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6ae0530a-b715-4d20-96e2-c35433d79e58
Which of the following drugs acts by blocking RNA transcription?
Rifampicin
Streptomycin
Isoniazid
Chloramphenicol
0a
single
DRUG MECHANISM Rifampicin Inhibit transcription of RNA Isoniazid Act on mycobacterial membrane Streptomycin Inhibit protein synthesis Chloramphenicol Inhibit protein synthesis
Pharmacology
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
[ "isoniazid", "chloramphenicol" ]
156,717
acfbb13e-b857-4349-816d-794b54a4e5f0
Rhinitis medicamentosa is caused by-
Nasal decongestants
Antihistaminic drugs
Steroids
Salbutamol
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nasal decongestantsRhinitis medicamentosao Caused by excessive use of topical decongestant nasal drops.o It is treated by withdrawal of nasal drops, short course of systemic steroid therapy and in some cases surgical reduction of turbinates, if they have become hypertrophied
ENT
Rhinitis
[ "salbutamol" ]
156,721
36fea632-3cb4-49aa-aea8-fdca39e5dbc7
Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
Naloxone
Theophylline
Artificial ventillation
Doxapram
0a
single
Ans: A (Naloxone) Ref: Goodman &Gillman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 2011, 12'h Edition, McGrow Hill, Burton LL P519- 520Explanation:Naloxone is the treatment of choice in the reversal of respiratory depression due to opioids.Naloxone has to be diluted and slowly administered intravenously to avoid withdrawal in opioid dependent patientsMonitoring of arousal and respiratory function are essential during this treatmentRestoration of respiration without naloxone therapy may still results in death of the patient due to complication that develop during comaNoncardiogenic pulmonary edema that develops during opioid poisoning can be reversed by positive pressure ventilation
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
[ "naloxone", "theophylline" ]
156,729
8d64f089-c12a-4bab-90f9-b586bf6b7d9e
Lalloo, 50 years old, a chronic smoker, presents with history of hemoptysis. He was having truncal obesity and hypeension. He had an elevated ACTH level which was not suppressible with high dose dexamethasone. What would be the most probable diagnosis:
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
Adrenal adenoma
Pituitary tumour
Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer
3d
multi
Answer is D (Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer) Truncal obesity, hypeension and elevated ACTH levels suggest a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. Elevated ACTH level not suppressible by high dose Dexamethasone indicate the diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome due to Ectopic ACTH production.
Medicine
null
[ "dexamethasone" ]
156,766
c823129b-273a-4807-ad4b-84b96db09bc7
Which of the following can be used in the management of acute pancreatitis?
Octreotide
Aprotinin
Glucagone
All the above
3d
multi
Antibiotic, coicosteroids, H2 blockers and NSAIDS also have a role.
Surgery
null
[ "octreotide" ]
156,779
8fc7f8e8-f659-4f9d-a2ce-1b239c0d6656
LHRH analogue used in breast cancer -
Cetrorelix
Anastrazole
Leuprolide
Tamoxifen
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leuprolide o Among the given options only leuprolide is GnRH (LHRH/FSHRH) analogue. o Cetrorelix is GnRH antagonist, tamoxifen is SERM and anastrozole is aromatase inhibitor.
Pharmacology
null
[ "tamoxifen" ]
156,793
1eb8b7cf-24da-428b-a54d-55cc92a4db12
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate except-
Vancomycin
Imipenem
Teichoplanin
Linezolid
1b
multi
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Imipenem "The carbapenem imipenem has excellent activity against methicillin-sensitive S.aureus but not MRSA." MRSA is resistant to all beta-lactam antibiotics because resistance develops due to alteration in transpeptidase (penicillin binding protein) on which all beta-lactam antibiotics act. Drugs for MRSA --> Vancomycin (DOC), Ciprofloxacin Quinopristin/dalfopristin Tigecyclin TMP-SMX Linezolid Daptomycin Teicoplanin Minocyclin Levofloxacin Oritavaccin Cotrimoxazole
Pharmacology
null
[ "linezolid", "vancomycin" ]
156,807
04f9b58c-b706-4785-97a3-7264c485956c
Patient was given chloroquine and doxycycline for 7 days. Patient's fever decreased in 4 days, but, peripheral smear showed occasional gametocytes of Plasmodium falciparum. This type of drug resistance is ?
R1 type
R2 type
R3 type
R4 type
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., R2 type WHO classification of antimalarial drug resistance 1. S-sensitive --> If a sexual parasites have cleared by day 6 from the begining of treatment wihout subsequent recrudescence until day 28. 2. R1-Low grade resistance --> Recrudescence of infection between 7-28 days of completing treatment. 3. R2 High grade resistance --> Reduction of parasitemia by more than 75% at 48 hours of completing treatment but failure to clear the organism within 7 days. 4. R3-> Parasitemia does not fall by more than 75% within 48 hours of completing treatment and there is no subsequant clearance of asexual parasites.
Pharmacology
null
[ "chloroquine", "doxycycline" ]
156,825
1fcb9500-4a5e-475a-9163-179b5f7f39ff
You have initiated 'Magpie' regime for a patient with eclampsia. Later you notice that the respiratory rate is 6/minute and the tendon reflexes are not elicitable. What is the next appropriate step?
Inject naloxone at the rate of 0.01 mg/kg over 5 minutes
Inject calcium gluconate 10 ml over 10 minutes
Inject 0.4 mg Atropine IV
Inject 5 mEq/kg sodium bicarbonate IV over 10 minutes
1b
multi
This is a case of MgSO4 toxicity and so the antidote is IV Calcium gluconate. Respiratory rate <14/minute or absent tendon reflex or urine output of Ref: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialities, Edition 8, Page - 49
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "naloxone", "atropine" ]
156,845
2df42e5d-f5f4-497e-860f-6815a0dd7e07
Pegvisomant is used in ?
Dwarfism
Acromegaly
Cretinism
Protein energy malnutrition
1b
single
Ans. is `b' i.e., Acromegaly
Pharmacology
null
[ "pegvisomant" ]
156,855
dfb3adf5-60c2-4846-95de-69d85aa53ac3
Which of the following is true for tracheobronchial phenobarbital neuroendocrine cells?
Contain serotonin
Contain catecholamines
Respond to decrease in pO2
Have only cholinergic nerve supply
0a
multi
Ans. a. Contain serotonin (Ref: Ganong 24/e p638: Ganong 22/e p482-483)'Cells that manufacture amines in addition to polypeptide are sometimes called APUD cells (Amine Precursor Uptake and Decarboxylase) or neuroendocrine cells and are found in lungs and other organs in addition to the GIT. They are the cells that form carcinoid tumors.'- Ganong 22/e p482-483Biologically Active Substances Metabolized by the LungsSynthesized and used in lungs:* SurfactantSynthesized or stored and released into the blood:* Prostaglandins* Histamine* KallikreinPartially removed from the blood:* Prostaglandins* Bradykinin* Adenine nucleotides* Serotonin* Noeepinephrine* AcetylcholineActivated in the lungs:* Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
Physiology
Functional Anatomy - Respiratory System
[ "luminal" ]
156,861
c1a6b437-464b-4843-951d-f8cc0bd17cc6
Best uterine relaxation is seen with -
Chloroform
Nitrous oxide
Ether
Halothane
3d
single
Ans. 'd' i.e., Halothane o Halogenated inhalational anaesthetic agents like halothane are powerful tocolytic agents. Halothane is anaesthetic of choice for internal version and manual removal of placenta.
Unknown
null
[ "halothane" ]
156,866
0c48385c-30a1-44e2-b9a9-55d290f24479
Cyclosporine nephrotoxicity aggravated by-
Amphototerian
Itraconazole
INH
Lovastatin
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Amphotericin B o All nephrotoxic drugs like aminoglycosides, Vancomycin, amphotericin B and NSAIDs enhance toxicity of cyclosporine.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cyclosporine", "itraconazole", "lovastatin" ]
156,868
f24167a3-79af-4dab-b26b-267163a1de08
Warm antibody hemolytic anemia is seen in all expect-
Methyl dopa
Penicillin
Quinidine
Stibophen
3d
multi
Warm antibody type hemolytic anaemia can be induced by drugs. A small poion of patients receiving methyl dopa develop AIHA .They are tolerance breaking drugs Penicillin antibiotics develop antibodies agaist RBC , drug complex which induces hemolysis. Quinidine forms a complex with plasma protein to which an antibody forms This complex may induce lysis of bystanding RBC or platelets. Stibophen is an antihelminthic drug which cannot induce AIHA. REFERENCE; HARSH MOHAN TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY, 7TH EDITION.PG NO. 289.
