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183k
ac43e39d-28a3-4255-bb1f-bdc4185e3f1f
GnRH analogue used In hormonal treatment of carcinoma of prostate Is
Goserelin
Nilutamide
Cyproterone acetate
Finasteride
0a
single
Goserelin is a long acting GnRH agonist. It is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. nilutamide is also used in prostate cancer but it is anti androgen not a GNRH analogue finatseride is 5 alpha reductase inhibitor cyproterone- anti androgen with progestational propeies (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 239)
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "goserelin", "cyproterone" ]
64,413
468e27f6-43c5-45fd-a153-06c4ef852f08
During first trimester of pregnancy risk of fetal malformation in a pregnant woman with insulin dependent diabetes is best predicted by :
Blood sugar values
Glycosylated haemoglobin levels
Serum alpha fetoprotein levels
Serum unconjugated estriol levels
1b
single
Glycosylated haemoglobin levels
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "estriol" ]
64,414
9174079d-9d3f-4f0d-9689-50e7021ced58
Which of the following is a long-acting beta 2 agonist
Orciprenaline
Penoterol
Pexbaterol
Salmeterol
3d
single
β2-agonists used in Asthma. Short-acting → Salbutamol, terbutaline Long-acting → Salmeterol, formoterol  Bambuterol is a prodrug of terbutaline. It is slowly hydrolysed by pseudocholinesterase.  Short-acting β2-agonists produce bronchodilation within 5 min and acting lasts for 2-6 hrs → are used to abort and terminate acute asthma, but are not suitable for prophylaxis.  Salmeterol is delayed acting, can be used for prophylaxis only, while formoterol is fast acting and long acting can be used for both prophylaxis and acute attack. Salbutamol & Terbutaline → Only for acute attack. Salmeterol → Only for prophylaxis. Formoterol → Both for prophylaxis and acute attack  Long-acting β2-agonists. (salmeterol & formoterol) are superior to short-acting β2-agonists (salbutamol & terbutaline), and equivalent to inhaled anticholinergics in COPD. Note: For one option go ahead with option ‘d’, i.e., adrenaline because amongst the given options, adrenaline is the shortest acting (60 - 90 minutes).  Salmeterol and formoterol are long-acting β2,-agonists.  Their lipophilic action is responsible for longer action → Lipophilic side chain anchors the drug in membrane adjacent to the receptor, slowing issue washout.
Pharmacology
null
[ "salmeterol" ]
64,421
d6d5bb13-6434-4a32-af5d-a4565f87d323
The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is:
d-tubocurarine,
morphine,
vancomycin
All of the above
3d
multi
HISTAMINE RELEASERS A variety of mechanical, chemical and immunological stimuli are capable of releasing histamine from mast cells. 1. Tissue damage: trauma, stings and venoms, proteolytic enzymes. 2. Antigen: antibody reaction involving IgE antibodies. 3. Polymers like dextran, polyvinyl pyrrolidone (PVP). 4. Some basic drugs--tubocurarine, morphine, atropine, pentamidine, polymyxin B, vancomycin and even some antihistaminics directly release histamine without an immunological reaction. 5. Surface acting agents like Tween 80, compound 48/80 etc. The primary action of these substances is release of histamine from mast cells, therefore they are called 'histamine liberators'. They produce an 'anaphylactoid' reaction--itching and burning sensation, flushing, uicaria, fall in BP, tachycardia, headache, colic and asthma. Most of these symptoms are controlled by a H1 antihistaminic, better still if H2 blocker is given together. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-163
Pharmacology
Autacoids
[ "morphine", "vancomycin" ]
64,425
c3cc8d47-7f56-4327-9879-d41931e7cc43
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is seen in ?
Amylodosis
Fatty change of hea
Viral myocarditis
Doxorubicin toxicity
0a
single
Micrograph of cardiac amyloidosis, a cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM) is a form of cardiomyopathy in which the walls of the hea are rigid (but not thickened). Thus the hea is restricted from stretching and filling with blood properly . Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1576
Medicine
C.V.S
[ "doxorubicin" ]
64,429
147eb98b-6308-43ea-a140-21e187d2ced8
Which one of the following drug is used in Alzheimer's disease :
Tacrine
Pemoline
Doxapram
Methylphenidate
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "pemoline", "methylphenidate" ]
64,435
64f3426b-6655-4845-8339-1791b76566ef
A patient in an ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci arranged in pairs, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was staed but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing this infection is-:
Staphylococcus aureus
Virdans streptococci
Enterococcus faecalis
Coagulase negative staphylococcus
2c
single
Catalase negative, Gram positive cocci in pair - indicates that they are Enterococcus . Enterococci (earlier known as group d streptococci) are commonly seen in hospital acquired infections and they are resistant to cephalosporins and even to vancomycin.
Microbiology
Systemic Bacteriology Pa 1 (Gram Positive Cocci, Gram Negative Cocci)
[ "amikacin", "ceftazidime", "vancomycin" ]
64,442
a8912151-7dde-4dc6-a6df-7293ff2c4fdb
Drug that can be used in the management of Sydenham’s chorea is:
Haloperidol
Valproate sodium
Carbamaze
Pinephenytoin
0a
single
Ref. KDT. Page. 446 The below is the latest treatment guidelines for Syndenham’s Chorea
Unknown
null
[ "valproate" ]
64,445
9e02982b-5816-4940-877d-a5f9ce90f6a3
Drug of choice for Mountain sickness:
Cinnarizine
Acetazolamide
Furosemide
Beta Histidine
1b
single
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in mountain sickness to reduce intracranial tension.
Pharmacology
null
[ "furosemide", "acetazolamide" ]
64,460
5d54e9b1-f42e-4dff-a207-cc9f991dfeb2
At therapeutic doses which are the only receptors on which Sumatriptan acts?
5HT1A
5HT1B/1D
5 HT3
5 HT4
1b
single
Ans. b (5HT1B/ID) (Ref. KDT 5th/pg. 146, 153)5HT Receptors5-HT1Autoreceptors; inhibit serotonergic neural activity in brain.5-HT1A - present in raphe nuclei and hippocampus, buspirone may act through these receptors.5-HT1B/1DConstricts cranial blood vessels and inhibits release of inflammatory neuropeptides in them;Sumatriptan acts through these receptors.5-HT2APreviously D type receptor; most important postjunctional receptor mediating direct actions of 5-HT like vascular and visceral smooth muscle contraction, platelet aggregation, neuronal activation in brain; Ketanserin blocks these receptors.Ritanserin, another 5-HT2 antagonist, has little or no alpha-blocking action.5-HT3Previously M type receptor; depolarizes neurones by gating cation channels; elicits reflex effects of 5-HT - emesis, gut peristalsis, bradycardia, transient hypotension, apnoea, pain, itch.Ondansetron acts by blocking these receptors.5-HT4Mediate intestinal secretion, augmentation of peristalsis.Renzapride is a selective 5-HT4 agonist.
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "sumatriptan" ]
64,501
2237467a-dbe3-40cf-be31-2ebfd57912e6
Daltroban is antagonist of -
Angiotensin
Nitric oxide
Thromboxane A2
Oxytocin
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Thromboxane A2o Drug affecting TXA2 are: -i) Cox inhibitors like aspirin and other NS AIDS inhibit the synthesis of TXA2.ii) Daltroban and sultraban are TXA2 receptor antagonists.iii) Dazoxiben inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthase.
