decreases and the membrane becomes repolarized.Despite this re polarization, the membrane cannot easily be depolarized again because it is desensitized.The mechanism for this desensitizing phase is unclear, but some evidence indicates that channel block may become more important than agonist action at the receptor in phase II of succinylcholine' s neuromuscular blocking action.Later in phase II. the characteristics of the blockade are nearly identical to those of a nondepolarizing block (ie, a nonsustained twitch response to a tetanic stimulus), with reversal by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
Anaesthesia
Depolarising Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
[ "suxamethonium", "sevoflurane", "enflurane", "isoflurane" ]
58,306
cb1196da-6548-4137-bb38-bbb7d352b666
Which of the following is not a 4 — Aminoquinolone?
resochin
Amodiaquine
Primaquine
lariam
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "mefloquine", "chloroquine" ]
58,316
235219b1-3469-49b9-a775-594164789556
The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly propoional to lowering the flow in the poal vein. Poal flow is maximally reduced by:
Ether
fluothane
isoflo
ethrane
1b
multi
Halothane reduces splanchnic and hepatic blood flow as a consequence of reduced perfusion pressure. This reduced blood flow has not been shown to produce detrimental effects on hepatic or GI function. The metabolism and clearance of some drugs (eg, fentanyl, phenytoin, verapamil) appear to be impaired by halothane. Ref: Morgan, Jr. G.E., Mikhail M.S., Murray M.J. (2006). Chapter 7. Inhalation Anesthetics. In G.E. Morgan, Jr., M.S. Mikhail, M.J. Murray (Eds), Clinical Anesthesiology, 4e.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "enflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
58,339
5342bb8b-89a6-4daa-a86a-9af94b53f397
All of the following drugs can be used in hypeensive crisis except:-
trandate
visken
nitropress
adalat
1b
multi
Pindolol is non-selective b blocker and not used in hypeensive emergencies. Labetalol is DOC for gestational hypeension as well as hypeensive emergencies in pregnancy. Nitroprusside is DOC for hypeensive emergencies in patients with aoic dissection. Nifedipine can be used rarely for the rapid control of blood pressure but the route of administration is sub-lingual. Nicardipine and Clevidipine are also DOC for hypeensive emergencies. DRUGS USED FOR HYPEENSIVE EMERGENCIES Group Drugs Vasodilators Sodium NitroprussideNitroglycerineHydralazine Calcium channel blockers NicardipineClevidipineNifedipine Alpha blockers PhentolamineTolazolineUrapidil Beta blockers LabetalolEsmolol ACE inhibitor Enalaprilat D1 agonist Fenoldopam Diuretic Furosemide
Pharmacology
Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia
[ "nitroprusside", "nifedipine", "pindolol", "labetalol" ]
58,345
79349bb7-3941-4806-87af-ae7e15ebb261
Which one of the following cofactors must be utilized during the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA?
Thiamine pyrophosphate
Acyl carrier protein
FAD
appearex
3d
single
The key enzymatic step of fatty acid synthesis is the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form malonyl CoA. The carboxyl of biotin is covalently attached to an e-amino acid group of a lysine residue of acetyl CoA carboxylase. The reaction occurs in two stages. In the first step, a carboxybiotin is formed: HCO3- + biotin-enzyme + ATP - CO2-biotin-enzyme + ADP + Pi In the second step, the CO2 is transferred to acetyl CoA to produce malonyl CoA: CO2-biotin-enzyme + acetyl CoA -- malonyl CoA + biotin-enzyme None of the other cofactors listed are involved in this reaction. Ref:Bender D.A. (2011). Chapter 44. Micronutrients: Vitamins & Minerals. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds),Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e.