Pathology
Haematology
[ "quinidine" ]
156,878
f623b1da-dd1b-4e9f-a488-598b442259ae
Drug of choice for MRSA :
Vancomycin
Metronidazole
Imipenem
Clindamycin
0a
single
The current drug of choice for serious infections with MRSA remains vancomycin at most institutions' "Vancomycin in a dose of 15 mg/kg to a maximum of LGM, given twice a day, is the drug of choice for MRSA. Teicoplanin in a dose of 400 mg/day in a single dose is equally effective”
Pharmacology
null
[ "metronidazole", "vancomycin", "clindamycin" ]
156,884
972e0715-e5f8-4bd1-a648-f0e1d598191b
Drug used for cigarette smoking cessation?
Varenicline
Bupropion
Mecamylamine
All of the above
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Varenioline* It is a NR (Nicotine receptor) selective partial agonist and exerts rewarding action of nicotine through a4 b2 receptors.* This NN subtype nicotinic receptor partial agonist is under clinical trial for smoking cessation.Bupropion* This atypical antidepressants.* It inhibits DA and NA uptake.* It is metabolised to amphetamine like compound.* It is the only antidepressant which has excitatory action (all other have sedative action) can cause insomnia and can precipitate seizure.* It can be used in nicotine withdrawl for smoking cessation.Mecamylamine* It is nicotine ganglion blocker, blocks the reward effect of nicotine and abstinence.* Mecamylamine is used for smoking cessation.
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
[ "bupropion" ]
156,886
0c994c87-72c4-4ff1-a62a-8a76a53f2957
Best drug among the following for treating hypeension in a diabetic patient:
Losaan
Propranolol
Thiazides
All of the above
0a
multi
Losaan is angiotensin II receptor antagonist. They are the preferred drugs for hypeension in diabetic patients as they prevent diabetic nephropathy- microalbuminuria It is available as 50 mg tablet (REF. Essentials of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 8th Edition)
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "propranolol" ]
156,890
4b408967-2382-4157-83ad-ccb96072170e
A 32-year-old second gravida who had an LSCS in her first pregnancy is admitted in labor. The fetus is in the cephalic presentation. The head is engaged. This estimated fetal weight is 3 kg. Uterine contractions are 2 per 10 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 140 bpm. The cervical dilation is 5 cm. The vertex is felt 1 cm above the ischial spines. The posterior fontanelle is felt. Pelvis is adequate. The membranes are intact. What is the best management option?
Do an amniotomy and allow labor to progress
Do an amniotomy and commence an infusion of oxytocin
Perform a cesarean section
Perform a ventous delivery in the second stage
0a
multi
Ans. is a, i.e. Do an amniotomy and allow progress of laborIn this case, all findings are suitable to allow VBAC. This patient is 5 cm dilated. Contractions are 2 in 10 minutes i.e. inadequate. Adequate contractions are 3 in 10 minutes. Hence logically augmentation of labor should be done. In previous LSCS patients augmentation should be done by doing ARM i.e. amniotomy and oxytocin should best be avoided.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Operative Obs
[ "oxytocin" ]
156,891
299e277c-6440-4cd7-bcd1-e30e307a78ae
Drug of choice of trachoma is –
Penicillin
Sulfonamide
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
2c
single
Tetracycline or azithromycin are the drugs of choice for trachoma. Other drugs used are erythromycin, clarithromycin, rifampicin and sulfonamide.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "tetracycline", "chloramphenicol" ]
156,902
3bae21e1-b9d3-49e3-9eef-a757ffd36cd9
A drug 'X' primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hypertrophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exert its beneficial effect. Which of the following is 'X' ?
Tamsulosin
Terazosin
Finasteride
Amphetamine
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "terazosin", "tamsulosin" ]
156,913
f62a501a-e742-421f-9319-a257076d89b0
Lamivudine acts at which of the following enzymes?
DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Both of the above
None of the above
2c
multi
Lamivudine inhibits HBV DNA polymerase and HIV reverse transcriptase by competing with deoxycytidine triphosphate for incorporation into the viral DNA, resulting in chain termination. Lamivudine achieves 3-4 log decreases in viral replication in most patients and suppression of HBV DNA to undetectable levels in about 44% of patients. Ref: Katzung 11th edition Chapter 49.
Pharmacology
null
[ "lamivudine" ]
156,921
0fbf7669-551a-42da-95dd-caef2ad56ec4
The preferred antidote for paracetamol (acetaminophen) poisoning is -
Activated charcoal
N-acetyl cysteine
Adrenaline
Magnesium hydroxide gel
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., N-acetyl cysteine N-acetyl cysteine is used as an antidote in paracetamol poisoning (acetominaphan).
Pharmacology
null
[ "paracetamol" ]
156,929
e749fe6a-4bd5-4d37-8ece-a66bb0489fb1
Which of the following is not a centrally acting antihypeensive drugs
Methyldopa
Minoxidine
Minoxidil
Clonidine
2c
multi
Refer kDT 7/e p 565 Antihypeensives are a class of drugs that are used to treat hypeension (high blood pressure). Antihypeensive therapy seeks to prevent the complications of high blood pressure, such as stroke and myocardial infarction. Evidence suggests that reduction of the blood pressure by 5 mmHg can decrease the risk of stroke by 34%, of ischaemic hea disease by 21%, and reduce the likelihood of dementia, hea failure, and moality from cardiovascular disease.There are many classes of antihypeensives, which lower blood pressure by different means. Among the most impoant and most widely used medications are thiazide diuretics, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists (ARBs), and beta blockers.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "methyldopa", "clonidine" ]
156,931
791b2b59-a975-4936-b39a-08cc8ea39ce8
Which of the following anticancer drugs is not derived from plants?
Irinotecan
Doxorubicin
Paclitaxel
Etoposide
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Doxorubicino Antitumor antibiotics includes anthracvcline antibiotics (doxorubicin also known as adriamycin, daunorubicin, epirubicin and idarubicin), mitoxantrone, bleomycin, dactinomycin and mitomyin. All antitumor antibiotics are obtained from Streptomyces.DrugSourceCamptothecins (Irinotecan and Topotecan)Camptotheca acuminate treePaclitaxelBark of Western yew treeEtoposidePodophyllotoxin, a plant glycosideAnitumor antibioticsStreptomyces
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
[ "etoposide", "paclitaxel", "doxorubicin" ]
156,943
6e5f7d29-7193-4fcb-b145-9ab9f453760e
The anaesthetic agent that causes maximum increase in intracranial pressure is
Isoflurane
Halothane
Enflurane
Desflurane
1b
single
By dilating cerebral vessels, halothane lowers cerebral vascular resistance and increases cerebral blood volume and CBF. Autoregulation, the maintenance of constant CBF during changes in aerial blood pressure, is blunted. Concomitant rises in intracranial pressure can be prevented by establishing hyperventilation before the administration of halothane. Cerebral activity is decreased, leading to electroencephalographic slowing and modest reductions in metabolic oxygen requirements. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "desflurane", "enflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
156,947
ab8d8598-273e-4185-b1eb-31a2203f1532
Short term BP regulation exerted through kidney by -
ADH
AMP
Epinephrine
Aldosterone
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., ADH Regulation of blood pressureo Blood pressure is regulated by following mechanisms.Short term regulationLong term regulationShort term regulationThese mechanisms act immediately and correct the blood pressure quickly.These areBaroreceptor reflex: Works during BP range 79-150 mmHg.Chemoreceptor reflex: Works when BP below 80 mmHg. CMS ischemic response: This the only hope of survival when BP is below 40 mmHg.Hormonal release : These are -Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) : Increases water reabsorption in kidney.Angiotensin II: Causes vasoconstriction.Longterm regulationThis is the mechanism which takes long time for regulation.This mechanism is present in kidneys.This mechanism adjusts the BP by adjusting valume of extracellular fluid and blood.These mechanism are -Pressure diuresis.Pressure natreuresis. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.Important facto Angiotensin II is involved in short term regulation,o But, full RAA system is involved in long term regulation.
Physiology
Kidneys and Body Fluids
[ "epinephrine" ]
156,952
745bb9b1-066c-49aa-ae31-b2824c91f75e
Which of the following drug is active selectively against Anaerobic and Microaerophilic organisms ?
