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ed25c215-5e1e-4a69-8a31-dccd99d92cb5
which of the following is used in the managemnt of ECT
succinyl choline
cefepime
clozapine
chlorpromazine
0a
single
HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal * More cognitive side effects==bi fronto temporal * Less cognitive side effect======bi frontal * SIDE EFFECTS * RETROGRADE AMNESIA * BODY ACHE * MEDICATIONS USED IN THE PROCEDURE * ANAESTHETIC======Thiopentone / ethosuximide * MUSCLE RELAXANT====Succynyl choline CURARE IN PSEUDOCHOLINEESTERASE DEFICIENCY * ANTICHOLINERGIC=====Atropine CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication * RELATIVE -----------------Brain tumour / arrythmia Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg 1065
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
[ "chlorpromazine", "clozapine" ]
66,296
552efc01-beab-4779-896d-fc314c56d5c9
What is the dosage of a single dose of Albendazole prescribed to a child of 10yrs for treatment of roundworm infestation?
200 mg
400 mg
1 g
2 g
1b
single
Single dose Albendazole is used to control infection caused by soil transmitted Heliminthic infection. Its a effective therapy for infections with GI nematodes including Ascaris Lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura and hookworms. Two different dosages are used in two different age groups: 200mg - used in childrens less than 2yrs of age. 400mg - used in childrens above 2yrs of age and adults. Its a effective therapy for infections with GI nematodes including Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura and hookworms. A 3-day regime of Albendazole outperforms single-dose treatments against hookworm and T. trichiura infections Albendazole is the drug of choice for chemotherapy of Cystic Hydatid disease due to Echinococcus granulosus. Albendazole also is the preferred treatment of Neurocysticercosis caused by larval forms of Taenia solium. Albendazole has been combined with DEC, ivermectin or DEC + ivermectin in programs directed toward controlling Lymphatic filariasis (update)
Pharmacology
Anti-Parasitic Drugs
[ "albendazole" ]
66,298
32f652f2-4885-42e2-a838-a6bf047c6f2d
A known case of COPD is on treatment with theophylline. Which of the following side effect will be commonly seen due to inhibition of PDE4?
Headache
Diuresis
Cardiac arrhythmias
Epileptic seizures
0a
single
The most common side effects are headache, nausea, and vomiting (due to inhibition of PDE4), abdominal discomfo, and restlessness. There may also be increased acid secretion (due to PDE inhibition) and diuresis (due to inhibition of adenosine A1 receptors). At high concentrations, cardiac arrhythmias may occur as a consequence of inhibition of cardiac PDE3 inhibition and antagonism of cardiac A1 receptors. At very high concentrations, seizures may occur due to central A1 receptor antagonism. Ref: Barnes P.J. (2011). Chapter 36. Pulmonary Pharmacology. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Pharmacology
null
[ "theophylline" ]
66,326
b4fc1930-aba4-46ae-a73a-9219c1626917
A-65, year old farmer presents with sweating, hypothermia and pulse rate of <50/min treatment is -
Physostigmine
Neostigmine
Atropine
Pilocarpine
2c
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "pilocarpine", "atropine", "physostigmine", "neostigmine" ]
66,338
3f08036c-b33a-4cc3-b4fa-23534bdccc1b
Which of the following drug is implicated in the causation of osteomalacia of the bone?
Phenytoin
Steroids
Heparin
Estrogen
0a
single
Phenytoin inhibit the hepatic production of 25 hydroxy vitamin D and also directly inhibit bone mineralization and thus may result in osteomalacia. Steroids and heparin result in osteoporosis not osteomalacia. Impoant drugs causing osteomalacia are: Phenytoi Carbamazepine Valproate Phenobarbitone Bisphosphonates
Pharmacology
Osteoporosis, Sex Hormones and OCPs
[ "phenytoin" ]
66,352
8941c591-2963-45b7-b590-9d81b5737202
Desmopressin can be used for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Bed wetting in children
Bleeding due to hemophilia
1b
multi
Desmopressin is the agent of choice for central diabetes insipidus. It has no role in nephrogenic DI (because ADH is already present in this condition). Pituitary DI and that due to head trauma are examples of central DI. Li induced DI is nephrogenic. Drug of choice for this condition is amiloride.
Pharmacology
Kidney
[ "desmopressin" ]
66,368
46d4b9ef-a884-414a-946d-d119392b14ab
Drug that decreases LpA in blood ?
Statin
Nicotinic acid
Ezetimibe
CETP inhibitors
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nicotinic acid Nicotinic acid reduces Lp(a) while statins do not have any effect on Lp(a).
Pharmacology
null
[ "ezetimibe" ]
66,370
d607d1d4-20c8-4ec6-9e6b-2e743d17cfc0
Which one of the following drugs does not produce central anticholinergic syndrome?
Atropine sulphate
Glycopyrrolate
Antihistamines
Tricyclic antidepressants
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "atropine" ]
66,380
e18eb472-a114-4d01-a162-53351814f86f
DOC for CML is :
Crizotinib
Ibrutinib
Imatinib
Gilterinib
2c
single
Imatinib is a BCR - ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor, which is the drug of choice for CML(Chronic myeloid Leukemia).
Pharmacology
null
[ "imatinib" ]
66,384
455a7df3-63c0-40a7-9e96-156c7220d438
In alcohol withdrawal, drug of choice is
TEP
Chlormethazole
Chlordiazepoxide
Buspirone
2c
single
The usual duration of uncomplicated withdrawal syndrome is 7-14 days. The aim of detoxification is the symptomatic management of emergent withdrawal symptoms. The drugs of choice for detoxification are usually benzodiazepines. Chlordiazepoxide (80-200 mg/day in divided doses) and diazepam (40-80 mg/day in divided doses) are the most frequently used benzodiazepines. The higher limit of the normal dose range is used in delirium tremens. A typical dose of Chlordiazepoxide in moderate alcohol dependence is 20 mg QID (four times a day) on day 1, 15 mg QID on day 2, 10 mg QID on day 3, 5 mg QID on day 4, 5 mg BD on day 5 and none on day 6. However, in more severe dependence, higher doses are needed for longer periods (up to 10 days). These drugs are used in a standardised protocol, with the dosage steadily decreasing every day before being stopped, usually on the tenth day. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no.40
Psychiatry
Substance abuse
[ "chlordiazepoxide" ]
66,408
00f9a768-a951-41e8-a9d2-e3fed85b471f
True regarding Conivaptan is -
Vasopressin Antagonist
V2 selective action
Given orally
Used in the treatment of hypernatremia
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vasopressin Antagonist ADH (Vasopressin) receptors VtaV1b (also called V3) o Release of vWF & Factor VIIIo Blood vessels - vasoconstrictiono Anterior pitutary -from endotheliumo Visceral smooth muscle - contractionrelease of ACTH o Liver - glycogenolysis o Platelet - aggregation o V receptors are more sensitive to ADH than V, receptors.VAPTANSo A new class of medication, the "vaptan drugs", act by inhibiting the action of vasopressin on it receptors (VIA, V1B and V2) ?Vasopressin receptor antagonists.VIA receptor antagonisto As already explained, V1 A receptors are involved in vasoconstriction ? V1 A antagonist can be used when total peripheral resistance is increased, e.g. in CHF and hypertension.Example - RelcovaptanVI B receptor antagonisto VI B receptors are expressed in brain and pituitary gland ? VI B antagonist can be used as psychiatric drugs.Example - NelivaptanV2 receptor antagonistso V2 receptors are mainly responsible for increase water permeability in kidney ? V2 antagonists can be used when there is excessive ADH induced fluid retention as in SI ADH.Examples - Lixivaptan.satavaptan, mozavaptan, Tolvaptano Tolvaptan is currently the only oral V2 antagonist approved by the U.S. FDA.Non-selective (mixed V1A/V2)o Can be used in CHF (hypervolemic hyponatremia)Examples -Conivaptan
Pharmacology
Diuretic
[ "vasopressin" ]
66,411
cf15b0af-f8ca-45f5-8371-8bfd4b96b98e
The treatment of gestational diabetes comprise of:
Glibenclamide
Chlorpropamide
Glipizide
Insulin
3d
single
Gestational diabetes is defined as "glucose intolerance first detected during pregnancy which returns to normal following termination of pregnancy". It is associated with 2 to 3-fold increase in perinatal  mortality. It is frequently associated with macrosomia, stillbirth and polyhydramnios. To restrict the plasma glucose levels around 100 mg % insulin may be required.  Sulfonylureas cross the placental  barrier and are likely to exert their action on fetal pancreas. It is better to use human insulin or monocomponent purified insulins, as they are less antigenic.
Pharmacology
null
[ "glipizide", "chlorpropamide" ]
66,419
6b7c95bf-83f2-4a1d-b639-437d2badb31a
Filtration fraction can be best determined by:
Inulin and mannitol
PAH and Inulin
Inulin and creatinine
PAH and mannitol
1b
single
To calculate the filtration fraction, which is the fraction of plasma that filters through the glomerular membrane, one must first know the RPF (PAH clearance) and the GFR (inulin clearance). FILTRATION FRACTION = GFR(inulin clearance)/RPF(PAH clearance) Inulin and mannitol measure ECF volume Inulin and creatinine both measures GFR, but creatinine is secreted in the tubules hence GFR estimated by creatinine is falsely higher.
