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183k
1e959a44-ebca-4ef2-9593-28e4db404ac9
Which of the following drugs is not hypoglycemic?
Ethosuxinide
Tolbutamide
Glibenclamide
Chlorpropamide
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "chlorpropamide", "tolbutamide" ]
155,624
4d7f16c7-b471-434f-9892-76f6285b3831
Pregnant,37 weeks of gestation has mild pains for 10 hours and cervix is persistently 1cm dilated and non-effaced. What will be the next appropriate management :
Sedation and wait
Augmentalion with oxytocin
Cesarean section
Amniotomy
0a
single
In primi, the latent phase is often long (about 8 hours) during which effacement occurs; the cervical dilatation averaging only 0.35 cm/hr. In multi, the latent phase is sho (about 4 hours) and effacement and dilatation occur simultaneously. Latent phase is the preparatory phase of the uterus and the cervix before the actual onset of labor. A latent phase that exceeds 20 hours in primigravidae or 14 hours in multiparae is abnormal. The causes include--(1) unripe cervix (2) malposition and malpresentation (3) cephalopelvic dispropoion and (4) premature rupture of the membranes. Management: Expectant management is usually done unless there is any indication (for the fetus or the mother) for expediting the delivery. Rest and analgesic are usually given. When augmentation is decided, medical methods are preferred. Amniotomy is usually avoided. Prolonged latent phase is not an indication for cesarean delivery. Ref : Dutta Obs 9e pg 376.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
General obstetrics
[ "oxytocin" ]
155,639
19754025-703a-46db-b28e-6f64396c18f2
A 44 year old businessman presents to a physician because of a markedly inflamed and painful right great toe.He states that he just returned from a convention, and had noticed increasing pain in his right foot during his plane trip home. Physical examination is remarkable for swelling and erythema of the right great toe as well as small nodules on the patient's external ear. Aspiration of the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the affected toe demonstrates needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals. Which of the following agents would provide the most immediate relief for this patient?
Allopurinol
Aspirin
Colchicine
Probenecid
2c
multi
The patient has gout, which is due to precipitation of monosodium urate crystals in joint spaces (notably the great toe) and soft tissues (causing tophi, which are often found on the external ears). Colchicine reduces the inflammation caused by the urate crystals by inhibiting leukocyte migration and phagocytosis secondary to an effect on microtubule assembly. Allopurinol and its metabolite, oxypurinol, inhibit xanthine oxidase, the enzyme that forms uric acid from hypoxanthine. Therapy with this agent should be begun 1-2 weeks after the acute attack has subsided. Aspirin competes with uric acid for tubular secretion, thereby decreasing urinary urate excretion and raising serum uric acid levels. At high doses (more than 2 gm daily) aspirin is a uricosuric. Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are uricosuric agents, increasing the urinary excretion of uric acid, hence decreasing serum levels of the substance. Therapy with these agents should be begun 1-2 weeks after the acute attack has subsided. Ref: Grosser T., Smyth E. (2011). Chapter 34. Anti-inflammatory, Antipyretic, and Analgesic Agents; Pharmacotherapy of Gout. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Pharmacology
null
[ "probenecid", "allopurinol", "colchicine" ]
155,643
044ebe0e-def1-4743-81f8-0cd16788d932
Which of the following is a mast cell stabilizer: September 2005
Montelukast
Sodium chromoglycate
Cetrizine
Theophylline
1b
single
Ans. B: Sodium Chromoglycate Mast cell stabilizers are cromone medications used to prevent or control ceain allergic disorders. They block a calcium channel essential for mast cell degranulation, stabilizing the cell and thereby preventing the release of histamine and related mediators. Without intracellular calcium, the histamine vesicles cannot fuse to the cell membrane and degranulate. As inhalers they are used to treat asthma, as nasal sprays to treat hay fever (allergic rhinitis) and as eye drops for allergic conjunctivitis. Finally in oral form they are used to treat the rare condition of mastocytosis Cromoglicic acidicromolyrVcromoglycate/cromoglicate is traditionally described as a mast cell stabilizer, and is commonly marketed as the sodium salt sodium cromoglycate or cromolyn sodium. This drug prevents the release of inflammatory chemicals such as histamine from mast cells.
Pharmacology
null
[ "theophylline", "montelukast" ]
155,660
bbd90dcc-f431-4d11-ba5f-f7472173e999
In MDR TB, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is resistant to:
Isoniazid + Ethambutol
Rifampcin + Ethambutol
Isoniazid + Rifampcin
Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide
2c
single
Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to Isoniazid + Rifampicin - MDR.TB Mycobacterium.tuberculosis resistant to Isoniazid, Rifampicin and one of the Fluoroquinolone and any one of the second line drug used in Mycobacterium.tuberculosis - XDR.TB
Pharmacology
null
[ "ethambutol", "isoniazid" ]
155,666
45df68a1-368b-4542-9942-3e3b1e7d55dd
All the following drugs are used in acute anterior uveitis except
Pilocarpine
Atropine
Timolol
Propranolol
0a
multi
A i.e. PilocarpineMiotics eg pilocarpine or other cholinergics are contraindicated in treatment of anterior uveitis Qas these increase chances of synechiae formation. It is also contraindicated in malignant glaucoma Q & post inflammatory glaucoma Q.Mydriatic-cycloplegic drugs eg. atropine Q, homatropine, cyclopentolate are most effective drugs during acute phase of anterior uveitis. These act byi) Gives rest to eye by relieving iris sphincter and ciliary muscle spasmQii) Prevents formation of synechiae & break already formed synechiaeiii) Reduce exudation by decreasing hyperemia & vascular permeability
Ophthalmology
null
[ "pilocarpine", "propranolol", "atropine", "timolol" ]
155,674
768da2f5-5b3e-4376-95c8-76c8fd202cea
Thrush:
Occurs only in elderly
Is caused by a gram -ve bacteria
Is seen clinically as a proliferative lesion
Responds to nystatin
3d
multi
null
Pathology
null
[ "nystatin" ]
155,693
de3a7af3-911e-440a-b1e1-3e6b0bd91f62
Staphylococcus aureus remains in the skin for longer period because of -
Catalase
Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
None
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyaluronidase Hyaluronidase breaks down the connective tissue and helps in the spread of infection.
Microbiology
null
[ "hyaluronidase" ]
155,695
f9e25305-0cb6-491c-a618-484b6899c970
Which of the following system is most sensitive to atropine
Respiratory mucosa
Hea
Pupil
Gastrointestinal motility
0a
single
Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed: Pg no:154 The endpoint for atropinization is dried pulmonary secretions. Tachycardia and mydriasis must not be used to limit or to stop subsequent doses of atropine
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
[ "atropine" ]
155,702
67a40cc7-adc6-43f9-a7b3-7afd26986cfc
Systemic vascular resistance is twice that of normal, treatment should be
Adrenaline
Nor adrenaline
Sodium nitroprusside
Isoprenaline
2c
single
Increase in systemic vascular resistance means vasoconstriction, this is a vasodilator drugs like nitroprusside is given. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act as vasopressors whereas isoprenaline increases systolic blood pressure by acting on hea Refer kDT 7/e p567
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "nitroprusside" ]
155,705
59ab2af9-63fe-4fa0-8f5e-643e02ae7132
All of the following are topical steroids EXCEPT ?
Hydrocoisone valerate
Fluticasone propionate
Dexamethasone
Prednisolone
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prednisolone
Pharmacology
null
[ "prednisolone", "dexamethasone" ]
155,711
fb0be7c1-acad-44d4-9e14-03f01213b154
A gardener comes with linear nodules on the hand for last one year , how will you treat the patient.
Amphotericin B
Griseofulvin
Ampicillin
Iodine
3d
single
Diagnosis is Rose gardener disease/ Sporotrichosis commonly seen in farmers, gardeners, florists etc. It is caused by Sporothrix schenckii (Thermally dimorphic) Fungi Fungus may produce a series of inflamed nodules along the line of lymphatic drainage (i. e. linear lesions). Three types: C/F Rx 1. Cutaneous Nodules Itraconazole 2. Lymphatic (MC) Linear nodules with Satellite lesions Itraconazole >Saturated Solution of KI (SSKI) S/E: Thyroid problem 3. Systemic Upper lobe of lung Amphotericin B
Dental
Fungal infections
[ "ampicillin", "griseofulvin" ]
155,740
b535ad27-035b-449d-b378-28f9718d4b36
Which of the following inhalational agent is contraindicated in renal disease?
Methoxyflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Isoflurane
0a
single
Methoxyflurane produces inorganic fluoride, which was responsible for the sporadic incidence of nephrotoxicity (i.e., high-output renal failure) after prolonged anesthesia Basics of anesthesia 7e pg:95
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "methoxyflurane", "isoflurane", "sevoflurane", "desflurane" ]
155,759
0b982125-19e2-46b2-9e5c-54e69e7fd5c9
Vitamin d true is
UVB converts it to active form
It enhances intestinal absorption of proteins
Vit D3 is crgocalciferol
Cholccalcifcrol is converted to calcitriol in liver
0a
multi
(A) UVB converts it to active formVitamin D refers to a group of fat-soluble secosteroids responsible for enhancing intestinal absorption of calcium, iron, magnesium, phosphate and zinc. In humans, the most important compounds in this group are vitamin D3 (also known as cholecalciferol) and vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol). Cholecalciferol and ergocalciferol can be ingested from the diet and from supplements. The body can also synthesize vitamin D (specifically cholecalciferol) in the skin, from cholesterol, when sun exposure is adequate (hence its nickname, the "sunshine vitamin").Synthesis from exposure to sunlight and intake from the diet generally contribute to the maintenance of adequate serumconcentrations. Evidence indicates the synthesis of vitamin D from sun exposure is regulated by a negative feedback loop that prevents toxicity, but because of uncertainty about the cancer risk from sunlight, no recommendations are issued by the Institute of Medicine, USA, for the amount of sun exposure required to meet vitamin D requirements. Accordingly, the Dietary Reference Intakefor vitamin D assumes no synthesis occurs and all of a person's vitamin D is from food intake, although that will rarely occur in practice. As vitamin D is synthesized in adequate amounts by most mammals exposed to sunlight, it is not strictly a vitamin, and may be considered a hormone as its synthesis and activity occur in different locations. Its discovery was due to effort to find the dietary substance lacking in rickets (the childhood form of osteomalacia).Beyond its use to prevent osteomalacia or rickets, the evidence for other health effects of vitamin D supplementation in the general population is inconsistent. The best evidence of benefit is for bone health. The effect of vitamin D supplementation on mortality is not clear, with one meta-analysis finding a decrease in mortality in elderly people, and another concluding no clear justification exists for recommending vitamin D. Because it found mounting evidence for a benefit to bone health, and though it had not found good evidence of other benefits, the FDA intends to begin requiring manufacturers to declare the amount of Vitamin D on Nutrition Facts labels, because they are now "nutrients of public health significance." It's also preparing to increase the minimum recommended Daily Value (DV) for Vitamin D from 15 micrograms to 20 micrograms.In the liver, cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) is converted to calcidiol, which is also known as calcifediol (INN), 25- hydroxycholecalciferol, or 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 -- abbreviated 25(OH)D3. Ergocalciferol (vitamin D2) is converted in the liver to 25-hydroxyergocalciferol, also known as 25-hydroxyvitamin D2-- abbreviated 25(OH)D2. These two specific vitamin D metabolites are measured in serum to determine a person's vitamin D status. Part of the calcidiol is converted by the kidneys to calcitriol, the biologically active form of vitamin D. Calcitriol circulates as a hormone in the blood, regulating the concentration of calcium and phosphate in the bloodstream and promoting the healthy growth and remodeling of bone. Calcitriol also affects neuromuscular and immune function.
Orthopaedics
Metabolic Bone Disease
[ "calcitriol" ]
155,760
7294769c-d5ad-4e6d-83b8-9b2baa520337
Orderal poison is?
Physostigmine
Digoxin
Cocaine
Atropine
0a
single
Ans. (a) PhysostigmineRef.:Medical Toxicology edited by Richard C. Dard 3rd ed/567
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
[ "digoxin", "atropine", "physostigmine" ]
155,762
3dc58cfb-3856-4d05-9ee7-6a36f1d0a270
A child, known case of bronchial asthma, presents with respiratory distress with respiratory rate of 48/min, can speak barely 2 words. Nebulized salbutamol was given and patient could speak a sentence hut there was a fall in SpO2 from 95% to 85%. What could be the possible explanation?
Ventilation perfusion mismatch because of increased dead space ventilation
Intra-thoracic shunting
Due to salbutamol
Faulty pulse oximeter
0a
multi
Ans. a. Ventilation perfusion mismatch because of increased dead space ventilation (Ref: aryoftermspz/g/vqmis match.htm)Ventilation perfusion mismatch because of increased dead space ventilation could be the possible explanation for the child of bronchial asthma presenting with respiratory distress with respiratory rate of 48/min, speaking barely 2 words hut patient could speak a sentence with a fall in SpO2, from 95% to 85% when nebulized salbutamol was given.Ventilation Perfusion MismatchA defect, which occurs in the lungs whereby ventilation (the exchange of air between the lungs and the environment) and perfusion (the passage of blood through the lungs) are not evenly matched, a finding typical of bronchial asthma.V/Q mismatch is the most common cause of hypoxemia and a component of most causes of respiratory failure.In a patient with V/Q mismatch, there will most likely be some areas of the lungs, which are better perfused that ventilated and some areas which are better ventilated than perfused. While this occurs to some degree in the normal lung, in V/Q mismatch, it is increased significantly to the point of being pathological.In asthma, bronchospasm, mucus plugs, inflammation and airway obstruction in general worsen ventilation disrupting the balance between ventilation and perfusion
Pediatrics
Disorders of the Respiratory Tract
[ "salbutamol" ]
155,764
cfa09e2f-3d3e-4bf2-9a45-d10c2e6b8572
All of the following drugs are used to prevent relapse after alcohol de-addiction except -
Acamprosate
Disulfiram
Naltrexone
Fluoxetine
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fluoxetine Drugs used for alcohol dependence to prevent relapse are: a Naltrexane o Acamprosate o Ondansetron o Nalmefene o Disulfiram o Topiramate
Pharmacology
null
[ "disulfiram", "naltrexone", "fluoxetine" ]
155,782
86f5a09d-f170-4889-99a5-4b54bdab8cf7
Second generation anti-histaminics used in allergic rhinitis are
azelastine
Fexofenadine
Chlorpheniramine maleate
Desloratidine
0a
multi
Chlorpheniramine and promethazine are first generation anti-histaminics.
Pharmacology
null
[ "fexofenadine", "chlorpheniramine" ]
155,790
d734e151-67a1-4f44-be20-1811ce2d6256
A drug is shown to activate dopaminergic D1 and D2 and adrenergic α and β1 but not β2 receptors. Which of the following can be the drug being talked about?
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Methoxamine
Phenylephrine
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "phenylephrine", "dobutamine" ]
155,793
a2b1d6d7-e21d-490f-80d6-f4227fb8d456
A patient taking ketoconazole and terfenadine both, is prone to -
Cardiac arrythmia
Toxicity of ketoconazole
Congestive cardiac failure
All of the above
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cardiac arrhythmia o Terfenadine causes blockade of delayed rectifier K+ channels in the hea at higher concentration and can cause Torsades De Pointes (Polvmorph ventricular tachcardia) --> Prolonged QT interval. Drugs inhibiting the metabolism of terfenadine by inhibiting CYP3AY enzyme, can precipitate ventricular arrythmia Erythromycin, clarithromycin, itraconazole, ketoconazole.
Pharmacology
null
[ "ketoconazole" ]
155,807
236a5392-863a-4187-b7c1-a623c0a8231c
All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except :
Rifampicin
Digoxin
Chloroquine
Ethambutol
0a
multi
A i.e. Rifampicin Ethambutol, streptomycin & isoniazid are anti-tubercular agents that cause optic neuritis.Q Rifampicin does not cause optic neuritis.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "ethambutol", "digoxin", "chloroquine" ]
155,808
39bf4a08-de56-4812-8dc3-c0d86f8f2d32
Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine
One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery
Trimming of eyelashes
Use of intravitreal antibiotics
0a
single
"The only proven method of prophylaxis against postoperative endophthalmitis is sterile ophthalmic preparation using the povidone - iodine solution on the skin (5-10%) and in the conjunctival sac (5%)". — F. Steinest.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "povidone" ]
155,825
38a17ed8-096a-49ff-9107-4004a090320e
Amongst various treatment modalities for nocturnal enuresis, the relapse rates have been observed to be lowest for:
Desmopressin
Imipramine
Bell alarm systems
Oxybutinin
2c
single
Bell alarm system have lower relapse rates than other pharmacologic therapy like desmopressin, imipramine. 'Direct comparisons of bell and bed compared to pharmacologic therapy or the former because of lower relapse rates'. Ref: Nelson 18th Edition, Page 2250; A sho textbook of psychiatry- Niraj Ahuja 5th Edition, Page 176, 177
Pediatrics
null
[ "desmopressin", "imipramine" ]
155,832
9c0ff211-0e33-4e63-a254-37aa3c88b72a
Azathioprine is used as
Immunosuppressant
Antigout drug
Anti-retro virus
Anti- cancer
0a
single
CompoundUseNucleoside analogueBromodeoxyuridineaStudy cell proliferationThymidine analogueAllopurinalAnti gout drugHypoxanthine analogueAzathiopineImmunosuppressantPurine analogue
Biochemistry
null
[ "azathioprine" ]
155,853
42c34577-51af-4532-87e4-ae25f158bbde
A 3- year old boy is brought to the casualty by his mother with progressive shoness of breath for 1 day. The child has history of bronchial asthma. On examination , the child is blue, gasping and unresponsive What will you like to do first ?