Clindamycin
Tetracycline
Metronidazole
Aminoglycosides
2c
single
Metronidazole undergoes reduction reaction by receiving single electron from Microaerophilic and Anaerobes pathogens which conves into a highly reactive Nitroradical Anion and damages the pathogen DNA . Metronidazole manifests antibacterial activity against all Anaerobic cocci; Anaerobic gram-negative bacilli(incl.Bacteroides sp.); Anaerobic spore-forming gram-positive bacilli (such as Clostridium); and Microaerophilic bacteria such as Helicobacter and Campylobacter sp. So Metronidazole is less active against Aerobic organisms because of the lack of Radical-mediated mechanism. Nonsporulating gram-positive bacilli often are resistant, as they are aerobic and facultatively anaerobic bacteria.
Pharmacology
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
[ "metronidazole", "tetracycline", "clindamycin" ]
156,982
172add87-7d88-4617-9794-d6085792e9db
Drug of choice for cardiogenic shock -
Dopamine
Propranolol
Digitalis
Milrinone
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dopamine o Drugs used in cardiogenic shock are ---> Dobutamine, Dopexamine or dopamine. "Dobutamine is preferred as it tends to vasodilate" - Dobutamine is not given in options, so best answer is dopamine.
Pharmacology
null
[ "propranolol" ]
156,988
f6fd5075-bb94-4ac6-aa3c-63bfdb180b28
Drug of choice for carriers of typhoid is
Ampicillin
Chloramphenicol
Co-trimoxazole
Clindamycin
0a
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "chloramphenicol", "ampicillin", "clindamycin" ]
156,998
50a70dc3-27df-438b-923a-313a19763930
Roopa Devi, a 65-year-old female with ovarian cancer is being treated with cisplatin-based chemotherapy. All of the following are used to limit the toxicity of cisplatin except:
N-acetylcysteine
Slow rate of infusion
Chloride diuresis
Amifostine
0a
multi
N-acetylcysteine is used for paracetamol poisoning. Slow intravenous infusion and chloride diuresis along with amifostine can limit cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity.
Pharmacology
Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
[ "cisplatin" ]
157,020
37639595-4a39-42c3-995f-90ffc8be1d21
Misoprostol has been found to be effective in all of the following except:
Missed aboion.
Induction of labour.
Menorrhagia.
Prevention of post-paum hemorrhage (PPH).
2c
multi
Misoprostal : Is used for induction of aboion in the early pregnancy for medically induced aboions in doses ranging from 400 to 800 mcgs, then also in the second trimester where aboion with prostaglandins is the mode of choice in doses from 200 to 400 mcgs. Also, misoprostol is an efficient way to induce labour even with doses ranging from 25 to 50 mcgs. In cases of PPH, misoprostol given orally or rectally is an excellent mode of reducing bleeding might as well be used as the most effective drug for PPH. Misoprostol will act when there are prostaglandin receptors and these are more in number when there is a pregnancy in the uterus. In menorrhagia this is not an effective drug and the vasodilator action may in fact worsen the bleeding.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception
[ "misoprostol" ]
157,023
8a0f4bcc-304e-45d7-9210-c026f26f2243
True statement about fexofenadine is:
It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver
Terfenadine is an active metabolite of this drug
It does not block cardiac K+ channels
It has high affinity for central H1 receptors
2c
multi
Fexofenadine is an active metabolite of terfenadine. It lacks K+ channel blocking propey, therefore is devoid of arrhythmogenic potential. It is available as a separate second generation H1 blocking agent.
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
[ "fexofenadine" ]
157,034
7a1aa239-df16-4763-92d9-44c26d81310c
A 70-year-old man was administered penicillin intravenously. Within 5 minutes, he developed generalized uicaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm. The first choice of treatment is to administer -
Chlorpheniramine injection
Epinephrine injection
High dose hydrocoisone tablet
Nebulized salbutamol
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epinephrine injection Generalized uicaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm within 5 minutes of taking penicillin suggest the diagnosis of anaphylactic type of hypersensitivity. Epienephrine (S.C./i.m.) is DOC for anaphylactic shock.
Pharmacology
null
[ "epinephrine", "chlorpheniramine", "salbutamol" ]
157,053
32b01b95-4423-4743-a79d-9a75f966cfd7
A 28 year old woman was admitted electively to a HDU following C- section. A diagnosis of 'fatty liver of pregnancy' had been made preoperatively. She was commenced on a continuous morphine infusion at 5 mg/hr and received oxygen by mask. This was continued overnight and she was noted to be quite drowsy the next day. Aerial blood gases were- pH 7.16, pCO2- 61.9 mmHg, pO2- 115 mmHg and HCO3- 21.2 mmol/l?
Respiratory acidosis +Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis + Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis + Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis + Metabolic acidosis
0a
single
Acidotic pH, Elevated CO2 , Low HCO3 Respiratory acidosis + Metabolic acidosis
Medicine
ABG Analysis Simplified
[ "morphine" ]
157,061
91369519-08b1-4e8e-8138-5a78511cb886
Which treatment would be least effective for asystole?
External pacemaker
Intravenous epinephrine, 10 ml. of 1:10,000.
Intravenous calcium gluconate, 10 ml. of 10% solution
Intravenous atropine, 0.5 mg.
2c
single
Recommended treatment for asystole is administration of atropine. If atropine is unsuccessful epinephrine is given. Ultimately cardiac pacing is necessary if atropine and epinephrine do not establish an adequate heart rate. Calcium has no clear role in treating asystole.
Unknown
null
[ "epinephrine", "atropine" ]
157,074
0816bb01-ed18-46ed-b702-3c162b81c041
cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of all the following drugs except:
phenytoin
warfarin
ketoconazole
diazepam
2c
multi
cimetidine is a potent inhibitor of.microsomal enzymes.it prolongs the half life of warfarin, theophyllin ,phenytoin,oral hypoglycemic agents ,alcohol and benzidiazepines.(ref KDT 6/e p630)
Pharmacology
Gastrointestinal tract
[ "cimetidine", "diazepam", "ketoconazole", "phenytoin", "warfarin" ]
157,079
fff5be39-1af0-41a2-9348-e5ad7b8abdd6
Acute Gouty ahritis is seen early following treatment with:
Rasburicase
Probenecid
Allopurinol
Sulfinpyrazone
2c
multi
Allopurinol
Pharmacology
null
[ "rasburicase", "allopurinol", "probenecid" ]
157,087
511473ed-cfc4-41da-bc4d-fe5955255a6d
The most common chemotherapeutic agent used in the patients with typical B cell CLL is:
Fludarabine
Rituximab
Cyclophosphamide
Prednisolone
0a
single
Typical B cell CLL/small lymphocytic lymphoma treatment: The most common treatments for patients with typical B cell CLL/small lymphocytic lymphoma have been chlorambucil or fludarabine. Chlorambucil can be administered orally while fludarabine is administered IV Fludarabine is the more active agent and is the only drug associated with a significant incidence of complete remission. For young patients regimens containing fludarabine are the treatment of choice. Bendamustine also used as the primary agent in treatment. Ref: Harrison, E-18,P-926
Medicine
null
[ "fludarabine", "cyclophosphamide", "prednisolone", "rituximab" ]
157,090
f24caa31-1f46-439a-9030-99207dc5eb32
All of the following agents are used in glaucoma treatment, except -
Apraclonidine
Timolol
Pilocarpine
Metoprolol
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Metoprolol o Metoprolol is a beta blocker with local anaesthetic activity. Such beta blockers are not indicated in glaucoma. o Apraclonidine (alpha 2 agonist), timolol (beta blocker without local anaesthetic activity) and pilocarpine (directly acting miotic) are used in glaucoma.
Pharmacology
null
[ "pilocarpine", "metoprolol", "apraclonidine", "timolol" ]
157,100
057c672e-6379-4732-9f8b-98b080f1382d
Anemia in chronic renal failure (CRF) is due to -a) Decreased erythropoietin productionb) Iron deficiencyc) Hypoplastic bone marrowd) Decreased Vit-B12,e) Decreased folate levels
abc
bcd
cde
abe
3d
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "erythropoietin" ]
157,149
0aabfbee-072b-4e81-a9ce-e34dc4b5f0fc
True regarding glylcogenolysis is /are NE
PP1 is a dephosphorylating enzyme
Vasopressin increases it
Oxytocin decreases it
Ca" is a synchronizer and allosteric activator
2c
multi
Oxytocin decreases it
Biochemistry
null
[ "vasopressin", "oxytocin" ]
157,164
aac05bad-6ce1-4e2c-8fee-f47a811b8062
All of the following are true about ester linked local anesthetics except
All ester linked local anesthetics are metabolized by Pseudocholinesterase except Cocaine
Ester LA's more commonly cause allergic reactions than Amide LA's
Cocaine is the shortest acting ester LA
Procaine is the drug of choice in Malignant hyperthermia
2c
multi
Chlorprocaine is the shortest acting ester linked local anesthetic.