Biochemistry
null
[ "biotin" ]
58,358
eb3fba89-962f-4dd2-ab02-b3c9f996f00a
Which of the following hormones regulates blood levels of 1,25-OH-cholecalciferol positively:
synthroid
Parathormone
Insulin
Calcitonin
1b
single
PTH - PTH acts in a positive feed forward manner in regulating vitamin D in response to | S. Ca At Ca2+ concentration below 9-10 mg /100 ml PTH promotes conversion of 25 -OH-cholecalciferol to 1,25 di OH cholecalciferol in the kidneys CALCITONIN - Peptide hormone secreted by thyroid gland - parafollicular cells / C. cells - Tends to decrease serum Ca level that is effect opposite to PTH INSULIN - Causes intracellular movement of plasma glucose | S. glucose
Physiology
FMGE 2018
[ "thyroxine" ]
58,362
d27fcb75-fb47-4d0f-b223-7476f4665b34
Which of the following best explains why Lignocaine has a higher fetal-to-maternal plasma ratio when compared with exparel?
exparel has low molecular weight
Lignocaine has higher protein-binding
exparel has a lower dissociation constant (pKa)
Lignocaine is less protein bound
3d
single
Lignocaine is  less protein bound than bupivacaine. Unbound form of drug thus easily gets transferred across placenta.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "bupivacaine" ]
58,372
ed48098f-352b-4e46-8ab1-2fa967b70df2
stimate is a synthetic analog of ADH. It is preferred over arginine pitressin in the treatment of diabetes insipidus for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
It is a more potent antidiuretic
It is a selective pitressin V1 receptor agonist
It has a little vasoconstrictor activity
It is longer acting
1b
multi
Vasopressin can act on V1 and V2 receptors whereas desmopressin is a selective V2 receptor agonist. Desmopressin: It is a more potent antidiuretic It is longer acting It has a little vasoconstrictor activity
Pharmacology
Kidney
[ "desmopressin", "vasopressin" ]
58,397
cd1ee472-eb50-4424-ad4d-1ae4ed1ee8d9
pilagan is a -
Muscarinic cholinergic drug
Nicotinic cholinergic drug
Alpha-adrenergic drug
Beta-adrenergic drug
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Muscarinic cholinergic drug Cholinomimetic drug|||With muscarinic actionWith Nicotinic Actiono Acetylcholineo Methacholineo Carbacholo Bethanecholo Pilocarpineo Muscarineo Arecholineo Acetylcholineo Carbacholo Arecholine
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
[ "pilocarpine" ]
58,413
78627b6b-c15d-4122-a3e0-eaac64093afb
In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of –
rocephin
Phenobarbitone
penbritin
Sulphonamide
3d
single
The administration of sidfonamides to newborn infants, especially if premature, may lead to the displacement of Bilirubin from plasma albumin. In newborn infants, free Bilirubin can become deposited in the basal subthalamic nuclei of the brain 'causing an encephalopathy called kernicterus. Sulfonamides should not be given to pregnant women near term because these drugs pass through the placenta and are secreted in milk. Kernicterus is due to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Pediatrics
null
[ "ampicillin", "ceftriaxone" ]
58,414
eab27d56-06e8-4999-8c49-19418415e456
Which of the following drug can be given in a case of combined gonococcal and nongonococcal cervicitis?
rocephin
zithromax
proquin
Cefixime
1b
single
Currently ceftriaxone is the mainstay of therapy for uncomplicated gonococcal infection of the urethra, cervix, rectum or pharynx. Alternative regimens for uncomplicated gonococcal infection are: Gemifloxacin plus Azithromycin Gentamycin plus Azithromycin Because of co- infection with C. Trachomatis initial treatment regimen must incorporate azithromycin (extended release microsphere formulation) or doxycycline. Rising MIC of cefixime has resulted in CDC to discontinue its recommendation.