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
[ "oxytocin" ]
64,502
dfd9d5b1-fe76-477d-8666-8c3b504e42cc
Second generation antihistamines used in allergic rhinitis are except
Azelastine
Fexofenadine
Chlorpheneramine maleate
Desloratidine
2c
multi
Chlorpheniramine and promethazine are first generation antihistamines. Refer kDT 6/e p158
Pharmacology
Autacoids
[ "fexofenadine" ]
64,506
0638b254-e11e-4ca7-9edc-01f5bb2f948f
Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
Cefotetan
Doxycycline
Ciprofloxacin
Oxacillin
1b
single
Inhibit protein synthesis: Tetracycline,Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin, Clindamycin, Linezolid. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY page no. 690
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "cefotetan", "ciprofloxacin", "doxycycline" ]
64,529
dd6c4e3e-23d2-4390-8a33-6fc7bfde73a9
All these drugs EXCEPT one cross the blood–brain barrier:
Morphine
Dopamine
Propranolol
Ether
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "morphine", "propranolol" ]
64,530
c542ae2c-979d-4985-8f0d-f6f29a485ab5
Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant belonging to the category of:
Factor Xa inhibitor
Direct thrombin inhibitor
Vitamin K antagonist
Low molecular weight heparin
0a
single
It is used in the prevention of deep vein thrombosis after hip and knee replacement surgery. Rivaroxaban is also used for treatment of deep vein thrombosis in higher doses. Stroke prevention in non-valvular atrial fibrillation is another role for the drug. It is better avoided in those with significant renal dysfunction
Medicine
Miscellaneous QBank
[ "rivaroxaban" ]
64,537
2143f4e7-3fef-463f-9976-41b62b26e2a3
Drug most commonly implicated in causing pseudo membranous colitis is :
Clindamycin
Streptomycin
Amoxicillin
Metronidazole
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "metronidazole", "clindamycin" ]
64,540
aa2ef8ff-fb08-42ca-a410-744e91765594
In the management of toxicity caused by ingestion of methanol in wood spirits, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
Treatment should involve the administration of disulfiram in the ER.
Naltrexone is a suitable antidote in poisoning due to alcohols.
Ethanol will prevent formation of formaldehyde in methanol poisoning.
Hemodialysis will not remove methanol from the blood.
2c
multi
Ethanol saturates alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) at very low blood levels (zero- order elimination), preventing the conversion of methanol to formaldehyde, a toxic compound that can result in blindness. Ethanol (IV) continues to be used as an antidote in poisoning due to the ingestion of liquids containing methanol or ethylene glycol (antifreeze). Hemodialysis is also employed in management of methanol intoxication. Disulfiram (Antabuse) is an inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase used in some alcohol rehabilitation programs, and naltrexone (an opioid antagonist) is approved for use in alcoholism because it decreases "craving." Delirium tremens is a characteristic of the withdrawal or abstinence syndrome in patients who have become physically dependent on ethanol.
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "disulfiram", "naltrexone" ]
64,545
151a3879-5106-49af-9715-b7f9bce2a2cd
Fastest acting agent :
Sefoflurane
Sefoflurane
Isoflurane
None
1b
multi
B i.e. Desflurane
Anaesthesia
null
[ "isoflurane" ]
64,573
03fe5c5c-d584-4022-b027-47f3ab6d24d2
Which of the following drugs inhibits plasminogen activation?
Aspirin
Tranexaemic acid
Alteplase
Streptokinase
1b
single
Epsilon amino caproic acid (EACA) and tranexamic acid are specific antidotes for overdose of fibrinolytic agents. These are called as anti-fibrinolytic drugs
Pharmacology
Hematology
[ "streptokinase", "alteplase" ]
64,578
51577a6f-9b58-48df-8a59-dc0464ac43e5
Which drug would treat both dermatophytosis and candidal infections?
Ketoconazole
Griseofulvin
Nystatin
Tolnaftate
0a
multi
Ketoconazole (KTZ): It is the first orally effective broad-spectrum antifungal drug, useful in both dermatophytosis and deep myc osis. The oral absorption of KTZ is facilitated by gastric acidity because it is more soluble at lower pH. Hepatic metabolism is extensive; metabolites are excreted in urine and faeces. Elimination of KTZ is dose dependent: tlh varies from llh to 6 hours. Penetration in CSF is poor: not effective in fungal men ingitis. However, therapeutic concentrations are attained in the skin and vaginal fluid. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:762
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "nystatin", "griseofulvin", "ketoconazole" ]
64,603
de32b9df-fde2-4c06-9d12-9f316024ebfc
Aliskiren is a
Endothelin receptor antagonist
Antiplatelet
Renin inhibitor
Diuretic
2c
single
Aliskiren binds to the S3bp binding pocket of renin, essential for its activity . Binding to this pocket prevents the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
Anatomy
All India exam
[ "aliskiren" ]
64,613
b64b55bf-2824-4a5e-b0cc-4a89488e30d7
Antibody shown to be useful for Crohn's Disease is:
Omalizumab
Palivizumab
Natalizumab
None of the above
2c
multi
Answer is C (Natalizumab) Natalizumab is a monoclonal antibody shown to be useful .far Crohn's Disease. Natalizumab is a recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G4 Antibody (IgG4 Monoclonal Antibody) against alpha 4 integrins that is effective in the induction and maintenance of remission in Crohn's Disease patients. It has been approved for the treatment of patients with Crohn's disease refractory to intolerant to anti-TNF Therapy. Omalizumab is used for Bronchial Asthma (Allergic Bronchial Asthma) Palivizuntab is used in infection with Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Note Natalizumab therapy has been associated with the development of multifocal leukoencephalopathy, a predominantly fatal infection of the central nervous system by the JC polyomavius. This risk appears to be I in 1,000 patients, paicularly those receiving treatment with several immunosuppressive agents.
Medicine
null
[ "omalizumab" ]
64,619
39162861-b077-4eea-b980-6b8820383433
All of the following are true about Epidemic typhus except
Also known as Flea born typhus
Causative agent is Rickettsial prowazekki
Vector - Louse
Tetracycline is drug of choice
0a
multi
Rickettsial diseases Diseases Rickettsial agent Insect vectors Mammalian reservoirs 1. Typhus group a. Epidemic typhus b. Murine typhus c. Scrub typhus R. prowazekii R. typhi R. tsutsugamushi Louse Flea Mite Humans Rodents Rodents 2. Spotted fever group a. Indian tick typhus b. Rocky mountain spotted fever c. Rickettsial pox R. conorii R. rickettsii R. akari Tick Tick Mite Rodents, dogs Rodents, dogs Mice 3. Others a. Q fever b. Trench fever C. burnetii Rochalimaea quintana Nil Louse Cattle, sheep, goats Humans Also serve as ahropod reservoir, by maintaining the rickettsiae through ovarian transmission Murine typhus is also known as Endemic typhus or Flea typhus
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable & Non Communicable Disease
[ "tetracycline" ]
64,623
bbf597ec-248a-4a49-98b7-9dabeef43ee7
A patient present with diabetic macular edema with glaucoma. Which of the following drug should be used last for this patient?
