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183k
b5dfa3c3-c841-4c76-a771-87ba597a77a6
All are adulterants of heroin, except:
Chalk powder
Quinine
Charcoal
Fructose
2c
multi
C i.e Charcoal Morphine depress respiratory centre, so rate & tidal volume both are decreasedQ & death is due to respiratory failure. YawningQ, dysphoric mood & insomnia with water loss from different orifices (i.e. lacrymation, sweating, diarrhoea, vomiting, rhinorrhea) are characteristic symptoms of opioid withdrawl Opium (Morphine) poisoning has 3 stages Stage of Excitement - HallucinationQ, Euphoria, Maniacal features Stage of Stupor - Headache, nausea, vomiting, incapacity for exeion, a sense of weight in limbs, giddiness, drowsiness, stupor Stage of Coma - Abolished reflex, Pin point non reacting pupilQ, All secretions are suspended except sweat, respiratory depressionQ & paralysis -Charas or Hashish is resinous exudates from the leaves & stems of plant cannabis indica or Cannabis sativa.Q - The activa principle of cannabis is a fat soluble oleoresin, cannabinol (tetra h dro-cannabinol- THC). Cannabis is used in four forms Bhang Dried leaves & fruit shoots Majun Sweet meat made with bhang. It produces grandiose delusions in addition to effects of bhang Ganja Dried flowering tops of female plant.Q Charas or Hashish Resinous exudates from leaves & stem of plantQ
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "quinine" ]
51,140
a089b3a5-70d5-4257-9f69-d31f916ca709
True about tamoxifen is-
Selective estrogen receptor downregulator
Selective estrogen receptor modulator
Selective tissue estrogen activator regulator
Estrogen antagonist
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., SERM * Has been explained in previous sessions
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "tamoxifen" ]
51,141
1d69169b-38f9-49eb-b237-f7ffa6f9dabb
Transaerial chemoembolization (TACE) is used in the treatment of unresectable hepatocellular carcinoma without poal vein thrombosis. The drug commonly used for TACE is:
Doxorubicin
Sorafenib
Tamoxifen
Carboplatin
0a
single
There are different treatment modalities for HCC. Curative treatments are resection, liver transplantation, Radiofrequency ablation (RFA), Percutaneous ethanol injection etc. Palliative treatments are TACE, Sorafenib etc. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Cha in Page 781.
Medicine
null
[ "tamoxifen", "carboplatin", "doxorubicin" ]
51,146
52411363-8333-4571-8ab2-4872d5fbd235
Resuscitation of a child with HR<60/min includes all of the following, except
Chest compression
Adrenaline
Endrotracheal tube intubation
Never give atropine
3d
multi
Ref. The Short Textbook of Pediatrics. Pg 271 Atropine is considered when there is a AV block
Unknown
null
[ "atropine" ]
51,147
540b6a57-ac39-4d03-b2ed-12c7bc3d4d61
Presence of trifluroacetic acid (TFA) in urine indicates that volatile anaesthetic agent used was
Halothane
Methoxyflurane
Trichloroethylene
None of the above
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Halothane
Surgery
null
[ "methoxyflurane", "halothane" ]
51,155
230158d2-3358-44dd-84b9-522a4e5b2323
Site of action of vecuronium is?
Cerebrum
Reticular formation
Motor neuron
Neuro-muscular junction
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neuro-muscular junction* Vecuronium, a non-depolarizing blocker, acts on nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction.* Neuro-muscular blocker act at myoneural junction1. Competitive (Non-depolarizing) blocker: -# They compete with Achfor Nm receptors - called competitive blockers. They prevent binding of Ach to Nm receptors - No opening of Na+ channels - No depolarization, so these are called non-depolarizing blockers. Competitive blockers reduce the frequency of channel opening but not its duration or the conductance of a channel once it has opened. When the magnitude of end plate potential falls below a critical level, it is unable to trigger propagated muscle action potential - muscle fails to contract. Neostigmine (anticholinesterases) antagonises competitive blockers as it increases the concentration of Ach by inhibiting its degradation by cholinesterase. Therefore, Neostigmine is used for the reversal of competitive (nondepolarizing) blockers.2. Depolarizing blockers (Succinylcholine, Decamethonium)# Depolarizing blockers have affinity as well as submaximal intrinsic activity on NM receptors. They depolarize muscle end plates by opening of Na+ channels and initially produce twitching and fasciculations (not full contraction as these drugs have submaximal activity) - So, they are called depolarizing blocker. These drugs do not dissociate rapidly from the receptor (NM) - Persistant partial depolarization - Na+ channels get inactivated - flaccid paralysis. Neostigmine does not antagonize depolarising blockers (Therefore neostigmine cannot be used for reversal).Inf act neostigmine can potentiate the block as neostigmine and other anti-cholinesterase also inhibits pseudocholinesterase which metabolizes Sch.Under certain conditions depolarizing agents produce dual mechanism of neuromuscular blockade which can be divided into two phases :a) Phase I block* Rapid in onset* Result from persistant depolarization of muscle end plate - Typical mechanism of action of depolarizing blocker.* Has classical features of depolarization block.* Block is not antagonized by anticholinesterases (neostigmine).b) Phase II block (Dual block)* Slow in onset* Results from desensitization of receptor to ACh - Ach can not act on Nm receptors (similar to competitive blocker).* Resembles block produced by competitive blockers - Therefore, has characteristics similar to non-depolarizing (competitive) block.* Block is partially reversed by anticholinesterases (Neostigmine).# In man, normally, only phase I block is seen - typical depolarizing block.# Phase II block is seen when fluorinated anaesthetics have been given or when SCh is injected in high dose.# SCh also produces phase II block in patients with atypical or deficient pseudocholinesterase.
Anaesthesia
Muscle Relaxant
[ "vecuronium" ]
51,171
572a90dd-f1bc-45d9-a2bf-53d8dd7f58a8
In treatment of Osteosarcoma all of the following are used except (REPEAT)
High dose Methotrexate
Cycloohosphamide
Vincristine
Doxorubicin
2c
multi
Though surgery is the form of primary treatment in Osteosarcoma but etoposide cycloohosphamide, Cisplatin, Doxorubicin have been used High dose Methotrexate has been the drug of choice and is the only FDA approved agent for this condition Ref Katzung 10th/891
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "methotrexate", "vincristine", "doxorubicin" ]
51,179
dce86bb6-0ff4-45b0-8d61-e30f2b17cb44
Which of the following is not conveed into active metabolite
Lisinopril
Fluxotine
Cyclophosphamide
Diazepam
0a
single
all ACE inhibitor are prodrug except captopril and lisinopril drug -active metabolite fluxotine-non fluxotine Cyclophosphamide- adenophosphamide Diazepam-oxazepam Refer KDT 7/e p22 -23
Anatomy
General anatomy
[ "lisinopril", "cyclophosphamide", "diazepam" ]
51,184
407b777e-b8f5-4c3c-b7e3-a95896225948
Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmia due to myocardial infarction is
Quinidine
Amiodarone
Xylocaine
Diphenylhydantoin
2c
single
Refer kDT 6/e p 519 Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias with myocardial infarction is lignocaine Drug of choice for supraventricular arrhythmia after myocardial infection is beta blockers cardiac function is adequate
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "amiodarone", "xylocaine", "quinidine" ]
51,203
e225e13d-0396-47db-958e-43a5ad7c3c75
The production of cervical mucus is stimulated by :
Progesterone
Estradiol
Estriol
Pregnenolone
1b
single
Cervical mucus is a glycoprotein gel that expand and contract in response to cyclic changes in the steroid hormone environment across the menstrual cycle to facilitate or inhibit the passage of sperms. Estrogen stimulates cervical mucus production, and as levels rise during the follicular phase, mucus becomes more abundant and watery, less cellular, and more easily penetrated by sperm. Progesterone inhibits cervical mucus production and renders it opaque, viscid, and impenetrable. Ref: Clinical Gynaecologic Endocrinology and Infeility; 8th Edition, Chapter 27
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Reproductive physiology and hormones in females
[ "estriol" ]
51,215
81bce5ef-7c7a-4307-ac5b-1b1a65201a47
Which of the following antibiotic does not act by inhibiting protein synthesis ?
Vancomycin
Tetracycline
Streptomycin
Azithromycin
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "azithromycin", "tetracycline", "vancomycin" ]
51,249
613b20fa-4770-4b74-8147-1486c0eabd60
Which of the following drugs can cause galactorrhea?
Omeprazole
Metoclopramide
Bromocriptine
Ranitidine
1b
single
Galactorrhea is caused by prolactin secretion. Dopamine normally inhibits the secretion of prolactin. Thus dopamine antagonists can cause hyperprolactinemia leading to galactorrhea. The drugs include: Typical Antipsychotics like Haloperidol Antiemetics like Metoclopramide Dopamine depleter like Reserpine. Drugs stimulating dopamine receptors like Bromocriptine and Cabergoline are used for treatment of Hyperprolactinemia.
Pharmacology
Pituitary-Hypothalmic System and Thyroid
[ "metoclopramide", "bromocriptine", "ranitidine", "omeprazole" ]
51,259
ffe1a875-2f3a-4280-9b43-5e5fc9927ec3
Preferred fluid in a poly-traumatic patient with shock?
Ringer lactate
Normal saline
Dextran
Dextrose-normal saline
1b
single
Ans. (b) Normal salineRef.-.Harrison 18th ed. / 270Normal saline is the preferred fluid for volume expansion in a crashing patient with un-recordable BP. The main point to be noted is that if ringer lactate is infused in these patients, then lactate in the solution will never reach the liver where it is normally converted into bicarbonate. Hence the accumulated lactate will get broken into lactic acid that will worsen the status of patient of poly-trauma who is already acidotic. Dextran would not be indicated as it exhibits anti-thrombotic tendency.
Surgery
Miscellaneous (Fluid & Electrolyte)
[ "dextran" ]
51,271
80d90d08-f819-4195-90f0-05a3d0545643
Catalase positive novobiocin resistant bacteria is:
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
None of the above
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Staphylococcus saprophyticus(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 202)* All staphylococcus are catalase positive.* Staphylococcus saprophyticus is resistant to novobiocin.