Physiology
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
[ "mannitol" ]
66,429
e3fca6d7-50dd-4f90-b4e0-35f61689bb6e
The skeletal muscle relaxant, vecuronium, acts at cholinergic receptors where it exhibits:
Affinity but no efficacy
Efficacy but no affinity
Receptor upregulation
Affinity and efficacy
0a
single
Vecuronium is a curare-like drug classified as a nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant. It exhibits pharmacologic antagonism by competing with acetylcholine for available N2-nicotinic receptors on the motor end plate. In this reversible mechanism, vecuronium exhibits affinity, or the ability to bind with a paicular receptor. Vecuronium does not elicit a response in the muscle cell it lacks efficacy, or effectiveness, the ability to produce an effect relative to a given number of drug-receptor complexes. Vecuronium prevents depolarization, thereby preventing the muscle cell from contracting. It has no effect on the regulation of receptor numbers at synapses. Ref: Hibbs R.E., Zambon A.C. (2011). Chapter 11. Agents Acting at the Neuromuscular Junction and Autonomic Ganglia. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Pharmacology
null
[ "vecuronium" ]
66,435
5aef8dc0-1c81-4235-9049-19c1b9db62a1
All are alkylating agents except
5 flurouracil
Melphalan
Cycloohosphamide
Chlorambucil
0a
multi
Refer Katzung 11/e p945 5 flurouracil is an Antimetabolite whereas Melphalan Cyclophosphamide .chlorambucil These are alkylating agents
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "chlorambucil" ]
66,439
37c36bce-2a5a-4ab2-b161-426d521e97e1
Which of the following GLP - 1 analogue is cardioprotective?
Exenatide
Lixisenatide
Liraglutide
Teduglutide
2c
single
Liraglutide is cardioprotective and it is also used to treat obesity.
Pharmacology
null
[ "exenatide", "liraglutide" ]
66,451
77a1b2a4-1ed2-4cf5-8161-4b17eb45e75c
Round worm infection is best treated with :
Metronidazole
Mebendazole
Albendazol
Pyrantel pamoate
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "metronidazole", "mebendazole" ]
66,472
69de19c0-d46a-4e71-8745-4b6baa320e9f
What is the mechanism of action of Nevirapine?
It is a Protease inhibitor
It is a Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
It is a Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
It is a Fusion inhibitor
2c
single
Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. It directly inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase without the need for intracellular phosphorylation. It can induce cytochrome P450 enzymes and can induce their own metabolism as well as other drugs. Side effects includes rashes, nausea headache fever and elevation of liver enzymes. Nevirapine, Delavirdine and Eirenz are NNIs. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Pages 725-31
Pharmacology
null
[ "nevirapine" ]
66,478
9e4ec274-f14d-4f70-9e9d-ffb39f6dd717
Primary objective of use of atropine in anterior uveitis
Rest to the ciliary muscle
Increase supply of antibody
Increase blood flow
Prevents posterior synechia formation
0a
single
A i.e. Rest to the ciliary muscle In inflamatory glaucoma (glaucoma with uveitis) pilocarpine (miotic) & prostaglandin analogue e.g. latanoprost are contraindicated Q because - Pilocarpine 1/t development of posterior synechiae - Prostaglandin analogue enhance breakdown of aqueous barrier and exacerbate cystoid macular edema.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "atropine" ]
66,483
336749cf-5028-4b29-a275-888ebdf7f985
Drug of choice to treat Toxoplasmosis in first-trimester of pregnancy is
Spiramycin
Pyrimethamine-Sulphonamide
Atovaquone
Ivermectin
0a
single
Compound Drug class Route Mechanism of action Clinical use Comment Spiramycin Macrolide Oral Blocks proteinsynthesis Toxoplasmosis Used to treat pregnantwomen Ref : Paniker's textbook of Medical Parasitology Pgno : 241,242
Microbiology
parasitology
[ "ivermectin" ]
66,495
0516c31d-1a76-4521-8df1-ab0aef55adff
A drug that blocks the hea rate effect of a slow intravenous infusion of Phenylephrine is
Atenolol
Prazosin
Atropine
Propranolol
2c
single
.
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "propranolol", "atenolol", "atropine", "phenylephrine", "prazosin" ]
66,529
226bbd34-de5e-48af-89e1-209bea812918
Not used in the treatment of glaucoma is -
Latanoprost
Atropine
Brinzolamide
Mannitol
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Atropine Pharmacological agents used for POAGA) Topical drugso b-blockers:- Timolol, betaxolol, levobunolol, carteolol.o Prostaglandin analogues:- Latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost.o Alpha agonists:- Non-selective (epipherine, dipivefrine); selective a2 (Apraclonidine, Brimonidine).o Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors:- Dorzolantide, brinzolamide.o Cholinomimetic agents:- Pilocarpine, physostigmine, echothiophate, carbachol.B) Systemic drugso Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors:- Acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, methazolamide.o Hyperosmotic agents:- Mannitol, glycerol.
Ophthalmology
Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma and Related Conditions
[ "latanoprost", "atropine", "mannitol" ]
66,539
c1cc2039-43c5-469d-ad9d-f11203cae132
Vancomycin is obtained from
Staphyloccus species
Aspergillus niger
Streptococcus orientalis
Bacillus anthracis
2c
single
Vancomycin is produced by Streptomyces orientalis. It is poorly absorbed from the intestine. Vancomycin is markedly bactericidal for staphylococci, some clostridia, and some bacilli. The drug inhibits early stages in cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis. Vancomycin is markedly bactericidal for staphylococci, some clostridia, and some bacilli. The drug inhibits early stages of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis.Undesirable side effects are thrombophlebitis, skin rashes, nerve deafness, leukopenia, and perhaps kidney damage when used in combination with an aminoglycoside.Ref: Chapter 28; Jawetz Medical Microbiology; 27th edition; Antimicrobial Chemotherapy; Page no: 388
Microbiology
Bacteriology
[ "vancomycin" ]
66,557
63295097-25d3-414a-8d7c-951867df9e6c
An AIDS patient develops symptoms of pneumonia, and Pneumocystis carinii is suspected as the causative organism. Bronchial lavage is performed. Which of the following stains would be most helpful in demonstrating the organism's cysts on slides made from the lavage fluid?
Alcian blue
Hematoxylin and eosin
Methenamine silver
Prussian blue
2c
single
The appropriate stain is methenamine silver, and the requisition slip when submitting the wash fluid should have a reference to either Pneumocystis or methenamine silver, since routine hematoxylin and eosin does not adequately demonstrate the organisms. The cysts, when stained with methenamine silver, have a characteristic cup or boat shape; the trophozoites are difficult to demonstrate without electron microscopy. It is also woh knowing that sputum samples are not nearly as effective as bronchial washes in demonstrating the organisms.Alcian blue is good for demonstrating mucopolysaccharides.Hematoxylin and eosin is the routine tissue stain used in pathology laboratories. Prussian blue is good for demonstrating iron.
Anatomy
null
[ "methenamine" ]
66,561
4be0f2a5-5c09-455a-85f2-c4534743a7ca
Which of the following inhibits the activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase?
Citrate
Glucagon
High-carbohydrate, low-fat diet
Insulin
1b
single
The key thing to remember here is that acetyl-CoA carboxylase catalyzes the first and rate-limiting step of fatty acid synthesis. If you got that far, you could have figured out which of the choices would inhibit the synthesis of fatty acids. Ceainly glucagon, a catabolic hormone released in response to low blood glucose, would be a likely candidate to inhibit the synthesis of fatty acids. In fact, glucagon inhibits fatty acid synthesis by a cAMP-dependent phosphorylation of acetyl-CoA carboxylase. Conversely, glucagon stimulates fatty acid oxidation. Citrate is a key player in fatty acid synthesis (citrate shuttle). Therefore, the presence of citrate would stimulate, not inhibit, acetyl-CoA carboxylase. A high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet (would stimulate, not inhibit, the synthesis of fatty acids. In contrast to glucagon, insulin is an anabolic hormone that promotes fatty acid synthesis and therefore would stimulate acetyl-CoA carboxylase. It does so by dephosphorylating the enzyme. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 23. Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids & Eicosanoids. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e.
Biochemistry
null
[ "glucagon" ]
66,570
3ea717c0-c0b1-42d4-b1bc-08c93172993b
A Hemophiliac patient has rheumatoid arthritis. Which drug might be prescribed to relieve the pain?