Intubate
Administer 100 % oxygen by mask
Ventilate with bag and mask
Administer nebulised salbutamol
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Administer 100% 02 by mask o The symptoms given by the child shows that he is suffering from life threatening asthma. o Presence of any of the following indicates life threatening Asthma. a) Cyanosis b) Silent chest c) Poor respiratory effects d) Altered sensorium e) Exhauston, fatigue f) PEFR < 30 % of predicted and 02 saturation of < 90 % Management of life threatening asthma (status asthmaticus) 1) Immediate O2 inhalation 2) Injection of terbutaline or adrenaline (s.c.) 3) Inhalation of salbutamol or terbutaline and ipratropium 4) Injection of hydrocoisone 10mg/kg. o After the above-mentioned steps an arrangement is made to transfer the patient to ICU. o Now, it must be clear that the first step in cases of life threatening asthma is to administer 02, then medications (salbutamol & Terbutaline) Mechanical ventilation is indicated only if these measures fail and the condition of the patient fuher deteriorates.
Pediatrics
null
[ "salbutamol" ]
155,854
25d1efa3-4e9e-4c38-820e-e8cacb934bf2
All of the following indications of vasopressin are based on stimulation of V2 receptors EXCEPT :
Central diabetes insipidus
Bed wetting in children
von–Willebrand's disease
Esophageal varices
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "vasopressin" ]
155,862
2aea523d-79c9-4850-b37f-43f01549053f
Which of the following is associated with neutropenia?
Doxorubicin
Vinblastin
Cisplatin
Methotrexate
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "methotrexate", "doxorubicin", "cisplatin" ]
155,868
250fccc9-b463-4984-aa8a-c5bee7dc3f21
A patient of schizophrenia was started on a new drug, three months later she complains of weight gain. What is the most likely dug?
Olanzapine
Amisulpride
Risperidone
Haloperidol
0a
single
All atypical antipsychotics can lead to weight gain and Clozapine is associated with maximum risk of causing weight gain followed by Olanzapine. As Clozapine is not given in the options, Olanzapine is the correct answer.
Psychiatry
null
[ "olanzapine" ]
155,900
57ef3d8e-17ef-499c-a11d-886cf02840fa
Drug useful for gout :
Pyrazinamide
Rifampicin
Allopurinol
Naloxone
2c
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "naloxone", "allopurinol" ]
155,910
b381a740-bd5a-41b3-8773-fbae8ae9dc8c
A 2-year-old child diagnosed provisionally with diphtheria and on examination she has greyish white membrane patch around her tonsils. The child has a 6-year-old sibling at home, who is fully immunized as per the schedule. What is the best measure to prevent disease in the sibling of the child
Full course of DPT
Booster dose of DPT
Nothing is required to be done
Prophylactic erythromycin to be given
2c
multi
* For the contacts if the primary course of vaccination is less than 2 years- nothing is required* Vaccine is taken >2 years- 1 dose toxoid is required* Unimmunized contacts-antitoxin, active immunization, prophylactic penicillin or erythromycin and clinical observation for 1 week
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
[ "erythromycin" ]
155,929
fc080cf1-4751-4795-ae80-990a815b0c95
The anticancer drug belonging to inorganic metal complexes?
Dacarbazine
Cisplatin
Methotrexate
Vincristine
1b
single
Cisplatin, oxaliplatin, carboplatin belongs to platinum coordination complexes.Cisplatin-Most emetogenic. Ref: Sharma and Sharma 2nd e/pg 849
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "methotrexate", "vincristine", "cisplatin" ]
155,930
4895e544-a201-4f7f-a7a7-06d444dac19b
Which drug inhibits both cyclooxygenase and lipooxygenase?
Aspirin
Indomethacin
Imidazole
BW755
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., BW 755 DrugEnzyme inhibitedAspirinIndomethacinImidazoleBW 755CorticosteroidsCyclooxygenaseCyclooxygenaseThromboxane synthetaseCyclooxygenase and lipoxygenasePhospholipase A2
Pharmacology
Prostaglandins
[ "indomethacin" ]
155,941
0252962e-a4fd-4919-9a2b-3dac85066195
There is an outbreak of MRSA infection in a ward. What is the best way to control the infection
Vancomycin given emperically to all the patients
Fumigation of ward frequently
Washing hand before and after attending patients
Wearing mask before any invasive procedure in ICU
2c
multi
Hand washing, the oldest, simplest and most effective method of checking hospital cross an infection, which unfounately is often neglected. Ref: Ananthanarayan& Paniker&;s textbook of microbiology, 9th edition.
Microbiology
miscellaneous
[ "vancomycin" ]
155,947
b6d95155-9307-4353-a6fa-f1d476b2510b
Which of the following anti-cancer drug is NOT 's'-phase specific:
Methotrexate
Mercaptopurine
Ifosfamide
Thioguanine
2c
single
Cytotoxic drugs are either cell cycle specific (CCS) or cell cycle nonspecific (CCNS). (a) Cell cycle nonspecific Kill resting as well as dividing cells, e.g. nitrogen mustard, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, carmustine, dacarbazine, busulfan, L-asparaginase, cisplatin, procarbazine, actinomycin D. (b) Cell cycle specific Kill only actively dividing cells. Their toxicity is generally expressed in S phase. However, these drugs may show considerable phase selectivity, e.g.- G1: Vinblastine. S : Mtx, cytarabine, 6-TG, 6-MP, 5-FU, hydroxyurea, mitomycin C, doxorubicin, daunorubicin. G2: Daunorubicin, bleomycin, etoposide, topotecan. M: Vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:830
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "methotrexate" ]
155,952
4c7ba2c2-b050-4ec4-af1a-e00d461ff72d
Shoest acting local anaesthetic
Procaine
lidocaine
Bupivacaine
Chloroprocaine
3d
single
.
Anatomy
All India exam
[ "chloroprocaine", "procaine", "xylocaine", "bupivacaine" ]
155,963
7a4a7e23-8b00-42c3-8fd0-b132e0ff0dc5
The following adverse drug reaction seen in colonoscopy view is due to
Cascara
Bisacodyl
Castor oil
Loperamide
0a
single
The picture shows Melanosis coli caused by Senna and cascara which are stimulant purgatives.bisacodyl usually cause hypokalemiaRef: KD Tripathi 7th ed pg 673
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "bisacodyl", "loperamide" ]
155,967
f2eab10f-dd28-49e6-8ee6-750c0f1b6644
Zero order kinetics occur in following drug with high dose ?
Phenytoin and Theophylline
Digoxin and Propranolol
Amiloride and Probenecid
Lithium and Theophylline
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "propranolol", "theophylline", "probenecid", "phenytoin", "digoxin" ]
155,970
57a44469-fc94-4e51-8c17-e4a046532677
A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come?
Penicillin G
Ceftriaxone + metronidazole
Doxycycline
Cefotaxime + vancomycin
3d
single
Ans. (D) Cefotaxime + vancomycin(Ref: Harrison 18/e p3414)Antibiotics Used in Empirical Therapy of Bacterial Meningitis and Focal CNS InfectionsIndicationAntibioticInfants <3 monthsAmpicillin + Cefotaxime3 months to 55 yearsCefotaxime (Ceftriaxone) + VancomycinAdults >55 yearsAmpicillin + Cefotaxime (Ceftriaxone) + VancomycinHospital-acquired meningitis post-traumatic or post-neurosurgery meningitis, neutropenic patients, or patients with impaired cell-mediated immunityVancomycin + Cefepime
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy: General Principles
[ "vancomycin", "cefotaxime", "metronidazole", "doxycycline", "ceftriaxone" ]
155,992
4d8a8eba-8ddc-4adf-9546-56ae2ad89ae4
Drug used in ameliorative test for myasthenia gravis is
d-TC
Edrophonium
Pyridostigmine
Tacrine
1b
single
.
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "edrophonium" ]
156,000
e5022430-072e-4642-bb39-c756998637bc
Which of the following is true regarding intravenous administration of chemotherapy?