Microbiology
Bacteria
[ "novobiocin" ]
51,283
a9e4d73d-869e-47df-8039-19f88b29cdfa
All of the following agents are used in the treatment of hot flashes, EXCEPT:
Tamoxifen
Venlafaxine
Gabapentin
Paroxetine
0a
multi
Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) which exhibits anti-estrogenic activity on tissues like breast and central nervous system and estrogenic activity on tissues like bone. Tamoxifen produces hot flashes and other adverse effects, including cataracts and nausea . The other three options - Venlafaxine, Gabapentin and Paroxetine are included in the non-hormonal treatment of hot flashes. Ref: Levin E.R., Hammes S.R. (2011). Chapter 40. Estrogens and Progestins. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e ; Treatment of the postmenopausal woman: By Rogerio A. Lobo, Pages 3-6.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "gabapentin", "tamoxifen", "paroxetine" ]
51,330
4ad0838e-4aec-4723-9c44-a152a743ab92
Which of the following barbiturate is used for induction?
Thiopentone
Naloxone
Naltrexone
Phenobarbitone
0a
single
Ans: a (Thiopentone) Ref: KDT, 6th ed,p. 374* Thiopentone sodium is an ultrashortacting thiobarbiturate highly soluble in water, yielding a very alkaline solution (pH 10.4)* On IV injection it produces loss of consciousness in one arm- brain circulation time * Ultrashort duration of thiopentone is because of methyl group added to it. At induction it causes mild hypokalaemia* Elimination half life of thiopentone is 10.4 hours but consciousness is regained after 15-20 min because of redistribution (drug redistributed from brain to tissues with less vascularity like muscle or fat)* 80-90% is bound to plasma proteins (mainly albumin)* Metabolized in liver and metabolic products are eliminated through kidney* MOA - inhibits function of synapse. Transmission of excitatory neurotransmitters like Ach is inhibited and that of inhibitory neurotransmitters like GABA is enhanced* Cerebral protection - cerebral oxygen consumption, cerebral metabolic rate and intra cranial tension are decreased (therefore agent of choice)* Causes hypotension and decreases intra ocular pressure* Pregnancy - crosses placental barrier and achieves high concentration in brain of fetus* Stimulates ADH action and has got antithyroid activity* * poor analgesic and muscle relaxant action* Intra arterial injection - very dreadful complication which may lead to gangrene and loss of limb if not diagnosed early* Absolute contraindication - acute intermittent porphyria and variegate porphyriaThiopentone induces enzyme aminolevulenic acid synthetase which stimulates formation of porphyrin in susceptible individuals Barbiturates Long acting- PhenobarbitoneShort acting- Butobarbitone- PentobarbitoneUltra short acting- Thiopentone- Methohexitone
Anaesthesia
General Anesthesia
[ "naloxone", "naltrexone" ]
51,332
e5e7854d-3d62-4512-be2e-1a7e559f1c01
Pilocarpine is not used in young adults as it causes:
Retinal detachment
Myopia
Iris cysts
Shallow anterior chamber
1b
multi
Ans. (b) MyopiaRef: Khurana 6/e, p. 449; Kanski 7/e; p. 386Contraction of ciliary muscle results in accommodation and thus also cause transient, fluctuating myopia.
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
[ "pilocarpine" ]
51,353
a3ec7e91-5048-4de9-8b06-d6e9ca551fe1
Maximum analgesic action found in –
Catecholamine
Propofol
Ketamine
Thiopentone
2c
single
Ketamine is different from most other anaesthetic induction agents in that it has significant analgesic action.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine", "propofol" ]
51,357
df6b1d88-d71d-410d-a38f-7e1934629338
Malignant hypehermia is a rare complication of the use of the following anaesthetic:
Ketamine
Thiopentone sodium
Halothane
Ether
2c
single
Rarely, Halothane can cause Malignant hypehermia, which is treated with dantrolene Inhalational anesthetic agents and Depolarising NM blockers like succinylcholine can precipitate malignant hypehermia.
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
[ "ketamine", "halothane" ]
51,360
0ba3932a-a8be-484c-809f-7e72fa31b880
A 30-year old female complains of lower abdominal pain and purulent vaginal discharge. Her pulse rate is 98/min, temperature is 101oF, WBC and ESR are raised. Per vaginal examination reveals lower abdominal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness. What is the best treatment option for her?
Single IM injection of Ceftriaxone with oral doxycycline and oral metronidazole for 14 days
Single dose of Ceftriaxone injection with oral Azithromycin for 14 days
Oral Metranidazole for 14 days
Oral Oflaxacin and oral Metronidazole for 14 days
0a
multi
The best treatment is single IM injection of Ceftrixone with oral Doxycycline and oral metronidazole for 14 days. The diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease. Sexually transmitted organisms especially N.gonorrhoeae and C.trachomatis are implicated in many cases. The best treatment for OPD management of PID is: Inj. Ceftrixone 250mg IM single dose + Doxycycline 100 mg BD * 14 days +/- Metronidazole 500 mg BD * 14 days Best parenteral treatment for PID is : Inj. Cefotetan 2g IV BD + Doxycycline 100 mg BD or Inj. Cefoxitin 2g QID+ Doxycycline 100 mg BD To minimize disease transmission, women should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until therapy is completed, symptoms have resolved, and sex paners have been adequately treated. Ref: Online resources
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Infections of the genital tract
[ "metronidazole", "azithromycin", "doxycycline", "ceftriaxone" ]
51,362
1c2213b8-bcd6-4a50-9afd-c95e1d5c74de
Best anaesthetic drug to be given in day care surgery:
Ketamine
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Propofol
3d
single
Ans. (d) PropofolRef: KDT 6th ed./373-374PROPOFOL* Anesthesia of choice for day care surgery.* Short acting, action diminishes the same day.* Advantage: has anti emetic property. It is safe in porphyria.* Disadv: Causes myocardial depression and hypotension.
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
[ "ketamine", "sevoflurane", "desflurane", "propofol" ]
51,366
42fcf2f0-f933-49fd-8d67-602b988d3b2e
Main MOA brimonidine in glaucoma -
Decreased aqueous secretion
Increased trabecular outflow
Increased uveoscleral outflow
Reduce vitreous volume
0a
single
Brimonidine (0.2% : 2 times/day). It is a selective alpha-2-adrenergic agonist and lowers IOP by decreasing aqueous production. Because of increased allergic reactions and tachyphylaxis rates it is not considered the drug of first choice in POAG. It is used as second drug of choice and also for combination therapy with other drugs. Ref.AK Khurana 4th edition page no 223
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
[ "brimonidine" ]
51,381
83e5e391-180a-425f-8b7a-3b864b2b5ca0
Mucormycosis -a) Angio-invasionb) Lymph invasionc) Septate hyphaed) Long term deferoxamine therapy is predisposing factore) It may lead to blindness
acd
ade
abd
ad
1b
single
null
Microbiology
null
[ "deferoxamine" ]
51,383
8a77376c-51e4-4c2e-946f-720572390f1f
Drug of choice as antidiabetic in obese patient:
Glipizide
Insulin
Tolbutamide
Metformin
3d
single
Ans. D. MetforminMetformin is the first line treatment in case obese diabetic patient as it is known to cause weight loss. It doesn't cause the release of insulin and thus less chances of hypoglycemia.
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "glipizide", "metformin", "tolbutamide" ]
51,389
70aa145c-cb91-40ed-b04b-73ffda9b3785
Mitosis is arrested in ________ phase by using colchicine in cytogenetic analysis.