Acetaminophen
Acetylsalicylic acid
Phenylbutazone
Naproxen
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "naproxen" ]
66,583
192558fb-2218-4450-85fe-e4c465be27cb
Antihypeensive of choice in a pregnant lady is: September 2011
Methyldopa
Frusemide
Nitroprusside
ACE inhibitors
0a
single
Ans. A: Methyldopa Methyldopa is usually safe and preferred as an antihypeensive agent in pregnancy Methyldopa/ L-alpha-Methyl-3, 4-DihydrOxyPhenylAlanine It is an alpha-adrenergic agonist (selective for alpha-2-adrenergic receptors) psychoactive drug used as a sympatholytic or antihypeensive. It continues to have a role in otherwise difficult to treat hypeension and gestational hypeension (also known as pregnancy-induced hypeension (PIH)). Methyldopa is used in the clinical treatment of the following disorders: - Hypeension - Gestational hypeension (or pregnancy-induced hypeension) and pre-eclampsia Methyldopa has a dual mechanism of action: - It is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme DOPA decarboxylase, also known as aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase, which conves L-DOPA into dopamine. - Dopamine is a precursor for norepinephrine (noradrenaline) and subsequently epinephrine (adrenaline). - This inhibition results in reduced dopaminergic and adrenergic neurotransmission in the peripheral nervous system. - This effect may lower blood pressure and cause central nervous system effects such as depression, anxiety, apathy, anhedonia, and parkinsonism. - It is conveed to alpha-methylnorepinephrine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase (DBH). - Alpha-methylnorepinephrine is an agonist of presynaptic central nervous system alpha-2-adrenergic receptors. - Activation of these receptors in the brainstem appears to inhibit sympathetic nervous system output and lower blood pressure. This is also the mechanism of action of clonidine. Methyldopa exhibits variable absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. It is metabolized in the liver and intestines and is excreted in urine. Side effects may include: - Psychological Depression and/or even suicidal ideation, as well as nightmares Decreased aleness, awareness, and wakefulness Cognitive and memory impairment Derealization and/or depersonalization, as well as mild psychosis Physiological Miosis Xerostomia Gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea and/or constipation Myalgia or muscle aches, ahralgia or joint pain, and/or paresthesia ("pins and needles") Restless legs syndrome (RLS) Parkinsonian symptoms such as muscle tremors, rigidity, hypokinesia, and/or balance or postural instability Akathisia, ataxia, dyskinesia as well as even tardive dyskinesia, and/or dystonia Bell's palsy or facial paralysis Sexual dysfunction consisting of impaired erectile dysfunction and/or anorgasmia Hyperprolactinemia or excess prolactin, gynecomastia/breast enlargement in males, and/or amenorrhoea or absence of menstrual cycles in females Bradycardia Ohostatic hypotension (also known as postural hypotension) Hepatitis, hepatotoxicity Pancreatitis Haemolytic anaemia Myelotoxicity or bone marrow suppression Lichenoid reactions such as skin lesions and/or rashes
Pharmacology
null
[ "methyldopa", "nitroprusside" ]
66,584
53b23e83-36eb-411c-8f2a-1e0488691e8b
All the following drugs are teratogenic EXCEPT:
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Warfarin
Metoclopramide
3d
multi
ANSWER: (D) MetoclopramideREF: KDT 6th edition, page 909, internet resourcesSee APPENDIX-32 below for list of "Teratogens"FDA pregnancy category B lists Metoclopramide is not expected to be harmful to an unborn babyFDA lists phenytoin in Pregnancy Category DUnited States FDA Pharmaceutical Pregnancy CategoriesPregnancy Category AAdequate and well-controlled human studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters).Pregnancy Category BAnimal reproduction studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus and there are no adequate and w'ell-controlled studies in pregnant women OR Animal studies have shown an adverse effect, but adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in any trimester.Pregnancy Category CAnimal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.Pregnancy Category DThere is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.Pregnancy Category XStudies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities and/or there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience, and the risks involved in use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweigh potential benefits.Following are few category-X drugs:ANTIEMETIC: DomperiodoneANALGESIC: MorphineANTIBIOTICS: Fluoroquinolones, Tetracycline, Doxycycline, Chloramphenicol, streptomycin, Kanamycin, TobramycinANTITUBERCULAR: StreptomycinANTIAMOEBIC: TinidazoleANTIMALARIAL: Quinine, Sulfadoxine, PrimaquineANTIHELMINTHIC: Mebendazole, DECANTIFUNGAL: Amphotericin -B, Itraconazole, Ketoconazole, GriesofulvinANTIVIRAL: Ganciclovir, Foscarnet, Amantadine, <2-interferonANTIHYPERTENSIVE: ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin antagonistANTIDIABETIC: Sulfonylurea, Acarbose, Metformin . ANTICOAGULANT: WarfarinOTHERS: Thalidomide, Alcohol, Radioactive iodine, Isotretinoin, Cytotoxic drugs APPENDIX - 32TeratogensTeratogenGroupCritical periodEffectThalidomidesedative34-51 days after LMPExternal ear deformity (earliest), PHOCOMELIA (MC- four groups: 4-limb phocomelia, Upper limb phocomelia, Predominantly Upper-limb phocomelia, Predominantly lower limb defects), Facial Hemangioma, Esophageal atresia, TOF, Renal agenesisRetinoic AcidVitamin3-5 weekcranio-facial abnormalitiesMicrotia/Anotia (deafness)Missing jaw or one that is too smallDisorders of jaw formation (split jaw)Disorders of formation of aortic archThymic aplasia/hvpoplasiaDeformities in the CNS (mc-hydrocephalus)Diethvlstil-boestrolHormone vaginal adenosis, erosions of the cervix and transversal cleavages in the vaginaAlcohol {fetal alcohol syndrome)Recreational LBW, microcephaly, maxillary hypoplasia, flat nasal bridge, micrognathia, microphthalmia, hypoplastic upper lip, broad lower lip.CocaineRecreational/Narcotic addiction in the child, retarded growth, to malformations of the circulatory systemLithiumAntipsychotic3-8 -weeksEbstein anomaly (me), cleft palate in experimental animalsStreptomycinAminoglycosides4-8 weeksdamage of the 8th cerebral nerve- deafnessWarfarinAnticoagulant1st trimesterHypoplastic nasal bridge , chondrodysplasia 2nd trimesterCNS malformation 3rd trimesterRisk of bleedingRubellaViral1st trimestercardiac defects, cataracts and deafnessCytomegalovirusViralspontaneous miscarriage in 1st trimester, anomalies from 2nd trimesterRetarded growth, changes in the CNS (microcephaly, cerebral atrophy, hydrocephaly, cerebellar hypoplasia, chorioretinitis, atrophy of the eyes) and hepatosplenomegalyHerpes SimplexViralAs a rule, HSV occurs in late pregnancyMental deficiency, Microcephaly, Myocardiopathy, Spasticity, Retinal dysplasiaVaricellaViralOnly up to the 20th week.muscle atrophy, hypoplasia of the limbs and fingers, abnormalities of the eyes and the brain (mental deficiency)Toxoplasmosis(ToxoplasmaGondi.)intracellularparasite cerebral calcification, microcephaly, microphthalmia, chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, hydrocephalusCongenitalSyphilis Mental deficiency, hydrocephalus, deafness, blindness, bone malformations, Hutchinson's teeth (pathognomic)Critical Period:Before the 14th day an insult (injury) to the embryo will not cause an abnormality because the embryo either repairs the damage or dies (spontaneous miscarriage)Embryonic period, during which numerous mitotic divisions and organogenesis occur, the embryo is very vulnerable and most congenital abnormalities happen thenFetopathies are the abnormalities that occur after the 8th week and up to delivery. The sensibility to injurious substances is clearly reduced in the last two trimesters of pregnancy.In infectious etiology critical period might not coincide with the effects they cause as there critical period might be different from the incidence of infection in the pregnancy trimester.
Pharmacology
Pregnancy
[ "metoclopramide", "warfarin", "phenytoin" ]
66,589
dd9660a4-0fc1-4fd8-9f36-3eab6a39927c
Surfactant accelerated by
Thyroxine
Glucocorticoids
Carbamazepine
Iodine
1b
single
(Glucocorticoids) (657-Ganong 22nd) (442-A.K. Jain 3rd) (598-Ganong 23rd)* Maturation of surfactant in the lungs is accelerated by glucocorticoid hormones. Fetal and maternal cortisol increases near term and the lungs are rich in glucocorticoid receptors* Nomally after birth, the infant makes several strong inspiratory movements and the lung expand. Surfactant keeps them from collapsing again. But due to deficiency of surfactant in this disease, surface tension in the lungs of these infants is very high, and there are many areas in which alveoli are collapsed (At electasis) also pulmonary oedema occurs and infants dies of pulmonary insufficiency. Infants with RDS show low thyroid hormone and cortisol levels in their plasma.