Subcutaneous extravasation of carmustine (BCNU) or 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) usually causes ulceration
Extravasation of doxorubicin rarely causes serious ulceration because the agent binds quickly to tissue nucleic acid
Serious and progressive ulceration can be expected following extravasation of vincristine or vinblastine
Problems of wound healing should be anticipated if systemic 5-FU therapy is begun less than 2 week postoperatively
3d
multi
Since chemotherapy is generally most effective in killing rapidly dividing cells, the rapidly dividing cells of a fresh surgical wound should be in jeopardy when chemotherapy is given in the early postoperative period. Each of the phases of normal wound healing is theoretically at risk from one or another class of chemotherapeutic agents. Immediately following wounding, inflammation and vascular permeability lead to fibrin deposition and polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN), monocyte, and platelet influx. Macrophages are attracted by the activated complement system. By the fourth day the proliferative phase begins, and for the next 20 days fibroblasts produce mucopolysaccharides and collagen. Cross-linking of the collagen fibers then continues for several months in the maturation phase. It seems logical to delay antineoplastic agents for 10-14 days unless there are compelling clinical indications (e.g., superior vena cava syndrome) for more urgent treatment. Administration of folinic acid simultaneously with methotrexate normalizes wound healing. Extravasation of chemotherapeutic agents during intravenous administration may result in severe ulceration and sloughing. The nature of the injury is largely related to the nucleic-acid binding characteristics of the agent. Those agents that do not bind to tissue nucleic acid (vincristine, vinblastine, nitrogen mustard, BCNU, 5-FU) generally cause only local damage from the immediate injury. These substances are quickly metabolized or inactivated, and usual patterns of wound healing can be expected. On the other hand, agents that bind the nucleic acid (doxorubicin, dactinomycin, mitomycin C, mithramycin, and daunorubicin) cause not only immediate toxic reaction in the tissues but, unless excised, continuing and progressive tissue damage. Though some authors have reported success with elevation and ice packs, most recommend surgical excision if there is severe pain, any sign of early necrosis, or significant blistering.
Surgery
Transplantation
[ "vincristine", "doxorubicin", "fluorouracil" ]
156,005
4bd577c0-eb1c-48a1-86fd-70f03f00c6cb
Which of the following has cytoplasmic receptor
Epinephrine
Insulin
PSH
Coisol
3d
single
Coisol has cytoplasmic receptor Ref-KDT 6/e p280
Anatomy
General anatomy
[ "epinephrine" ]
156,034
46adb04e-0762-43c5-b555-95c2904e663a
A resident doctor sustained a needle stick injury while sampling blood of patient who is HIV positive. A decision is taken to often him postexposure prophylaxis. Which one of the following would be the best recommendation:
Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks
Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks
Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks
Zidovudine + Stavudine + nevirapine for 4 weeks
2c
single
Ans. (c) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks
Microbiology
null
[ "lamivudine", "zidovudine", "nevirapine", "stavudine", "indinavir" ]
156,064
84d903d5-be58-4c04-b59d-08a4d1c147a0
All are vasodilator except
Procaine
Lidocaine
Cocaine
Chloroprocaine
2c
multi
.
Anatomy
All India exam
[ "chloroprocaine", "procaine", "lidocaine" ]
156,070
a2e365f7-25de-48f5-9266-7463416544a2
Triple Marker test includes :
hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estriol
hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estradiol
hCG, PAPP-A, unconjugated estriol
Inhibin A, hCG & PAPP-A
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estriol Triple Marker Test* This is a screening test done between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation, mainly to identify a mother who is at a high risk of having a fetus with trisomy 21. It involves estimation of 3 hormones: HCG, AFP, and unconjugated estriol (UE3).InterpretationTrisomyhCGAFPUE3Down syndrome (T 21)|||Edward syndrome (T 18)|||
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
[ "estriol" ]
156,072
fafe5cfe-5a37-4f3a-b727-6c60c59fe09a
Scopolamine is used mostly in:
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Vomiting
Constipation
Motion sickness
3d
single
(Ref: Katzung's Pharma, 14th ed. pg. 135)* Scopolamine (hyoscine) is a prototypic muscarinic receptor antagonist and is one of the best agents for the prevention of motion sickness.* Scopolamine has many effects in the body including decreasing the secretion of fluids, slowing the stomach and intestines, and dilation of the pupils.* Scopolamine is also used to relieve nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with motion sickness and recovery 3 from anesthesia and surgery.
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "scopolamine" ]
156,076
8e676f84-d9aa-4af3-b11c-557e8af7d5d3
Flumazenil is -
Diazepam inverse agonist
Diazepam antagonist
Opioid antagonist
Opioid inverse agonist
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Diazepam antagonist
Pharmacology
null
[ "flumazenil", "diazepam" ]
156,086
f47e6530-7928-427e-a7d5-7a906abbd7e2
A person was brought to emergency depament and was diagnosed with Supra ventricular tachycardia and suddenly he became unstable. What is the next line of management?
Intravenous ibutilide
DC Cardioversion
Intravenous Diltiazem
Intravenous Flecainide
1b
single
Here in the question vital are unstable. So the best therapy will be DC cardioversion. Treatment for Supra Ventricular tachycardia: Amiodarone forstablepatients DC Cardioversion forunstablepatients.
Medicine
NEET Jan 2020
[ "flecainide", "diltiazem", "ibutilide" ]
156,093
640f1494-b535-413f-9efc-b9a6e0c2de6f
Both fenfluramine and phentermine
Produce central nervous system stimulation
Act to suppress appetite
Are effective in treating narcolepsy
Have been used in children with attention deficit disorders
1b
multi
. Both fenfluramine and phentermine have been successfully used, alone and in combination, for the treatment of obesity. They apparently reduce appetite by affecting the satiety centers in the hypothalamus. Whereas phentermine is a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant related to the amphetamines and is believed to act by releasing norepinephrine from CNS neurons, fenfluramine causes lethargy and sedation and acts by augmenting serotonin neurotransmission. For this reason, the drugs may be used together without causing excessive CNS stimulation or depression.
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "fenfluramine" ]
156,137
6f6741e4-6fa0-4171-a5f6-7a93a26d9883
Treatment of choice of scabies in pregnancy ?
Ivermectin
Garna-benzen hexachloride
Permethrin
Garna-benzen hexachloride
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Permethrin 'Premethrin is the drug of choice for infants as well as pregnant and nursing women'. -- Evidence based dermatology Alternatives are benzyl-benzoate and crotamitone. Gamma benzen hexachloride and ivermectin are not recommended.
Skin
null
[ "ivermectin" ]
156,170
fa1acbf7-00b5-4416-b2b6-0bf6dc4d67b5
Relaxation of mesangial cells of the kidney is brought about by
cAMP
Endothelin
PGF2
Vasopressin
0a
single
Substances causing relaxation of mesangial cells -        ANP -        Dopamine -        PGE2 -        cAMP Substances causing contraction of mesangial cells -        Endothelin -        Vasopressin -        PGF2 -        Angiotensin II -        Norepinephrine -        PAF -        PDGF -        Thromboxane A2 -        Leukotrienes C4, D4 -        Histamine
Physiology
null
[ "vasopressin" ]
156,172
194cb113-ba9a-45f1-aea2-3931adf421a3
Small amount of atropine is added to diphenoxylate because
Suppress vomiting in gastro enteritis
Increase anti motility action
Block side effects of diphenoxylate
To decrease abuse of diphenoxylate
3d
multi
Atropine is an anti muscarinic drug diphenoxylate is an opoid drug which when given has propey of abuse hence atropine is added to it aas the anti muscarinic side effects of atropine will decrease the abuse of the drug. ReF:KDT 6/e p664
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "atropine" ]
156,177
a7649429-c62e-458c-b0d0-a2e923c79846
Severely injured patient with spinal fractrue and unconsciousness first thing to be done is
GCS scoring
Spinal stabilization by cervical collar
Mannitol drip to decrease ICT
Airway maintenance
3d
multi
D i.e. Airway maintenance Management of Polytrauma Patients / Life threatening conditions* The assessment of severely injured patient consists of four overlapping phases:1) Rapid primary evaluation2) Restoration of vital functions3) Detailed secondary evaluation and4) Definitive care* The ABC,s of trauma care identifies & treat life threatening conditions - and can be rememebered as Airway maintenanceQ, with cervical spine control. The cervical spine should be carefully protected at all time and not be hyperextended, hyper flexed or rotated to obtain a patent airway. A chin lift or jaw thurst maneuver should be used to establish an air way.BreathingQ with special emphasis on tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorx, flail chest with pulmonarycontusion & massive hemothorax.CirculationQDisability (neurological status) by Glasgow coma scaleExposure and environmental control (undress the patient but prevent hypothermia)= Fracture splintageQ . Recognition & splintage of major fracture, adequate immobilization of cervical spineQ, and proper handling of injured patient are essential to prevent fuher damage to theneurovsculr elements. As a general rule following measures should be taken:- The joints above & below the fracture should be immobilized. Splints can be improvised with pillows, blanket or clothing.- Immobilization does not need to be absolutely rigid.- Over bleeding should be temponaded with dressing & firm pressure- Tourniquet should be avoided, unless it is obvious that the patient's life is in danger.