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
1b
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "colchicine" ]
51,390
27cf10ee-16ce-4c86-b739-15f380471e95
All of the following causes increase in heart rate except:
Halothane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
0a
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "sevoflurane", "desflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
51,402
b950ee35-8a68-4f91-b2d1-a803352fcc4f
Side effects of Pilocarpine are A/E –
Shallow anterior chamber
Punctate stenosis
Follicular conjunctivitis
Posterior synechia
1b
multi
Most guides have given option a as the answer. I have done extensive search on this. First you see the topical adverse effects of parasympathomimetic antiglaucoma drugs (from yanoff & Duker) :- Directly acting (cholinergic agonists like pilocarpine, carbachol) → Miosis, uveitis, browache, cataracts, myopia, retinal detachment, colour vision changes, angle closure, ocular cicatracial pemphigoid. Indirectly acting (anticholineesterases like demecarium) :- Intense miosis, iris pigment cysts, punctal stenosis, myopia, cataract, retinal detachment, angle closure. Now see each option sequentially :- Option '1' Pilocarpine can cause shallow anterior chamber :- "The use of pilocarpine is somewhat paradoxical since it is known to cause further shallowing of anterior chamber".  — Evidence - based ophthalmology. Now you must be thinking then why pilocarpine is the drug of choice for angle closure glaucoma. Pilocarpine works by helping to open the angle by tensing the iris-diaphragm and pulling on the scleral spur. It may also help to resolve relative pupil block. Option '2' Punctal stenosis is caused by indirect cholinomimetic (cholinesterase) not by direct cholinomimetic (pilocarpine). Option '3' Rarely, pilocarpine can cause follicular conjunctivitis :- "Pilocarpine and carbachol may both cause conjunctival follicle". — Clinical ophthalmology. Option '4' Miotics (pilocarpine) makes the iris thin and pulls it away from lens removing the pupillary block, increasing the chances of posterior synechiae (due to stretching & increased surface of iris) and restoring aqueous flow by opening irido-corneal angle.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "pilocarpine" ]
51,405
aa69e4c6-2f9c-45dd-b7d1-5ff7cdd2dee0
Select the antibiotic most frequently associated with the Hypoplasia and staining of fetal teeth (SELECT 1 ANTIBIOTIC)
Tetracycline
Streptomycin
Nitrofurantoin
Chloramphenicol
0a
single
Fetal exposure to an antibiotic depends on many factors such as gestational age, protein binding, lipid solubility, pH, molecular weight, degree of ionization, and concentration gradient. Some antibiotics are even concentrated in the fetal compartment. Tetracycline is contraindicated in all three trimesters. It has been associated with skeletal abnormalities, staining and hypoplasia of budding fetal teeth, bone hypoplasia, and fatal maternal liver decompensation. Sulfonamides are associated with kernicterus in the newborn. They compete with bilirubin for binding sites on albumin, thereby leaving more bilirubin free for diffusion into tissues. Sulfonamides should be withheld during the last 2 to 6 weeks of pregnancy. With prolonged treatment of tuberculosis (TB) in pregnancy, streptomycin has been associated with fetal hearing loss. Its use is restricted to complicated cases of TB. Nitrofurantoin can cause maternal and fetal hemolytic anemia if glucose- 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is present. Chloramphenicol is noted for causing the gray baby syndrome. Infants are unable to properly metabolize the drug, which reaches toxic levels in about 4 days and can lead to neonatal death within 1 to 2 days.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetus & New Born and their Diseases
[ "tetracycline", "chloramphenicol", "nitrofurantoin" ]
51,412
1075b481-d491-4c4f-94fe-48d97d1a59b0
Drug of choice for MRSA skin infection is
Streptogramin
Vancomycin
Quinupristin
Linezolid
1b
single
(B) Vancomycin # Drugs used in the treatment of MRSA: Vancomycin, Linezolid, Teicoplanin, Cotrimoxazole, Oxacillin, RifampicinTREATMENT OF COMMON INFECTIONS OF THE SKINDiagnosis/ConditionPrimary TreatmentAlternative TreatmentAnimal bite (prophylaxis or early infection)Amoxicillin/clavulanate, 875/125 mg PO bidDoxycycline, 100 mg PO bidAnimal bitea (established infection)Ampicillin/sulbactam, 1.5-3.0 g IV q6hClindamycin, 600-900 mg IV q8h plusCiprofloxacin, 400 mg IV q12horCefoxitin, 2 g IV q6hBacillary angiomatosisErythromycin, 500 mg PO qidDoxycycline, 100 mg PO bidHerpes simplex (primary genital)Acyclovir, 400 mg PO tid for 10 daysFamciclovir, 250 mg PO tid for 5-10 daysorValacyclovir, 1000 mg PO bid for 10 daysHerpes zoster (immunocompetentAcyclovir, 800 mg PO 5 times daily forFamciclovir, 500 mg PO tid for 7-10 dayshost >50 years of age)7-10 daysorValacyclovir, 1000 mg PO tid for 7 daysCellulitis (staphylococcal or streptococcalb.c)Nafcillin or oxacillin, 2 g IV q4-6hCefazolin, 1-2 g q8horAmpicillin/sulbactam, 1.5-3.0 g IV q6horErythromycin, 0.5-1.0 g IV q6horClindamycin, 600-900 mg IV q8hMRSA skin infectionVancomycin, 1 g IV q12hLinezolid, 600 mg IV q12hNecrotizing fasciitis (group A streptococcalb)Clindamycin, 600-900 mg IV q6-8hplusPenicillin G, 4 million units IV q4hClindamycin, 600-900 mg IV q6-8hplusCephalosporin (first- or second-generation)Necrotizing fasciitis (mixed aerobes and anaerobes)Ampicillin, 2 g IV q4hplusClindamycin, 600-900 mg IV q6-8hplusCiprofloxacin, 400 mg IV q6-8hVancomycin, 1 g IV q6hplusMetronidazole, 500 mg IV q6hplusCiprofloxacin, 400 mg IV q6-8hGas gangreneClindamycin, 600-900 mg IV q6-8hplusPenicillin G, 4 million units IV q4-6hClindamycin, 600-900 mg IV q6-8hplusCefoxitin, 2 g IV q6h
Medicine
Miscellaneous
[ "linezolid", "vancomycin" ]
51,416
74b64e24-b9b1-4796-b918-d9ff2d840fff
Treatment for Pityriasis versicolor includes?
Griesofiilvin
Terbinafine
Itraconazole
All of the above
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Itraconazole 'Adequate treatment with itraconazole can be achieved with a total dose of as little as 1000mg, given as 200mg per day for 5-7 days." - IADVL 3rd/e p. 288* Selenium sulphide (2.5%) in detergent base is applied all over body below neck (sparing the genitalia), left overnight and washed of next morning. Two to three applications applied once or twice a week usually clears the infection.Treatment of P. versicolor1) Systemic agents:- azoles such as ketoconazole, fluconazole or itraconazole.2) Topical agents:-a) Azoles - clotrimazole, econazole, miconazole, ketoconazole.b) Others - selenium sulfide (2.5%), sodium thiosulphate (20%), whitfield's ointment (3% Salicylic acid + 6% Benzoic acid), zinc pyrithione(l%), tolnaftate, ciclopirox olamine.
Skin
Fungal Infection
[ "itraconazole", "terbinafine" ]
51,431
fc36d1d4-b62d-46f2-b1be-f7f4f2e6adfd
Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis -
Cefotetan
Doxycycline
Ciprofloxacin
Oxacillin
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Doxycycline
Pharmacology
null
[ "cefotetan", "ciprofloxacin", "doxycycline" ]
51,441
da5a4975-1338-4395-a177-b880fcfd103a
A 28 year old male presented with rash on his arms, legs and face, and painful ulceration of his lips and mouth along with fever. He developed an acute sore throat and conjunctivitis, following which a diagnosis of acute pharyngitis was made, presumed streptococcal, and oral penicillin was prescribed. All of the following can be used in the treatment of the above disease except: -
Cyclophosphamide
IVIg
Cyclosporine
Etanercept
0a
multi
This is a case of Steven Johnson syndrome with the classical targetoid lesions. In Stevens- Johnson syndrome, lesions involve not only the skin but also the lips and oral mucosa, conjunctiva, urethra, and genital and perianal areas. On histologic examination, the "targetoid" lesions show a superficial perivascular, lymphocytic infiltrate associated with dermal edema and accumulation of lymphocytes. These are along the dermo-epidermal junction, where they are intimately associated with degenerating and necrotic keratinocytes, a pattern termed interface dermatitis. Treatment approved are: - Steroids IVIg Cyclosporine Etanercept
Unknown
Integrated QBank
[ "etanercept", "cyclophosphamide", "cyclosporine" ]
51,450
20725f98-fab9-4671-8bf2-37e6116b039b
All of the following agents are used in the treatment of alcohol dependence except:
Flumazenil
Acamprosate
Naltrexone
Disulfiram
0a
multi
Flumazenil (Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist) --> It is used in benzodiazepine overdose. Disulfiram- Aversive agents Acamprosate- Anticraving agent Naltrexone- Anticraving agent
Psychiatry
Substance Related and Addictive Disorders
[ "disulfiram", "flumazenil", "naltrexone" ]
51,452
8f47cd58-8656-4b51-82df-4cdf28a33d03
A 10 years boy presented with Cola coloured urine, oliguria for 3 days, facial puffiness, edema and hypeension. Urine albumin is positive and C3 levels are reduced. BP is 130/80. He had skin infection two weeks back. Which of the following is true about this condition?
Renal biopsy is required in all cases
C3 levels return to normal in 6-8 weeks
Cyclosporine is the treatment of choice
Most common age group involved is 1-4 years
1b
multi
The given clinical picture suggests a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome, most probably post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN). Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is a classic example of the acute nephritic syndrome characterized by the sudden onset of gross hematuria, edema, hypeension, and renal insufficiency. PSGN follows infection of the throat or skin by ceain "nephritogenic" strains of group A b-hemolytic streptococci.( Throat serotypes - M1, M4, M25, and some strains of M12 and skin serotype - M49) Poststreptococcal GN usually affects school-age children (5-12 years of age) and is uncommon below 3 years of age. Lab Diagnosis of PSGN: Antistreptolysin O titer is commonly elevated after a pharyngeal infection but rarely increases after streptococcal skin infections. Best single antibody to document cutaneous streptococcal infection is anti deoxyribonuclease (DNase) B level The serum C3 level is significantly reduced in >90% of patients, and returns to normal 6-8 wk after onset. C4 is most often normal. Serum CH50 is commonly depressed A biopsy is rarely indicated when: renal function is severely impaired beyond 7-10 days serum C3 remains depressed beyond 12 weeks Patient with features of a systemic illness Management of PSGN involves: Symptomatic & suppoive therapy (treating the acute effects of renal insufficiency and hypeension)
Pediatrics
Nephritic & Nephrotic Syndrome
[ "cyclosporine" ]
51,458
8ea0b3d1-8a63-4b1a-b91e-109daf355576
Depression in elderly is treated with?
Imipramine
Dothiepin
Fluoxetine
Mianserine
2c
single
Ans. c. Fluoxetine. (Ref. Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, 5th ed., 78)Newer anti-depressants like SSRI (fluxetine, sertraline, citalopram, mitrazepam, and venlafexine) have very little cholinergic effects, side effects and hence safer drugs to use in elderly, especially with heart diseases and BMP. Educational points: Grief "Bereavement"Depression "Pathological Grief"Definition- Sadness & Tearfullness- |sleep, Appetite & Interest- Sadness& Tearfulness- |sleep, Appetite & InterestSymptoms- Wax & Wane- Shame & guilt less common- Threaten suicide less often- Symptoms can last < one year- Usually return to baseline level of Functioning within 2 months- Pervasive & Unremitting- Shame & guilt are common- Threaten suicide more often- Symptoms continue > one year- Patients do not return to baseline level of functioningTreatmentSupportive PsychotherapyAntidepressant (5SRI) Post partum Blues"Baby Blues"Post partumDepressionPostpartumPsychosisOccur afterAny babyThe 2nd babyThe 1st babyBegins after birthUp to 2 weeksWithin 1 monthWilthin 1 monthThoughts of hurting the babyNo. Mother cares about the babyYesYesSymptomsMild depressionSevere DepressionSevere Depression & Psychotic symptomsTreatmentNo Treatment necessaryAntidepressantsAntidepressants & Mood Stabilizers or Antipsychotics
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
[ "fluoxetine", "imipramine" ]
51,480
237f8403-4861-4b0c-bb4e-fcaab70bf3b2
Which of these drugs DO NOT decrease angiotensin Il activity
Enalapril
Valsaan
Nesiritide
Omapatrilat
2c
single
(Ref: Katzung 10/e p205, 286) ACE inhibitors and AT1, antagonists decrease angiotensin Il activity. Omapatrilat is a vasopeptidase inhibitor that acts by inhibiting two enzymes, ACE and NEP. As it inhibits ACE, it may also decrease angitotensin II activity. Nesiritide is a recombinant BNP and has no effect on angiotensin II activity.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "nesiritide", "enalapril" ]
51,490
9e9f8511-c62c-447f-8175-6a6b4b062b8c
Cause of metabolic alkalosis includes
Furosemide
Addision disease
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
0a
single
Causes of Metabolic Alkalosis I. Exogenous HCO3-loads A. Acute alkali administration B. Milk-alkali syndrome II. Effective ECFV contraction, normotension, K+ deficiency, and secondary hyperreninemic hyperaldosteronism A. Gastrointestinal origin 1. Vomiting 2. Gastric aspiration 3. Congenital chloridorrhea 4. Villous adenoma B. Renal origin 1. Diuretics 2. Posthypercapnic state 3. Hypercalcemia/hypoparathyroidism 4. Recovery from lactic acidosis or ketoacidosis 5. Nonreabsorbable anions including penicillin, carbenicillin 6. Mg2+ deficiency 7. K+ depletion 8. Bater's syndrome (loss of function mutations of transpoers and ion channels in TALH) 9. Gitelman's syndrome (loss of function mutation in Na+-Cl-cotranspoer in DCT) III. ECFV expansion, hypeension, K+ deficiency, and mineralocoicoid excess A. High renin 1. Renal aery stenosis 2. Accelerated hypeension 3. Renin-secreting tumor 4. Estrogen therapy B. Low renin 1. Primary aldosteronism a. Adenoma b. Hyperplasia c. Carcinoma 2. Adrenal enzyme defects a. 11b-Hydroxylase deficiency b. 17a-Hydroxylase deficiency 3. Cushing's syndrome or disease 4. Other a. Licorice b. Carbenoxolone c. Chewer's tobacco IV. Gain-of-function mutation of renal sodium channel with ECFV expansion, hypeension, K+ deficiency, and hyporeninemic-hypoaldosteronism A. Liddle's syndrome
Medicine
Fluid and electrolytes
[ "furosemide" ]
51,492
f5c1edcd-44e5-43ae-b578-4e7571c6c83c
Which of the following drugs cannot be used in patient with Multi drug resistant Tuberculosis?