Alpha agonist
Acetazolamide
Beta blockers
Prostaglandin analogues
3d
single
PG analogues can cause cystoid macular edema. Therefore, these should be avoided in a patient already having macular edema. Impoant adverse effects of anti-glaucoma drugs PG analogues Latanoprost Bimatoprost Heterochromia iridis ,Hyperichosis Cystoid macular edema ,Worsening of uveitis Alpha 2 agonists Apraclonidine Brimonidine Lid retraction CNS suppression in infants Non selective alpha agonist Epinephrine Black Conjunctival pigmentation Miotics Pilocarpine Physostigmine Cataract Stenosis of NLD Worsening of uveitis Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Acetazolamide Dorzolamide Brinzolamide Corneal edema
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
[ "acetazolamide" ]
64,624
f455aad0-8f7e-449b-9ef2-421996f8776f
Which of the following is a benzodiazepene antagonist
Flumazenil
Butorphanol
Naltrexone
Pralidoxime
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Flumazenil Benzodiazepine acts by enhancing presynaptic/postsynaptic inhibition through a specific BZD receptor which is an integral part of the GABA receptor-Cl- channel complex.Flumazenil is a BZD analogue which has little intrinsic activity, but it competes with BZD agonists as well as inverse agonists for the BZD receptor and reverses their depressant or stimulant effects respectively.Flumazenil is the drug of choice for benzodiazepine overdose.About other options : Naltrexone - Opioid antagonist Butorphanol - Agonist/antagonist at opioid receptors Pralidoxime - Cholinesterase reactivator
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "flumazenil", "pralidoxime", "naltrexone", "butorphanol" ]
64,645
a2bcd801-f650-43ce-88b7-dd1bebd6dee6
Chemoprophylaxis in an Englishman visiting chloroquine and mefloquine ersistant malaria region is done with -
Primaquine
Doxycycline
Amodiaquine
Hydroxychloroquine
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Doxycycline
Pharmacology
null
[ "chloroquine", "doxycycline", "mefloquine", "hydroxychloroquine" ]
64,661
165b2d74-8113-4208-9c99-c29a62df258a
All of the following drugs can cause hearing loss except:
Vancomycin
Kanamycin
Metronidazole
Quinine
2c
multi
Ans. c. Metronidazole (Ref: Goodman Gillman I2/e p1512,1542.1407, Katzung 12/e p824)Metronidazole does not cause hearing loss."All aminoglycosides are ototoxic and nephrotoxic. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are more likely to be encountered when therapy is continued for more than 5 days, at higher doses, in the elderly, and in the setting of renal insufficiency. Concurrent use with loop diuretics (eg, furosemide, ethacrynic acid) or other nephrotoxic antimicrobial agents (eg. vancomycin or amphotericin) can potentiate nephrotoxicity and should be avoided if possible. Neomycin, kanamycin, and amikacin are the most ototoxic agents. Streptomycin and gentamicin are the most vestibulotoxic, bleomycin, tobramycin, and gentamicin are the most nephrotoxic. --Katzung 12/e p824"Vestibular and auditory dysfunction can follow the administration of any of the aminoglycosides, and ototoxicity may become a dose-limiting adverse effect. Aminoglycoside induced ototoxicity results in irreversible, bilateral high-frequency hearing loss and temporary vestibular hypofunction. "--Goodman Gillman 12/e p1512"Auditory impairment, sometimes permanent, may follow the use of vancomycin or teicoplanin. Ototoxicity is associated with excessively high concentrations of these drugs in plasma (60-100 ug/mL of vancomycin). "-Goodman Gillman 12/e p1542"The fatal oral dose of quinine for adults is ~2-8 g. Quinine is associated with a triad of dose-related toxicides when given at full therapeutic or excessive doses. These are cinchonism, hypoglycemia, and hypotension. Hearing and vision are particularly affected Functional impairment of the eighth nerve results in tinnitus, decreased auditory acuity, and vertigo. Visual signs consist of blurred vision, disturbed color perception, photophobia, diplopia, night blindness, constricted visual fields, scotomata, mydriasis, and even blindness. "--Goodman Gillman 12/e p1407Drugs causing OtotoxicityAntibiotics* AminoglycosidesQ* VancomycinQChemotherapeutic drugs* CisplatinQDiuretics* Ethacrynic acidQ* FurosemideQOthers* QuinineQ* SalicylatesQ Aminoglycosides Side-Effects MaximumMinimumOtotoxicity* AmikacinQ (Auditory)* StreptomycinQ (Vestibular)* NetilmycinQNephrotoxicity* Neomycin >GentamicinQ* StreptomycinQNeuromuscular Blockade* Neomycin >StreptomycinQ* TobramycinQ
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "quinine", "metronidazole", "vancomycin" ]
64,664
0e6c20c7-6621-4cf4-aedd-3f645bfdc5b1
Disulfiram like reaction is seen with:
Metronidazole
Benzodiazepine
Fluoxetine
Acamprosate
0a
single
Ans: a (Metronidazole)Ref: Goodman and Gilman's Manual of Pharmacology and TherapeuticsDisulfiram inhibits the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase probably after conversion into active metabolites.When alcohol is ingested after taking disulfiram, the concentration of acetaldehyde in tissues and blood rises and number of distressing symptoms like flushing, burning sensation, throbbing headache, perspiration, chest tightness, vomiting and mental confusion are produced which is called disulfiram reaction or aldehyde syndrome.Metronidazole has a well-documented disulfiram-like effect, and some patients will experience abdominal distress, vomiting, flushing, or headache if they drink alcoholic beverages during or within 3 days of therapy with this drug. Patients should be cautioned to avoid consuming alcohol during metronidazole treatment even though the risk of a severe reaction is low.Acamprosate, is a known drug used for treating alcohol dependence. Similar responses to alcohol ingestion are produced by various congeners of Disulfiram, namely, cyanamide, the fungus Coprinus atramentarius, the hypoglycemic sulfonylureas, certain cephalosporins, and animal charcoal.
Psychiatry
Substance Abuse
[ "disulfiram", "fluoxetine", "metronidazole" ]
64,685
8aa7af4a-430e-4aad-bb6f-30504bb91556
Drug used for atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter is
Verapamil
Digitalis
Quinidine
Diphenylhydantoin
1b
single
For AF, digoxin can be used- it decreases ventricular rate in AF Verapamil decreases conduction velocity and increases the refractory period of the AV node and so used in PSVT. REF.Essentials of Pharmacology KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "quinidine", "verapamil" ]
64,697
f4b8e94e-f738-4f46-8c0c-9c4ffdc299d0
Constipation is caused by all of the following drugs except
Neostigmine
Atropine
Morphine
Fentanyl
0a
multi
Ans. (A) Neostigmine(Ref: KDT 6th/e p101, 455)Neostigmine is an inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase and thus acts like a cholinergic drug. Therefore, it can produce diarrhea (not constipation).Atropine is an anti-cholinergic drug, thus can cause constipation.Morphine and fentanyl are opioids. These can also result in constipation.
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous
[ "morphine", "atropine", "neostigmine", "fentanyl" ]
64,710
ec60765d-ff2f-45c7-a680-00a9abb8d4fb
Which is not a uricosuric drug?
Allopurinol
Probenecid
Sulphinpyrazone
Benzbromarone
0a
multi
Ans. A. AllopurinolUricosuric drugs are those which don't effect the synthesis of uric acid and they cause the secretion of it urine. All the drugs, except allopurinol is uricosuric. Allopurinol is drug which inhibit the xanthine oxidase enzyme which further decrease the production of uric acid. It is drug of choice for chronic gout.
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
[ "allopurinol", "probenecid" ]
64,713
2034bec0-18c7-4191-b963-4a1cc33351f3
Which of the following protease inhibitor has active metabolite?
Ritonavir
Indinavir
Nelfinavir
Saquinavir
2c
single
Nelfinavir has active metabolite and the only known active metabolite of any HIV protease inhibitor. Nelfinavir Undergoes oxidative metabolism primarily by CYP2C19 but also by CYP3A4 and CYP2D6. Its major hydroxy-tbutylamide metabolite, M8, is formed by CYP2C19 and has in vitro. Antiretroviral activity similar to that of the parent drug. This is the only known active metabolite of any HIV protease inhibitor. Nelfinavir induces its own metabolism.
Pharmacology
Anti-HIV Drugs
[ "nelfinavir", "ritonavir", "saquinavir", "indinavir" ]
64,726
9ee3fc01-5efc-437e-a6af-5329e8274625
People with high risk for development of breast cancer should be treated by prophylactic administration of :
Tamoxifen
Aminoglutethimide
Diethylstilbestrol
Flutamide
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "diethylstilbestrol", "flutamide", "tamoxifen" ]
64,728
a11650c7-5911-4e14-b779-eea602cecd41
Which of the following antibacterial causes both ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity ?