Surgery
null
[ "mannitol" ]
156,186
1e9a513f-0a52-4bda-92ab-8f27eb82ec98
Male with erythematous patch over penis after taking an over the counter medicine. Causal drug is:
Azithromycin
Ofloxacin
Doxycycline
Aceclofenac
3d
single
Ans. D. AceclofenacRef: Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas and Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 7th/ed p498-99Explanation# Findings given in question are suggestive of 'fixed drug eruptions (FDE)'.# Among the given options ofloxacin, doxycycline and azithromycin are prescription only drugs hence most probably the answer is aceclofenac.# If in question 'over the counter' has not been mentioned then the answer will be doxycycline.# A FDE is an adverse cutaneous reaction to an ingested drug, characterized by the formation of a solitary (but at times multiple) erythematous patch or plaque.# If the patient is rechallenged with the offending drug, the FDE occurs repeatedly at the identical skin site (i.e., fixed) within hours of ingestion.# Usually asymptomatic. May be pruritic, painful, or burning.# Time to onset oflesion(s): Occur from 30 min to 8 h after ingestion of drug in previously sensitized individual.# Duration oflesion(s): Lesions persist if drug is continued. Resolve days to few weeks after drug is discontinued.* Tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline)* Sulfonamides, other sulfa drugs* Metronidazole, nystatin, salicylates, NSAIDs, phenylbutazone, phenacetin* Barbiturates* Oral contraceptives* Quinine (including quinine in tonic water), quinidine* Phenolphthalein* Food coloring (yellow): in food or medications
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
[ "azithromycin", "doxycycline", "ofloxacin" ]
156,198
1b059bd2-20df-4b23-bdc6-21b5fb27e678
Leukotriene receptor antagonist used for bronchial asthama is
Zafirlukast
Zileuton
Cromolyn Sodium
Aminophylline
0a
single
Examples for leukotriene receptor antagonist are Montelukast and Zafirlukast ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY 8TH EDITON Page No :222
Pharmacology
Respiratory system
[ "zileuton", "zafirlukast", "cromolyn" ]
156,220
61d5dcb7-22f4-46e4-b2a4-044b7897d26e
Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is
Ketamine
Etomidate
Propofol
Thiopentone
1b
single
Synthesis of adrenal steroids (both mineral and glucocorticoids) is inhibited by etomidate.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "etomidate", "ketamine", "propofol" ]
156,223
55bc3680-d6b6-465e-af4b-291c5d797c2c
DPP4 inhibitor requiring dose reduction in both liver and kidney failure
Linagliptin
Sitagliptin
Saxagliptin
Vildagliptin
3d
multi
Vildagliptin require and of both reductions in liver and kidney failure.Ref: KDT 7TH/275
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "sitagliptin" ]
156,225
cb016b55-8a47-4111-86d5-294972ae5c3c
On exposure to air urine colour changes to olive green in poison in -
Carbolic acid
Cyclophosphamide
Phenopthalein
Ethelene glycol
0a
single
BLADDER AND KIDNEYS Blue- or green-colored urine Decreased urine output No urine output EYES, EARS, NOSE, MOUTH, AND THROAT Severe burns in the mouth and food pipe (esophagus) Yellow eyes STOMACH AND INTESTINES Abdominal pain - severe Bloody stools Diarrhea Nausea and vomiting - possibly bloody Stomach pain HEA AND BLOOD Low blood pressure Rapid hea rate LUNGS AND AIRWAYS Deep, rapid breathing Wheezing Trouble breathing (may be lifethreatening if inhaled) NERVOUS SYSTEM Coma (decreased level of consciousness and lack of responsiveness) Seizures Hyperactivity Lack of aleness (stupor) SKIN Blue lips and fingernails Burns Yellow skin WHOLE BODY Excessive thirst Heavy sweating Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 790
Medicine
Toxicology
[ "cyclophosphamide" ]
156,249
344bfd7c-15fd-4487-9135-6cf2b7587f05
Cryoprecipitate is useful in?
Hemophilia A
Thrombosthenia
A fibrogenemi a
Warfarin reversal
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Afibrogenemia Cryoprecipitate was originally developed for the treatment of hemophilia A. It is no longer the treatment of choice for that disorder because less infectious alternatives are available. At the present time, Cryoprecipitate is most often used for correction of hypofibrinogenemia in bleeding patients.
Pathology
null
[ "warfarin" ]
156,270
91d7e986-4531-4f51-8fdf-37d8e046d56b
Treatment of choice for extended spectrum betalactamase producing enterococci
Amoxicillin-clavalunic acid
Piperacillin-Tazobactam
Ampicillin only
Ampicillin + Sulbactam
1b
single
Ans. b. Piperacillin-Tazobactam
Pharmacology
null
[ "ampicillin" ]
156,272
92210f93-1821-4dd8-b730-c1d26416faad
A 5-year old child of severe nephrotic syndrome on treatment with tacrolimus, frusemide and prednisolone developed seizures. The investigations revealed: Serum Na+ = 136 mEq/L Blood urea = 78 mg/dL Serum creatinine = 0.5 mg/dL Serum albumin = 1.5 g/dL Serum total Ca = 7.5 mg/dL Urine albumin = 2g What is the likely cause of symptoms in this baby?
Hypocalcemia
Tacrolimus toxicity
Uremia
Hyponatremia
1b
single
To get to the answer, we will look at the options one by one. Hypocalcemia Serum calcium in this boy is 7.5 mg/dL. Hypocalcemia can result in seizures but the level should be very low. Further, if we correct calcium with serum albumin, it will come in normal range. Corrected calcium level in the serum can be calculated by adding 0.8 mg/dL With every 1.0 g/dL decrease in serum albumin below the normal value of 4.0 g/dL. Hence, in this patient, corrected serum calcium level will be 7.5 + 0.8 x (4.0 - 1.5) = 9.5 mg/ dL It is in the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and thus cannot be the cause of seizures in this person. Uremia Although blood urea is elevated (78 mg/dL as compared to normal value of 15-40 mg/dL) but serum creatinine is normal (0.5 mg/dL). For diagnosis of uremia, serum creatinine must be 3 times the normal value. Thus, uremia cannot be the answer. Hyponatremia Serum sodium is at lower normal value (136-152 mEq/L). For causing seizures, serum sodium should be less than 125 mEq/L. Therefore, this option can also be ruled out. Tacrolimus toxicity This child is on tacrolimus therapy. It is a known neurotoxin and can cause seizures. It also can cause renal failure. Further by ruling out other options, the most likely cause seems to be tacrolimus toxicity.
Pharmacology
null
[ "prednisolone", "tacrolimus" ]
156,278
358ed04c-e086-43be-8dcb-fa3f4e18f566
A patient requires mild cholinomimetic stimulation following surgery. Physostigmine and bethanechol in small doses has significantly different effect on which of the following
Gastric secretion
Neuromuscular junction
Sweat glands
UreterAl tone
1b
multi
Refer katzung 11e p 98 Bethanechol Acts on muscarinic receptors only whereas is physostigmine increases acetylcholine,thus can stimulate both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. Neuromuscular junction contains in Nm receptors, thus will be affected by physostigmine and not with bethanechol.
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
[ "bethanechol", "physostigmine" ]
156,287
8d35b530-55cb-485b-81e7-f7aaf1b1a28a
A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased sweating. What is the next best step -
Lytic cocktail
Atropine
Antevenom
Local lidocaine infiltration
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lytic cocktail o Lytic cocktail contains promethazine + pethidine + chlorpromazine. o Lytic cocktail therapy alone or in combination with steroids is useful in the treatment of peripheral circulatory failure in scorpion sting.
Pediatrics
null
[ "xylocaine", "atropine" ]
156,289
5cf3b365-0b2c-4d89-8153-c16336b5b07b
An unconcious patient of head injury comes in casualty. On examination shows raised intracranial pressure. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated:
Thiopentone
Propofol
Ketamine
Etomidate
2c
single
C i.e. Ketamine Ketamine causes increase in all pressure i.e. intracranial, intraocular, intragastric and intravascular (Blood) pressure. So it is not used in raised ICT/IOT & Hypeension as it may increase the pressure to morbid levels.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "etomidate", "ketamine", "propofol" ]
156,290
3e0adfef-5961-4fa9-9eb0-8e6cfccdc2ed
Methylphenidate is the DOC for -
Autism
ADHD
Dyslexia
Pervasive disorder
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., ADHD Drugs used for ADHDCNS StimulantsOther drugso Methylphenidate (DOC)o D exmethylphenidateo Dextroamphetamine oro Dextroamphetamine + amphetamineo Modafmilo Atomoxetineo Bupropiono Venlafaxineo a-agonists (clonidine, guanfacine
Social & Preventive Medicine
Mental Health
[ "methylphenidate" ]
156,303
ee85d7ee-994e-4c6e-9619-3a6e96e3dfe9
Sunder, a young male was diagnosed as suffering from acute myeloid leukemia. He was staed on induction chemotherapy with Anticancer drugs. Induction regimen was successful. Two months later, he presents to OPD with swelling of both the feet and breathlessness on climbing the stairs. He also complains the he had to wake up many times because of breathlessness. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
Cisplatin
Methotrexate
Doxorubicin
Vincristine
2c
multi
Anthracyclines (daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin and idarubicin) can cause severe cardiotoxicity manifesting as dilated cardiomyopathy and arrhythmias. Anthracycline chemotherapeutic agents form free radicals in the myocardium. Their most severe side effect is a cumulative dose related dilated cardiomyopathy. It presents with symptoms of left and right ventricular CHF.