Ciprofloxacin
Tobramycin
Clarithromycin
Amikacin
1b
single
It is aminoglycoside group of drug used in various bacterial infection, paiculary gram negative. It extes its action by inhibiting on the bacterial 30S and 50S ribosome, preventing formation of the 70S complex. It is not used as antimycobacterial. Other aminoglycosides such as streptomycin and amikacin are used as antimycobacteriasl. Ref: Richard Finkel, Michelle Alexia Clark, Pamela C. Champe, Luigi X. Cubeddu (2009), Chapter 34, "Antimycrobials", In the book, "Pharmacology", 4th Edition, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins Publications, United States, Pages 399-406 ; KD Tripathy, 5th Edition, Pages 684, 699
Pharmacology
null
[ "amikacin", "clarithromycin", "ciprofloxacin" ]
51,501
78677219-0a75-4535-920c-52a9ca05e4de
Veical transmission of resistance to ciprofloxacin occurs :-
Transduction
Transformation
Conjugation
Mutation
3d
single
Ciprofloxacin: Veical transmission -from parents to progeny (daughter cells) among bacterial cells Horizontal transmission - from one bacteria to another bacteria simultaneously Veical transmission is mainly by mutation Horizontal transmission is mainly by various methods Transduction Transformation Conjugation
Pharmacology
FMGE 2017
[ "ciprofloxacin" ]
51,508
a349488b-a294-430c-932e-2f43f89b03ca
The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium :
Streptomycin
Erythromycin
Penicillin G
Chloramphenicol
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin", "chloramphenicol", "pancuronium" ]
51,511
61953b92-4696-4cad-80a0-c135d25d97f6
Nitroglycerin cause all except
Hypotention and bradycardia
Methamoglobinemia
Hypotention and tachycardia
Vasodilatation
0a
multi
Refer katzung 11e p 265 KDT 6/e p524 Nitrates most commonly used antianginal drugs. These act by decreasing delivery of nitric oxide in the blood vessels leading to vasodilatation.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "nitroglycerin" ]
51,520
38baef17-ee53-4ac3-bf8b-486713961ff9
A patient admitted to an ICU is on a central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics, he develops a spike of fever, and his blood culture is positive for gram-positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was staed, but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is
Coagulase- negative staphylococcus
Staphylococcus aureus
Enterococcus faecalis
Viridans streptococci
2c
single
From the case scenario, the most likely organism involved is Enterococcus faecalis. The organism is described as gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. This helps rule out Staphylocococcus aureus and coagulase-negative Staphylococcus. Streptococcus viridians is usually sensitive to penicillin and vancomycin hence it is ruled out. Here, even after treatment with aminoglycosides, cephalosporin, and vancomycin, the culture remains positive. So, this is a case of vancomycin-resistant enterococci. The mechanism is the alteration of the D-alanyl-D-alanine chain in cell wall. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
Microbiology
miscellaneous
[ "amikacin", "ceftazidime", "vancomycin" ]
51,525
8c3401a0-3ac8-4cb4-b570-5f731bf6e040
Oligospermia caused by-
Methotrexate
Hydroxychloroq uine
Leflunomide
D-penicillamine
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methotrexate"Transient but reversible oligospermia has been repoed in males receiving high dose methotrexate for cancer chemotherapy".Defective oogenesis or spermatogenesis "Occurs in methotrexate therapy"
Pharmacology
null
[ "methotrexate", "penicillamine" ]
51,535
27d104d7-9c07-4a04-8980-bf7da5694f06
A 43-year-old woman develops acute renal failure following an emergency resection of a leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm.Three days after surgery, the following laboratory values are obtained:* Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+:127;K+:5.9;Cl-:92;HCO3-:15* Blood urea nitrogen: 82 mg/dL* Serum creatinine: 6.7 mg/dLThe patient has gained 4 kg since surgery and is mildly dyspneic at rest. Eight hours after these values are reported, the electrocardiogram shown below is obtained. The initial treatment for this patient should be
10% calcium gluconate, 10 mL
Digoxin, 0.25 mg every 3 h for three doses
Oral Kayexalate
Lidocaine, 100 mg
0a
single
The electrocardiogram exhibited in the question demonstrates changes that are essentially diagnostic of severe hyperkalemia. Correct treatment for the affected patient includes administration of a source of calcium ions (which will immediately oppose the neuromuscular effect of potassium) and administration of sodium ions (which, by producing a mild alkalosis, will shift potassium into cells); each will temporarily reduce serum potassium concentration. Infusion of glucose and insulin would also effect a temporary transcellular shift of potassium. However, these maneuvers are only temporarily effective; definitive treatment calls for removal of potassium from the body. The sodium- potassium exchange resin sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) would accomplish this removal, but over a period of hours and at the price of adding a sodium ion for each potassium ion that is removed. Hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis is probably required for this patient, since these procedures also rectify the other consequences of acute renal failure, but they would not be the first line of therapy given the acute need to reduce the potassium level. Both lidocaine and digoxin would not only be ineffective but contraindicated since they would further depress the myocardial conduction system.
Surgery
Wounds, Tissue Repair & Scars
[ "digoxin", "lidocaine" ]
51,550
782e618e-e369-4e1d-962d-ee4e8f8bc595
A 72 year old woman presents with complaints of persistent urinary urgency, and incontinence. Her past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes, for which she is currently taking glyburide, 5 mg twice daily. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Bumetanide
Metoprolol
Neostigmine
Oxybutynin
3d
single
The patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of bladder instability. Oxybutynin both exes a direct antispasmodic effect and inhibits the muscarinic action of acetylcholine on smooth muscle. Although this agent exes approximately one fifth the anticholinergic activity of atropine, it has 4-10 times the antispasmodic activity of this agent. In addition, oxybutynin will not interact with her current medication regimen. Bumetanide is a "loop" diuretic used in the treatment of edematous states secondary to a wide variety of pathologic conditions. Since this agent promotes diuresis, it would most likely worsen the signs and symptoms of persistent urinary urgency, and urge incontinence. Metoprolol is a beta-1 selective receptor blocking agent indicated for the treatment of hypeension and tachyarrhythmias. The use of this agent would not have an effect on this patient's persistent urinary problems. Fuhermore, this agent is generally not used in diabetic patients, since it can block the normal premonitory signs of hypoglycemia. Neostigmine inhibits acetylcholine hydrolysis in the synaptic cleft acetylcholinesterase inhibition. The net effect is an increase in cholinergic activity, leading to detrusor muscle contraction. This agent is indicated for the treatment of urinary retention, and it would most likely worsen this patient's incontinence.
Pharmacology
null
[ "oxybutynin", "metoprolol", "neostigmine" ]
51,561
b316bc28-f75e-41db-9f24-ea31da08017d
A patient presents with nephrotic syndrome and hypoalbuminemia. Protein binding of which drug is not affected -
Tolbutamide
Morphine
Diazepam
Valproate
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Morphine in nephrotic syndrome there is no effect on protein binding. o Other three drugs are plasma protein bound drugs.
Pharmacology
null
[ "morphine", "valproate", "diazepam", "tolbutamide" ]
51,564
ba361f07-b0a5-4a3f-951e-1e9e3ba0d5ee
Propranolol is C/I in a patient of angina who is already receiving
Nifedipine
Aspirin
Verapamil
Isosorbide mononitrate
2c
single
propranolol is a beta blocker and verapamil is a calcium channel blocker both given in combination can cause decrease in hea rate drastically hence contraindicated. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "propranolol", "nifedipine", "verapamil", "isosorbide" ]
51,575
c9351352-d944-444b-9c7b-adea5c20d921
Diplopia with ataxia are the adverse effects of which of the following drugs?
Phenytoin and carbamazepine
Gabapentin and carbamazepine
Gabapentin with phenytoin
Valproate and topiramate
0a
single
Phenytoin ,Valproate and Carbamazepine causes ataxia with diplopia Topiramate mainly causes renal stones. So first option is better one.
Pharmacology
Epilepsy
[ "carbamazepine", "valproate", "gabapentin", "phenytoin", "topiramate" ]
51,600
d74072b5-9c6d-4479-ac56-51443252f730
At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received?