Pharmacology
null
[ "procaine" ]
157,166
54e8520e-e4d9-42bb-8561-498f2e1a7199
Agents used for sclerotherapy in varicose veins are all except
Ethanolamine oleate
Sodium tetradecyl sulphate
Polidocanal
Mannitol
3d
multi
Mannitol is not a sclerosing agent.
Surgery
null
[ "mannitol" ]
157,176
5cf3d507-0ac7-46d2-8fef-847bf329de26
Most accurate measurement of extracellular fluid volume (ECF) can be done by using
Sucrose
Mannitol
Inulin
Aminopyrine
2c
single
Ans. (c) Inulin(Ref: Guyton, 13th ed/p.309)Inulin - Gold standard substance for ECF measurementOther indicators used in ECF measurement are,#Sucrose#Mannitol#Sodium Thiosulphate
Physiology
General
[ "mannitol" ]
157,181
f6633e1e-35f3-4c93-881d-142ba9f7b282
Baclofen is used in the treatment of :
Schizophrenia
Depression
Anxiety
Spasticity
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "baclofen" ]
157,188
6c6f8d46-ded7-4238-9e4c-580f2303397d
Which of the following aminoglycoside is cochleotoxic:
Kanamycin
Streptomycin
Gentamycin
Minocycline
0a
single
Ref: Goodman & Gillman 13th ed. P 1044-45* All aminoglycosides have the potential to produce reversible and irreversible vestibular, cochlear, renal toxicity and neuromuscular blockade.* Aminoglycoside-induced ototoxicity may result in irreversible, bilateral, high-frequency hearing loss or vestibular hypofunction.* A high-pitched tinnitus often is the first symptom of cochlear toxicity.* Drugs like amikacin, neomycin and kanamycin are specifically cochleotoxic > vestibulotoxic.* Gentamicin, streptomycin is vestiblar > cochleotoxic* Tobramycin: Cochlear = Vestibular toxicity both.
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "minocycline" ]
157,189
6b3f7bcc-1b53-45b1-aae3-3a4375870d07
Antibiotic that can be used as antiplaque agent is/are:
Penicillin.
Vancomycin.
Kanamycin.
All of the above.
3d
multi
Penicillin, vanomycin, kanamycin have been used as antiplaue agents but their use has been considerably reduced due to bacterial resistance and hypersensitivity reactions.
Dental
null
[ "vancomycin" ]
157,196
e9bbe870-b268-43a2-86c4-dc40902dab40
Drugs which cause ototoxicity and circumoral paraesthesia are:
Antileprotic drugs
Antitubercular drugs
Streptomycin
Chloramphenicol
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "chloramphenicol" ]
157,201
f6f2e9a4-f5fb-4298-ae9b-4cf5753b6367
Which anaesthetic belongs to ester group?
Procaine
Times New Roman
Lignocaine
Propofol
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Procaine Esters (aminoesters) :- Procaine, chlorprocaine, tetracaine (amethocaine), Benzocaine, Cocaine. Amides (aminoamides) Lignocaine, Mepivacaine, Prilocaine, Bupivacaine, Etidocaine, Ropivacaine , Dibucaine.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "procaine", "propofol" ]
157,203
7a1935cf-3cb0-49cf-8fb0-1804e40961dc
The drug disulfiram acts by-
Decreasing ethanol absorption
Enhancing urinary excretion of ethanol
Increasing pulmonary excretion of ethanol
Blocking metabolism of ethanol
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Blocking metabolism of ethanol o Antabuse (disulfiram) inhibits the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase. o By inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase antabuse (disulfiram) inhibits the metabolism (oxidation) of alcohol. o Disulfiram is used in psychologically dependent but not in physically dependent alcoholics.
Pharmacology
null
[ "antabuse" ]
157,204
68a36968-b255-432e-8eeb-9e49b4ee5229
Young male with Pneumonia admitted for 5 days, develops gripping abdominal pain and loose stools. Drug(s) which might be beneficial is?
Cap loperamide 4-8 mg/day
Tab Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BD
Oral Metronidazole
Cap. Diphenoxylate
1b
single
Tab Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BD REF: Harrison 17th ed table 141-3 This is a case of legionella pneumonea; clue is loose stools with pneumonia Antimicrobial Agent Dosage Macrolides Azithromycin 500 mg PO or IV q24h Clarithromycin 500 mg PO or IV ql2h Antimicrobial Agent Dosage Quinolones Levofloxacin 750 mg IV q24h 500 mg PO q24h Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV q8h 750 mg PO ql2h Moxifloxacin 400 mg PO q24h Ketolide Telithromycin 800 mg PO q24h Tetracyclines Doxycycline 100 mg PO or IV ql2h Minocycline 100 mg PO or IV q12h Tetracycline 500 mg PO or IV q6h Tigecycline 100 mg IV load, then 50 mg IV q12h Others Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 160/800 mg IV q8h 160/800 mg PO ql2h Rifampin 100-600 mg PO or IV ql2h
Surgery
null
[ "metronidazole", "imodium", "ciprofloxacin" ]
157,213
39f9ae06-9266-4ad8-b1e3-fb6e5e00245f
The first drug of choice for Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH):
PGF-2
Methergine
Oxytocin
Misoprostol
2c
single
Ans- C Ref- Recommendations for PPH treatment The use of uterotonics (oxytocin alone as the first choice) plays a central role in the treatment of PPH (see Boxes 4and 5). Uterine massage is recommended for the treatment of PPH as soon as it is diagnosed (see Box 6) and the initial fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloids is recommended. The use of tranexamic acid is advised in cases of refractory atonic bleeding or persistent trauma-related bleeding (see Box 5). The use of intrauterine balloon tamponade is recommended for refractory bleeding or if uterotonics are unavailable. Bimanual uterine compression, external aortic compression, and the use of non-pneumatic anti-shock garments are recommended as temporizing measures until substantive care is available. If there is persistent bleeding and the relevant resources are available, uterine artery embolization should be considered. If bleeding persists despite treatment with uterotonic drugs and other conservative interventions, surgical intervention should be used without further delay. Box 4 Recommendations for the treatment of PPH - uterotonics. Intravenous oxytocin is the recommended uterotonic drug for the treatment of PPH. (Strong recommendation, moderate quality evidence) If intravenous oxytocin is unavailable, or if the bleeding does (more...) Box 5 Recommendations for the treatment of PPH - fluid resuscitation and tranexamic acid. The use of isotonic crystalloids is recommended in preference to the use of colloids for the intravenous fluid resuscitation of women with PPH. (Strong recommendation, (more...) Box 6 Recommendations for the treatment of PPH - manoeuvres and other procedures. Uterine massage is recommended for the treatment of PPH. (Strong recommendation, very-low-quality evidence) If women do not respond to treatment using uterotonics, or if uterotonics (more...) If the third stage of labour lasts more than 30 minutes, CCT and IV/IM oxytocin (10 IU) should be used to manage the retained placenta. If the placenta is retained and bleeding occurs, the manual removal of the placenta should be expedited. Whenever the manual removal of the placenta is undertaken, a single dose of prophylactic antibiotics is recommended (see Box 7). Box 7 Recommendations for the treatment of retained placenta. If the placenta is not expelled spontaneously, the use of additional oxytocin (10 IU, IV/IM) in combination with controlled cord traction is recommended. (Weak recommendation, very-low-quality evidence) (more...) The GDG also issued recommendations related to the organization of PPH care (see Box 8). Health facilities delivering maternity services should adopt formal protocols for the prevention and treatment of PPH and for patient referral. The use of PPH treatment simulations for pre-service and in-service training programmes was recommended. Finally, the GDG recommended that the use of uterotonics for the prevention of PPH should be monitored and a specific indicator was suggested. Box 8 Health Systems and Organization of Care recommendations for the prevention and treatment of PPH. The use of formal protocols by health facilities for the prevention and treatment of PPH is recommended. (Weak recommendation, moderate-quality evidence) (more...) The GDG found insufficient evidence to recommend one route over another for the prevention of PPH with oxytocin, the use of recombinant factor VIIa for the treatment of PPH, intraumbilical vein injection of oxytocin for treatment of retained placenta, and the antenatal distribution of misoprostol. The GDG also found insufficient evidence to recommend self-administration for the prevention of PPH and the measurement of blood loss over clinical estimation (see Box 9). Box 9 Statements related to topics for which there is insufficient evidence to issue a recommendation. There is insufficient evidence to recommend one oxytocin route over another for the prevention of PPH. There is insufficient evidence to recommend the use (more...) Copyright (c) 2012, World Health Organization. All rights reserved. Publications of the World Health Organization are available on the WHO web site (www.who.int) or can be purchased from WHO Press, World Health Organization, 20 Avenue Appia, 1211 Geneva 27, Switzerland (tel.: +41 22 791 3264; fax: +41 22 791 4857; e-mail: tni.ohw). Requests for permission to reproduce or translate WHO publications - whether for sale or for noncommercial distribution - should be addressed to WHO Press through the WHO web site (
Unknown
null
[ "oxytocin", "misoprostol" ]
157,221
95d4083b-b6a8-4a29-9c41-5bfe3afeb598
shortest acting mydriatic
Atropine
Tropicamide
Homatropine
Cyclopentolate
1b
single
Ans. (b) Tropicamide
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
[ "atropine", "tropicamide" ]
157,224
226c61e7-c883-4cb8-8e54-d53f3d6e4f16
Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibition of cytoplasmic membrane function?