Medicine
Bacterial infection
[ "azithromycin", "ciprofloxacin", "ceftriaxone" ]
58,422
85caedbb-2cb5-4f54-9e81-76c2c407301e
A 15-year-old type I diabetic faints after injecting himself with insulin. He is administered glucagen and rapidly recovers consciousness. glucagen induces activity of:
Glycogen synthase
Glycogen phosphorylase
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
1b
single
Glucagon (catabolic hormone) activates the Rate limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis (catabolic pathway) i.e. Glycogen phosphorylase. ADDITIONAL EDGE: Fig.: In fasting state, Glucagon hormone is released. Regulation of glycogen metabolism at the level of glycogen phosphorylase: cAMP activates phosphorylase kinase (by a cAMP-dependent protein kinase), which in turn activates glycogen phosphorylase. Calcium activates the calmodulin component of phosphorylase kinase directly, which in turn activates glycogen phosphorylase. 5' AMP acts allosterically to activate glycogen phosphorylase. Protein phosphatase-1 inactivates glycogen phosphorylase.
Biochemistry
Diabetes
[ "glucagon" ]
58,429
2e65a736-a4fd-4d39-8b7c-a375e1779a2a
SLE like syndrome may be produced by all except:-
Sulfonamide
Psoralen
apresoline
pronestyl
1b
multi
Drugs causing DLE ( Drug induced Lupus Erythematosus ) can also be asked as drugs undergoing metabolism by liver acetylation. Such drugs are: C- SHIP C-Chlorpromazine S - Sulfonamides H - Hydralazine I - Isoniazid P - Procainamide
Medicine
Systemic Lupus Erythematous
[ "hydralazine", "procainamide" ]
58,441
f40fab15-efbd-49ae-96e0-9ffb5ec6e3cd
All of the following drugs can be given to a mother with lupus after 35th week of gestation, except:
resochin
trexall
Sulphadiazine /Sulphasalazine
orapred
1b
multi
Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. It is highly teratogenic. The metabolites are active in the cells and tissues even after several weeks to months following discontinuation. So it is usually recommended to stop 3-6 months prior to the planned conception. Ref: Prescribing in Pregnancy edited by Peter C. Rubin, Margaret Ramsey, Pages 105, 103; Oxford textbook of medicine, Volume 1 By D. A. Warrell, Timothy M. Cox, John D. Fih, Page 752; Drugs During Pregnancy and Lactation By Christof Schaefer, Pages 166; Harrison textbook of medicine 17th edition, Pages 1291, 1272, 2082.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "methotrexate", "prednisolone", "chloroquine" ]
58,461
ee998901-aeb1-4859-a627-b2475c045118
Commonest cause of hypothyroidism is
Defective synthesis of synthroid
Defect of iodide transport
Defect of the thyroglobulin synthesis
Thyroid dysgenesis
3d
single
(Thyroid dysgenesis) (1872-73-Nelson 17th) (481-Ghai 7th)HYPOTHYROIDISM results from deficient production of thyroid hormone or a defect in thyroid hormone or a defect in thyroid hormonal receptor activity* Someform of thyroid dysgenesis (aplasia, hypoplasia or an ectopic gland) is the most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism, accounting for 85% of cases, 10% are caused by an in bom error of thyroxine synthjesis and 5% are the result of transplacental maternal thyrotropin receptor blocking antibody.* Pendred syndrome - congenital hypothyroidism with sensorineural deafness and goiter, also have a positive perchlorate discharge.* ** Sodium L-thyroxine given orally is the treatment of choices (side effects are - craniosynostosis and temperature problems pseudotumour cerebri)* Acquired hypothyroidism - is most commonly caused by auto immune destruction of thyroid as a part of Chronic lymphocytic thyroidits (Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Pediatrics
Endocrinology
[ "thyroxine" ]
58,467
b3029346-c375-4e3d-9ac3-6a3a03a57da9
Which of the following anti-HIV drug should never be given as rechallenge once history of producing allergic reaction with drug is known?
epivir
Abacavir
retrovir
viracept
1b
multi
Abacavir (ABC) This guanosine analogue is a potent ARV drug that acts after intracellular conversion to carbovir triphosphate. Resistance to ABC develops slowly, and it exhibits little cross resistance with other Nis. Its oral bioavailability is 80% and it is mainly eliminated by metabolism. The plasma half life is 1-1.5 hour, but intracellular half life of active metabolite is > 12 hours. Hypersensitivity reactions such as rashes, fever, flu-like symptoms are the major problems. Some fatalities have occurred when patients developing the reaction were given fuher doses of ABC. Avoidance of alcohol is advised. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:772
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "lamivudine", "nelfinavir", "zidovudine" ]
58,476
9cca7487-042e-4905-a03d-5404749d0f7a
Sympathomimietic causing increase in mean blood pressure, hea rate and cardiac output on intravenous infusion is?