Pancuronium
Gallamine
Atracurium
Vecuronium
2c
multi
This patient has received a non depolarizing muscle relaxant and has recovered spontaneously from its effect without any reversal, so he would have received atracurium. Atracurium is a sho acting muscle relaxant. It is inactivated spontaneously by nonenzymatic degradation (Hofmann elimination) in addition to that by cholinesterase. So reversal is mostly not required when it is used. Hofmann elimination is the spontaneous fragmentation of atracurium at the bond between the quaternary nitrogen and the central chain. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 314 ; Fundamentals of Anaesthesia By Tim Smith, Colin Pinnock, Ted Lin, 3rd Edition, Pages 617-18
Anaesthesia
null
[ "atracurium", "vecuronium", "pancuronium", "gallamine" ]
51,606
0552ea96-94c2-4a60-8dd8-2ccdbc030053
Malignant hypehermia is most common with
Succinyl Choline
Gallamine
Dantrolene
Ketamine
0a
multi
A i.e. Succinyl choline
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine", "dantrolene", "gallamine" ]
51,612
965d678a-e4bf-48b9-ac11-17cf72cb42bb
Treatment of acute phase of Kawasaki Disease is -
Aspirin
IV steroids
IV immunoglobins
Cyclophosphamide
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., IV immunoglobins Kawasaki diseaseo Kawasaki disease, also known as lymph node syndrome, mucocutaneous-lymph node syndrome, and infant polyarteritis, is a poorly understood self-limited vasculitis that affects many organs, including the skin mucous membrane, lymph nodes, heart and blood vessel wallso It is usually seen in children younger than 5 years.# Kawasaki disease predominantly affect medium sized vessels, but may also affect small or large vessels.# Presentation may be -1) Mucocutaneous, lymph node involvement: Conjunctival injection, erythema, strawberry tongue, rash with perineal desquamation, Beau's line (transverse grooves on nails), cervical lymphadenopathy.2) Heart: Coronary vasculitis, coronary artery aneurysm (in 25% patients), coronary ectasia, MI, valvular regurgitation.# Treatment of choice for acute phase is intravenous immunoglobulin along with high dose of aspirin. For subacute phase low dose aspirin is given.
Pediatrics
Musculo Skeletal Disorders
[ "cyclophosphamide" ]
51,619
d20291b2-55d8-4156-bcd8-af95761db95b
During rapid induction of anesthesia ?
Sellick's maneuver is not required
Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
Suxamethonium is contraindicated
Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pre-oxygenation is mandatory During rapid sequence induction preoxygenation is done for full 3 minutes. Sch is the muscle relaxant of choice for intubation. Sallieck's maneuver is done to prevent aspiration. Manual ventilation before intubation is avoided as this inflates the stomach and encourages regurgitation & aspiration. Rapid sequence anaesthesia When anaesthesia is given for emergency surgery, it is called a "rapid sequence anaesthesia". The patients have full stomach because there is no starvation for anaesthesia (it is an emergency surgery) and gastric emptying is delayed due to trauma, acute abdomen. Therefore, the objective of rapid sequence anaesthesia is to secure the airway rapidly and prevent aspiration of gastric contents. Procedure of rapid sequence has following steps : - Li The patient is preoxygenatedfor full 3 minutes. Intravenous induction agent (thiopentone or propofol) is given. Sellick's maneuver (cricoid/pressure) is done to prevent aspiration. After ensuring the correct position of tube cricoid pressure is released and maintenance anaesthesia (NCO 66%, 02% 33%, & inhalational agent) is given. A non-depolarizing blocker is now added. Suxamethenium (succinylcholine) is given as it quickly relaxes the laryngeal muscles so that rapid intubation can be done. Not done during rapid sequence anaesthesia : ? Manual ventilation before intubation is avoided as this inflates the stomach and encourages regurgitation & aspiration. Premedications are not given.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "suxamethonium" ]
51,621
c2db1050-f62f-4b22-a11b-78f8bcbea0b6
A 33-year-old man is diagnosed with essential hypeension. He is staed on a blood pressure medication, and after 6 weeks, he notes fatigue, rash over his face, joint aches, and effusions. A serum antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is positive. Wof is the most likely agent
Propranolol
Nifedipine
Thiazide diuretic
Hydralazine
3d
single
VASODILATORS Hydralazine/Dihydralazine Adverse effects:- are frequent and mainly due to vasodilatation. * Facial flushing, conjunctival injection, throbbing headache, dizziness, palpitation, nasal stuffiness, fluid retention, edema, CHF. * Angina and MI may be precipitated in patients with coronary aery disease. * Postural hypotension is not prominent because of little action on veins: venous return and c.o. are not reduced. * Paresthesias, tremor, muscle cramps, rarely peripheral neuritis. * Lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid ahritis like symptoms develop on prolonged use of doses above 100 mg/day. This is more common in women and in slow acetylators. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-567
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "propranolol", "hydralazine", "nifedipine" ]
51,622
03675637-6c06-49c2-9def-fafcec6b3b51
Kamla Rani, a 20 yrs old female having mitral stenosis class II and Rheumatic hea disease becomes pregnant. Which is not indicated in her management during labor:
Give Prophylactic antibiotics
Apply Outlet forceps in 2nd stage of labor
Give iv furosemide at delivery of placenta
Give Methergin at delivery of anterior shoulder
3d
single
Use of ergometrine/methergin, with or following delivery, is contraindicated in patients with cardiac disease. Ref: Dewhurst's Textbook of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, 5th edition, Page 224 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By Dutta, 4th Edition, Page 541 and 6th Edition, Page 280
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "furosemide" ]
51,650
c5a13143-3f1d-4272-a1c4-6b2da99ea737
Which among the following does not cause hyperpyrexia?
MAO Inhibitors
Alcohol
Atropine
Amphetamine
1b
single
Ans. (B) Alcohol(Ref: Modi's Medical Jurisprudence and Toxicology, 23th/e p313)Ethyl alcohol causes vasodilatation and peripheral circulation increases, resulting in a feeling of warmth, but at the same time there will be loss of body heat from the skin.In atropine poisoning, Pyrexia (hot as a hare) is a common event and the temperature may be raised by 1 to 6degF.When taken in excess, Amphetamine produces a dry mouth, loss of appetite, irritability, dizziness, loss of sleep, dilated pupils, severe chest pain, restlessness, tachycardia, hypertension, rise of temperature and death.MAOI toxicity may present as opisthotonus, muscle rigidity, diaphoresis, hypertension, chest pain, diarrhea, hallucinations, combativeness, confusion, marked hyperthermia and trismus.
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous
[ "atropine" ]
51,666
809ae052-97d7-49b6-a13a-ea72df8ac9b9
Highly vestibulotoxic drug is :
Cisplatin
Streptomycin
Dihydrostreptomycin
Quinine
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "quinine", "cisplatin" ]
51,683
e92804ac-8dd9-48c5-9bc6-7a5d16e6eaeb
In LVF, the drug which can be administered is:
Propanlol
Morphine
Amlodipine
Epinephrine
1b
single
Morphine is given in left ventricular failure as it decreases peripheral pooling of blood, decreases preload, shifts blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit, relives pulmonary edema and congestion It depresses resp. center and decreases air hunger Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "morphine", "epinephrine", "amlodipine" ]
51,735
dbf70338-5bd9-49ca-aa01-21760322d3c1
An old patient Ram Kishore having asthma and glaucoma is to receive a β blocker. Regarding β blocking drugs:
Metoprolol blocks β2 receptors selectively
Esmolol's pharmacokinetics are compatible with chronic topical use
Nadolol lacks β2 blocking action
Timolol lacks the local anaesthetic effects of propranolol
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "propranolol", "nadolol", "metoprolol", "esmolol", "timolol" ]
51,738
1dbbf8f7-604f-4b45-bad8-a5cf8f4a5a50
Which of the following can cause hypoglycemia in a patient of severe cerebral malaria on treatment ?
Quinine
Chloroquine
Halofantrine
Mefloquine
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "quinine", "mefloquine", "chloroquine" ]
51,742
90997355-a3f5-4a62-8f41-e50c30daa7e8
All of the following pharmaceutical agents cause gynaecomastia, EXCEPT:
INH
Cimetidine
Digitalis
Pyrazinamide
3d
multi
Pyrazinamide will cause gynaecomastia. List of drugs which cause gynaecomastia are: Hormones Androgens and anabolic steroids Chorionic gonadotropin Estrogens and estrogen agonists Growth hormone Environmental estrogens Antiandrogens or inhibitors of androgen synthesis Cyproterone Flutamide Bicalutamide Antibiotics Isoniazid Ketoconazole Metronidazole Anti-ulcer medications Cimetidine Omeprazole Ranitidine Cancer chemotherapeutic agents (especially alkylating agents) Cardiovascular drugs Amiodarone Captopril Enalapril Nifedipine Spironolactone Verapamil Psychoactive agents Diazepam Haloperidol Phenothiazines Tricyclic antidepressants Drugs of abuse Alcohol Amphetamines Heroin Marijuana Other Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAA) Phenytoin Penicillamine Ref: Braunstein G.D. (2011). Chapter 12. Testes. In D.G. Gardner, D. Shoback (Eds), Greenspan's Basic & Clinical Endocrinology, 9e.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cimetidine" ]
51,762
9c4013bb-d194-4f88-bb2d-31c3f448aeea
Ejection of milk is caused by
Oxytocin
ADH
Progesterone
Thyroxine
0a
single
Oxytocin plays roles in sexual reproduction, in paicular during and after childbih. It is released in large amounts after distension of the cervix and uterus during labor, facilitating bih, maternal bonding, and, after stimulation of the nipples, breastfeeding. Both childbih and milk ejection result from positive feedback mechanisms.ADH (antidiuretic hormone) a hormone secreted by neurosecretory cells of the HYPOTHALAMUS and released by the posterior lobe of the PITUITARY GLAND. ADH stimulates the reabsorption of water through the distal convoluted tubule of the KIDNEY nephron in mammals and thus limits the water content and the overall volume of urine.Progesterone also known as P4 is a C-21steroid hormone involved in the female menstrual cycle, pregnancy and embryogenesis of humans and other species. Progesterone belongs to a class of hormones called progestogens and is the major naturally occurring human progestogen.thyroxine a thyroid hormone that contains iodine and is a derivative of the amino acid tyrosine, occurring naturally as l-thyroxine; its chemical name is tetraiodothyronine. It is formed and stored in the thyroid follicles as thyroglobulin and released from the gland by the action of a proteolytic enzyme. It is deiodinated in peripheral tissues to form triiodothyronine (T3), which has a greater biological activity.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-151
Physiology
Endocrinology
[ "oxytocin", "thyroxine" ]
51,783
224758e1-c712-4e5d-8ec7-4ad8e00af404
Drug used for treatment of influenza is -
Ritonavir
Idoxuridine
Lumefantrine
Oseltamivir
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Oseltamivir o Anti-influenza drugs are:-i) Amantidineii) Rimantidineiii) Oseltamiviriv) Zanamavir
Pharmacology
Anti-Viral
[ "ritonavir", "oseltamivir" ]
51,796
e3c94852-de8f-4d6d-b4d8-e850179b05a8
All are true regarding antiarrhythmic, EXCEPT :
Verapamil belongs to second group drugs
Contraindicated in Sick sinus syndrome
It is contraindicated in complete heart block.