Penicillin
Polymycin
Streptomycin
Novobiocin
1b
single
Polymyxin bacitracin acts by inhibiting cell membrane or plasma membrane Not cell wall Penicillin -cell wall,streptomycin-protein synthesis inhibition Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:625
Microbiology
general microbiology
[ "novobiocin" ]
157,231
6f37967d-6119-4f78-8e58-6c0efc2e810c
Skeletal muscle relaxant of choice in liver and renal disease is?
Mivacurium
Atracurium
Gallium
Vecuronium
1b
multi
ANSWER: (B) AtracuriumREF: Lee synopsis of anesthesia 12th e p. 215Repeat in December 2011Muscle relaxantRoute of eliminationPancuronium , Vecuronium , RapacuroniumLiverVecuronium , RocuroniumBiliarySch , MivacuriumPseudocholinesteraseGallamine , MetocurineRenalAtracurium, cis-atracuriumHoffman's elimination Obtain AMPLE' history and examine patinet |PrepareEquipment. Personnelmedications|Monitor and preoxygenateECG and oulse oximeter|Premedicate* Gve atropine- Indicateo to' all children <5 years of age- Indicated for all patients wen suociny choline is used* If succinycholine to be used; consider defasciculation (0.01 mg/kg of Vecuronium or Pancuromjmj* Give ildocaine for head injury or increased ICP|Secsle (choose ore option eased onccnd tion of patent)|||||Nomotensive* Midazolam or* E:oir cate or* Thiopental or* PropofolHypotensive/hypovolemicHead injury or status epilepticusStatus asthmaticus* Ketamine or* MidazolamMidSevereNormotensiveHypotensive* Etonidale or* Etorrcateor* T-opentalor* Etomdate or* Ketamine or* Ketam-e cr* Propofol cr* Lew-dose thiopental* Midazolam* None* Tetomidate |||||| | Apply criood pressure when patient is unconscious|Paralyze .(choose one)* Rocurcnium* Vecuronium* Suoclnylcholine|* intubate Irachea* Evaluate and confirm tube placement (eg. exhaled CO2)* Secure tracheal tube* Observe and monitor* Administer additonal sedaton and paralytics PRN 'AMPLE r stony allergy medications, past history, last meal and events leading to need for intubation.
Anaesthesia
Non-depolarising Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
[ "gallium", "atracurium", "mivacurium", "vecuronium" ]
157,232
be63c331-dcd4-4589-abab-c519cfcbc6fb
The drug NOT used in acute asthma is ?
Salbutamol
Ipratropium
Monteleukast
Hydrocoisone
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Monteleukast Monteleukast and zafirleukast are indicated for prophylactic therapy of mild to moderate asthma as an alternative to inhaled coicosteroids. However they are not used to terminate acute attack of asthma.
Pharmacology
null
[ "ipratropium", "salbutamol" ]
157,234
ab674b0f-29f2-4346-98b2-ff201fbc3701
Which one of the following drugs cause hypomagnesemia by increased excretion
Frusemide therapy
Cisplatin
Digitalis
Aminoglycosides
0a
single
Frusemide therapy "Loop diuretics cause the abolition of transepithelial potential difference that results in marked increase in excretion of Cc?'" and Me". Loop and thiazide diuretics cause significant urinary loss of magnesium. - Magnesium deficiency brought about by diuretics is rarely severe enough to induce the classic picture of neuromuscular irritability.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cisplatin" ]
157,246
fa1201e3-2eae-4b22-87cc-ff7bb4bc7348
All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors, EXCEPT:
Nelfinavir
Saquinavir
Abacavir
Ritonavir
2c
multi
Abacavir is nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and not a protease inhibitor. Nelfinovir, Titonavir and Saquinavir are all protease inhibitor. Ref: Antiretroviral Therapy By Erik De Clercq, 2001, Page 147 ; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, Pages 1124, 1126.
Pharmacology
null
[ "nelfinavir", "ritonavir", "saquinavir" ]
157,249
9b503c95-4591-4f06-869b-83acbb06387e
In human being, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is:
Shivering
Vasoconstriction
Release of thyroxine
Piloerection
3d
single
D i.e. Piloerection
Physiology
null
[ "thyroxine" ]
157,281
d2187cc7-5c81-458f-82a9-366fa96782b3
Which of the following is false regarding acetyl CoA carboxylase
It is the rate limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis
It is a component of fatty acid synthase complex
It is activated by citrate
It requires Biotin
1b
multi
Acetyl CoA carboxylase is not a component of fatty acid synthase complex. Fatty acid synthase complex has 6 enzymes Keto acyl synthase Acetyl malonyl transacylase Hydratase Enoyl reductase Keto acyl reductase Thioesterase.
Biochemistry
null
[ "biotin" ]
157,290
93f56e72-1d84-4d68-9cb2-bcffb5ff42c1
A hypeensive patient on medication with beta blocker develops severe bradycardia on taking medicines. Which of the following is least likely to be the responsible agent?
Metoprolol
Nadolol
Pindolol
Atenolol
2c
single
Pindolol has intrinsic sympathomimetic acitivity and therefore has lesser risk of causing bradycardia Beta-Blockers with Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity (ISA) Preferred in the patients prone to develop severe bradycardia with b blocker therapy. However, these drugs are less useful in angina (because of stimulation of hea by b1 receptors). The drugs can be remembered as * COntain - Celiprolol, Oxprenolol * Paial - Pindolol, Penbutolol * Agonistic - Alprenolol * Activity -Acebutolol
Pharmacology
Sympathetic System
[ "atenolol", "nadolol", "metoprolol", "pindolol" ]
157,295
4027fa36-58a0-4c7b-b7ab-05696da47785
All are true regarding snake bite except ?
Neostigmine, ventillatory suppo should be given to patients along with ASV.
ASV is the main stay of treatment.
Humped pit viper snake is excluded from polyvalent ASV
Neostigmine and Atropine may be given for Krait bite.
3d
multi
Indian Polyvalent anti-snake venom is effective in Cobra Krait Russel viper Saw scaled viper Atrophine do not play a much role in reversal of respiratory paralysis in krait snake. So neostigmine along with ASV is given.