Physiology
Respiratory System
[ "carbamazepine", "thyroxine" ]
66,594
1c54073b-0166-4d34-8232-6926fdd72720
which of the following tri cyclic antidepressent used in the management of OCD
imipramine
amitriptilline
amoxapine
clomipramine
3d
single
TCA * MECHANISM This is an antidepressant with three rings. It acts by blocking the transpoers of neurotransmitters resulting in increased neurotransmitters in synapse DRUGS AMITRYPTILLINE IMIPRAMINE CLOMIPRAMINE DESIPRAMINE NORIPTILLINE DOXEPINE * USE AMITRYPTILLINE========PAIN WITH DEPRESSION IMIPRAMINE==========CHILDHOOD ENEURESIS CLOMIPRAMINE========OCD * SIDE EFFECTS ANTI HISTAMINERGIC==== sedation, weight gain ANTI MUSCURANIC=======dryness of mouth ANTI ADRENERGIC========hypotension, giddiness SWITCH TO MANIA when used in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition,955
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
[ "clomipramine", "amoxapine", "imipramine" ]
66,597
a74e5da4-efa5-48e7-9551-eee5ceef4bb1
Concentration of epinephrine used in neonatal resuscitation is
0.111111111
0.736111111
1 : 10000
1 : 100000
2c
single
Medications: indication, dosage and effects MedicationIndicationEffectsConcentration administeredDose of prepared solutionRouteEpinephrine (1:1000)HR <60 / min after 30 sec of effective PPV and chest compressions Inotropic; chronotropic; peripheral vasoconstrictor 1:100000.1-0.3 ml/kgIV; through umbilical vein (endotracheal route if no IV access) Normal salineRinger lactateAcute bleeding with hypovolemia Increased intravascular volume improves perfusion 10 ml/kgUmbilical vein Naloxone (0.4 mg/ml) Respiratory depression with maternal history of narcotic use within 4 hr of bihNarcotic antagonist 0.4 mg/ml 0.25 ml/kgIV preferred; delayed onset of action with intramuscular use; administer only after restoring ventilationSodium bicarbonate is administered only if prolonged asphyxia is associated with metabolic acidosis despite use of epinephrine and volume expanders.IV intravenous; PPV positive pressure ventilation Ref: Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; 8th edition; Page no: 132
Pediatrics
New born infants
[ "epinephrine" ]
66,600
c6785914-c4fc-47a8-9856-584c8758e493
Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity may be the side effect of: March 2012
Vancomycin
Azithromycin
Clindamycin
Penicillin
0a
single
Ans: A i.e. Vancomycin Drugs and side-effects Vancomycin can cause plasma concentration dependent nerve deafness which may be permanent. Kidney damage is also dose related. Side-effects of azithromycin are mild gastric upset, abdominal pain (less than erythromycin), headache and dizziness Side effects of clindamycin are rashes, uicaria, abdominal pain, but the major problem is diarrhoea and pseudomembranous colitis due to Cl. Difficile superinfection which is potentially fatal. Adverse effects of penicillin include local irritancy and direct toxicity, hypersensitivity, superinfections and JarischHerxheimer reaction (in syphilitic patient)
Pharmacology
null
[ "azithromycin", "vancomycin", "clindamycin" ]
66,605
36eda334-6ed6-404b-86fb-2bc478f41623
Shivering is observed in the early pa of postoperative period is due to
Chloroform
Halothane
Truchloroethylene
Ether
1b
single
Halothane Post operative shivering and hypothermia is maximum with Halothane Pethidine is used for treatment of this condition Refer Ajay yadav 2/e p 61
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
[ "halothane" ]
66,614
1b9f758e-0009-4bb3-a047-fdfd9243562b
Wof alkylating agent is known to cause disulfiram like reaction
Melphalan
Procarbazine
Carmustine
Ifosfamide
1b
single
Procarbazine It is a weak MAO inhibitor; It produces sedation and other CNS effects, and can interact with foods and drugs. Alcohol causes hot flushing and a disulfiram-like reaction in patients taking procarbazine. Males may suffer sterility. Vomiting, leucopenia, thrombocytopenia are the prominent toxicities. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-861
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "disulfiram", "procarbazine" ]
66,631
813dd7be-23ba-431f-9131-8ca8cc4157e7
A 52 year old woman presents to her physician for a check-up. She is recovering from a wrist fracture after a fall. Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry of the hip had shown her to have osteoporosis. She became menopausal at age 50 and did not begin hormone replacement therapy because of a strong family history of breast cancer. She now fears a future hip fracture and would like to begin a bone loss prevention regime.Which of the following pharmaceutical agents is most appropriate for this patient?
Calcitonin nasal spray
Oral conjugated estrogen
Raloxifene
Tamoxifen
2c
multi
Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that helps prevent osteoporosis by lessening bone resorption and reducing bone turnover. It lowers risk for veebral fractures by 40% to 50%. It is a bone-preserving alternative for women who prefer to avoid estrogen. Raloxifene does not cause breast pain and may lessen the risk for breast cancer in menopausal women. There is also a orable effect on LDL and cholesterol. Calcitonin nasal spray is an osteoclastic bone resorption inhibitor that modestly increases bone mineral density and reduces the incidence of veebral fracture. Although it is an estrogen alternative for bone preservation, its impact on hip fracture is not known. It is also lacks the anti-breast cancer propeies of raloxifene. Oral conjugated estrogen and transdermal estradiolare not the best choices, as this patient wants to avoid estrogen because of a strong family history of breast cancer. The route of administration of estrogen has been shown to have similar effects on bone preservation, even though the transdermal dosage is generally half that of the oral dosage. Breast cancer risk, however, is slightly increased with the unopposed higher dosage oral estrogen replacement. Tamoxifen , while indicated in the long-term care of breast cancer patients, is not alone useful for treatment or prevention of osteoporosis. Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen agent that competes with estrogen for binding sites. Ref: Shoback D. (2013). Chapter 58. Osteoporosis & Glucocoicoid-Induced Osteoporosis. In J.B. Imboden, D.B. Hellmann, J.H. Stone (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Rheumatology, 3e.
Pharmacology
null
[ "raloxifene", "tamoxifen" ]
66,632
ee5a0894-ac2e-4837-a75e-20ab519e66c3
Podophyllin is used to treat which type of wa ?
Plantar wa
Genital wa
Verruca Wa
All of the above
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Genital wa
Pharmacology
null
[ "podophyllin" ]
66,644
66b7040d-45cf-4dcc-bff2-b2b3397e72f5
A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated showed beta-hemolysis on blood agar, resistance to bacitracin, and a positive CAMP test. The most probable organism causing infection is
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus agalacitae
Enterococcus
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
1b
single
Streptococcus agalactiae is a beta-hemolytic and most common cause of neonatal infection. Two types of infection are caused: early onset and late onset, commonly early-onset type presents as meningitis or septicemia and is often fatal. Acquired from the maternal vagina during bih. Shows a positive CAMP test, demonstrated as an accentuated zone of hemolysis when streptococcus agalactiae is inoculated perpendicular to a streak of Staphylococcus aureus grown on blood agar. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 218
Microbiology
Bacteriology
[ "bacitracin" ]
66,646
8d314640-c721-4fea-899c-1b772d1b8a6d
Which one the following drugs is a Parenteral Direct Thrombin Inhibitor ?
Enoxaparin
Apixaban
Dabigatran
Argatroban
3d
single
INJECTABLE DIRECT THROMBIN INHIBITORS: HIRUDIN LEPIRUDIN BIVALURIDIN ARGATROBAN MELAGATRAN ORAL DIRECT THROMBIN INHIBITOR: DABIGATRAN Argatroban : A synthetic compound based on the structure of L-Arginine, binds reversibly to the active site of Thrombin . Its is administered Intravenously and has a T1/2 of 40-50 min. It is metabolized in the liver and excreted in the bile. In patients with renal impairment, but dose reduction is required for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Argatroban is licensed for the prophylaxis or treatment of patients with, or at risk of developing, Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia . It prolongs both aPTT and PT, which can complicate the transitioning of patients from argatroban to warfarin. A factor X assay can be used instead of the PT to monitor warfarin in these patients.
Pharmacology
Hematology
[ "enoxaparin", "apixaban" ]
66,647
53f1d3f6-1677-4224-b8ae-e0f52e5ffa13
Induction agent for Day care Surgery is :
Ketamine
Diazepam
Thiopentone
Propofol
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e. . Propofol "Propofol is used as in inducing agent for day care surgery because residual impairment is less marked and incidence of post-operative nausea and vomiting is Cow." - KDT, 4/e, p 352Also remember Day care anaesthesia - isoflurane* Day care analgesic - Afentanyl*.
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
[ "ketamine", "diazepam", "propofol" ]
66,650
b97a9303-c18a-4708-b4f1-1f5528342bcc
TRUE statement regarding vancomycin is:
It is bcteriostatic
It has the advantage of high oral bioavailability
It is not susceptible to penicillinases
Staphylococcal enterocolits occurs commonly with its use
2c
multi
(Ref: KDT 6/e p732) Vancomycin is a glycopeptide bactericidal antibiotic that is administered by parenteral route. It is penicillinase resistant, thus can be used in MRSA infections. It is also used for the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis. Vancomycin is ineffective against pseudomonas.
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "vancomycin" ]
66,682
7a5308c0-b548-4cc4-9a39-0450c7c7fb31
Systemic vascular resistance is twice that of normal, treatment should be:
Adrenaline
Nor-adrenaline
Sodium nitroprusside
Isoprenaline
2c
single
Ans. (C) Sodium nitroprusside(Ref: KDT 8th/e p613)Increase in systemic vascular resistance means vasoconstriction, thus a vasodilator drug like nitroprusside should be used. Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline act as vasopressors whereas isoprenaline increases systolic blood pressure by acting on heart.
Pharmacology
C.V.S
[ "nitroprusside" ]
66,696
0a7c149e-a41b-475e-b24e-87e434dacdcf
Drug that is used for fetal lung maturity is
Dexamethasone
Folic acid
eclomethasone
one
0a
single
* Betamethasone and dexamethasone are coicosteroids, also called glucocoicoids, that are given before bih (antenatally) to speed up a preterm fetuses lung development. * Either is used when a mother is in preterm labor and bih may occur in 24 to 48 hours REF : DUTTA BOOK OF OBESTETRICS
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
[ "dexamethasone" ]
66,698
1c60c74b-f14a-468f-9407-291bcb0497ec
A 38-year-old woman presents with repeated episodes of sore throat. She is on no medications, does not use ethanol, and has no history of renal disease. Physical examination is normal. Hb is 9.0 g/dL, MCV is 85 fL (normal), white blood cell count is 2000/mL, and platelet count is 30,000/mL. Which of the following is the best approach to diagnosis?