Pharmacology
Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
[ "methotrexate", "vincristine", "doxorubicin", "cisplatin" ]
156,304
96ab1e65-dce9-458a-9bf9-a4e4974704f8
Which of the following drug can be used in both Type 1 & Type 2 DM?
Metformin
Rapaglinide
Pramlintide
Sitagliptin
2c
multi
Pramlintide is a synthetic analogue of Amylin which is the only drug other than Insulin that can be used in both Type 1 & Type 2 DM.
Pharmacology
null
[ "sitagliptin", "pramlintide", "metformin" ]
156,307
2d4c3d41-4b62-48b6-9fd4-97bd4a1ee1b5
Drug which is NOT contra-indicated in pregnancy: March 2011
Propyl-thiouracil
Radioactive Iodine
Valproate
Warfarin
0a
single
Ans. A: Propyl-thiouracil Thioamide drugs (methyl and propyl thiouracil, methimazole and carbimazole) can also be used during pregnancy (the lowest possible dose should be used) The foetal thyroid is extremely susceptible to radiation and may be quickly destroyed. Propylthiouracil/ PTU/ 6-n-Propylthiouracil It is a thioamide drug used to treat hypehyroidism (including Graves' disease) by decreasing the amount of thyroid hormone produced by the thyroid gland. Its notable side effects include a risk of agranulocytosis. PTU inhibits the enzyme thyroperoxidase, which normally acts in thyroid hormone synthesis by oxidizing the anion iodide (I-) to iodine (10), facilitating iodine's addition to tyrosine residues on the hormone precursor thyroglobulin. This is one of the essential steps in the formation of thyroxine (T4). PTU does not inhibit the action of the sodium-dependent iodide transpoer located on follicular cells' basolateral membranes. Inhibition of this step requires competitive inhibitors, such as perchlorate and thiocyanate. PTU also acts by inhibiting the enzyme 5'-deiodinase (tetraiodothyronine 5' deiodinase), which conves T4 to the active form T3. (This is in contrast to methimazole, which shares propylthiouracil's central mechanism, but not its peripheral one) Administration is oral, with peak serum concentrations occurring in one hour, and actively concentrated to the thyroid gland. The drug is approximately 70% protein-bound and significantly ionized at normal physiologic pH, while the antithyroid agent methimazole is substantially less protein bound. However both are equally transferred across the placenta. Less than 10% of the drug is excreted unchanged, with the remaining fraction undergoing extensive hepatic metabolism glucuronidation. One side effect is agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia A more life threatening side effect is sudden, severe, fulminant hepatic failure occurs in up to 1 in 10,000 people taking propylthiouracil. PTU is preferred over methimazole only in the first trimester of pregnancy and in woman who may become pregnant. In the second and third trimester, methimazole is preferred.
Pharmacology
null
[ "valproate", "warfarin" ]
156,338
6ae1a364-6e1f-4f2a-a369-ee749031b4fe
A 57-year- old lady came with chief complaints of fatigue. On fuher questioning, she reveals that she has gained 5 kg weight in one month. She has been taking L-thyroxine for hypothyroidism since 10 years and fairly controlled. Recently she was staed on an anti-arrhythmic drug for treatment of his cardiac condition. The symptoms staed after sta of this drug. Most likely anti-arrhythmic drug she was prescribed is?
Lignocaine
Amiodarone
Procainamide
Verapamil
1b
single
The patient is already a case of hypothyroidism stabilized on thyroxine. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug with side effects on the thyroid gland and thyroid hormones. It inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. It contains iodine and can inhibit the formation of thyroid hormones. Most likely Amiodarone would have resulted in loss of control over the hypothyroidism. Procainamide, lidocaine and verapamil are also anti-arrhythmics but have no role on thyroid.
Pharmacology
Endocrine
[ "amiodarone", "procainamide", "verapamil", "thyroxine" ]
156,377
e43b7952-929f-4da7-937f-65276d68d943
Features of depolarising neuromuscular blocking agents are all/ except
Cause muscle fascicutation
No fade
No post tetanic facilitation
Reversed by neostigmine
3d
multi
D i.e. Reversed by neostigmine
Anaesthesia
null
[ "neostigmine" ]
156,401
944a4b14-2f91-4c9f-b541-a37b758b9abf
A 55-year-old female with painful chronic diarrhea, multiple recurrent duodenal ulcers, and increased basal gastric acid output is most likely to hav
A gastrin-secreting tumor of the pancreas
A serotonin-secreting tumor of the ileum
A somatostatin-secreting tumor of the duodenum
An epinephrine-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla
0a
single
Functional islet cell tumors of the pancreas secrete specific substances that result in several syndromes. Pancreatic gastrinomas (tumors of the G cells of the pancreas) secrete gastrin and are a cause of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. This syndrome consists of intractable gastric hypersecretion, severe peptic ulceration of the duodenum and jejunum, and high serum levels of gastrin. The majority of gastrinomas are malignant. Insulinomas (tumors of b cells) are the most common islet cell neoplasm and are usually benign. Symptoms include low blood sugar, hunger, sweating, and nervousness. Glucagonomas (islet cell tumors of the a cells) secrete glucagon and are characterized by mild diabetes, anemia, venous thrombosis, severe infections, and a migratory, necrotizing, erythematous skin rash. d cell tumors, which secrete somatostatin, produce a syndrome associated with mild diabetes, gallstones, steatorrhea, and hypochlorhydria. The majority of d cell tumors are malignant. D1 tumors produce Verner-Morrison syndrome, which is characterized by explosive, profuse diarrhea with hypokalemia and hypochlorhydria. This combination of symptoms is referred to as pancreatic cholera Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition
Pathology
miscellaneous
[ "epinephrine" ]
156,419
01462b95-ec1e-4187-999e-44e9ed52cb27
All are endogenous catecholamines except :
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Dobutamine
3d
multi
Dobutamine ] Catecholamines are compound containing catechol nucleus and a side chain containing amine group.
Pharmacology
null
[ "epinephrine", "dobutamine" ]
156,430
6f44eae9-db68-4e8d-a32e-eaf95a3f8d51
Regarding, Kleine-Levin syndrome which of the following is not true?
Hypersomnia
Hyposexuality
Modafinil is DOC
Also called sleeping beauty syndrome
1b
multi
Klein - Levine syndrome is a type of Hypersomnia It consists of triad of - Hypersomnia - Hyperphagia - Hypersexuality Treatment - modafinil(DOC)
Psychiatry
Sleep Disorders
[ "modafinil" ]
156,431
9fc10e17-c074-4ca4-a5fa-31f39535fafc
Drug/s causing SIADH include -
Chlorpropamide
Oxytocin
Cyclophosphamide
All of the above
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Drugs causing syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)* Vasopressin or desmopressin* Chlorpropamide* Oxytocin, high dose* Vincristine or vinblastine* Carbamazepine* Nicotine* Phenothiazines* Cyclophosphamide* Tricyclic antidepressants* Monoamine oxidase inhibitors* Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "oxytocin", "chlorpropamide", "cyclophosphamide" ]
156,439
76fff183-5954-4cc7-9f4d-fd6da9840f0f
A 28-year-old HIV patient presents with non-productive cough and difficulty in breathing which was progressively increasing. Chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates along with pneumatocele. Gomori's methenamine silver staining of the bronchoalveolar lavage shows the following. The most probable causative organism is
H.capsulatum
P.jirovecii
R.seeberi
C.neoformans
1b
single
The given clinical picture and the GMS stain showing the black colored stained cysts resembling the crushed ping pong balls are suggestive of pneumocystis pneumonia. It is caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii. Patients with PCP generally present with fever and cough that is usually non-productive. Finding on chest x-ray is either a normal film if the disease is suspected early, or diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates. The classic finding of dense perihilar infiltrate is unusual in patients with AIDS. Treatment: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and pentamidine isethionate. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
Microbiology
mycology
[ "methenamine" ]
156,440
78134470-cdca-4cd7-96e6-4fe4fef6ca25
A 30-year-old male, Rajinder presents to OPD your office with fatigue, muscle weakness and headache. His blood pressure is 170/120 mm Hg and his hea rate is 100/min. Laboratory evaluation reveals hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and decreased plasma renin activity. On CT scan, a mass was noted on left suprarenal gland. Patient was prescribed a drug for few weeks and the symptoms subsided. Laboratory values and blood pressure returned to normal values. The likely drug given to this patient is?