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology - 2
[ "atropine", "neostigmine" ]
157,306
a7a2cda9-5775-4f08-a81b-7dcce0e33dd1
which is an organophosphate: AFMC 12
Diazinon
Endrin
Malathion
Parathion
1b
single
Ans. Endrin
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "malathion" ]
157,307
6b758352-bd57-48af-84c9-fbfb22d0a02a
Which of the following antiarrhythmic agent does not belong to class 1C
Tocainide
Encainide
Flecainide
Propafenone
0a
multi
Refer kK sharma 306, Goodman and Gilman 10e 962 Although the name is similar to the class 1C agents(like flecainide, encainide) ,tocainide belongs to class 1B The clinical use of class IC antiarrhythmic drugs. Abi Samra F. Flecainide, encainide, and propafenone belong to class IC antiarrhythmic drugs. They are new and potent drugs which markedly depress Phase 0 of the action potential without affecting repolarization
Anatomy
General anatomy
[ "flecainide" ]
157,317
614f318c-c0c2-4a53-85e0-dc4a96f02463
One has to be careful about hypoglycaemia when patient gives history of taking this drug:
Chlorpropamide (Daonil)
Furosemide (furosemide)
Corticosteroids (Wysolone)
Theophylline (Deriphylline)
0a
single
Chlorpropamide: It is a long-acting sulfonylurea oral hypoglycaemic, found to reduce urine volume in DI of pituitary origin, but not in renal DI. It sensitizes the kidney to ADH action.  DI = Diabetes Insipidus. Due to its long duration of action, one has to be careful about hypoglycaemia, when patient gives history of taking this drug. Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD  TRIPATHI  page no 644
Pharmacology
null
[ "theophylline", "furosemide", "chlorpropamide", "lasix" ]
157,318
7d9b6800-8202-4ff7-8df9-93b861b87fda
Half Life of digoxin is
24hrs
40hrs
48hrs
60hrs
1b
single
Ref-KDT 7/e p55 Digoxin and digitoxin are the main digitalis products. Digoxin is absorbed quickly from the gastrointestinal tract with a bioavailability of between 75% and 95%. It is eliminated primarily through kidneys; therefore, it has a half-life of 36-48 hours in patients who have normal kidney function and 3.5-5 days in patients who are anuric. The reference range for digoxin is as follows: 0.8-2 ng/mL (1.2-2 nmol/L) Half-life: 36 hours Toxic level: more than 2 ng/mL
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "digoxin" ]
157,322
55648f75-9f6c-4349-82b6-bb5c16fef6cb
. All of the following statements about the use of spironolactone in CHF are true except
It should be administered in low doses to prevent hyperkalemial
It affords prognostic benefit in severe hea failure over and above that afforded by ACE inhibitors
It helps to overcome the refractoriness to thiazides
It affords rapid symptomatic relief in CHF patients
3d
multi
(Ref KDT 6/e p507) Loop diuretics are used to provide rapid symptomatic relief whereas aldosterone antagonists decrease the moality by reversing myocardial remodeling
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "spironolactone" ]
157,332
4e104b64-82e9-414d-8ebf-c24f8ac476de
All of the following drugs can produce hyperuricemia EXCEPT :
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Sulfinpyrazone
Hydrochlorothiazide
2c
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ethambutol", "hydrochlorothiazide" ]
157,336
a8630f17-9f86-4225-b588-4cef27ad2adf
A 40 year old man presents to his physician with complaints of substernal pain radiating to his left shoulder, occurring when he is at rest. The pain improves when he gets up and moves around, and responds to sublingual nitroglycerin. This patient's symptoms are thought to be caused by which of the following processes?
Coronary aery atherosclerosis
Coronary aery embolism
Coronary aery spasm
Coronary aery thrombosis
2c
single
The pattern of angina described is called Prinzmetal's variant angina, and is believed to be due to coronary aery spasm occurring during rest. Up to 75% of patients with this disorder can be shown to have a fixed obstruction within 1 cm of the site of aerial spasm. Patients with Prinzmetal's angina are often younger than patients with unstable angina secondary to coronary atherosclerosis. The diagnosis may be confirmed by observing a spontaneous coronary aery spasm (or provoking one by administering ergonovine or acetylcholine, or instructing the patient to hyperventilate) during angiography. Atherosclerosis is the cause of typical angina that occurs with exeion. Embolism in the coronary aeries is somewhat unusual, but can occur if a plaque from the aoa breaks off and lodges in a coronary vessel. Thrombosis characteristically produces unstable or crescendo angina with worsening chest pain. Ref: Mohrman D.E., Heller L.J. (2010). Chapter 11. Cardiovascular Function in Pathological Situations. In D.E. Mohrman, L.J. Heller (Eds), Cardiovascular Physiology, 7e.
Physiology
null
[ "nitroglycerin" ]
157,353
38b2429a-be30-4d5b-9184-7a6d7520c89e
Which of the following is not a GnRH agonist?
Leuprolide
Nafarelin
Ganirelix
Busurelin
2c
single
GnRH Agonist Drugs Leuprolide Nafarelin Goserelin Buserelin -They are all injectables. -They all have flare up reaction as adverse effect when given in continuous form GnRH Antagonist Drugs Cetrorelix Ganirelix Abarelix Degarelix -Given as injectables -They do not increase the sex hormone
Pharmacology
Pituitary-Hypothalmic System and Thyroid
[ "nafarelin" ]
157,358
97e452ed-ca3f-4608-a970-c1e8860ea047
Which of the following is used to treat severe pulmonary hypertension ?
Angiotensin I
Omapatrilat
Bosentan
Endothelin
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "bosentan" ]
157,361
70fcbcb4-3b40-4b4a-90d0-df0e576d98d6
Akathisia is treated by
Haloperidol
Fluoxetine
Propranolol
Lithium
2c
single
(Refer: Harrison&;s Principles of Internal medicine, 18th edition, pg no - 3544)
Pathology
All India exam
[ "propranolol", "fluoxetine" ]
157,374
e5c9278c-c17e-4bf8-9b23-cdd53ade6ad1
Bisphosphonate-induced osteomalacia is common with
Alendronate
Pamidronate
Zolendronate
Etidronate
3d
single
Etidronate is 1st gen bisphosphonate The first generation bisphosphonates, such as etidronate (ETD), a non-nitrogen containing bisphosphonate, displays considerable anti-mineralization activity but is a relatively low-potency inhibitor of osteoclasts. Bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (BRONJ) is a condition found in patients who have received intravenous and oral forms of bisphosphonate therapy for various bone-related conditions. it manifests as exposed, nonvital bone involving the maxillofacial structures. it is caused by to dentoalveolar structures that have a limited capacity for bone healing due to the effects of bisphosphonate therapy. REF KD tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "alendronate" ]
157,412
34c947d0-4ac3-45b3-bb8c-6f9309d9c511
28 year old female who is a known case of bipolar disorder on lithium therapy is posted for varicose vein repair. What should be done regarding lithium
Stop lithium 24 hours prior to surgery
Continue lithium till the day of surgery
Replace lithium with diazepam
None
0a
multi
Lithium has to be stopped 24 hrs prior to surgery.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "diazepam" ]
157,413
a972059b-c184-4417-bf13-c024580004fb
Treatment of choice for LegionnaEUR' aiere's disease is:
TC
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Streptomycin
1b
single
Erythromycin
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin" ]
157,420
25109b14-5144-4ca5-ba3e-cc93c695119c
Cough is an adverse reaction seen with intake of
Thiazide
Nifedipine
Enalapril
Prazosin
2c
single
Refer kDT 6/e p984 ACE inhibitor cause adverse reaction like cough. The CAPTOPRIL mnemonic can be used to remember the side effects of ACE inhibitors: cough, angioedema, potassium changes, taste change, hyp-O-tension, pregnancy changes, rash, increased renin, and lower angiotensin II. Another side effect is hyperkalemia.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "prazosin", "nifedipine", "enalapril" ]
157,439
1bd0a909-0ed4-494d-958f-d3c4760f929f
An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard the voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the next room. She went to check but saw nothing. Subsequently she often heard his voice conversing with her and she would also discuss her daily matters with him. This however, provoked anxiety and sadness of mood when she would remain preoccupied with thoughts about him. She should be treated with:
Clomipramine
Alprazolam
Electroconvulsive therapy
Haloperidol
3d
single
In this case, death happened "couple of years ago". The first time she had auditory hallucinations was after a week of his death and since then it has been happening. Now, in grief "brief hallucinations" can occur however here the hallucinations are often and patient is even discussing the daily matters with the "voice". This clearly shows presence of psychotic symptoms which should be diagnosed separately. Please remember patient can develop all kind of psychiatric disorders like depression, anxiety, PTSD in association with grief and if the symptoms are severe enough, they should receive separate diagnosis. This patient has psychotic symptoms (i.e. hallucinations) and should be treated with an antipsychotic, haloperidol. The treatment depends on symptoms, in case of occasional anxiety, Alprazolam could have been used. In case of significant depressive symptoms antidepressant could have been used, but since the psychotic symptoms are prominent, we must use an antipsychotic.