Erythropoietin level
Serum B12
Bone marrow biopsy
Liver spleen scan
2c
single
This patient has an unexplained pancytopenia. If all three elements (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) are affected, the cause is usually in the bone marrow (although peripheral destruction from hypersplenism can cause pancytopenia as well). In this patient without a history of liver disease or palpable splenomegaly on physical examination, a bone marrow production problem is the most likely culprit. Although B12 deficiency can cause pancytopenia, usually a macrocytic anemia is the most prominent feature; a serum B12 level would be reasonable, but the most productive approach would be to examine the bone marrow. Leukemia can present without leukocytosis (so-called aleukemic leukemia), but the most likely diagnosis would be aplastic anemia. In the elderly patient, myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) may present with pancytopenia. Decreased levels of erythropoietin can cause decreased RBC production but will not cause pancytopenia. A corticosteroid trial is not warranted until a diagnosis is established.
Medicine
Oncology
[ "erythropoietin" ]
66,713
ab09a9eb-5997-4412-b473-5647bced4052
The patient develops myelopathy post-trauma. What dose of methyl prednisolone is to be given?
30mg/kg within 3hrs.
45mg/kg within 6 hrs.
60mg/kg within 9 hrs.
75mg/kg within 12 hrs.
0a
single
The most appropriate answer here is 30 mg/kg within 3 hrs. Patients who have a confirmed acute spinal cord injury and have no contraindications for administration of a corticosteroid may be treated with a protocol of methylprednisolone administration consisting of a bolus dose of 30mg/kg body weight administered over 15 minutes, followed by a 45-minute pause, and then a 23 hour continuous infusion of 5.4 mg/kg/h.
Orthopaedics
null
[ "prednisolone" ]
66,728
5aad222b-08a7-432b-bcbe-ce909edcc770
Disulfiram like interaction with alcohol is seen with all of the following drugs except :
Metronidazole
Cefoperazone
Griseofulvin
Satranidazole
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "disulfiram", "metronidazole", "cefoperazone", "griseofulvin" ]
66,736
3e7f6bbb-8f80-4992-a2f3-dab4138dbfcf
Cycloxygenase enzyme is not inhibited by :
Aspirin
Warfarin
Phenylbutazone
Diclofenac
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "diclofenac", "warfarin" ]
66,754
c586849f-6b37-47c7-9d9f-285075d2cdd2
When a patient is already on atropine and i.v. administration of norepinephrine to him will lead to:
Decrease in heart rate
Increase in heart rate
Decrease in pupil size
Decrease in peripheral resistance
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "atropine" ]
66,758
703f2b92-6af3-4913-9b47-16514c0fd94a
Hepatotoxic agent is
Ketamine
Ether
N2O
Halothane
3d
single
The first modern halogenated volatile anesthetic, halothane, was introduced in 1955. Clinical exposure to halothane is associated with two distinct types of hepatic injury. Subclinical hepatotoxicity occurs in 20% of adults who receive halothane. It is characterized by mild postoperative elevations in alanine aminotransferase and aspaate aminotransferase, but is reversible and innocuous. Anaerobic halothane reduction by CYP2A6 to a 2-chloro-1,1,1-trifluoroethyl radical is thought to mediate this mild hepatic injury. The fulminant form of hepatotoxicity, commonly known as halothane hepatitis, It is characterized by elevated alanine aminotransferase, aspaate aminotransferase, bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase levels, and massive hepatic necrosis following the administration of halothane. Halothane hepatitis is rare (1 in 5000 to 35,000 administrations in adults), but is fatal in 50% to 75% of these cases. Because of the potential for fatal hepatitis, halothane is no longer used in adult patients in many countries. Halothane hepatitis is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction associated with the oxidative metabolism of halothane. The highly reactive trifluoroacetyl chloride metabolite of halothane oxidation can react with nearby liver proteins. In most patients who developed hepatic necrosis after halothane anesthesia, antibodies against TFA-modified proteins were detected, suggesting that the hepatic damage is linked to an immune response against the modified protein, which acts as a neoantigen. Accordingly, patients who develop halothane hepatitis often have a history of prior exposures to halothane or other volatile anesthetics, together with symptoms suggestive of immune reactivity, such as fever, rash, ahralgia, and eosinophilia. A current hypothesis is that TFA-protein adducts induce a cytotoxic T cell reaction in sensitized individuals, which leads to liver damage. However, the immune responses observed in halothane hepatitis might not mediate liver injury. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "ketamine", "halothane" ]
66,779
35ab0766-e944-4f2c-b604-61310247bc32
Iris cyst are induced by
Atropine
Pilocarpine
Phenylephrine
Ecothiopate
3d
single
D i.e. Ecothiopate
Ophthalmology
null
[ "pilocarpine", "atropine", "phenylephrine" ]
66,781
332648d6-0148-4a3b-af75-9372b923bcd1
The following are all residual insecticides except-
Pyrettmim
DDT
Gamma HHC
Malathion
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pyrethrum
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "malathion" ]
66,793
5a750189-f00a-458c-bb54-8c9db930a070
All of the following are CNS stimulants except
Amphetamines
Cocaine
Methylphenidate
Benzodiazepines
3d
multi
CNS stimulants are amphetamine, methylphenidate, atomoxetine, modafinil, cocaine, pemoline and caffeine.
Pharmacology
null
[ "methylphenidate" ]
66,812
caecff39-a804-4335-92b9-51e07f0739a7
All of the following Drugs are used in treatment of chronic gout, except:-
Allopurinol
Benzbromarone
Pegloticase
Methotrexate
3d
multi
Answer is D (Methotrexate): To Lower Uric Acid Levels (Hypouricemic Therapy) To decrease production of uric acid (Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors) Allopurinol(Purine analogue) Febuxostat (Non-purine selective inhibitor of xanthine oxidase) To increase the excretion of uric acid (Uricosurics) Probenecid Sulfinpyrazone Benzbromarone To increase conversion of Uric acid to Allantoin which is far more soluble (Uricase) Pegloticase
Surgery
null
[ "methotrexate", "allopurinol", "pegloticase" ]
66,827
1a74fd59-75a8-4c7f-8e17-601cf2b3f5b2
In a hindsight study, the progeny of woman who took diethylstilbestrol had an increased risk for developing which of the following cancers?
Bladder cancer
Endometrial carcinoma
Ovarian carcinoma
Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
3d
single
Diethylstilbestrol, or DES, is an estrogen analog that was prescribed in the 1950s-1970s for prevention of spontaneous aboion. The progeny of woman taking DES were often diagnosed with clear cell vaginal or cervical adenocarcinoma, which is rarely seen in unexposed women. Bladder cancer is often seen in individuals exposed to beta-naphthalene dyes or phenacetin. Endometrial carcinoma is seen in individuals on long-term estrogen therapy, but was not seen in the progeny of DES-treated women. Ovarian carcinoma is increased in nulliparous women, and in those with a family history of the disorder. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 14. Teratology and Medications That Affect the Fetus. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "diethylstilbestrol" ]
66,829
cbeb9f14-b884-4731-a713-01d41ea9065a
True about naltrexone is all except
Acts on opioid receptors
Is used in treatment of alcohol dependence
Is used to reduce craving in dependence
Is a opioid agonist
3d
multi
Ans. d (Is a opioid agonist). (Ref. Pharmacology by KD Tripathi - 6th pg. 467)Agonist-antagonists (K analgesics)Nalorphine, Pentazocine, ButorphanolPartial/weak m-agonist + k antagonistBuprenorphinePure antagonistsNaloxone, Naltrexone, NalmefeneNALTREXONE# Pure opioid antagonist, chemically related to naloxone.# Orally active and long duration of action (1-2 days) makes it suitable for 'opioid blockade' Rx in post-addicts.# It is more potent than naloxone.# Alcohol craving is also reduced by naltrexone; it is being used to prevent relapse of heavy drinking# HepatotoxicNewly developed opioid antagonist Nalmefene:# Hepatotoxic# Has higher oral bioavailability &# Is long acting.
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "naltrexone" ]
66,835
8da5c9f8-0585-4180-911b-1034a5da9422
Chronic hypokalemia leads to development of?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Brugada pattern in ECG
Vasopressin resistant DI
1b
single
Chronic Hypokalemia- through H+ - K+ ATPase- K+ reabsorption | & | H+ excretion- Loss of H+ in urine of pt. | Metabolic alkalosis
Medicine
Electrolyte Imbalance
[ "vasopressin" ]
66,889
ef8a1aad-863f-4956-8bcb-8523b1809797
Amoxycillin is better than ampicillin due to :
Better bioavailability if taken with food
Lesser bioavailability if taken with food
Incidence of diarrhea is higher
More active against Shigella and H. influenza
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ampicillin" ]
66,896
25fd9653-714b-46b1-8d85-97adcd6b9aa5
Dose of streptokinase to be used in Ml is ?