It depresses heart rate
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Verapamil belongs to second group drugs Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker. It belongs to class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs. Electrophysiological properties of verapamil. Among the Ca2+ channel blockers, verapamil has the most prominent cardiac electrophysiological action. It is a cardio depressant drug. Specific effects of verapamil. 1. S.A. nodal atomicity - decrease 2. Ventricular atomicity - decrease 3. A-V nodal ERP - increase 4. PR interval - increase Verapamil A. Uses as Antiarrhythmic PSVT - Preferred for PSVT. The drug of choice for PSVT is Adenosine* Control ventricular rate in AF or AFI. B. Contraindications 1) Partial heart block* 2) Sick sinus* 3) Ventricular arrhythmia (ppt-VF)* 4) Digitalis toxicity (Additive A-V block)*
Unknown
null
[ "verapamil" ]
51,799
e9be813e-4c2c-44bf-9b66-884c20cc71e2
All the following drugs act on the Microtubular Protein Tubulin EXCEPT:
Colchicine
Vincristin
Bleomycin
Paclitaxel
2c
multi
Bleomycin
Pharmacology
null
[ "paclitaxel", "colchicine" ]
51,800
1c245d0e-1ab7-4828-a65c-2d473ec787a2
Smooth induction is seen by -
Ether
Halothane
Isoflurane
Enflurane
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Isoflurane Induction by inhalation agents Unpleasant Intermediate Smooth Ether Halothane Isoflurane En flurane Desflurane Sevoflurane Nitrous oxide
Anaesthesia
null
[ "enflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
51,812
80d7cc70-4f4a-4ea3-beed-835681009b02
Warfarin embryopathy is due to action of:
Osteophysin
Osteotensin
Osteocalcin
Osteogenin
2c
single
Ans: (c) OsteocalcinRef: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 4px">Warfarin embryopathyThe process of osteocalcin carboxylation in human bone formation is a vitamin K-dependent process and that circulating osteocalcin will be altered structurally by warfarin administrationThis finding has pathophysiological implications for: o Fetal warfarin embryopathy syndromeBone disease associated with chronic liver diseasesOsteoporosisIn all the above conditions vitamin K deficiency has been implicated Note:The similarity between fetal warfarin syndrome and X-linked recessive chondroplasia puntata has suggested a common pathogenesis for these two disorders. Warfarin appears to inhibit arylsulfatase, a genetically determined deficiency which is responsible for chondroplasia puntata.
Pharmacology
Hematology
[ "warfarin" ]
51,835
1518c60a-317d-4fe5-8387-842386ad4173
Which of the following is called hunger hormone
Epinephrine
Glucagon
Pituitary
Thyroxine
1b
multi
null
Physiology
null
[ "epinephrine", "thyroxine", "glucagon" ]
51,838
5aee8115-72a7-41c7-8433-b58dbdff38a6
A 59 year old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic. His echo shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. Which of the following represents the most appropriate mode of treatment ?
No treatment
ACE inhibitor therapy
Mitral valve repair or replacement
Digoxin and diuretic therapy
2c
single
This man is asymptomatic, but his left ventricular ejection fraction is 45%, so the most appropriate treatment is mitral valve repair or replacement. Indications of surgical repair of mitral valve are patients who are symptomatic, asymptomatic patients with left ventricular ejection fraction less than 60% and/or end-systolic dimension increasing beyond 40 mmHg, recent onset atrial fibrillation and pulmonary hypeension (Pulmonary aery pressure 50 mmHg at rest or 60 mmHg with exercise). Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 237
Medicine
null
[ "digoxin" ]
51,845
73f56eb3-2cc3-4b3a-bf29-6da71a5ca3d0
The renal biopsy of a 6-year-old boy with recurrent gross hematuria shows IgA nephropathy. The urinary protein excretion is 130 mg/day. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management -
Administer coicosteroids
Give Azathioprine
Sta Cyclosporine
Urinary bag sample
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Administer coicosteroids T/T of IgA nephropathy ? o There is no proven t/t for IgA nephropathy. o The primary t/t is proper blood pressure control. The drugs which have been proved useful are :? i) Fish oil (It contains omega - 3 fatty acids). It is an antiinflammatory agent and it prevents the rate of renal progression. ii) Immunosuppressive therapy - It is done with coicosteroids with or without cytotoxic therapy. iii) ACE inhibitors and Angiotensin II receptor antagonists - Their role in reducing proteinuria and retarding the rate of renal progression is still to be determined. iv) Prophylactic antibiotics and tonsillectomy - It may reduce frequency of gross hematuria but they have no effect on progression of renal disease.
Pediatrics
null
[ "azathioprine", "cyclosporine" ]
51,852
f1faa205-d55e-446b-a348-b58da8f652a4
Which of the following topical steroids is the most potent?
Halobetasol propionate
Fluticasone
Hydrocortisone
Triamcinolone acetonide
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Halobetasol propionate Classification of topical steroids based on potencyClass 1(Super potent)Clobetasol propionate ointment and cream 0.5%Betamethasone dipropionate ointment 0.05%Halobetasol propionate ointment and cream 0.05%Class 2(Highly potent)Mometasone furoate ointment 0.1%Class 3(Potent)Betamethasone dipropionate cream 0.05%Fluticasone propionate ointment 0.05%Class 4(Moderately potent)Fluocinolone acetonide ointment 0.025%Fluticasone propionate cream 0.05%Mometasone furoate cream 0.1%Class 5(Moderately potent)Betamethasone valerate cream 0.1%Hydrocortisone butyrate cream 0.1%Class 6(Mildly potent)Desonide cream 0.05%Fluocinolone acetonide solution 0.05%Class 7(Least potent)Dexamethasone cream 0.1%Hydrocortisone 1%
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "triamcinolone" ]
51,861
9db0b36f-da7a-4436-8583-268f6e709197
Which of the following is most uroselective anticholinergic drug?
Darifenacin
Tolbutamide
Duloxetine
Tamsulosin
0a
single
Muscarinic anatagonists acting on bladder : SOFT BLADDER S - solifenacin O - Oxybutynin F - Flavoxate T - Tolterodine , Trospium chloride Bladder- Darifenacin Side effects - Urinary Retention Tolbutamide is sulfonylureas , used as a hypoglycemic agent,stimulates the secretion of insulin by the pancreas Duloxetine is used AS SNRI in depression,neuropathic pain ,fibromyalgia etc Tamsulosin is uroselective alpha blocker, used in BPH
Pharmacology
ANS
[ "tamsulosin", "duloxetine", "tolbutamide" ]
51,867
8d184219-0ad4-4a7e-a005-8ae2064b8658
Pseudolymphoma is a manifestation of ?
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Sodium valproate
Phenobarbital
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Phenytoin Phenytoin on long term administration can lead to lymphadenopathy which is sometimes difficult to distinguish from malignant lymphoma. It is known as pseudolymphoma.
Pharmacology
null
[ "valproate", "carbamazepine", "phenytoin", "phenobarbital" ]
51,880
94c13eea-0868-474f-b0d7-769b129a53f5
A Schizophrenic patient is responding well to haloperidol. But, now he has developed symptoms of parkinsonism. What is the drug of choice to treat this condition -
Levodopa
Bromocriptine
Tolcapene
Anticholinergic
3d
single
Ans: D AnticholinergicExtrapyramidal side effects of antipsvchotics.Major dose limiting side effects.Maximum with halopridol.Parkinsonism:Appears between 1-4 weeks of therapy.Central anticholinergics like benzhexol are durg of choice for drug induced Parkinsonism.
Pharmacology
null
[ "bromocriptine", "levodopa" ]
51,899
f8450403-f378-48bd-8438-8e9024a32ce1
Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct ?
Major depression and associated lethargy
Narcolepsy
Obstructive sleep apnea
Shift work disorder
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "modafinil" ]
51,900
59b28f30-f3a1-41ce-b1c6-b42f518ad1be
Which of the following drugs is most effective in the management of malignant hyperthermia ?
Baclofen
Dantrolene
Succinylcholine
Vecuronium
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "dantrolene", "vecuronium", "baclofen" ]
51,907
e201dd2d-4689-4d25-9608-522194e06aae
All the following features are associated with Chancroid except-
Painful ulcer
Painless lymphadenopathy
School of fish appearance on staining
Azithromycin is useful in treatment
1b
multi
Ans is 'b' i.e. Painless lymphadenopathy* Chancroid is associated with painful suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy.Chancroid (soft chancre/soft sore)* Chancroid is an STD caused by H.ducreyi, a gram negative cocobacilli. Incubation period of chancroid is 1-7 days. Clinically it is characterized by: -i) Multiple ulcersii) Non-indurated or soft indurationiii) Painful (Tender)iv) Bleed easilyv) Undermined, sloughed erythematous edgesvi) Painful suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathyDiagnosis & Treatment* Gram's staining of swab from the lesion may reveal a predominance of characteristic gramnegative coccobacilli, arranged in parallel chains giving a "School offish" or "rail road track" appearance. An accurate diagnosis relies on cultures of H.ducreyi from the lesion.* Azithromycin is the DOC for treatment. Ceftriaxoney Ciprofloxacin & erythromycin are alternatives.
Skin
S.T.D.