Psychiatry
Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders
[ "alprazolam", "clomipramine" ]
157,442
74326026-d6f4-4c64-bc65-9d5654409271
Which of the following is a bactericidal drug for Mycobacterium leprae?
Ofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Amoxicillin
Erythromycin
0a
single
Ans. (A) Ofloxacin(Ref: KDT 7th/e p782)Ofloxacin, pefloxacin, moxifloxacin and sparfloxacin are fluoroquinolones effective against leprosy and fluoroquinolone are bactericidal drugs.
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy: General Principles
[ "erythromycin", "ciprofloxacin", "ofloxacin" ]
157,443
5b53e9e0-7aba-4e81-9752-ed837d339489
Which of the following doesn't worsen angina?
Sumatriptan
Oxyfedrine
Dipyridamole
Thyroxine
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oxyfedrine Drugs that exacerbate Angina o Amphetamines o Alpha blocker o Beta agonists o Beta blockers withdrawal o Dipyridamol o Vasopressin o Ergotamine o Decongestants o Excessive thyroxine o Hydralazine o Methysergide o Minoxidil o Nifedipine o Nicotine and cocaine o Oxytocin o Sumatriptan o Theophylline
Pharmacology
null
[ "sumatriptan", "thyroxine" ]
157,458
93793bc4-20d8-4560-8aa0-91c30cbe5166
Which of the following is not a contraindication for timolol?
Bronchial asthma
Anxiety
MI
Thyrotoxicosis
1b
single
Timolol maleate is a non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent. It is contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma, a history of bronchial asthma, severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, thyrotoxicosis, sinus bradycardia, second or third degree atrioventricular block, ove cardiac failure, cardiogenic shock, hypersensitivity to any component of this product.
Pharmacology
null
[ "timolol" ]
157,469
c8cc7473-338f-4a41-a456-069d5088c760
Parathormone has all of the following effects, except
Increased bone resorption
Increased Ca+2 reabsorption in kidney
Increased phosphate reabsorption in kidney J
Increased calcitriol synthesis
2c
multi
Parathyroid hormone (PTH), also called parathormone or parathyrin, is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands that is impoant in bone remodeling, which is an ongoing process in which bone tissue is alternately resorbed and rebuilt over time.Parathyroid hormone regulates serum calcium through its effects on bone, kidney, and the intestine:In bone, PTH enhances the release of calcium from the large reservoir contained in the bones. Bone resorption is the normal destruction of bone by osteoclasts, which are indirectly stimulated by PTH.In the kidney, Circulating parathyroid hormone influences the reabsorption that occurs in the distal tubules and the renal collecting ducts.PTH reduces the reabsorption of phosphate from the proximal tubule of the kidney.PTH increases the activity of 1-a-hydroxylase enzyme, which conves 25-hydroxycholecalciferol, the major circulating form of inactive vitamin D, into 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of vitamin D, in the kidney.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-377
Physiology
Endocrinology
[ "calcitriol" ]
157,480
068e4ab4-a34b-49e6-81f6-8c38d83cc11c
By which of the following anticoagulants used in estimating blood glucose, glycolysis is prevented-
EDTA
Heparin
Sodium fluoride
Sodium citrate
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sodium Fluoride Fluoride inhibits Enolase, an important enzyme involved in Glycolysis This enzyme catalyzes the following step in glycolysis. Enolase 2 phosphoglycerate > Phosphoenol pyruvate.Inhibition of Enolase causes subsequent inhibition of Glycolysis.This property of Fluoride is utilized when blood is collected in tubes to estimate blood glucose.Fluoride inhibits glycolysis by inhibiting enolase, this will help in correct determination of the glucose level as glycolysis will not be able to affect the level of glucose.
Biochemistry
Glycolysis
[ "edta" ]
157,485
411dc486-32fd-4b65-acc2-bebaf970176f
A 25 year old nulliparous woman at 35 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward complaining of contractions, a headache, and flashes of light in front of her eyes. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated except for an episode of first trimester bleeding that completely resolved. She has no medical problems. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg, pulse is 88/minute, and respirations are 12/minute. Examination shows that her cervix is 2 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced, and that she is contracting every 2 minutes. The fetal hea tracing is in the 140s and reactive. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Laboratory values are as follows: leukocytes 9,400/mm3, hematocrit 35%, platelets 101,000/mm3. Aspaate aminotransferase (AST) is 200 U/L, and ALT 300 U/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administer oxytocin
Discharge the patient
Encourage ambulation
Sta magnesium sulfate
3d
multi
This patient has severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is diagnosed on the basis of hypeension, edema, and proteinuria. Severe preeclampsia may be diagnosed when the patient has one of the following: a headache that does not respond to analgesics, visual changes, seizure, very elevated blood pressures, pulmonary edema, elevated liver function tests, severe proteinuria, oliguria, an elevated creatinine, thrombocytopenia, hemolysis, intrauterine growth restriction, or oligohydramnios. The management of severe preeclampsia after 32 weeks is with delivery. Prior to 32 weeks, consideration may be given to expectant management of the patient depending on the clinical circumstances. This patient is at 35 weeks' with headache, visual changes, elevated blood pressures, thrombocytopenia, and elevated liver function tests. She, therefore, needs to be delivered. She appears to already be in labor as she is contracting every two minutes and her cervix is dilated and effaced. At this point, magnesium sulfate should be staed. Magnesium sulfate has consistently been demonstrated to be the most effective medication for seizure prophylaxis in women with preeclampsia. To administer oxytocin would not be necessary for this patient. She appears to already be in labor with contractions every two minutes. To discharge the patient would absolutely be incorrect. Severe preeclampsia need to be delivered or, at the very least, admitted to the hospital. There is no role for discharging a patient home in the management of severe preeclampsia. To encourage ambulation would also be incorrect. Severe preeclampsia should be kept on bed rest. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 34. Pregnancy Hypeension. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "oxytocin" ]
157,486
97ad58b7-909a-4495-b3c5-b2862faea188
A 38 years old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anaesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours. Which of the following induction agent is preferred
Thiopentone sodium
Ketamine
Propofol
Diazepam
2c
single
C. i.e. (Propofol) (158 - 60 Lee's synopsis of anesthesia 13th)PROPOFOL - particularly suited for out patient surgery because residual impairment is less marked and incidence of post operative nausea and vomiting* Only agent which are rapidly eliminated are used eg Propofol, alfentanil, remifentanil, N20 Isoflurance,sevoflurane or desflurane* Commercial preparation contains egg extract (lecithin)**Advantage* Fitness to go to work - usually the following day* Fitness to return home - fitness to go out alone* Fitness to walk to the bathroom without feeling faint* The induction dose of propofol in healthy adult is - 1 - 2.5 mg/Kg* Used in Porphyria*** & malignant hyperthermia**Propofol Infusion syndrome - potentially lethal syndrome of metabolic acidosis, acute cardiomyopathy and skeletal myopathy associated with prolonged (>48 hours) high doses (>5m/ kg/h)* Midazolam can be safely uses for day care procedures*** Propofol is the agent of choice for total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)
Surgery
Miscellaneous
[ "ketamine", "diazepam", "propofol" ]
157,492
18f72940-51dd-4dc3-8079-528a767f16e0
Regarding ketamine all are true except
Ketamine acts on NMDA receptors in brain
Indirectly acting sympathomimetic agent
Contraindicated in shock
Agent of choice in asthma patients.
2c
multi
Ketamine being sympathomimetic, is agent of choice in shock.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine" ]
157,511
1295fcc9-56aa-4d35-ab26-5edd80eab64f
Drug used in acute iron poisoning is:
BAL
Desferrioxamine-B
Methylene blue
EDTA
1b
single
(Desferrioxamine-B): Ref: 11-30 - PPoisoningTreatments* Iron salt* Iodine* Lead* Hydrocyanic acid* Opium* Paracetamol* Copper sulphate- Gastric lavage, leave dilute NaHCO3 in stomach, Electrolyte correction, desferrioxane - B- Sodium thiosulfate orally, Demulcents- EDTA, Penicillamine- Dicobalt tetracemate, Methylene blue- Methadone- Cysteamine- Potassium ferrocyanide, BAL, Cuprimine Magnesium sulfate
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology
[ "edta" ]
157,514
5b1cd827-1099-4a21-9a84-89d9481a1811
A new born with a marked CHD with decreased pulmonary vascularity should be treated with?