0.15 Million units
1.5 Million units
15 Million units
150 Million units
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1.5 Million units o The adult dose of streptokinase for Acute Myocardial Infarction is 1.5 million UIV over 60 minutes. (Given in 50 ml of 5% dextrose in water -D5 W)Preferred thrombolytic regimens for acute ST elevation mvocardial infarctionDrugRecommended IV regimensAdvantages and LimitationsAlteplase(acceleratedregimin15 mg bolus- Then 0.75 mg/kg (maximum 50 mg) over 30 minutes- Then 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 35 mg over the next 60 minutes)Better outcomes than streptokinase in GUSTO-1 (30-Day mortality? 6.3 versus 7.3 percent); costlier than streptokinase more difficult to administer because of short half-life.TenecteplaseSingle bolus over five to ten seconds based upon body weight- < 60 kg: 30mg- 60 to 69 kg: 35 mg- 70 to 79 Kg : 40 mg- 80 to 89 kg : 45 mg- > 90 kg : 50 mgAs effective as alteplase in ASSENT-2 with less noncerebral bleeding and need for transfusion; easier to admins is ter (single bolus due to longer half- life) both in and out of hospital; these advantages make tenecteplase the drug of choice in many US. hospitalsReteplase10 units over two minutes then repeat10 unit bolus at 30 minutesSimlar outcomes as alteplase but easier to administerStreptokinase1.5 million units over 30 to 60 minutesGenerally a much less costly option than other fibrinolytics but outcomes are inferior. Neutralizing antibodies develop, which can diminish efficacy of subsequent use. Elevated risk of hypersensitivity reaction with repeated doses. Used extensively outside North America due to lower cost.(Not available in US or CAN).
Medicine
Drugs
[ "streptokinase" ]
66,926
acc77345-d95a-409d-b644-2c7e512b1b96
Which of the following drugs is used for Narcoanalysis?
Atropine
Phenobarbitone
Scopolamine
Pethidine
2c
single
For the purpose of investigation, the application of forensic medicine plays a vital role. Nacro analysis is one of the methods used for lie detection. Scopolamine is one of the drugs used in Narcoanalysis. The truth serum drugs used in narcoanalysis are : 1. Scopolamine 2. Sodium Pentathal 3. Sodium Amytal 4. Sodium Seconal Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 435-436.
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "pethidine", "atropine", "scopolamine" ]
66,932
86801850-7326-46b7-b76d-53648374c378
Agent causing malignant h erthermia –
Succinyl choline
Dantrolene
Gallamine
Ketamine
0a
multi
null
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine", "dantrolene", "gallamine" ]
66,935
b2a8e1b1-97f0-4a7a-a317-a71a48a1e4dd
In carcinoma cheek what is the best drug for single drug chemotherapy -
Vincristine
Cyclosphosphamide
Cisplatin
Daunorubicin
2c
single
Single-agent chemotherapy is used as palliative therapy in head and neck cancers with the recurrent or metastatic form of cancer. The drugs which are used are - Cisplatin                                                                             Methotrexate  5 Fu    Paclitaxel Docetaxel Sometimes combinations of these drugs are used. Remember these basic points about the t/t of head and neck cancers and one can apply them to all tumors of head and neck. a)   Treatment of localized head and neck cancers - These tumors are treated with curative intent either with surgery or radiotherapy. The choice of modality differs according to anatomic location and institutional expertise. In early laryngeal cancer generally, radiotherapy is done to preserve voice while in early oral cavity cancers, surgery is preferred to avoid the long-term complication of radiation such as xerostomia and dental decay. b) Locally or advanced regional disease - Combined modality therapy including surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy is used. Concomitant chemotherapy and radiotherapy appear to be most effective. c) Recurrent or metastatic disease - chemotherapy is used. Management of neck lymph nodes The neck lymph nodes should be treated when there are clinically positive nodes or the risk for occult disease is high based on the location and stage of the primary lesion. The decision to perform neck dissection or irradiate the neck is related to the treatment of the primary lesion. If the primary tumor is being treated with radiation and the neck is N0 or N1, the nodes are usually treated with irradiation. For surgically treated primary lesions, N0 or N1 neck disease may be treated surgically as well (Radical neck dissection/Modified neck dissection/Selective neck dissection). Negative prognostic factors such as extracapsular spread of tumor, perineural invasion, vascular invasion, fixation to surrounding structures, and multiple positive nodes are indicators for postoperative adjuvant radiation therapy. For N2 or N3 neck disease, neck dissection with planned postoperative radiation therapy is performed.
Surgery
null
[ "vincristine", "cisplatin" ]
66,939
d83fb1a9-5e1e-46f3-9f71-c19f300f1afb
In the presence of a drug that blocks all effects of norepinephrine and epinephrine on the heart, the autonomic nervous system can:
Raise the heart rate above its intrinsic rate
Lower the heart rate below its intrinsic rate
Raise and lower the heart rate above and below its intrinsic rate
Neither raise nor lower the heart rate from its intrinsic rate
1b
multi
Ans. B. Lower the heart rate below its intrinsic rateActivation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart would lower the heart rate below its intrinsic rate. However, with all effects of norepinephrine and epinephrine blocked, the sympathetic nervous system cannot raise the heart rate above its intrinsic rate. The withdrawal of parasympathetic nerve tone could only raise the heart rate to the intrinsic rate.
Physiology
Heart, Circulation, and Blood
[ "epinephrine" ]
66,956
c95875c1-d0ec-41c4-b1d2-68822348903f
Drug of choice in treatment of partial complex seizures
Carbamazepine
Sodium valproate
Ethosuximide
Phenytoin
0a
single
Ans. a (Carbamazepine). (Ref. Harrison, Internal Medicine, 16th ed., 1848)Type of seizurePrimary generalized tonic clonic seizurePartial complex seizuresAbsence seizureAtypical absence;Myoclonic; Atonic* First line treatmentValproic acidCarbamazepineEthosuximideValproic acidPhenytoin Valproic acid Valproic acid Lamotrigine * Valproate is broad spectrum anti-epileptic.
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "valproate", "carbamazepine", "phenytoin" ]
66,962
94ca3fc8-2bd3-43fe-9539-80e456052812
Which of the following statements are True /False? A. Listeria monocytogenes is a food borne pathogen B. Humans are probably accidental hosts for this microorganism C. Case-fatality rate of listeria meningitis is repoed to be 15-26% D. Granulomatosis infantiseptica is an overwhelming listerial fetal infection with miliary micro abscesses and granulomas E. Adults should receive IV ampicillin at high doses (2grams every 4hours)
A,B,D True & C,E False
B,C,D,E True & A False
B,E True & A,C,D False
A,B,C,D & E True, None False
3d
multi
All of the statements are true. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 1194-95
Medicine
null
[ "ampicillin" ]
66,966
9516e7af-e8c3-4429-836e-d2c03389e384
Drug used in glaucoma is –
Propranolol
Atenolol
Timolol
Pindolol
2c
single
Topical β-blockers used for POAG are Timolol, betaxolol, levobunolol, carteolol.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "propranolol", "atenolol", "timolol", "pindolol" ]
66,970
c98c3ac0-8b96-4a36-8320-25d0fd09cbc8
Nitroprusside active metabolite acts by:
Phosphokinase 1,2
Guanylyl cyclase
Phospholipase A
Phospholipase B
1b
single
Ans. B. Guanylyl cyclase* Nitrovasodilator (arteriodilator + venodilator)* Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized into nitric oxide, which activates guanylyl cyclase (directly or through release of NO) which leads to increase in cyclic GMP levels* Cyclic GMP activates protein kinase G which dephosphorylates MLCP (myosin light chain phosphorylase) and relaxes the smooth muscles of blood vessels* Vasodilatation occurs* Dose: 0.3mcg/kg/min* Onset of action: 30 sec* Therapeutic uses: Severe hypertension with acute myocardial infarction or left ventricular failure
Pharmacology
C.V.S
[ "nitroprusside" ]
66,971
0715d130-be2c-4102-b002-f70e422b2db9
All of the following drugs can cause gynaecomastia except:-
Digoxin
Amiloride
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
1b
multi
IMPOANT DRUGS CAUSING GYNAECOMASTIA: DI: DIgoxin S: Spironolactone C: Cimetidine O: Ketoconazole
Pharmacology
CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction
[ "cimetidine", "digoxin", "ketoconazole" ]
66,979
1728ebf5-3bef-4d80-a501-e9eb489190a8
Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
Atracurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Doxacurium
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "atracurium", "vecuronium", "rocuronium" ]
66,995
cd3d344d-7ea1-421b-a485-f5ab3ad9876d
Which of the following is active against atypical mycobacteria -
Clarithromycin
Rifabutin
Ciprofloxacin
All of the above
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' All of the above Regimen for MAC infection o Intensive phase (2-6 months) --> Clarithromycin/Azithromycin + ethambutol + rifabutin + one FQ (ciprofloxacin)/ clofazimine. o Maintenance phase (12 months) -4 Clarithromycin/ azithromycin + ethambutol/one FQ/rifabutin.
Pharmacology
null
[ "clarithromycin", "ciprofloxacin" ]
67,010
617bc155-7750-4f2d-a618-611d86a69ccc
Lutein cysts are associated with all except
Gestational trophoblastic tumours
Clomiphene administration
Bilaterality
Use of OCP's
3d
multi
null
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "clomiphene" ]
67,019
26d6682f-51d5-4099-8df9-e28524717ad3
In Addison's disease drug to be given is
Hydrocoisone
Betamethasone
Prednisolone
DOCA
0a
single
Refer KDT 6/e p 283 In chronic adrenal insufficiency or Addinsons disease, hydrocoisone given orally IA the drug of choice Hydrocoisone is a glucocoicoid with maximum mineralocoicoid action
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "prednisolone" ]
67,025
094026d4-ed29-4fac-b81a-062e2acc9c5f
Lary ngoscopes are sterilized by -
Glutaraldehyde
Formalin
povidone-iodine
Boiling
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glutaraldehyde o Laryngoscope should be cleaned before and after use with spirit.o Disinfection can be done once a day by removing the bulb and immersing the blade in 2% cidex (glutaraldehyde) for 10 minutes.o They should be sterilized once a week by immersing in cidex for 10 hours or by autoclaving.