Clonidine
Propanolol
Hydrochlorothiazide
Spironolactone
3d
single
(Ref: KK Sharma 2/e p233) Mosty likely diagnosis in this patient is aldosterone secreting tumor (adenoma) leading to primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's Syndrome). Aldosterone excess will cause hypeension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and depressed renin. Aldosterone antagonists such as spironolactone or eplerenone can be used as medical therapy for Conn's syndrome.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "hydrochlorothiazide", "spironolactone", "clonidine" ]
156,449
0864976a-ae1f-4524-b0f9-29f3b5081cab
Alzheimer's disease is treated by:
Neostigmine
Rivastigmine
Trihexyphenidyl
Benztropine
1b
single
Ans. B. Rivastigminea. The mainstay of therapy for patients with Alzheimer disease (AD) is the use of centrally acting cholinesterase inhibitors to attempt to compensate for the depletion of acetylcholine (ACh) in the cerebral cortex and hippocampusb. Rivastigmine, Galantamine, Donepezil are centrally acting ChE inhibitors used for Alzheimer's disease. Donepezil is long acting and can be used once daily. Rivastigmine is also available as a transdermal patchc. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist is also used for Alzheimer's.
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
[ "benztropine", "neostigmine", "rivastigmine", "trihexyphenidyl" ]
156,450
732441d6-e968-459d-9b86-9d043b5e4317
what is the drug of choice for management of dystonia
trihexyphenidyl
propanolol
vitamin E
clonazepam
0a
single
Acute dystonia * <48 hours of staing antipsychotics * M.C in======Younger black males * If a patient develops dystonia he is more prone for eps Patient considers this as an Allergic reaction , thereby may stop drugs Layryngeal dystonia is a Psychiatric emergency, should be treated with IV lorazepam TREATMENT * Diphenhydramine * Benztropine mesylate * Prophylactic anticholinergics helps Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 925
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
[ "trihexyphenidyl" ]
156,457
3636fd8c-023a-493f-963f-737f0765c2de
The drug prednisolone is known to be a powerful anti- inflammatory agent. This is true due to the action of the drug on which of the following enzymes?
Cyclo oxygenase
Lipoxygenase
Phospholipase A
Phosphodiesterase
2c
multi
-Steroids inhibit phospholipase A2 enzyme by causing induction of proteins called Annexins. -Phospholipase A2 is involved in formation of PG (Prostaglandin) and LT(leukotriene)
Pharmacology
Adrenal
[ "prednisolone" ]
156,459
744e8ffa-0a30-4dca-a938-c63b99415477
Lower esophageal sphincter pressure is increased by all of the following substances, EXCEPT:
Gastrin
Vasopressin
Glucagon
Secretin
3d
multi
The lower esophageal sphincter, a physiologic entity but not an anatomic structure, plays an impoant pa in preventing gastroesophageal reflux. Neural, hormonal, myogenic, and mechanical factors influence the tone of the sphincter. Gastrin, vasopressin, glucagon, adrenergic agonists, and cholinergic agents increase the pressure. Secretin has the opposite effect REF: GUYTON 12TH ED
Physiology
All India exam
[ "vasopressin", "glucagon" ]
156,474
1f09b29f-43fe-4229-8c2b-fe0008d70a30
All the following regarding histoplasmosis are true except -
Very rare in patients with AIDS
Bone marrow is involved
Gomori Methenamine silver stain used
Dimorphic fungi
0a
multi
null
Microbiology
null
[ "methenamine" ]
156,478
e0992ffc-55b5-4b43-ba6e-e25b3b651b21
For a child 3-5 months age with H1N1, treatment Oseltamivir dose is
20 mg OD X 5 days
12 mg BD X 5 days
25 mg BD X 5 days
20 mg BD X 5 days
3d
single
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu ) is the drug of choice for swine flu H1N1 But it's dose is given according to the age and weight of the person. Age >3 months to 12 months - 3 mg/kg BD x 5 Days >1 month to 3 months - 2.5 mg/kg BD x 5 Days 0 to 1 month - 2 mg/kg BD x 5 Days Weight <15 kg - 30 mg BD x 5 Days 15-23 kg - 45 mg BD x 5 Days 24-40 kg - 60 mg BD x 5 Days >40 kg - 75 mg BD x 5 Days
Social & Preventive Medicine
FMGE 2018
[ "oseltamivir" ]
156,484
22ccfc63-1a08-47db-9b75-fa0e926c04c1
Imatinib primarily acts by inhibiting:
BCR-ABL
Tyrosine kinase
PGDFR
None
1b
multi
Ans. (B) Tyrosine kinase(Ref: KDT 8th/e p929)Imatinib inhibits tyrosine kinase linked withabl-bcr fusionPDGF receptorc-kit receptor
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy: General Principles
[ "imatinib" ]
156,489
27681d39-5515-4391-b893-ecd5b29c16b3
Which one of the following drugs does not undergo the first-pass effect?
Propanolol
Lidocaine
Insulin
Morphine
2c
single
Insulin bypasses hepatic effect. Pg.no. 260 KD TRIPATHI Seventh edition Drugs that undergo first-pass elimination are opioids, beta-adrenergic blockers, progesterone, isosorbide dinitrate etc. Subcutaneous administration of insulin delivered into the peripheral circulation can lead to near-normal glycemia but differs from the physiological secretion of insulin in two major ways: * The absorption kinetics do not reproduce the rapid rise and decline of endogenous insulin in response to changes in blood glucose. * Injected insulin is delivered into the peripheral circulation instead of being released into the poal circulation. Thus, the poal/peripheral insulin concentration is not physiological, and this may alter the influence of insulin on hepatic metabolism. Pg no 1248 Goodman and Gillmann 12th edition Pg no 17 sathoskar 25th edition
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
[ "morphine", "lidocaine" ]
156,499
07229e33-e44d-4000-af2a-5d51a05eb98c
Contraindications for medical method (mifepristone misoprostol) of first trimester MTP?
Patient with hemoglobin of 7 gm%
Suspected ectopic pregnancy
Glaucoma
All of the above
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the aboveContraindications (due to medical reasons) for medical method of aboion:Smoking > 35 yearsHemoglobin < 8 g%Ectopic pregnancy/ adnexal massCoagulopathyChronic adrenal failureUncontrolled hypeension ( BP>160/100mmHg)CVDSevere renal, hepatic or respiratory diseasesGlaucomaUncontrolled seizureAllergy or intolerance to mifepristone /misoprostol or other prostaglandinsLack of access to 24 hours emergency services
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "mifepristone", "misoprostol" ]
156,507
8efba0b4-2eb6-4114-84f5-3553c344dca6
Which of the following is best for reducing proteinuria in diabetic patient
Metaprolol
Perindopril
Chlohiazide
Clonidine
1b
single
Refer CMDT 2010/1105 An ACE inhibitor in normotensive Diabetic impedes progression to proteinuria and prevents the excretion in albumin excretion rate
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "clonidine" ]
156,539
1d18beff-ebc7-46c3-bba6-15d9dc8383c5
The antifungal which has a bactericidal mode of action against dermatophyte infections in therapeutic doses is -
Fluconazole
Terbinafine
Itraconazole
Ketoconazole
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Terbinafine
Pharmacology
null
[ "fluconazole", "itraconazole", "ketoconazole", "terbinafine" ]
156,552
3c0e8d69-b75d-4a94-ac33-3e50da345ce6
Tamoxifen given in breast carcinoma for
2 years
3 years
5 years
Lifelong
2c
single
Women with hormone receptor-positive tumours will obtain a wohwhile benefit from at least 5 years of endocrine therapy, either 20 mg daily of tamoxifen if premenopausal or the Aromatase Inhibitors (anastrozole, letrozole, and exemestane) if postmenopausal. Recent trials have shown that longer durations of endocrine therapy provide a small extra benefit but with increased toxicity.It is no longer appropriate to give hormone therapy to women who do not have oestrogen or progesterone receptor-positive disease. Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 878
Surgery
Endocrinology and breast
[ "tamoxifen" ]
156,570
e80fda7b-0663-4b96-8eee-d0b216489ec3
Which of the following anesthetic agent is frequently used for conscious sedation?