Digoxin
Indomethacin
Prostaglandin E1
Epinephrine
2c
single
.
Pathology
All India exam
[ "epinephrine", "digoxin", "indomethacin" ]
157,517
723c10f1-2c6f-45f9-a8f8-6a5ed8ff9960
Oligospermia is a side effect of which of the following drug:
Methotrexate
D-Penicillamine
Lefluonamide
Hydroxychloroquine
0a
single
Methotrexate
Pharmacology
null
[ "methotrexate", "hydroxychloroquine", "penicillamine" ]
157,531
bf009ffe-2da6-4cad-9685-64cb54e01034
The preferred drug for controlling an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis is:
Prednisolone
Sulfasalazine
Mesalazine
Vancomycin
0a
single
- Coicosteroids are the mainstay of treatment of acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. - so, among the given options prednisolone is best to be used in controlling acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
Pharmacology
Gastro-Intestinal Tract
[ "prednisolone", "sulfasalazine", "vancomycin", "mesalazine" ]
157,532
cf639255-3344-4e51-b129-2666f3c07eff
In central serous retinopathy –
Often shows focal leakage on fluorescein fundus photography
A macular hole is a common end result
The image perceived by the patient on the affected side in unilateral cases is bigger than on the normal side
A dense central scotoma is the most common presentation
0a
single
Fluorescein angiography shows focal leakage of fluorescein in cenral serous retinopathy. Image of an object is perceived smaller than normal side, i.e., metamorphosia. Common end result is spontaneous healing Most common presentation is sudden painless loss of vision.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "fluorescein" ]
157,543
357b2918-c345-4cfb-aea9-f6e59c40c561
Which among the following drug is contra–indicated in renal failure ?
Pethidine
Morphine
Fentanyl
Atracurium
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "morphine", "atracurium", "pethidine", "fentanyl" ]
157,551
133e0943-deea-471f-bf69-db7d277cc89b
Sustained neutropenia is seen with
Vinbalstine
Cisplatin
Carmustine
Cycloohosphamide
2c
single
Refer Goodman Gilman 11/e p1330 KDT 6/e p822. Myrelosuppression leading to neutropenia ,thrombocytopenia and anemia is seen is seen with most of the anticancer drugs The characterstic features of Myelosuprresion produced by carmustine
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "cisplatin" ]
157,557
286b669b-ee22-4d53-a226-2bc5c04470e7
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is said to be Multi - drug resistant if it is resistant to:
Isoniazid alone
Rifampicin Alone
Both Isoniazid and Rifampicin
Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ethambutol
2c
multi
Ans. C. Both Isoniazid and RifampicinM tuberculosis is said to be multidrug resistant if it is resistant to Rifampicin and Isoniazid. And it is known as XDR if it is resistant to Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Fluoroquinolone and one of the three injectable drugs (Amikacin, kanamycin and capreomycin)
Pediatrics
Infection
[ "ethambutol", "isoniazid" ]
157,574
7fa39100-dca0-445c-9752-860e11c55f81
Hypeonic dysfunctional labour is generally characterised by:
Rapid cervical dilatation
Less pain In labour
Responds ourably to oxytocin stimulation
Needs adequate pain relief
3d
multi
Hypeonic state of uterus or Imcordinate uterine action : Patient is in agony with unbearable pain referred to back Oxytocin cause fetal tachycardia due to fetal stress Inappropriate dilatation of cervix Uterus is tender and gentle manipulation excites hardening of the uterus with pain. Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 337.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Abnormal labor
[ "oxytocin" ]
157,584
cbf62cda-fb2f-476c-a9f6-cba1583ef1b9
Which of the following drug is cell cycle phase specific?
Ifosfamide
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
Chlorambucil
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bleomycin Bleomycin is specific for G2 phase. o Alkylating agents (Ifosfamide, chlorambucil) and platinum compound (cisplatin) are cell cycle nonspecific.
Pharmacology
null
[ "chlorambucil", "cisplatin" ]
157,587
ffac3981-2a84-4de1-b63a-8ed991fb23ba
A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife because of memory loss and difficulty walking. She has noticed personality changes, truancy from work, and lack of personal care over the past 1 year. On examination he appears unkempt, smells of urine, and is uncooperative. He cannot recall the date or season, and gets angry when asked questions. His answers are often fabricated when checked with his wife. The blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, pulse 100/min, and he is diaphoretic and tremulous. His gait is wide based, and motor strength and reflexes are normal. His ocular movements are normal but there is nystagmus on lateral gaze. In the past he has had multiple admissions for alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
prophylactic phenytoin administration
prophylactic diazepam administration
prophylactic carbamazepine administration
calcium administration
1b
multi
Prophylactic administration of diazepam in a withdrawing alcoholic can prevent or reduce severe syndromes such as delirium tremens (DTs). Prophylactic phenytoin, however, is not helpful. A calm, quiet environment with close observation and frequent reassurance is very important. Vitamin administration (especially thiamine) is important, but frequently, severe magnesium depletion slows improvement.
Medicine
C.N.S.
[ "carbamazepine", "diazepam", "phenytoin" ]
157,588
18dd3ec6-81c3-431c-a3c8-60cad9f1fc3d
The following statements about Bupivacaine are true except
Must never be injected into a vein
More cardiotoxic than lignocaine
0.5 percent is effective for sensory block
It produces methaemoglobinemia
3d
multi
Prilocaine is the local anesthetic that produces methemoglobinemia as an adverse effect. All other statements are true. Ref: K D Tripathi; 7th edition; Page no 367
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
[ "bupivacaine" ]
157,600
0d37dcd5-3067-4c88-a9f0-a9f862a9f319
Stroke prevention
Streptokinase
Streptase
Warfarin
Tissue plasminogen activator
2c
single
(C) Warfarin# MEDICATIONS for TIA/STROKE PREVENTION> Anti-platelet medications:> Anti-platelet medications used to prevent and reduce the risk of stroke include: Aspirin; Aspirin/extended-release dipyridamole; Clopidogrel; Ticlopidine> Aspirin is the most commonly used preventive therapy for patients at risk for stroke. However, at least 10 percent of patients are unable to take aspirin long-term, usually due to stomach problems.> Anticoagulant medication: that is usually prescribed to reduce the risk of stroke is warfarin. Warfarin usually is prescribed in patients with atrial fibrillation and other cardiovascular disorders to reduce the risk of stroke. If you are in the hospital, heparin is an anticoagulant that may be given intravenously. Anticoagulants can also be injected into the skin to prevent clots in the legs. Such clots can form when patients are on bed rest.> Anticoagulants decrease the blood's ability to clot and prevent the formation of additional clots. If you are prescribed an anticoagulant, your follow-up will include frequent blood tests so your response to the medication can be monitored.> Treatment for acute (sudden onset) stroke is the administration of a thrombolytic agent, or "clot buster," including streptokinase or streptase and tissue plasminogen activator (TPA).> These medications can dissolve the blockage within the artery to restore blood flow to the brain. They must be given within the first three hours of the onset of stroke symptoms and are usually given in a hospital where the patient can be closely monitored. The risk, however, is bleeding into the brain, which can worsen the disability. Patients need to be carefully screened and evaluated before and after thrombolytic treatment.
Medicine
Miscellaneous
[ "warfarin", "streptokinase" ]
157,612
b581f2d3-849d-47c1-8bcb-671688906489
Testosterone inhibitors are all except ?
Spironolactone
Flutamide
Finasteride
Sildenafil
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sildenafil
Pharmacology
null
[ "flutamide", "spironolactone", "sildenafil" ]
157,613
87c54909-e9e1-4ad3-89ab-69739055aee9
Which of the following drug is a 5HT2c agonist approved for treatment of obesity and causes Serotonin Syndrome as an adverse effect?
Lorcaserin
Sibutramine
Modafinil
Rimonabant
0a
single
Lorcaserin: 5HT2c agonist Causes weight loss S/E: Serotonin syndrome Sibutramine: Serotonin and nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor Discontinued due to increased risk of stroke Modafinil: used in treatment of Narcolepsy Rimonabant: Inverse agonist of cannabinoid receptor - 1 Causes weight loss Prevents craving of alcohol S/E: psychological problems (withdrawn)
Pharmacology
Histamine, 5-HT and PGs
[ "modafinil", "lorcaserin" ]
157,634