Methicillin
Vancomycin
Clindamycin
Azithromycin
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "azithromycin", "vancomycin", "clindamycin" ]
64,731
6c4814d8-abe6-4ee1-816e-b033db2f3e28
A 15-year-old boy develops symptoms of renal colic. The stone eventually passes spontaneously, but it is not recovered. The urinalysis reveals hexagonal crystals, and a cyanide- nitroprusside test on the urine is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
cystinuria
thalassemia
hereditary glycosuria
primary hyperoxaluria
0a
multi
Cystinuria is a congenital disorder associated with decreased tubular resorption of cystine, arginine, ornithine, and lysine. Only cystine is insoluble and is the cause of renal calculi. The typical hexagonal crystals are most likely to be seen on an acidic early-morning urine specimen. A positive cyanide-nitroprusside screening test should be confirmed by chromatography.
Medicine
Oncology
[ "nitroprusside" ]
64,734
834cc19b-2a70-469c-9737-b790649d5a41
Dextromethorphan differs from codeine in:
Its antitussive action can be blocked by naloxone
Depresses mucocilliary function of the airway mucosa
Addiction common
Causes no constipation
3d
single
Dextromethorphan is a synthetic opiod derivative with antitussuive actions like codeine but with lesser side effects. It does not cause constipation and has no addiction liability but can cause nausea and drowsiness. Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "naloxone" ]
64,750
17a1c09c-ffa5-44a9-a1bd-b7cee8f0676d
Spironolactone bodies are seen in-
Neuron
Mitocnondria
Hippocampus
None of the above
3d
multi
null
Medicine
null
[ "spironolactone" ]
64,769
c086dce5-40a7-45da-af2f-8ded703d6c09
Antibiotic used to for sensitivity in identification of streptococcus pyogenes?
Bacitracin
Novobiocin
Penicillin
Optochin
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bacitracin Senstivity to bacitracin is employed as a convenient method for differentiating str. pyogenes from other hemolytic streptococci (Maxted's observation).
Microbiology
null
[ "bacitracin", "novobiocin" ]
64,770
dc3ea0e2-0cef-4af2-9915-ef65eb8a79ef
All acts through GABAA receptors except -
Benzodiazepines
Barbiturates
Zopiclone
Promethazine
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Promethazine GABA RECEPTORS o There are two types of GABA receptors:? 1) GABAA receptors :- These are intrinsic CI channels and when open cause increase in CI conductance and CNS depression. Drugs acting on these receptors are - i) Agnoists :- barbiturates, benzodiazepines, zopiclone, zolpidem, zoleplon, muscimol ii) Inverse agonist:- 0-carboline iii) Antagonist :- Flumazenil. iv) Other drugs :- Alphaxalone, alcohol, anticonvulsants (Gabapentine, vigabaterine), Picrotoxin 2) GABAB receptors :- These are G-protein coupled receptors. Baclofen is agonist and saclofen is antagonist on these receptors.
Pharmacology
null
[ "promethazine" ]
64,779
8aefe341-b3bb-4e72-80bc-59a56ae4011c
Shoest acting non depolarizing neuromuscular blocker:-
Atracurium
Succinylcholine
Vecuronium
Mivacurium
3d
single
Fastest onset and shoest duration neuromuscular blocker = succinylcholine (onset = 30-45 sec) duration 5-6 minutes Fastest onset non depolarizing = rocuronium (onset = 75-90 sec). Rapacuronium is fastest acting bit not in clinical use. Rest all neuromuscular blockers onset of action = 3-5 minutes Shoest duration non depolarizing - mivacurium
Anaesthesia
Neuromuscular Blocker
[ "atracurium", "vecuronium", "mivacurium" ]
64,808
7052858b-e1ff-4d69-ae52-c0ebd6054765
Treatment of choice in acute Bipolar disorder
Valproate
Lamotrigine
Lithium
All of the above
2c
multi
Lithium
Psychiatry
null
[ "valproate", "lamotrigine" ]
64,811
f78378a3-b6c8-4880-8608-1095250d021e
A child had pustular lesion on leg. On grainstaining gram positive cocci are seen. To establish the diagnosis of Group A streptococcal erythroderma, the test used is
>Bile solubility test
>Catalase test
>Optochin sensitivity
>Bacitracin sensitivity
3d
single
Bacitracin sensitivity (Ref: Harrison 16thle p 741, Anantnatyan] Streptococcal erythroderma is caused by streptococcus pyogenus Streptococcus pyogenus is b hemolytic streptococci and is Bacitracin positive.
Microbiology
null
[ "bacitracin" ]
64,828
e3a234c0-87f4-4a86-88ea-28d5f3be5291
Impoant adverse effect of nesiritide is
Dysgusua
Hypotension
Cough
Angioedema
1b
single
The recommended dose of Natrecor is an IV bolus of 2 mcg/kg followed by a continuous infusion of 0.01 mcg/kg/min....Common side effects may include: headache, mild dizziness; nausea, vomiting; back pain; numbness or tingly feeling; tremors; or. vision changes Refer Goodman and Gilman 11e p696
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "nesiritide" ]
64,861
42fbfe4b-6f82-4182-b7b7-3586baed4e7c
False statement about hepatitis G virus is
Also called GB virus
Blood borne RNA virus
Mostly infected with C virus
Responds to lamivudine
3d
multi
Hepatitis G: A virus isolated from the blood of some patients with posttransfusion hepatitis that is hypothesized to be a cause of hepatitis by some investigators, but the virus has not yet been confirmed as a cause of acute or chronic hepatitis.treatment by interferons. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 997
Medicine
Infection
[ "lamivudine" ]
64,865
89426a16-0437-49c9-8c15-759c2768919f
A child presented with fever for 2 days, altered sensorium and purpuric rashes. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Treatment of choice is -
IV Quinine
IV Aesunate
IV Penicillin
Chloroquine
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Penicillin o The clinical presentation of fever, altered sensorium and purpuric rashes, is highly suggestive of meningiococcal meningitis. o Purpuric rash in quite characteristic of meningococcemia. o I.V. Penicillin is the treatment of choice for meningioccal inf. among the given options. o The DOC for meningiococcal infection is o 111rd generation cephalosporin e.g. Cefotoxime, Ceftriaxone.
Pediatrics
null
[ "quinine", "chloroquine" ]
64,869
80c56fd5-7f89-4e0b-a21f-e5e0f2888032
The major advantage of alternate day prednisone therapy for conditions such as asthma-
There is less adrenal suppression
More effective
More convenient
Less expensive
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., There is less adrenal suppression Measures that minimize hypothalamic - pituitary - adrenal axis suppression - Use shoer acting steroids Use lowest possible dose Use for shoest period Give entire daily dose at a time Switch to alternate - day therapy
Pediatrics
null
[ "prednisone" ]
64,870
44b39ae2-035d-4d21-abb7-93ff1f8a0c9d
Dextromethorphan should not be given with drug?
SSRIs
MAO inhibitors
Atropine
Parcetamol
1b
single
Ans. is'b'i.e., MAO inhibitors[Rl Katzung L2nle p. 559, KDT /e p. 213,215)The antitussive dextromethorphan should also be avoided by patients taking one of the monoamine oxidase B inhibitors; indeed, it is wise to advise patients to avoid all over-the-counter could preparations.
Pharmacology
null
[ "atropine" ]
64,873
1b89f55e-bbf6-40b3-b6bc-dc01e87210c3
Pulmonary fibrosis is seen with(REPEAT)
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
Methotrexate
Actinomycin D
0a
single
Reference Katzung 11/e p953 Bleomycin is a marrow sparing drug But it causes pulmonary fibrosis and skin toxicity Another antineoplastic drug causing pulmonary fibrosis is busulfan
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "methotrexate", "cisplatin" ]
64,895
d9531f80-6cf6-4e8e-b506-301ac3bbfb9f
Cranial patch for Parkinsons disease is?