Nitrous oxide and oxygen
Chloral hydrate
Diazepam
Ether
0a
single
null
Dental
null
[ "diazepam" ]
156,584
a2c695b4-7eff-4321-b2c6-450e827c5967
L-dopa is combined with carbidopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to
Decrease the efficacy of levodopa
Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa
Increase the dose of levodopa required
Inhibit conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the CNS
1b
single
(B) (Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa) (429-30 KDT 7th) (Lippincott's Pharmacology)Carbidopa is combined with levodopa to inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa and make more levodopa available to cross the blood brain barrier to reach its site of action.Extracerebral Dopa Decarboxylase inhibitorsCarbidopaQBenserazideQCo-administration of levodopa with peripheral Decarboxylase inhibitors :* Levodopa is a metabolic precursor of dopamine and is the first- line treatment for Parkinson's disease (PD) is believed to result from insufficient dopamine in specific regions of the brain)* Dopamine itself does not cross the blood brain barrier but levodopa (its immediate precursor) is actively transported in to the CNS and is converted into dopamine in the brain* The major limitation of Levodopa however is that large amount of Levodopa is decarboxylated in the peripheral tissue forming dopamine in the periphery (this dopamine formed in the periphery does not cross blood brain barrier).* Asa result large amount of Levodopa are required to obtain the desired therapeutic effect and side effects from formation of dopamine in the periphery like nausea, vomiting, cardiac arrhythmias and hypotension become prominent.* Lovodopa is therefore usually coadministerd with peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors like carbidopa or Benserazide which prevent the decarboxylation of leyodopa in peripheral tissues there by making more levodpa available to act on the CNS.* These peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors do not penetrate the blood brain barrier and hence do not inhibit conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the brain which is required for its therapeutic action.* Levodopa for these reasons is almost always coadministered with a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor like carbidopa or benserazide.Benefits of Co-administering Lavodopa with Carbidopa/Bensersazide* Prolongs the plasma t'A of levodopa and reduces the dose needed to approximately 1/4th* Reduces the peripheral side effects of levodopa as the concentration of dopamine in the peripheral tissues reduced- | Nausea and vomiting- | Cardiac complication* May reduce the on- off effect since cerebral dopamine levels are more sustainedRapid fluctuations in clinical state where' hypokinesia and rigidity suddenly worsen and then improve again is called the on off effect. This on- effect is not seen in untreated patients with PD but are known unwanted effects of levodopa therapy* Degree of improvement may be higher as some patients not responding to levodopa alone also improve* Co-administration with carbidopa, however does not resolve all unwanted effectsProblems not resolved by coadministration of carbidopa include* Involuntary movements/Behavioral abnormalities* Postural hvpotension Synthesis of Dopamine from Levodopa in the absence and presence of carbidopa, an inhibitor of dopamine decarboxylase in the peripheral tissue.
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "carbidopa", "levodopa" ]
156,608
5e68590b-04ad-4415-939e-7a8966cd1abe
The progression of which of the following diseases is retarded by chronic use of enalapril ?
Diabetic nephropathy
Diabetic retinopathy
Hypertensive nephropathy
All of the above
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "enalapril" ]
156,618
db66e215-45d2-419b-b4ae-63fc0de7e33f
Which of the following conditions most rapidly produce functional deficiency of vitamin k
Premature delivery of the baby
Pure vegan diet
Broad spectrum antibiotics consumption
Warfarin therapy
3d
single
Warfarin prevents the recycling of vitamin K by blocking the activity of Vitamin K epoxide reductase, thus creating a functional vitamin K deficiency.
Biochemistry
null
[ "warfarin" ]
156,632
f8a0a32d-10d9-4ded-8951-775bedf46f0c
Which of the following is not converted into active metabolite?
Cyclophosphmide
Diazepam
Fluoxentine
Lisinopril
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "lisinopril", "diazepam" ]
156,638
f2ac2f17-f084-4c58-8cdb-8127f1ffdd80
Drug of choice in acute mania is:
Lithium
Chlorpromazine
Valproic acid
Risperidone
3d
single
DOC of acute mania- antipsychotic However if in exam, you have an option of mood stabilizer plus antipsychotic, that would become the preferred answer. E.g. If in this question , there was an option of lithium plus risperidone, that would have been the best answer In absence of combination, we would chose antipsychotics. Atypical antipsychotics like risperidone are preferred over typical antipsychotics like chlorpromazine, because of better side effect profile
Psychiatry
Mood Disorders
[ "chlorpromazine" ]
156,646
a1973354-6c98-4f21-ad31-91ee9445cdca
Regarding aprepitant all are true except:
Agonist at NK1 receptors
Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
Ameliorate nausea and vomiting induced by chemotherapy
Metabolized by CYP450 enzymes
0a
multi
it is a recently introduced selective high affinity NK1 receptor antagonst that blocks the emetic action of substance P,with little effect on 5HT3and D2 or other receptor ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION KD TRIPATHI PG NO.669
Pharmacology
Gastrointestinal tract
[ "aprepitant" ]
156,649
0006af36-29be-4eab-8677-9fcaf03851ca
During the treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia cytogenetic is least likely to occur with which one of' the following modalities of treatment ?
Hydroxyurea
imatinib mesylate
Interferon-alpha
Bone marrow transplantation
0a
single
Common side effects include bone marrow suppression, fevers, loss of appetite, psychiatric problems, shoness of breath, and headaches.There is also concern that it increases the risk of later cancers. Use during pregnancy is typically harmful to the baby.Hydroxycarbamide is in the antineoplastic family of medications. It is believed to work by blocking the making of DNA. Hydroxycarbamide, also known as hydroxyurea, is a medication used in sickle-cell disease, chronic myelogenous leukemia, cervical cancer, and polycythemia vera.In sickle-cell disease it increases hemoglobin and decreases the number of attacks. It is taken by mouth Hydroxycarbamide is used for the following indications: Myeloproliferative disease (primarily polycythemia vera and essential thrombocythemia). It has been found to be superior to anagrelide for the control of ET. Sickle-cell disease(increases production of fetal hemoglobin that then interferes with the hemoglobin polymerisation as well as by reducing white blood cells that contribute to the general inflammatory state in sickle cell patients.) Second line treatment for psoriasis(slows down the rapid division of skin cells) Psoriasis Systemic mastocytosis Chronic myelogenous leukemia (largely replaced by imatinib, but still in use for its cost-effectiveness Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 783
Medicine
Haematology
[ "imatinib" ]
156,662
5fdc4b2e-323a-40ba-83d1-c16a5c9adad0
A vitamin related to a co-factor in glycine metabolism is
Thiamine
Biotin
Folic acid
Pantothenic acid
2c
single
Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition
Biochemistry
vitamins
[ "biotin" ]
156,664
3987900e-0d95-4990-b625-9077a60a91d6
Digoxin toxicity is enhanced by all, except:
Quinidine
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hepatic dysfunction
3d
multi
Answer is D (Hepatic dysfunction) Digoxin toxicity is enhanced by renal failure as it is excreted through kidneys where as digitoxin toxicity is enhanced by liver failure because it is eliminated by hepatic metabolism. Hepatic dysfunction does not affect digoxin elemination. Reduced tolerance to digoxin may be seen in : Advanced age Q Acute myocardial infarction Q / ischaemia / hypoxemia Magnesium depletion Hypercalcemia Q Hypothyroidism e Renal insufficiency Q Electrical cardioversion. The administration of following drugs raises the serum concentration of digoxin : (by reducing both the renal and nonrenal elimination of digoxin and by reducing its volume of distribution) Quinidine Q Verapamil Amiodarone Propufenonedeg
Medicine
null
[ "digoxin", "quinidine" ]
156,674
20d497df-14b1-457d-b0d4-0ee17b5db833
The term "Tracking" of blood pressure refers to -
24 hr BP monitoring
Identifying children at risk of developing hypeension at future date
Pictorial representation of BP
BP control with nifedipine
1b
single
<p> If blood pressure level of individuals were followed up over a period of years from early childhood into adult life,then those individuals whose pressures were initially high in the distribution,would probably continue in the same &;track&; as adults. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:374. <\p>
Social & Preventive Medicine
Non communicable diseases
[ "nifedipine" ]
156,675
2e862800-cfe0-4d7b-a934-6afb1c0a8f48
Seal like limbs i.e. phocomelia is a specific side effect of -
Thalidomide
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Terazocin
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thalidomide * Repeat from NEET Dec -16
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
[ "cyclophosphamide", "thalidomide", "doxorubicin" ]
156,698
d52f9a8c-3b4f-4028-945c-fcd5a7e68d53
Bromocriptine inhibits: (Repeat)
Prolactin
Vasopressin
Imipramine
Levodopa
0a
single
Ans: A (Prolactin) Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K.D.Tripathi, 6th ed p.235Explanation:Prolactin is under predominant inhibitory control of hypothalamus through PRIH which is dopamine that acts on pituitary lactotrope D2 receptor.Dopamine agonists - |Plasma Prolactin levelsDopamine antagonists - |Plasma Prolactin levelsDopaminergic agonistsDopamineBromocriptineCabergolineDopaminergic antagonistsChlorpromazineHaloperidolMetoclopramideDopamine depleters (Reserpine. Methyldopa)
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "vasopressin", "bromocriptine", "levodopa", "imipramine" ]
156,706