[ "azithromycin" ]
51,911
950862f7-a707-4458-be3f-bdcbe30695b7
Ulipristal acetate is used for
Breast cancer
Endometriosis
Emergency contraception
AUB
2c
single
This drug is a SPRM (selective progesterone receptor modulator). It is used for emergency contraception and is the only hormonal contraception that is effective for 120 hrs. It is contraindicated in hepatic disorder and in lactational mothers. For emergency contraception. a 30 mg tablet is used within 120 hours (5 days) after an unprotected intercourse or contraceptive failure. It has been shown to prevent about 60% of expected pregnancies, and prevents more pregnancies than emergency contraception with levonorgestrel. Ulipristal acetate is used for pre-operative treatment of moderate to severe symptoms of uterine fibroids in adult women of reproductive age in a daily dose of a 5 mg tablet.
Anatomy
All India exam
[ "ulipristal" ]
51,934
cdd9fab3-00ba-4a22-b913-8cd833e94c96
Which of the following is given to a patient who is planned for ECT: September 2003
Diazepam
Phenytoin
Muscle relaxant
Barbiturate
2c
single
Ans. C i.e. Muscle relaxant
Psychiatry
null
[ "phenytoin", "diazepam" ]
51,944
78dc20f9-3ef1-4b6c-b3d4-81bf65148cf5
All the following drugs are used for thrombo prophylaxis except
Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Anti thrombin
3d
multi
Ans is 'd' i.e. Anti thrombin
Pharmacology
Anticoagulants and Coagulants
[ "warfarin" ]
51,969
22ce9958-b969-4dda-9022-b446b3983a53
In a patient with chronic congestive cardiac failure, all of the following drugs prolong survival, except?
Metoprolol
Carvedilol
Enalapri I
Digoxin
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Digoxin Arrest of disease progression and reduced moility in CHFo The major humoral abnormalities in hea failure, which are responsible for disease progression, cardiac remodelling and moility, are excessive activation of the RAA system and adrenergic system.o The drugs which block the effect of RAA system and adrenergic system will arrest/reverse the disease progression and reduce the moality.o Drugs are1. On RAA system ACE inhibitors --> Inhibit (conversion of A-I to A-ID. AT 1 antagonists --> Block ATI receptors Spironolactone Blocks mineralocoicoid (aldosterone) receptors. 2. Adrenergic systema) b-blockers Interfere with harmful effects of sustained activation of the adrenargic system.Note : Studies have also shown that combination of hydralazine and isosarbide dinitrate also arrest the progression and reduce the moality.
Pharmacology
null
[ "carvedilol", "metoprolol", "digoxin" ]
51,972
49cbe634-1394-469c-a3ce-926db17f0f74
Which of the following anti TB drug is NOT bactericidal
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
3d
single
Ans. (d) EthambutolRef. KDT/742* Ethalmbutol is selectively tuberculostatic and clinically as active as Streptomycin.1st Line ATT Drugs action on bacteria and hepatoxictyDrugBactericidal/ BacteristaticHepatotoxicityIsoniazidCidal+RifampicinCidal+PyrazinamideCidal++++EthambutolSTATIC-NoStreptomycinCidal-No
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "ethambutol", "isoniazid" ]
51,981
87f6356e-82bd-491c-94a2-14ab0deab9aa
A highway truck driver has profuse rhinorrhea and sneezing. Which of the following drugs would you prescribe him?
Cetrizine
Pheniramine
Promethazine
Dimenhydrinate
0a
single
As the patient in the question is a truck driver, antihistamine which is best suitable for him is cetrizine. Cetirizine is a second generation antihistamine with least sedation. Promethazine and Dimenhydrinate are highly sedative and Pheniramine is moderately sedative preparations of H1 antihistamine which is not preferred for a truck driver as it causes sedation while driving. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 141-2
Pharmacology
null
[ "promethazine" ]
51,985
d993bb8f-846b-48e0-8af4-a2899b432648
All of the following statements about Digoxin induced arrhythmia's are true, except:
Bi ventricular Tachycardia
Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia with variable AV block
Ventricular Bigeminy
May be used to treat Atrial Fibrillation
0a
multi
The most frequent disturbances of cardiac rhythm associated with digitalis intoxication are ventricular premature beats, bigeminy, ventricular tachycardia and rarely ventricular fibrillation. AV block and nonparoxysmal atrial tachycardia with variable AV block are characteristic of intoxication. Ref: Harrison's 16th Edition, Page 1375
Medicine
null
[ "digoxin" ]
51,986
9d2c0fd0-096d-4494-9118-05851254db1a
The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium
Streptomycin
Penicillin
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
0a
single
DRUG INTERACTIONS Antibiotics:- Aminoglycoside antibiotics (streptomycin) reduce Ach release from prejunctional nerve endings by competing with Ca2+. They interfere with mobilization of ACh containing vesicles from a central location to near the terminal membrane, and have a weak stabilizing action on the postjunctional membrane. In clinically used doses, they do not by themselves produce muscle relaxation, but potentiate competitive blockers. Tetracyclines (by chelating Ca2+), polypeptide antibiotics, clindamycin and lincomycin also synergise with competitive blockers. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-354
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
[ "erythromycin", "chloramphenicol", "pancuronium" ]
51,993
231731aa-d3f8-4115-bff1-3aa5e7527eee
The drug used in coronary aery stenosis during Angio procedure?
Pindolol
Octreotide
Desmopressin
Tolazoline
3d
single
Talazoline is used as a vasodilator for angio proccedures. Non-selective alpha blockers like phentolamine and tolazoline are used for this purpose. Ref: CMDT-2010/Pg 1434.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "desmopressin", "pindolol", "octreotide" ]
52,000
975cd87c-32b5-4d37-bec1-0c56fe973c2d
Which of the following is a long-acting beta 2 against -
Orciprenaline
Penoterol
Pexbaterol
Salmeterol
3d
single
β2,-agonists used in Asthma 1. Short acng → Salbutamol, terbutaline 2. Long acng → Salmeterol, formoterol  Bambuterol is a prodrug of terbutaline. It is slowly hydrolysed by pseudocholineterase.  Short-acting β2-agonists produce bronchodilation within 5 min and action lasts for 2-6 hrs → are used to abort and terminate acute asthma, but are not suitable for prophylaxis,  Salmeterol is delayed acting, can be used for prophylaxis only, while formoterol is fast acng and long acng can be used for both prophylaxis and acute aack. Salbutamole & Terbutaline → Only for acute attack Salmeterol → Only for prophylaxis Formoterol → Both for prophylaxis and acute attack  Long acting β2-agonists (salmeterol & formoterol) are superior to short acting β2-agonists (salbutamol & terbutaline), and equivalent to inhaled anticholinergics in COPD. NoteFor one opon go ahead with opon ‘d’, i.e. adrenaline because amongst the given opons, adrenaline is shortest acng (60 - 90 minutes).  Salmeterol and formoterol are long-acting β2,-agonists.  Their lipophilic action is responsible for longer action → Lipophilic side chain anchors the drug in membrane adjacent to the receptor, slowing
Pharmacology
null
[ "salmeterol" ]
52,007
ec6af887-0794-4731-b0c1-313f3836086d
Initial drug of choice in a child with status epilepticus –
Lorazepam
Phenobarbitone
Valproate
Phenytoin
0a
single
Drug used are → Lorazepam, Clonazepam, Diazepam, Phenytoin, Phenobarbitone, Thiopentol, Propofol, Midazolam. Lorazepann i.v. is now the preferred initial choice.
Pediatrics
null
[ "valproate", "lorazepam", "phenytoin" ]
52,010
55c4ebde-f087-4826-882f-bfbf02d48e76
A previously healthy and active 72-year-old woman presents to your office with a complaint of stiffness and pain in her neck and shoulders. The symptoms are much worse in the morning and improve throughout the day. The pain affects the soft tissues and does not appear localized to the shoulder or hip joints. She denies headache or jaw claudication. Physical examination is unrevealing; there is no inflammatory synovitis, muscle tenderness, or skin rash. Muscle strength is normal in the deltoid and iliopsoas muscle groups. She has normal range of motion of the shoulder and hip joints. Laboratory studies reveal an elevated ESR of 92 mm/h and a mild normocytic anemia. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
Empiric trial of prednisone 15 mg daily
Graded exercise regimen
MRI of bilateral shoulders
Trapezius muscle biopsy
0a
multi
The patient has PMR. A relatively common disease of the elderly, PMR presents as morning stiffness and pain in the shoulders, neck, and hip girdle. Diagnosis is mainly clinical; improvement of symptoms throughout the day and an absence of joint findings on physical examination provide clues to the diagnosis. Most patients have a markedly elevated ESR. PMR overlaps with giant cell (temporal) arteritis, so it is worthwhile to ask about symptoms of headache or jaw claudication. In the absence of symptoms or signs of temporal arteritis, no additional testing is indicated, and the diagnosis is presumptively confirmed by prompt response to moderate dose steroids (10-20 mg prednisone per day). Patients with occult temporal arteritis will not usually respond to modest doses of prednisone. Caution must be taken in tapering the steroids as patients with PMR frequently relapse upon discontinuation of treatment. A graded exercise regimen (answer b) would be an appropriate treatment option for fibromyalgia, but fibromyalgia rarely begins at age 72 and does not cause elevation of the ESR. MRI of the upper torso may show inflammation of the bursa and shoulder joint synovium, but this patient does not have localized tenderness in these structures. Muscle biopsy (answer d) is indicated in polymyositis or inclusion body myositis, but this patient does not have muscle weakness. Temporal artery biopsy (answer e) should be performed in patients suspected of having giant cell arteritis. Our patient, however, denies symptoms consistent with arterial involvement. If the patient does not respond to treatment with modest dose steroids, stronger consideration should be given to "blind" temporal artery biopsy.
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
[ "prednisone" ]
52,014
d097868d-da81-45ed-b306-8448fb104636
A 70 year old man presents with complaints of chest pain, fever, cough with sputum. On examination of sputum pus cells with gram positive cocci are present. Blood agar showed positive result. How will you differentiate this from other gram positive cocci?
Bacitracin sensitivity
Optochin sensitivity
Bile solubility
Positive coagulase
2c
single
Pneumococci are bile soluble. If a few drops of 10% sodium deoxycholate solution are added to 1 ml of an overnight broth culture, the culture clears due to the lysis of cocci. Alternatively, if a loopful of 10% deoxycholate solution is placed on a pneumococcus colony on blood agar the colony lysis within a few minutes. Bile solubility is a constant propey of pneumococci and hence is of diagnostic impoance. The bile solubility test is based on the presence in the pneumococci of an autolytic amidase that cleaves the bond between alanine and muramic acid in the peptidoglycan. The amidase is activated by surface active agents such as bile / bile salts, resulting in lysis of the organisms. Ref: Ananthanarayanan & Paniker's textbook of microbiology Ed 8 Pg - 219.