Levodopa
Rotigotine
Apomorphine
Arantil
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rotigotine RotigotineIt is a dopamine analogue that was approved for treatment of early parldnson9s disease in 2007 by F.D.A.It was recalled in 2008 because of crystal formation."Rotigotine is used as a transdermal patch".It is available in EuropeIt is once a daily patch that is usually started at 2mg/24 hours and titrated weekly by increasing the patch size in 2mg/24 hour increments to a dose of 6 mg/24 hours.In America it has been withdrawnIn the United States, transdermal rotigotine was recalled in April 2008 because of the formation of rotigotine crystals in the patches.This is not a safety issueRather the crystals reduce delivery of a drug with proven efficacy. Thus new patients in US should not be started on rotigotine and patients currently using rotigotine in the U.S. should be slowly tapered off the drug.Rotigotine should not be stopped abruptly because sudden withdrawal of Dopaminergic agonists has been associated with a syndrome resembling neurolept malignant syndrome.
Pharmacology
Anti-Parkinsonism
[ "levodopa" ]
64,911
558bdac1-5309-4313-9dea-8daf7eb48751
Which of the following statement regarding dual sex therapy is true?
Patient alone is not treated
Uses sildenafil
It treats sexual perversions
It is used for people with dual gender identities
0a
multi
The theoretical basis of dual-sex therapy is the concept of the marital unit or dyad as the object of therapy. In dual-sex therapy, treatment is based on a concept that the couple must be treated when a dysfunctional person is in a relationship. Because both are involved in a sexually distressing situation, both must paicipate in the therapy program. Dual sex therapy aka "Master and Johnson therapy".
Psychiatry
null
[ "sildenafil" ]
64,913
23b6edb1-8cd9-43aa-bd0b-4c46a76e9a91
The molecule, which is the initiator of cataract formation in the eye lens and whose 1-phosphate derivative is responsible for liver failure, is
Sorbitol
Mannitol
Inositol
Galactitol
3d
single
In lens, the enzyme aldose reductase reduces monosaccharides to corresponding sugar alcohols; glucose to sorbitol and galactose to galactitol.these polyols do not cross cell membranes and hence accumulate; causing osmotic swelling and consequent disruption of cell architecture. Thus diabetes mellitus and galactosemia cause cataractRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 727
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
[ "mannitol" ]
64,919
3781c7df-5724-4565-aed1-eecd1b7573d2
Which of the following group of drugs are a neuromuscular blocking agents
Choline, adrenaline and amphetamine
Glycinium, neostigmine and physostigmine
Pancuronium, rocuronium
Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "rocuronium", "physostigmine", "pancuronium", "neostigmine" ]
64,933
d9ff433a-e4a6-4406-80d0-784e11928eff
Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor
Phenobarbitone
disulfiram
Phenytoin
CCl4
1b
single
Disulfiram is inhibiting the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase- accumulation of acetaldehyde- various hangover effects- vomiting, nausea, headache, tremors, sweating. used in alcohol addiction- 1st dose of disulfiram is used in doctor's supervision REF KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
[ "disulfiram", "phenytoin" ]
64,941
360a45ef-5dc4-44f4-83b9-6a8c303a83c7
Long term use of which of the following drug is most likely associated with development of tremors?
Propofol
Salbutamol
Betaxolol
Timolol
1b
single
Salbutamol is beta-2 agonist, preferred in acute bronchial asthma attackMost common side effect associated with the agent is Tremor
Pharmacology
C.V.S
[ "salbutamol", "timolol", "propofol" ]
64,949
d54131c3-3a7b-4254-8d70-6ac08a97f925
Anesthesia of choice in renal failure
Methoxy flurane
Isoflurane
Enflurane
None
1b
multi
B i.e. Isoflurane
Anaesthesia
null
[ "enflurane", "isoflurane" ]
64,955
9890710c-37f1-4839-8947-75f7ade4ee17
The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is -
Elevated serum ACH-receptor binding antibodies
Repetitive nerve stimulation test
Positive edrophonium test
Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography
2c
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "edrophonium" ]
64,969
4b6cc450-7f86-4891-8bcb-d3b7e65f965a
The best antiseptic is? -
Alcohol
povidone-iodine
Savlon
Phenol
1b
single
Betadine, povidone, and isodine are the common iodophor compounds that contain 2-10% of available iodine. They are used to prepare skin and mucous membranes for surgery and in surgical hand scrubs and known as best antiseptics. Iodine is used as a skin antiseptic and kills microorganism by oxidizing cell constituents and iodinating cell proteins
Microbiology
General Microbiology Pa 1 (History, Microscopy, Stains and Structure and Physiology of Bacteria)
[ "betadine" ]
64,972
70db11cd-fd54-4527-b0c3-8ce47b13eb28
Acetazolamide is:
Competitive and reversible carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Non-competitive and reversible carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Competitive and irreversible carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Non-competitive and irreversible carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
1b
single
It is a sulfonamide derivative which noncompetitively but reversibly inhibits carbonic anhydrase in PT cells resulting in slowing of hydration of Carbon dioxide and leads to prompt but mild alkaline diuresis. The extrarenal actions of acetazolamide are: i) Lowering of intraocular tension due to decreased formation of aqueous humor (it is rich in HC03). ii) Decreased gastric HCl and pancreatic NaHC03 secretion: This action requires very high doses-clinically not significant. iii) Raised level of C02 in the brain and lowering of pH - sedation and elevation of seizure threshold. iv) Alteration of C02 transpo in lungs and tissues: these actions are masked by compensatory mechanisms. REF-Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6 th edition, page 569
Pharmacology
Kidney
[ "acetazolamide" ]
64,989
ce04e94b-1823-4565-99aa-eec40148fc56
Sucralfate does not interfere with the absorption of:
Ciprooxacin
Phenytoin
Phenoxy methyl penicillin
Digoxin
2c
single
Sucralfate forms a viscous layer in the stomach that prevents the absorption of other drugs such as digoxin, phenytoin, quinolone antibiotics, ketoconazole, and cimetidine. Sucralfate comprises of sucrose octasulfate bound to aluminum hydroxide. In the presence of an acidic environment, sucralfate produces a sticky polymer which gets attached to the ulcer crater for at least 6 hours. Other indications for sucralfate besides acid peptic disease: Oral mucositis (Radiation and aphthous ulcers) Bile reflux gastropathy Side Effects A most common side effect of sucralfate is constipation. Bezoar formation can occur with consumption of sucralfate due to the sticky nature of the drug. Bezoar formation is more prone to occur in patients with gastroparesis.
Pharmacology
null
[ "digoxin", "phenytoin" ]
65,005
a8ac27c7-b585-4dad-b1e7-fd0487b37e47
Stain for treponema ?
Fontana's
Acid-facid
Methenamine-silver
PAS
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fontana's Can not be seen under light microscope in wet films but can be made out by negative staining with India ink. L pallidum does not take ordinary stains, but stain light rose red with prolonged Giemsa staining. Morphology and motility can be seen under the dark ground or phase contrast microscope. It can be stained by silver impregnation methods. Fontana's method is useful for staining films. Levaditis's method for tissue sections.
Microbiology
null
[ "methenamine" ]
65,006
47daddaa-ff69-4202-b545-656ccbcccac2
Activity of glutathione reductase in RBCs gives an idea about functional index of which of the following?
Riboflavin
Pyridoxine
Niacin
Biotin
0a
single
Activity of glutathione reductase in RBCs gives an idea about functional index of flavin coenzyme activity- Riboflavin
Pediatrics
Malnutrition
[ "biotin" ]
65,014
1222773f-7b7b-4663-95d8-3399861ded53
Wof is injectable COX-2 inhibitor
Celecoxib
Etoricoxib
Parecoxib
None of the above
2c
multi
Parecoxib:- It is a prodrug of valdecoxib suitable for injection, and to be used in post- operative or similar sho-term pain, with efficacy similar to ketorolac. Ref:- kd tripathi;pg num:-206
Pharmacology
Autacoids
[ "celecoxib" ]
65,036
028d2345-ed78-4477-87c4-7b422d2ec2d3
Which of the following is not an amino steroid deprivative
Alcuronium
Vecuronium
Pancuronium
Pipecuronium
0a
single
Non-depolarising neuro-muscular blockers are classified in to 2groups based on chemical structure. 1.Benzylisoquinolones: d-tubocurare, Atracurium, Cis-atracurium, Dexacurium, Mivacurium ,Alcuronium. 2.Amino-steroid derivatives : Pancuronium, Vecuronium, rocuronium, pipecuronium, rapacuronium.