Adrenaline
Isoprenaline
Norepinephrine
vazculep
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adrenaline
Pharmacology
null
[ "phenylephrine" ]
58,491
a2c1b8d2-6d39-4eba-a0da-6ef94e34a6b1
The production of cervical mucus is stimulated by
Progesterone
Pregnenolone
incurin
Estradiol
3d
single
Cervical mucus is a glycoprotein gel that expand and contract in response to cyclic changes in the steroid hormone environment across the menstrual cycle to facilitate or inhibit the passage of sperm Estrogen stimulates cervical mucus production, and as levels rise during the follicular phase, mucus becomes more abundant and watery, less cellular, and more easily penetrated by sperm Progesterone inhibits cervical mucus production and renders it opaque, viscid, and impenetrable
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "estriol" ]
58,507
4dc98531-af49-4923-9269-fd1fde318ecb
Androgen receptor blocking drug is-
nolvadex
cyprostat acetate
mifeprex
Nalondrone
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cyproterone acetate
Pharmacology
null
[ "mifepristone", "tamoxifen", "cyproterone" ]
58,529
9a586a37-fb87-4f57-91ae-0ac9a0c6354d
A 26-year old lady has just recovered from acute manic episode. She has a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder. Which one of the following is not used for the prophylaxis of the condition?
tegretol
Lithium
Semisodium depakene
largactil
3d
single
Lithium, Semi Sodium Valproate (Depakote) and Carbamazepine are used in prophylaxis of Bipolar disorder. Lithium is the drug of choice but it will require frequent blood level montoring due to it's narrow therapeutic index. Sodium valproate cannot be used in women of child bearing age due to possible teratogenicity to the foetus. All mood stabilisers work by preventing manic episodes. They have very little effcet on the depression. However, if mania is controlled the episodes of depression are likely to be insignificant. Chlorpromazine is an old generation anti-psychotic.
Psychiatry
null
[ "valproate", "chlorpromazine", "carbamazepine" ]
58,537
a9f0c5d5-ec3b-4d52-82bb-4b25b0769a48
Which of the following binds to viral envelope glycoprotein preventing the conformational changes required for the fusion of viral and cellular membranes?
Abacavir
crixivan
Enfuviide
tamiflu
2c
single
Enfuviide is a fusion inhibitor useful in the treatment of HIV infections. It acts by binding to HIV-I envelope transmembrane glycoprotein (gp41) which is involved in fusion of viral and cellular membranes. Abacavir is a NI Indinavir is a protease inhibitor Oseltamivir is a neuramindase inhibitor.
Pharmacology
Anti-HIV Drugs
[ "oseltamivir", "indinavir" ]
58,542
b64d13a0-9735-4203-985d-fe69364e03f1
A child presents with infective skin lesion of the leg. A culture was done which showed gram+ve cocci in chains which were hemolytic colonies. The test to confirm the organism is
Bile solubility
Optochin sensitivity
baci-im sensitivity
Catalase positive
2c
single
The culture is suggestive of infection with Streptococcus pyogenes which is gram-positive, occurring in chains and beta-hemolytic. A convenient method for the identification of Streptococcus pyogenes is based on Maxted's observation that they are more sensitive to bacitracin than other streptococci. Bacitracin sensitivity test: A filter paper disc of 0.04U is applied on the surface of an inoculated blood agar. After incubation, a wide zone of inhibition is seen with Streptococcus pyogenes and not with other streptococci. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 217
Microbiology
Bacteriology
[ "bacitracin" ]
58,548
a66cbc7e-838c-487a-9582-2ed7084124c0
A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency room complaining of severe pain in his right toe. The pain is interfering with his ability to walk and he reports no prior trauma to the toe. He has had multiple less severe episodes in the past, which he always treats with pain medications.On physical examination, the toe is red, inflamed, and exquisitely sensitive to movement. An x-ray of the toe is normal and needle aspiration of the joint confirms uric acid crystals. He is treated with oral indocin (NSAID) for 7 days, and 1 month later he remains symptom free. caplenal is recommended for prevention of this condition. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of caplenal?