Microbiology
null
[ "bacitracin" ]
52,020
e2f3c992-3816-47a8-8039-0a30eb35d602
which of the following drugs should be removed by dialysis?
digoxin
salicylates
benzodiazepines
organophosphates
1b
single
Salicylates stay in blood whereas digoxin,diazepam and organophosphates are distributed widely
Anatomy
General anatomy
[ "digoxin" ]
52,055
095e14fc-b95d-4d6d-9837-6c8fb56c573d
OCP fails when used with the following drugs, EXCEPT:
Aspirin
Phenytoin
Rifampin
Tetracycline
0a
multi
Larger doses of aspirin may be required when given with oral contraceptive pills. Drugs that May Reduce Combined Hormonal Contraceptive Efficacy: Antituberculous Rifampin Antifungals Griseofulvin Anticonvulsants and Sedatives Phenytoin Mephenytoin Phenobarbital Primidone Carbamazepine Ethosuximide Antibiotics Tetracycline Doxycycline Penicillins Ciprofloxacin Ofloxacin Antiretrovirals Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 32. Contraception. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
Pharmacology
null
[ "rifampin", "tetracycline", "phenytoin" ]
52,080
51b7e05c-bfd4-4107-9f30-40a4b21925bd
A 60-year-old male complains of pain in both knees coming on gradually over the past 2 years. The pain is relieved by rest and worsened by the movement. There is bony enlargement of the knees with mild inflammation. Crepitation is noted on motion of the knee joint. There are no other findings except for bony enlargement at the distal interphalangeal joint. The patient is 5 feet 9 in. tall and weighs 88 kgs. The best way to prevent disease progression is
Weight reduction
NSAID's and Calcium supplementation
Total knee replacement
Oral prednisone
0a
multi
(Braunwald, 15/e, pp 1987-1993.) The clinical picture of a noninflammatory ahritis of weight-bearing joints is suggestive of degenerative joint disease, also called osteoahritis. Crepitation over the involved joints is characteristic, as are bony enlargements of the DIP joints. In this overweight patient, weight reduction is the best method to decrease the risk of fuher degenerative changes. Aspirin or acetominophen can be used as symptomatic treatment, but do not affect the course of the disease. Calcium supplementation may be relevant to associated osteoporosis, but not to the osteoahritis. Oral prednisone would be contraindicated; intraaicular coicosteroid injections may be given two to three times peryear for symptom reduction. Knee replacement is the treatment of last reso, usually when pain occurs around the clock and symptoms are not controlled by medical regimens.
Surgery
null
[ "prednisone" ]
52,094
2b0eec7d-f0fb-4802-9809-34891dee6781
Which of the following statements are true regarding benzodiazepines?
It acts as GABA agonist
Diazepam is a sho acting benzodiazepines
Diazepam causes lesser respiratory depression than midazolam
Nitrazepam is metabolized in liver
2c
multi
Benzodiazepines act on BZD receptors of GABAA-BZD receptor-chloride channel complex and increase the frequency of CI -channel opening GABA facilitatory action. Thus these are not GABA agonists. Coma, respiratory depression though rare,can occur with ultra sho acting agents like midazolam,thriazolam. Diazolam has rapid onset of action but prolonged action due to formation of active metabolized. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "midazolam", "diazepam" ]
52,105
71abb2f3-32bd-4ccd-bb0d-ec2ece093727
Drug of choice for treatment of infestation due to Onchocerca volvolus is :
Albendazole
Ivermectin
Praziquantel
Suramin
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "albendazole", "ivermectin" ]
52,106
8e02b885-9dcd-4fff-97e5-7991bd9f5f9a
Drugs used for anaesthesia in a hypotensive is?
Propofol
Ketamine
Thiopentone
None
3d
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ketamine Ketamine raises the BP, therefore is the induction agent of choice in hypotensive states and shock
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine", "propofol" ]
52,107
cb5667f9-70a3-4b7b-b5c3-e0b17efb9dff
Best forensic sample for DNA analysis is: TN 09
Blood in EDTA
Hair
Vitreous humor
Femur bone
0a
single
Ans. Blood in EDTA
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "edta" ]
52,109
dc9bf7df-55e5-4f26-bdc2-a60c0eb95292
A young man presents with asymptomatic macules and erythematous painless lesion over glans with generalized lymphadenopathy. Treatment of choice in this condition:
Ceftriaxone
Benzathine penicillin
Acyclovir
Fluconazole
1b
single
Ans. b. Benzathine penicillin (Ref: Fitzpatrick's 6/e p2164-2212; Rooks Textbook of Dermatology 7/e p30.1-35, 25.20-39)Asymptomatic macules and papule over the trunk and reddish patch over the palate with a flat, moist lesion on glans penis in a young man with generalized lymphadenopathy is suggestive of syphilis.Benzathine penicillin first line of treatment for syphilis.Clinical Presentation of SyphilisEarly Congenital Syphilis:Snuffles (rhinitis)Q is the earliest feature.Lesions are vesiculobullous and snail track ulcers on the mucosaLate Congenital Syphilis:Characterized by Hutchinson's triad (interstitial keratitis + 8th nerve deafness + Hutchinson's teeth i.e. pegged central upper incisors)QSaddle nose, saber tibia, mulberry molarsBull dog's jaw (protrusion of jaw)RhagadesQ (linear fissure at the mouth, nares)Frontal bossing, hot cross bun deformity of the skullClutton's joints (painless swelling of joints, most commonly both knee)Palatal perforationsHigaumenakis sign (periostitis leads to unilateral enlargement of sternal end of clavicle)Primary Syphilis:Painless, indurated, non-bleeding, usually single punched out ulcer (hard chancre)QPainless, rubbery shotty lymphadenopathySecondary Syphilis:Bilateral symmetrical asymptomatic localized or diffuse mucocutaneous lesions (macule, papule, papulosquamous and rarely pustule)Non-tender generalized lymphadenopathyHighly infectious condylomata IataQ, in warm moist intertriginous areasMoth ate alopecia, arthritis, proteinuriaQTertiary Syphilis:Gumma, neurosyphilis/tabes dorsalisQOstitis, periostitisAortitis, aortic insufficiencyQ coronary stenosis and nocturnal anginaQSyphilisCaused by Treponema pallidumQDiagnosed by dark field microscopyFTA-ABS (most sensitive test, earliest test to become positive)QVDRL or RPR titer (determine response to treatment as they become negative)QTPI (most specific test)QTPH (2nd most sensitive test)Treatment of Sexually transmitted DiseasesDiseaseDrug of choice* Gonorrhea- Non-penicillinase producing- Penicillinase-producing or disseminated gonorrhea- Amoxy/ampicillin, Procaine penicillin G - Ceftriaxone, cefuroximeQ* Syphilis- Early (Primary, secondary and latent) and Late- Neurosyphilis- Benzathine Penicillin GQ/Procaine penicillin G- Aqueous penicillin G/Aqueous Pen. G procaineQ* LGV (Chlamydia trachomatis)- AzithromycinQ- DoxycyclineQ* Donovanosis/Granuloma inguinale (Calymmobacterium granulomatis)- Doxycycline/tetracyclineQ* Chancroid (H. ducreyi)- CeftriaxoneQ- Azithro/ErytrhromycinQ- CotrimoxazoleQ
Unknown
null
[ "fluconazole", "ceftriaxone" ]
52,114
c4a81534-7243-40bd-a8a1-895f81db3330
Drugs acting on dopamine receptors are all except
Dopamine
Fenoldopam
Dobutamine
Haloperidol
2c
multi
-Dopamine It stimulates 3 receptors Receptors Dose of Dopamine for stimulation D1 <2 mg/Kg/min b1 2-10 mg/Kg/min a1 >10 mg/Kg/min -Fenoldopam is dopamine agonist -D1 Used in hypeensive emergency -Dobutamine Does not act on dopamine receptors Mainly act on beta 1 Used in CHF -Haloperidol - typical antipsychotic with D2 blocking action
Pharmacology
Sympathetic System
[ "fenoldopam", "dobutamine" ]
52,119
78e9e758-8ea1-402c-b8d7-619155a5dfe8
Scabies oral drug of choice:
Permethrin
Benzyl Benzoate
Ivermectin
Lindane
2c
single
Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 939, 1075; KDT, 6th ed. pg. 864* Scabies is caused by an ectoparasite sarcoptes scabei. It is highly contagious. The mite burrows through the epidermis, laying eggs which form papules that itch intensely.* Most common site of entry- finger webs.* Drugs used are:# Permethrin 5%: broad spectrum and potent insecticide, currently most efficacious.* It is DOC for scabies.* MOA: It causes neurological paralysis in insects by delaying depolarization.* Single application needed in most cases.* Very less toxicity; 100% cure rate.# Lindane: another broad spectrum insecticide.Efficacy lower than permethrin.MOA: kills lice and mites by penetrating through their chitinous cover and affecting the nervous system.# Benzyl benzoate: Oily liquid with a faint aromatic smell.It is applied over face and neck after a bath. A second coat is applied next day which is washed after 24 hours.# Crotamiton# Sulfur# Ivermectin: Highly effective in scabies and pediculosis as well. Oral DOC in scabies.* It is the only ORALLY administered drug which is used for scabies (ectoparasitosis)* A single dose of 0.2mg/kg has cured almost 90-100% of population.* It is contraindicated in children <5 yrs, pregnant and lactating women.
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "ivermectin" ]
52,154
3c9b142e-ea01-4676-a8bf-06923b8732ef
Which of the following is a GLP-1 agonist?
Pramlintide
Exenatide
Sitagliptin
None of the above
1b
multi
Alpha-Glucosidase inhibitors |Glucose absorption Acarbose, Miglitol Dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitors Prolong endogenous GLP-1 action Sitagliptin GLP-1 agonist |Insulin, |Glucagon, slow gastric emptying Exenatide Amylin agonist Slow gastric emptying, |Glucagon Pramlintide Ref: KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED.
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "sitagliptin", "exenatide", "pramlintide" ]
52,157