Anaesthesia
Muscle relaxants
[ "vecuronium", "pancuronium" ]
65,046
0c8dcdd3-2253-42f5-af47-94b81a475dd6
Proliferation independent agents include all the following except
Vincristine
Carmustine
Melphalan
Cyclophosphamide
0a
multi
Ref: KDT 6/e p821,882 Proliferation independent means cell cycle nonspecific agents
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "cyclophosphamide", "vincristine" ]
65,074
1c8b49c7-f30b-4844-873e-d3e286cc1b16
An outbreak of streptococcal pharyngitis has occured in a remote village. In order to carry out the epidemiological investigations of the outbreak it is necessary to perform the culture of the throat swab of the patients suffering from the disease. The transport media of choice would be -
Salt mannitol media
Pike's media
Stuart's media
Cary Blair media
1b
single
null
Microbiology
null
[ "mannitol" ]
65,082
e194cc9b-07d0-40be-ac98-cb8ed6ee85a9
Post coital pill contains -
25 mg Mifepristone
Misoprostol
0-75 mg levenorgesterol
lOmgEthinylestradiol
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 0.75 mg levenorgestrol Post - coital contraceptivesDrugDosePregnancy rate (%)Levenorgestrol0[?]75 mg stat and after 12 hours0- 1Ethinyl estradiol 50 micro gm + Norgestrel 0[?]25 mg2 tablets stat and 2 after 12 hours0-2Ethinyl estradiol2[?]5 mgBD x 5 days0-0-6Mifepristone100 mg single dose0-0 6Copper IUDs (Gold Standard)Insertion within 5 days0-0 1Ulipristal acetate30 mgPO0-1
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Emergency Contraception - Ulipristal acetate (UPA)
[ "mifepristone", "misoprostol" ]
65,102
25afd3e1-191f-483f-9632-79b402a1c6be
12 year old boy came with fever, sorethroat and cervical lymph node enlargement. Throat swab positive for group A beta hemolytic streptococci and started on penicillin. But he came back with worsening of symptoms even while on treatment. Next step is:
Start azithromycin
Blood monospot test and CBC
IgE for IMN
Presume it as EBV and start acyclovir and prednisolone
1b
multi
Arts) b (Blood monospot test and CBC) Ref Nelson 18th ed p1375The features given in the question are classically seen in IMN. So the next step is to confirm the diagnosis by monospot test and CBC and then only start treatment with acyclovir and steroids.There are rapid IgM and IgG antibody which is used in the diagnosis, but IgE antibody assay is not usedInfectious mononucleosisInfectious mononucleosis is the best-known clinical syndrome caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It is characterized by systemic somatic complaints consisting primarily of fatigue, malaise, fever, sore throat, and generalized lymphadenopathy. Originally described as glandular fever, it derives its name from the mononuclear lymphocytosis with atypical-appearing lymphocytes that accompany the illness.Primary EBV infection in adolescents and adults manifests in >50% of cases as the classic triad of fatigue, pharyngitis, and generalized lymphadenopathy, which constitute the major clinical manifestations of infectious mononucleosis.The physical examination is characterized by generalized lymphadenopathy (90% of cases), splenomegaly (50% of cases), and hepatomegaly (10% of cases). Lymphadenopathy occurs most commonly in the anterior and posterior cervical nodes and the submandibular lymph nodes and less commonly in the axillary and inguinal lymph nodes.Epitrochlear lymphadenopathy is particularly suggestive of infectious mononucleosis.The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis implies primary EBV infection. A presumptive diagnosis may be made by the presence of typical clinical symptoms with atypical lymphocytosis the peripheral blood.The diagnosis is usually confirmed by serologic testing, either for heterophile antibody or specific EBV antibodies.Approximately 5% of cases of EBV-associated infectious mononucleosis have positive throat cultures for group A streptococcus', this represents pharyngeal streptococcal carriage. Failure of a patient with streptococcal pharyngitis to improve within 48-72 hr should evoke suspicion of infectious mononucleosis.EBV-specific antibody testing is useful to confirm acute EBV infection, especially in heterophile-negative cases, or to confirm past infection and determine susceptibility to future infection.The EBNA, EA, and VCA antigen systems are most useful for diagnostic purposes.The acute phase of infectious mononucleosis is characterized by rapid IgM and IgG antibody responses to VCA in all cases and an IgG response to EA in most cases.
Pediatrics
Infection
[ "prednisolone", "azithromycin" ]
65,103
6914a646-c061-4ceb-a9bc-1a02c166fafb
Ibuprofen is contraindicated in
Patients having fever
Patients having asthma
Patients having amoebic dysentery
Patients having bronchitis
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ibuprofen" ]
65,106
2e4ffdef-4362-4b7f-b471-f9663b6c9983
Drug of choice for acute (pneumococcal) lobar pneumonia is :
Amoxicillin clavulanic acid combination
Ciprofloxacin
Co-trimoxazole
Crystalline penicillin (Pen. G)
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ciprofloxacin" ]
65,108
ed472df3-e502-487c-ad43-ee3c01928bd6
Breast milk is deficient in which of the following?
Iron
Vitamin K
PABA
Lactoferrin
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitamin-K * Breast milk is deficient in vitamin K, deficiency leads to hemorrhagic disease of newborn.* Breast milk contains iron - prevents against iron deficiency anaemia.* It also contains lactoferrin - inhibits growth of E.coli* PABA - provides protection against malaria.Other advantages of breast feeding* Breast milk protects against neonatal hypocalcemia and tetany due to ideal calcium phosphorus ratio (2:1) and better calcium absorption.* Iron of breast milk is very well absorbed breast feeding prevents against iron deficiency anemia.* Breast milk also prevents deficiencies of vitamin A, C, D, E and zinc.* Breast milk has a water content of 88% and hence a breastfed baby does not require additional water in the first 6 months of life even in summer months.* Breast milk has a low mineral and sodium content low osmolality presents a low solute load to the kidney.* The protein content of breast milk is low which causes lower solute load on the kidney. Most of the protein is whey proteins (lactalbumin and lactoglobulin), which can be digested easily (In contrast cow milk contains more casein).* Breast milk contains the ideal ratio of the amino acids cystine, taurine and methionine to support development of central and peripheral nervous system.