Microbiology
General
[ "glutaraldehyde", "betadine" ]
48,763
019fe1f6-37b6-4bfd-94ad-b11c6106f7df
Positive fluorescein dye disappearance test indicates that watering eye is due to:
Atonia of the sac
Mechanical obstruction in the lacrimal passages
Both of the above
None of the above
2c
multi
Ans. Both of the above
Ophthalmology
null
[ "fluorescein" ]
48,782
e75e7867-b670-4768-8e1c-ccaa271ea3df
The drug which does not cause myopathy is :
Chloroquine
Betamethasone
Chloramphenicol
Zidovudine
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' Chloramphenicol Drugs Causing MyopathyAmphotericin BCarbenoxoloneCimetidineChloroquineClofibrateGlucocorticoidGrowth hormoneZidovudineOral contraceptivesHMG COA reductase inhibitors.InfliximabInterferon alpha
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
[ "chloramphenicol", "chloroquine", "zidovudine" ]
48,811
d44fdb2f-cb94-4cdc-b0ff-547cd83e47a0
Which of the following supplements is used in the treatment of multiple carboxylase deficiency?
Biotin
Pyridoxin
Thiamine
Folic acid
0a
single
Biotin is a water soluble vitamin that is a cofactor for all carboxylase enzymes. Multiple carboxylase deficiency results from deficient carboxylase activity and is treated by biotin. Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics 17th Edition, Page 412; Textbook of Clinical Pediatrics, Volume 1 By A. Y. Elzouki, F. B. Stapleton, R. J. Whitley, William Oh, H. A. Harfi, H. Nazer, 2011, Page 457
Biochemistry
null
[ "biotin" ]
48,816
b937f0c2-6060-4ec7-b6cc-2712fa55d973
A-female patint of childbearing age is on valproate for JME. Whichk drug should be used to replace valproate and can be prescribed as montherapy?
Levetiracetam
Zonisamide
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
0a
single
It is known to cause serious abnormalities in the baby if taken during pregnancy. Because of this it is not typically recommended in women of childbearing age who have migraines. Common side effects include sleepiness, dizziness, feeling tired, and aggression. Severe side effects may include psychosis, suicide, and allergic reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and anaphylaxis. It is unclear if use is safe during pregnancy but it appears okay when breastfeeding.It is the S-enantiomer of etiracetam.How it works is not clear Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1036 With respect to major congenital malformations (MCM), levetiracetam taken in monotherapy can be considered a safer alternative to valproate for women with epilepsy of childbearing age as per studies Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345
Medicine
C.N.S
[ "valproate", "zonisamide", "carbamazepine", "phenytoin" ]
48,821
b5c74b47-8318-445e-9d56-eda7993d45bb
The tricyclic antidepressant with LEAST autonomic and cardiotoxic effects: March 2004
Amitriptyline
Desipramine
Lofepramine
Protriptyline
2c
single
Ans. C i.e. Lofepramine
Psychiatry
null
[ "amitriptyline", "desipramine" ]
48,825
9ebeb51e-0756-48b8-9641-597070a313f4
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex contains all except
Biotin
NAD
FAD
CoA
0a
multi
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex--thiamin diphosphate, lipoate, NAD+, FAD, and CoA Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 163
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
[ "biotin" ]
48,830
31f78e60-285f-4f4d-a72d-4999e2214b24
Most characteristic arrhythmia seen with Digoxin toxicity is
Ventricular Extrasystoles
Ventricular bigemini
Atrial tachycardia with AV nodal block
Atrial flutter
2c
single
Atrial tachycardia (because of increase intracellular calcium levels) and AV nodal blockade (because of parasympathomimetic activity) is the most characteristic arrhythmia seen with Digoxin toxicity. But Ventricular bigeminy is the most common arrythmia seen with Digoxin toxicity.
Pharmacology
null
[ "digoxin" ]
48,840
ff02cf15-fe9d-4a2d-95b6-f48bdf033bea
Treatment of transverse lies at labour is
Artificial rupture of membrane
Oxytocin infusion
Caesarean section
Forceps delivery
2c
single
(Caesarean section): Ref: 393, 397-DTRANSVERSE LIE: - When the long axis of the fetus lies perpendicularly to the maternal spine or centralized uterine axis it is called transverse lies* In dorso-posterior, chance of fetal extension is common with increased risk of arm prolopse, left one being common than right* Dorso-anterior is the commonest (60%) positionManagement of Transverse lie at labourEarly labourLate labour* External cephalic version* Caesarian section is the preferred method of delivery, if version fails or contraindicated* Baby alive - caesarean section prefer* Internal version - Not only it might inflect injury to the uterus (rupture uterus) but the fetal mortality is increased to the extent of about 50%In modem obstetric practice internal version is not recommended except in the case of second twin* Baby dead - caesarean section is prefer.* There is no mechanism of labour in transverse lie
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
[ "oxytocin" ]
48,842
6d631fc9-0630-4f69-b84b-aee48feae4ef
All drugs decrease the moality in hea failure except:
Metoprolol
Enalapril
Telmisaan
Digoxin
3d
multi
Digoxin is used in acute CHF as well as maintenance therapy but do not retard cardiac remodelling or prolong survival in CHF patients Drugs that decrease the cardiac remodeling in a patient with CHF decrease the moality. They are: Beta blockers (metoprolol, bisoprolol) ACE inhibitors (enalapril) ARB (telmisaan) Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone) Note Telmisaan is an ARB which has PPAR gamma agonist activity
Pharmacology
Hematology and CVS
[ "digoxin", "metoprolol", "enalapril" ]
48,856
3d4bbe15-a6f2-4dff-85c6-04cb23c3fc44
Which of the following drug is given for pulmonary hypeension?
Carboprost
Mispoprostol
Indomethacin
Bosentan
3d
single
Endothelin Antagonists (DOC) - Bosentan - Ambresenton - Macisentan If these are not effective then drugs used are Phosphodiesterase inhibitors like sildenafil and tadalafil. Prostaglandins - Iloprost (Not given orally) Selexipag (Prostacyclin Agonist) - PGI2 Agonist - Given orally
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
[ "carboprost", "indomethacin", "bosentan" ]
48,879
cdb94e0e-f82e-41a2-ab55-0fb27cff201e
Exenatide is drug prescribed for which disease:
Osteoporosis
Diabetes
Hyperthyroidism
Infertility
1b
single
Ans. B. DiabetesExenatide is new drug which is a GLP -1 analogue. It delays the gastric emptying, has a role in appetite control and also release of insulin. It controls post prandial hyperglycemia.
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "exenatide" ]
48,902
3944273a-7e50-44f8-bc42-59622f4f8aa6
Interaction of theophylline with ciprofloxacin is :
Ciprofloxacin increases theophylline metabolism
Ciprofloxacin decreases theophylline metabolism
Theophylline increases ciprofloxacin metabolism
Theophylline decreases ciprofloxacin metabolism
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "theophylline", "ciprofloxacin" ]
48,909
3a35a82b-5025-4286-97ae-d5556651f4c7
How to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?
Nocturnal penile tumescence
PIPE test
Sildenafil-induced erection
Squeeze technique
0a
single
Presence of early morning erections and erection during REM sleep (nocturnal erection) are suggestive of psychogenic erectile dysfunction as there is no anxiety. Whereas, a patient with organic erectile dysfunction (due to vascular or neurological causes) would not have erections even during sleep. Investigations, such as penile plethysmography and nocturnal penile intumescence (NPT) can be used to record nocturnal erections.
Psychiatry
Sexual Disorders
[ "sildenafil" ]
48,913
09192c6f-03ce-4d8c-8343-1f51fbfc404a
Drugs used in migraine prophylaxis are all except:
Flunarizine
Propanolol
Cyproheptadine
Sumatriptan
3d
multi
Drugs used for migraine prophylaxis: - A : Antiepileptic drug- B : Beta blocker : Propranolol, botulinum toxin- C : CCB: flunarizine, cyproheptadine, clonidine For acute migraine attack : We give sumatriptan and ergotamine.Triptans are contraindicated in patient with coronary aery disease due to it's vasospasm effect.
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
[ "sumatriptan", "cyproheptadine" ]
48,919
ebeae449-4bdc-489e-a470-7b75ef9a160e
Opiate withdrawal is treated with -
CPZ
Nalorphine
Pethidine
Methadone
3d
single
Treatment of opioid (Morphine or heroin) withdrawal (detoxification):- Methadone is the DOC. Alternatives are clonidine, clonidine with naltrexone with or without BZDs, Lofexidine, dextropropoxyphene, diphenoxylate.