inhibition of xanthine oxidase
solubilization of uric acid
reactivity with hypoxanthine
anti-inflammatory effect on joint tissue
0a
multi
Allopurinol inhibits the enzyme xanthine oxidase, resulting in decreased uric acid production. Allopurinol is particularly useful in the treatment of uric acid nephrolithiasis in gouty individuals. Even if the gouty individual has calcium oxalate stones, allopurinol may be helpful.
Medicine
Endocrinology
[ "indomethacin", "allopurinol" ]
58,566
53531f0c-becb-4175-b637-b2a626815848
Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
isoflo
ultane
suprane
Nitrous oxide
2c
single
C i.e. Desflurane Pungent volatile anesthetic agents are desflurane, isoflurane, enflurane and etherQ. (Mn-"DIE') Volatile Anesthetic Agent Physical propey Blood/ Gas paition coefficient Xenon Colourless, odourless, nonirritating (i.e. non pungent) 0.115 Low B/G Coeffiecient = Low solubitity in blood i.e. fast induction & rapid recoveryQ Desflurane Pungent (irritating / unpleasant to inhale) 0.42 Nitrous oxide (N20) Colourless, sweet smelling, non irritant (i.e. non pungent) 0.47 Sevoflurane Colourless, non pungent 0.69 Isoflurane Pungent ethereal odor (i e. moderately irritating) 1.4 Mn-"Xena- Dislikes No Save" "IE HEAT" Enflurane Pungent 1.9 Halothane Colourless, non irritating (non pungent/pleasant) odor 2.5 High B/G coefficient = High solubility in blood i.e. Slow induction & slow recoveryQ Ether Extremely irritating (pungent) 12 * Because of lack of chlorine / bromine ions; sevoflurane & desflurane have no effect on ozone layer. Pungent = Unpleasant= Causing Cough = Irritant
Anaesthesia
null
[ "sevoflurane", "isoflurane", "desflurane" ]
58,575
b677bcc3-888d-4d44-b7fb-7f9f402b0b51
gleevec mesylate used in the treatment of GIST is a inhibitor of
IL-12
TNF-x
Tyrosine kinase
VEGE
2c
single
Imatinib mesylate used in the treatment of GIST ( GastroIntestinal Stromal Tumours) is a c-kit(transmembrane receptor tyrosine kinase) tyrosine kinase inhibitor. GIST is rare but most common nonepithelial small bowel tumours. More than 95% show c-kit mutation. Reference : page 877 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
Surgery
Urology
[ "imatinib" ]
58,580
8fcbac56-dedf-41c2-baa9-7763fef26fff
Which of the following drugs is not used in prostate carcinoma
Finasteride
apstil
Testosterone
eulexin
2c
single
Ref-KDT 6/e p291 Prostatic carcinoma results due to excessive testosterone. Testosterone is cnveed to dihydrotestosterone (DfT) by 5-alpha reductase. DfI is responsible for prostatic growth Flutamide is an androgen rereptor antagonist whereas finasteride is reductase inhibitor. Both of these drugs can be used in pros tatic cancer. Diethylstilbesterol is an estrogen. It will cause feedback inhibition of pituitary and hypothalamus. Decreased secretion of GnRH (LH and PSH) results in the decrease in testosterone. It was also used previously for orostatic carcinoma.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "diethylstilbestrol", "flutamide" ]
58,587
df8b9891-888c-4851-96e0-43fc4496715a
Active form of Vitamin D is:March 2011, March 2013 (a, e, g)
Cholecalciferol
24, 25 hydroxy Vitamin D
1, 25 hydroxy Vitamin D (calcijex)
25, hydroxyl Vitamin D
2c
single