Pediatrics
Nutrition
[ "paba" ]
65,111
526a36fb-4b01-41ed-b7df-d216702131f0
Increased tendency to fall asleep at night without causing CNS depression is a property exhibited by
Pyridoxine
Diphenhydramine
Melatonin
Ethanol
2c
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "diphenhydramine" ]
65,112
165e37dd-a1f1-491d-a5c2-d08adf3e7251
The enzymes secreted by endocrinal pa of pancreas are all except:
Somatostatin
Chymotrypsin
Glucagon
Insulin
1b
multi
B i.e. Chymotrypsin
Physiology
null
[ "glucagon" ]
65,125
0377fba0-15c4-4a54-879f-901b285674df
Drug directly acting on blood vessels is:
Hydralazine
Verapamil
Propranolol
Methyaldopa
0a
single
Ref:KDT 6/e p547 Some drugs used to treat hypeension, such as calcium channel blockers -- which prevent calcium from entering blood vesselwalls -- also dilate blood vessels. But the vasodilators that work directly on the vessel walls are hydralazine and minoxidil.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "propranolol", "hydralazine", "verapamil" ]
65,141
370bb87e-42b0-49a5-8ec0-d0f0f30e4f1a
Muscle relaxant excreted exclusively by kidney –
Gallamine
Atracurium
Vercuronium
Sch
0a
multi
Muscle relaxant entirely dependent on renal excretion are gallamine and metocurine → contraindicated in renal failure.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "atracurium", "gallamine" ]
65,144
b3085253-1037-4718-b937-c809d68013b8
Treatment of Hirsutism in PCOD all,drugs cannot be used are
Menopausal gonadotropin
GnRH
Spironolactone
Metformin
0a
multi
Medication of Hirsutism: Hormone suppressing Oral contraceptives Medroxyprogestrone Gonadotropin releasing hormone analogues Glucocoicoids Steroidogenic enzyme inhibitors Ketoconazole 5alpha reducatse inhibitors Finasteride Antiandrogens Spironolactone Cyproterone acetate Flutamide Insulin sensitizer Metformin Mechanical Electrolysis Lazer hair removal Oc pills These are first line drugs in management of Oligomenorrhea caused by PCOD Progestin component decreases LH resulting in decreased ovarian androgen production The estrogen component increases hepatic production of SHBG and decrease s free testosterone concentration And also reduces conversation of testosterone to dihydroepiandrosterone by inhibiting alpha reductase Ref Shaw 15/ e pg 117-118
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
PCOD, hirsutism and galactorrhea
[ "metformin", "spironolactone" ]
65,161
e80455b6-b66c-4fca-b7ac-097857c91c3e
The drug of choice for persistent unstable ventricular arrhythmia is -
Procainamide
Calcium gluconate
Amiodarone
Digoxin
2c
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "amiodarone", "digoxin", "procainamide" ]
65,173
945d3134-5db7-488d-8bcc-452cdd5c8485
Which drug would treat both dermatophysis and candidal infection ?
Ketoconazole
Griseofulin
Nystatin
Tolnafet
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ketoconazole
Pharmacology
null
[ "nystatin", "ketoconazole" ]
65,176
fed4f7f8-d05f-4b15-9115-9a1f32a03e26
Bone marrow depressive drugs in the treatment of AIDS patient are except
Didanosine
Zalcitabine
Cotrimaxazole
Ganciclovir
0a
multi
Drugs causing bone marrow suppression in patients with HIV infection Zidovudine Dapsone Trimethoprim Pyrimethamine. 5-flucytosine Gancyclovir Interferon alpha Foscarnet. Refer CMDT 2010/454
Anatomy
General anatomy
[ "ganciclovir" ]
65,177
e7e3f2c3-7e16-4073-9c16-6913c529b7f7
The antihypertensive agent that should be avoided in young females and is used topically to treat alopecia is:
Hydralazine
Prazosin
Minoxidil
Indapamide
2c
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "hydralazine", "prazosin" ]
65,193
e66bdab5-f69a-4124-8d93-cae763058451
Which of the following agents is not used in the treatment of Diabetic Macular Edema Retinopathy-
Ruboxistaurim
Pyridazinones
Benfotiamine
Tamoxifen
3d
multi
Antivascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) plays a pivotal role in the etiopathogenesis of diabetic maculopathy and retinopathy. Anti-VEGFs when given intravitrealy in 0.1 ml vehicle lead to improvement in vision in > 40% cases and stabilise vision in another >40% cases. They include : Ranibizumab (Lucentis) Pegaptanib ( Macugen) Bevacizumab (Avastin) Ref; A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no: 281,459
Ophthalmology
Vitreous and retina
[ "tamoxifen" ]
65,196
616941d3-a3a2-4982-9019-a298d9f7e566
All are management options for carcinoma breast in 2nd trimester except:
Chemotherapy doxorubicin + cyclophosphamide + 5-FU
Mastectomy
Focal 3D
Breast conservative surgery is a valid option
2c
multi
Management of breast cancer in pregnancy: 1.Early invasive breast cancer: - Breast conservative surgery + Radiotherapy - Simple mastectomy + axillary lymph node sampling Pregnancy is a contra-indication for breast conservative surgery due to the radiotherapy which is followed after surgery. 2.Locally advanced breast cancer: - Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy + MRM + Radiotherapy Chemotherapy is not advised in 1st trimester because the cytotoxic drugs may cause congenital anomalies as organogenesis occurs in 1st trimester. Hence chemotherapy is usually given in 2nd trimester. Radiation therapy can be given after delivery. Focal 3D is not related to the management of breast cancer.
Surgery
JIPMER 2018
[ "cyclophosphamide", "doxorubicin" ]
65,202
6dbb584c-f2da-4a19-bd26-e69927e64675
Which of the following drugs should be removed by dialysis ?
Digoxin
Salicylates
Benzodiazepines
Organophosphates
1b
single
- All other given options except salicylates are widely distributed in the body whereas salicylates stay in the blood. So it needs to be removed by dialysis.
Pharmacology
null
[ "digoxin" ]
65,215
d41f6761-6e89-4544-a4d0-ce1ff517ac37
Thalidomide is used in the treatment of:
Multiple myeloma
Melanoma
Lung carcinoma
None of the above
0a
multi
Thalidomide is currently used in the treatment of multiple myeloma at initial diagnosis and for relapsed-refractory disease. Patients generally show signs of response within 2-3 months of staing the drug, with response rates from 20% to 70%. When combined with dexamethasone, the response rates in myeloma are 90% or more in some studies. Many patients have durable responses--up to 12-18 months in refractory disease and even longer in some patients treated at diagnosis. The success of thalidomide in myeloma has led to numerous clinical trials in other diseases such as myelodysplastic syndrome, acute myelogenous leukemia, and graft-versus-host disease, as well as in solid tumors like colon cancer, renal cell carcinoma, melanoma, and prostate cancer, with variable results to date. Thalidomide has been used for many years in the treatment of some manifestations of leprosy and has been reintroduced in the USA for erythema nodosum leprosum; it is also useful in management of the skin manifestations of lupus erythematosus. Ref: Katzung 11th edition Chapter 61.
Pharmacology
null
[ "thalidomide" ]
65,216
f8eb0b25-5b1a-4e31-9f98-7307fa08a175
Which of the following is not an antineoplastic antibiotic ?
Actinomycin D
Doxorubicin
Bleomycin
Spiramycin
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "doxorubicin" ]
65,218
9907dab6-7347-4d9d-bb84-7b66b9d071ce
Which of the following act through tyrosine kinase receptor
Insulin
Glucagon
GH
FSH
0a
single
Ans. (a) Insulin(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.52)Tyrosine kinase receptors serves as receptors for,#Insulin#Insulin like growth factors (IGF -1)#Epidermal growth factor (EGF)#Nerve growth factor#Platelet-derived growth factor#Fibroblast growth factor
Physiology
Endocrinology and Reproduction
[ "glucagon" ]
65,230
4ca0d734-f648-4c8e-a39f-6faa55508e01
The following are selective beta blockers except
Pindolol
Bisoprolol
Esmolol
Acebutolol
0a
multi
Pindolol is nonselec ve b-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
Pathology
All India exam
[ "bisoprolol", "acebutolol", "esmolol", "pindolol" ]
65,231
17b4ee05-a9ea-4c96-835f-71f07122ecab
Which one of the following drugs is most suitable for management of essential tremors-
Diazepam
Levodopa
Metoprolol
Propranolol
3d
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "propranolol", "metoprolol", "levodopa", "diazepam" ]
65,232
7df953be-1bae-4528-8ce5-998b12795efc
Drug of choice to treat attention- deficit/hyperactivity disorder?