Psychiatry
null
[ "pethidine", "methadone" ]
48,926
94d6faaf-7382-41f0-9f06-437956ba9f04
Most common mode of treatment of a 1 year old child with asthma is -
Inhaled sho acting beta 2 agonist
Oral sho acting theophylline
Oral ketotifen
Leukotriene agonist
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inhaled sho acting beta 2 agonists Treatment ofAsthma a Treatment of asthma can be divided into ? A) Treatment of chronic asthma B) Treatment of acute excarhation ? a) Treatment of mild, moderate or severe exacerbation b) Treatment of life threatening exacerbation (status asthmaticus) Treatment of chronic asthma o Treatment of chronic asthma is given to control the asthma and to prevent acute exacerbation. o Severity of asthma is classified on the basis of ? 1) Frequency of daytime symptoms 3) Degree of airflow obstruction (FEV,) 2) Frequency of night time symptoms 4) Peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability o For children less than 5 years of age, severity is classified on the basis of (1) and (2) only because young children cannot perform the maneuver required for lung function measurment ((3) & (4)). 1) Mild intermittent 2) Mild persistent Symptoms for 2 days/week Symptoms > 2days / week Symptoms for 2 night/month Symptoms >2 night / months FEV1 80% FEV I 80% PEF variability < 20% PEF variability 20-30% 3) Moderate persistent 4) Severe persistent Day symptoms daily Continuous day symptoms Symptoms > 1 night/week Frequent night symptoms FEV1 > 60% - < 80% FEVI 60% PEF variability >30% PEF variability >30% o A stepwise pharmacological therapy is indicated.
Pediatrics
null
[ "ketotifen", "theophylline" ]
48,930
ba795a1c-0fce-45d8-b955-ee88cb1b1051
Alcohol, salicylates and pilocarpine can be used as: Odisha 11
Chelating agents
Diaphoretics
Purging
Forced alkaline diuresis
1b
single
Ans. Diaphoretics
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "pilocarpine" ]
48,940
d3d7d5c6-d948-4bbc-ba2a-ba94afdd29db
Opioid with rnonoarnine action is?
Tramadol
Pentazocine
Pethidine
Meperidine
0a
single
Tramadol REF: Principles and practice of palliative care and suppoive oncology By Ann M. Berger, John L. Shuster, Jamie H. Von Roenn page 51 "Tramadol is synthetic analog of codeine that binds to the MOR (Mu opioid receptor) and blocks reuptake of serotonin and nor epinephrine. As a result of monoamine action naloxone cannot completely reverse its respiratory depression"
Pharmacology
null
[ "pentazocine", "pethidine", "tramadol" ]
48,954
b1330de3-5c18-4cda-9947-3b5fd695eb34
Following drug interact with cefotaxime -
Digoxin
Paracetamol
Loop diuretics
Nifedipine
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Loop diuretics o Nephrotoxicity of cephalosporins is accentuated by concurrent administration of a loop diuretic.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cefotaxime", "paracetamol", "nifedipine", "digoxin" ]
48,977
c28eef3e-db44-4c59-a8b2-6bf401163708
Which of the following induction agent is used to produce a `street-fit' person following surgery –
Midazolam
Propofol
Alfentanyl
Thiopentone
1b
single
Amongst the given options only propofol & thiopentone are inducing agents. Propofol is the inducing agent of choice for day care surgery (street-fit following surgery).
Anaesthesia
null
[ "midazolam", "propofol" ]
49,010
1e9fcec4-3362-4a71-b213-5f100dfc7789
Which of the following is a Dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS) inhibitor?
Pyrimethamine
Trimethoprim
Methotrexate
Dapsone
3d
single
Dapsone, PAS, Sulphonamide > inhibit DHPS enzyme Pyrimethamine, Methotrexate, Trimethoprim - acts by inhibiting DHFR (Dihydrofolate reductase) enzyme.
Pharmacology
null
[ "methotrexate", "trimethoprim", "dapsone" ]
49,028
7a9cbd01-ea0a-4d28-8896-02df79aefb23
In the management of patients with Vincent's infection, the preferred therapeutic agents are
Hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and metronidazole
Cephalosporins and hydrogen peroxide mouthwash
Chtorhexidine mouthwash and metronidazole
Crystalline penicillin and chlorhexidine mouthwash
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
[ "metronidazole", "chlorhexidine" ]
49,035
317fbdf9-6524-4867-9f5b-74d24966767f
The prophylactic antibiotic indicated to prevent infection in lymphoedema is :
Vancomycin
Penicillin
Amikacin
Quinolones
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "amikacin", "vancomycin" ]
49,038
8ba3627e-87cf-49ca-b379-a8c67bde3718
Shortest acting mydriatic and cycloplegic:
Cyclopentolate
Atropine
Homatropine
Tropicamide
3d
single
Ans. D. TropicamideMydriatic action is useful for fundus examination and cycloplegic is useful for correct measurement of refractive error.Atropine is longest acting and tropicamide is shortest acting drug Anticholinergic drugs are contraindicated in Glaucoma.
Pharmacology
Gram-Positive Infections - Corynebacterial Infections
[ "atropine", "tropicamide" ]
49,048
fd583bec-af86-47e2-9263-79e1d1811aaa
Rituximab is used in all EXCEPT :
Non Hodgkins lymphoma
Paroxysomal nocturnal hemoglobinurea
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosis
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "rituximab" ]
49,055
00ccbfce-7492-4853-8dba-42b7569f0564
The Antiepileptic drug, Phenytoin therapeutic blood level is
0-9 mcg/ml
10-19 mcg/ml
20-29 mcg/ml
30-39 mcg/ml
1b
single
(B) 10-19 mcg/ml# SERUM PHENYTOIN LEVELS:> Therapeutic range is 10-20 mcg/mL.# Total phenytoin levels (mcg/mL) - Typical corresponding Signs & Symptoms: Lower than 10- Rare Between 10 and 20 - Occasional mild nystagmus Between 20 and 30 - Nystagmus Between 30 and 40 - Ataxia, slurred speech, nausea, and vomiting Between 40 and 50 - Lethargy and confusion Higher than 50 - Coma and seizures
Medicine
Miscellaneous
[ "phenytoin" ]
49,081
d7567844-92df-4024-9f8f-fca65a75b1f4
Which is the diuretic of choice in patients of pulmonary edema-
Furosemide
Thiazide
Spironolactone
Amiloride
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Furosemide Pharmacological treatment of acute pulmonary edema* Acute left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema is a medical emergency.* In acute left ventricular failure, there is accumulation of fluid in lungs - acute pulmonary edema.* Loop diuretics (Furosemide) is the DOC for acute pulmonary edema.* In acute left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema, furosemide has benefical effect because of venodilatory action (not because of diuretic action).* Intravenous furosemide causes promt increase in systemic venous capacitance and decreases left ventricular filling pressure even before the diuretic action becomes apparent.I.V. Furosemide|Venodilation|| Venous capacitance|| Preload|| Lt. ventricle filling pressure|| Pulmonary pressurei| Pulmonary edema* In contrast, diuretic action of Furosemide is responsible for symptomatic improveml in chronic heart failure.* Other drugs used for acute pulmonary edema1. Morphine | is a transient venodilator that reduces preload while relieving dysnea and anxiety.2. Nitrates - Act by decreasing preload and L. V. filling pressure.3. ACE inhibitors - Act by reducing both afterload and preload.* Recommended in hypertensive patients.4. Recombinant BNP (Nesiritide) - Acts by reducing preload and afterload.5. Inotropic agents (Dopamine, dobutamine, milirinone)* They act by stimulating cardiac contractility.* They are indicated in patients with acute pulmonary edema with severe left ventricular dysfunction.6.Digitalis glycosides* Once a mainstay of treatment because of their inotropic action, digitalis glycosides are rarely used at present.* However, they may be useful for control of ventricular rate in patients with rapid atrial fibrillation or flutter and LV dysfunction, since they do not have negative inotropic effects of other drugs that inhibit AV node conuction.
Pharmacology
Diuretic
[ "spironolactone", "furosemide" ]
49,082
2e1eaed6-f949-4b98-820e-b2af653288a0
Syringes and glassware are sterilized by?
Irradiation
Autoclave
Hot air oven
Glutaraldehyde
2c
single
Hot air oven REF: Ananthnarayan 8th e p. 35 Procedures of sterilization of some impoant materials Glasswares, syringes, petridishes, test tubes, flasks, surgical instruments, oily fluids and powders Hot air oven Serum, body fluids, bacterial vaccines Waterbath , vaccine bath Milk Pasteurization at 63deg c x 30 mins or 72deg c x 20 mins Cystoscope and endoscope Glutaraldehyde (cidex) or ethylene oxide Most culture media Autoclaving Culture media containing egg, serum, sugar Tyndallisation Rubber, plastic, polythene tubes, disposable syringes Glutaraldehyde , ethylene oxide gas Dressings, aprons, gloves, catheters, surgical instruments except sharps Autoclaving Sharps 5% cresol Suture material except cat gut Autoclaving Catgut Radiation Rubber or plastic disposable goods, disposable syringes, bone and soft tissue grafts, dressings Radiation Faeces, urine, vomitus, sputum Bleaching powder, cresol, formalin, burning, autoclaving, boiling Sterlisation of operation theatre Formaldehyde Wards and laboratory or operation theatre floor space Formaldehyde gas or cresol Skin Tincture iodine, spirit (70% ethanol ), savlon
Surgery
null
[ "glutaraldehyde" ]
49,099
f9e02e89-e8ca-4c35-bc36-d6653ac50db2
Drug of choice for poisoning with Amanita muscaria
Atropine
Physostigmine
Diazepam
Pencillin
2c
single
Amanita muscaria signs and symptoms are mainly related to anxiety and insomnia which can be treated best with benzodiazepines like diazepam Atropine is contraindicated but for amanita inocybe poisoning atropine is drug of choice Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 98
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
[ "atropine", "physostigmine", "diazepam" ]
49,113