Ans. C: 1, 25 hydroxy Vitamin D (Calcitriol)Calcitriol (1, 25-DHCC) is the biologically active form of vitamin DCalcitriol/ 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol/ 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3It is the hormonally active form of vitamin D with three hydroxyl groups (abbreted 1,25-(OH)2D3 or simply 1, 25 (OH)2D).It increases the level of calcium (Ca2+) in the blood by (1) increasing the uptake of calcium from the gut into the blood, (2) decreasing the transfer of calcium from blood to the urine by the kidney, and (3) increasing the release of calcium into the blood from boneCalcitriol increases blood calcium levels () by promoting absorption of dietary calcium from the gastrointestinal tract and increasing renal tubular reabsorption of calcium thus reducing the loss of calcium in the urine.Calcitriol also stimulates release of calcium from bone by its action on the osteoblasts, causing them to release RANKL, which in turn activates osteoclasts.Calcitriol acts in conce with parathyroid hormone (PTH) in all three of these roles.For instance, PTH also stimulates osteoclasts.However, the main effect of PTH is to increase the rate at which the kidneys excrete inorganic phosphate (Pi), the counterion of Ca2+.The resulting decrease in serum phosphate causes Ca5 (PO4)30H to dissolve out of bone thus increasing serum calcium.PTH also stimulates the production of calcitriol.Many of the effects of calcitriol are mediated by its interaction with the calcitriol receptor, also called the vitamin D receptor or VDR.The maintenance of electroneutrality requires that the transpo of Ca2+ ions catalyzed by the intestinal epithelial cells be accompanied by counterions, primarily inorganic phosphate.Thus calcitriol also stimulates the intestinal absorption of phosphate.Calcitriol also inhibits the release of calcitonin, a hormone which reduces blood calcium primarily by inhibiting calcium release from bone.Calcitriol is produced in the cells of the proximal tubule of the nephron in the kidneys by the action of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 1-alpha-hydroxylase, a mitochondrial oxygenase and an enzyme which catalyzes the hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (calcifediol).The activity of the enzyme is stimulated by PTH.The reaction is an impoant control point in Ca2+ homeostasis.The production of calcitriol is also increased by prolactin, a hormone which stimulates lactogenesis, a process which requires large amounts of calcium.
Anatomy
null
[ "calcitriol" ]
58,595
5b956614-2df7-4084-91a4-37f71b18ce00
antabuse is a type of
Aversion therapy
Anticraving therapy
Detoxification
Opioid management therapy
0a
single
Disulfiram inhibits Aldehyde dehyrogenase enzyme and leads to accumulation of Acetaldehyde resulting in aversive symptoms.
Psychiatry
null
[ "disulfiram" ]
58,600
22893d48-957c-4ff3-9830-07924a7021d3
vasotec increases the levels of which of the following ?
Bradykynin
Interferon
PAF
TNF
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "enalapril" ]
58,606
e61320ca-ce9d-4acd-93d7-2823eb5a67dd
All of the following are anticoagulant ,except
Phytonadione
jantoven
LMW heparin
Lepirudin
0a
multi
Phytonadione is Vit K. All others are anti coagulants. From essential of medical pharmacology K D Tripati 7th edition Page no 613
Pharmacology
Hematology
[ "warfarin" ]
58,617
11b8bde2-6539-4460-825f-a99356dd2ff4
The following is the indication of integrilin
Angina
HIV
CCF
Hypeension
0a
single
Eptifibatide, terofiban are the newer antiplatelet drugs(Glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitors) used in unstable anginaRef: Goodman Gillman 12thed. Pg: 871
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "eptifibatide" ]
58,653