Haloperidol
Clonidine
Methylphenidate
Diazepam
2c
single
Ans. C. MethylphenidateTreatment: Pharmacotherapy: first line of treatment1. CNS stimulants- DOC, C/I with known cardiac risks & abnormalitiesa. Methylphenidate (Short& sustained release preparations)-dopamine agonist (DOC)S/E- Headache, stomach, Nausea, insomniaRebound effects: mild irritability, Exacerbates ticsPotential growth suppression-drug holidays
Psychiatry
Pharmacotherapy In Psychiatry
[ "diazepam", "methylphenidate", "clonidine" ]
65,248
a1a5a0c6-2945-4a28-b4fa-7b2b1cbdc5f5
All antiretroviral drugs produce peripheral neuropathy except -
Stavudine
Zalcitabine
Didanosine
Indinavir
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Indinavir Characteristic side effects of important antiretroviral drugsLamivudin - Nausea, headache, fatigue.Stavudine - Peripheral neuropathy, lipodystrophy, hyperlipidemia, pancreatitis, rapidly progressive ascending neuromuscular weakness.Didanosine - Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, diarrhea, nausea, hyperuricemia.Zalcitabine - Peripheral neuropathy, oral ulceration, pancreatitis.Zidovudin - Macrocytic anemia, neutropenia, nausea, headache, insomnia, asthenia.Tenofovir - Asthenia, headache, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, flatulance, renal insufficiency.Efavirenz - CNS effects, rash, T liver enzymes.Nevirapine - Rash, hepatitis, nausea, headache.Indinavir - Nephrolithiasis, nausea, indirect hyperbilirubinemia, headache, blurred vision, asthenia.
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "stavudine", "indinavir" ]
65,249
fa0606f5-8a6e-424f-96ba-d142d67d8ec5
Clomiphene citrate used in initial treatment for most anovulatory infertile women is
Steroidal triphenylethylene derivative
Given on 7th day to 10th day after onset of spontaneous menses
Can be administered if no follicle is >20mm and endometrium is <5mm
Is oestrogen antagonist only
2c
single
Clomiphene citrate is non-steroidal derivative given on 3rd to 5th day of cycle. It has both oestrogen agoinst and antagonist properties.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "clomiphene" ]
65,251
7405a0cd-89cf-4346-950a-685cd11f402c
In triple antibiotic paste, minocycline can be replaced by:
Tetracycline
Cefixime
Cefuroxime
Cefaclor
3d
single
Ciprofloxacin, Minocycline and Metronidazole comprise the triple antibiotic paste, which can be used as an intracanal medicament to disinfect the canal.  Minocycline causes discoloration of teeth.  That is why, Cefaclor has been substituted in place of Minocycline.
Dental
null
[ "tetracycline", "minocycline", "cefaclor" ]
65,269
730c2093-da85-4c93-936f-c1d08e43a738
All of the following can be used for prophylaxis of migraine except :
Sumatriptan
Valproate
Propranolol
Topiramate
0a
multi
'Sumatriptan is the drug of choice for acute severe migraine but it is not indicated for prophylaxis'.
Pharmacology
null
[ "valproate", "topiramate", "propranolol", "sumatriptan" ]
65,270
c4eaa01f-ed7f-4a98-8cc7-701d4e11cd60
A previously healthy eight year old boy presented to the emergency depament with high grade fever, ahralgia, pruiritic erythematous rash and lymphadenopathy. He had completed 8 days out of a 10 day course of cefaclor for an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following possibilities should be initially suspected?
Kawasaki Disease
Anaphylaxis
Henoch Schonlein purpura
Type III Hypersensitivity Reaction
3d
multi
Boy in the questions who developed the fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, after taking cefaclor for UI is suffering from drug induced serum sickness. It's a type 3 hypersensitivity mediated by IgG antibody. Ref: Essentials of emergency medicine By Richard Aghababian page307; What to do About Allergies By Harvard Health Publications page 8.
Pediatrics
null
[ "cefaclor" ]
65,277
f9c1b3a5-b0c0-4bf7-945d-b08e88c533ca
Drug which produces Steven Johnson's syndrome in HIV infected individuals is :
Paraaminosalicylate
Cycloserine
Thioacetazone
Rifampicin
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "cycloserine" ]
65,286
94515749-6bbc-4520-8bc4-0c669c106e91
Severely injured patient with spinal fracture and unconsciousness first thing to be done is -
GCS scoring
Spinal stabilization by cervical collar
Mannitol drip to decrease ICT
Airway maintenance
3d
single
Airway management is the first priority in trauma patients.
Orthopaedics
null
[ "mannitol" ]
65,341
ef069ed5-8608-425a-9865-e6b30047eb45
Maximum effect of bronchodilatation in asthma is caused by ?
Coicosteroids
Theophylline
Anticholinergic
b2-Agonist)
3d
single
b-agonists in Asthma Bronchi have , b-adrenergic receptors which cause bronchodilatation - So, the adrenergic drugs used in asthma are selective b2 agonists. b-agonists are the most effective bronchodilators b2-agonists have some other effects also on airways (other than bonrchodilatation), that are responsible for beneficial effects in asthma : Inhibition of release of mast cells mediators - mast cells stabilizing action. Inhibition of exudation and airway edema. Increased mucociliary clearance Decreased cough b2-agonists have no effect on inflammation- no antiinflammatory action. REF : katzung pharmacology : 14th ed
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "theophylline" ]
65,342
21bdb8b3-4671-4c92-bd78-d8a62f35b9a0
Which of the following is not an inducer of CYP3A4
Barbiturates
Glucocoicoids
Phenytoin
Erythromycin
3d
single
Inducer of CYP3A4 areBarbiturates,carbamazepine,glucocoicoids,pioglitazone, phenytoin,rifampin, St. John's wo
Pharmacology
Gastrointestinal tract
[ "erythromycin", "phenytoin" ]
65,346
30226609-9c15-4483-95b3-58bcf3a6a92d
An active intravenous drug abuser presents to the emergency depament with fever of 5 days duration, a cough which is occasionally productive of blood, and pleuritic chest pain. Petechiae are present in his mouth and conjunctiva, and small linear hemorrhages are visible under his fingernails. Which of the following test results would MOST likely confirm the identity of the causative agent?
Antibodies to p24 capsid antigen
Antibodies to Trichinella spiralis antigen
Blood culture of a catalase-positive, novobiocin-sensitive, gram-positive coccus
Blood culture of a coagulase-positive, catalase positive, gram-positive coccus
3d
multi
The patient is exhibiting the classic signs of acute bacterial endocarditis. In intravenous drug abusers, Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative agent, because it is the most common normal flora organism on the skin of these patients, and is the classic description of this species. Catalase positivity distinguishes the genus Staphylococcus from Streptococcus, and Staphylococcus aureus is the only coagulase positive member of its genus. Antibodies to p24 capsid antigen would be likely in an HIV-positive drug abuser, rather than a patient with endocarditis. Trichinella spiralis can cause splinter hemorrhages during the larval migration period, but would not be the most likely agent given the other symptoms. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a catalase-positive, novobiocin-sensitive, gram-positive coccus. It is sometimes implicated in subacute bacterial endocarditis, but is less common as a causative agent in drug abusers than in normal individuals.
Microbiology
null
[ "novobiocin" ]
65,364
485a662d-6de1-4f3b-97b4-d71cd787c7df
Which of the following drug can be accumulated in foetus in very significant amount if given to pregnant mother?
Thiopentone
Propofol
Midazolam
Lignocaine
3d
single
Local anaesthetic and opioids are bases. Once they reach the fetus they become nonionized (due to highly acidic pH) and can not come back to maternal circulation leading to toxic accumulations in fetus.
Pathology
All India exam
[ "midazolam", "propofol" ]
65,366
ca835339-c29f-4a34-9dd7-c4ad9891bd4d
Drug that crosses placenta is:
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
All
3d
multi
Ans. (D) All(Ref: KDT 18th/e p818-819)All first line antitubercular drugs can cross placenta. Streptomycin is contraindicated in preganancy whereas other drugs are found to be safe.
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy: General Principles
[ "isoniazid" ]
65,368