id
stringlengths 36
36
| question
stringlengths 7
1.22k
| opa
stringlengths 1
175
| opb
stringlengths 1
247
| opc
stringlengths 1
240
| opd
stringlengths 1
195
| cop
class label 4
classes | choice_type
stringclasses 2
values | exp
stringlengths 1
15k
⌀ | subject_name
stringclasses 21
values | topic_name
stringclasses 840
values | found_keywords
sequencelengths 1
10
| local_id
int64 4
183k
|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
df4037c5-e602-4360-828a-bc1124733dc4 | G.P. is plasticized (softened) by | Alcohol | Chloroform | Eugenol | EDTA | 1b
| single | null | Dental | null | [
"edta"
] | 155,333 |
f342478a-6e8a-495e-a318-80b2247f6122 | Peripheral aerial disease can be treated by all, EXCEPT: | Pentoxifylline | Cilostazol | Sildenafil | Percutaneous angioplasty | 2c
| multi | Pentoxifylline, a xanthine derivative, is thought to act by reducing the viscosity of blood, allowing it to flow more easily through paially obstructed areas. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase type 3 (PDE3) inhibitor, is poorly understood, but may have selective antiplatelet and vasodilating effects. Both drugs have been shown to increase exercise tolerance in patients with severe claudication. Percutaneous angioplasty with stenting is often effective in patients with medically intractable signs and symptoms of ischemia. Ref: Katzung, 11th edition, Chapter 12. | Pharmacology | null | [
"sildenafil",
"cilostazol"
] | 155,348 |
10ad4257-6232-418e-a4f9-a38ef90941e4 | Aryan, a 14-year–old boy presented with chronic diarrhea and weight loss. History reveals that he has repeated attacks of respiratory tract infections with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. His younger brother died from a severe respiratory infection at the age of 7. Which of the following agents is most likely to improve this patient's condition | Octreotide | Pancreatic lipase | Metronidazole | Loperamide | 1b
| single | In a young male, a history of recurrent respiratory infections with P. aeruginosa, chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and death of a sibling due to respiratory infection suggests a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF). Chronic diarrhea and weight loss in patients with CF are typically caused by malabsorption secondary to pancreatic insufficiency and can be corrected by pancreatic enzyme supplementation. | Pharmacology | null | [
"metronidazole",
"loperamide",
"octreotide"
] | 155,352 |
b806dad8-1798-4bbc-a447-e077c1815996 | A patient Amit Kumar is suffering from atherosclerosis. Which of the following is the most beneficial drug for prevention of stroke in this patient ? | Aspirin | Warfarin | Low dose subcutaneous heparin | Digoxin | 0a
| single | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"digoxin",
"warfarin"
] | 155,354 |
a1d788bf-ec6d-4347-a7c5-28c3da42ee92 | What is the alternative drug for epinephrine in ACLS? | Amiodarone infusion | Atropine | High dose vasopressin | Adenosine | 2c
| single | Ans. c. High dose vasopressinADVANCED CARDIAC LIFE SUPPORT ALGORITHMS | Medicine | C.V.S. | [
"epinephrine",
"amiodarone",
"vasopressin",
"atropine"
] | 155,361 |
29986844-1c38-47d7-8084-0092f8072914 | A patient after valve replacement will require follow up treatment with | Warfarin | ACE inhibitors | Beta blockers | Thiazide | 0a
| single | Warfarin-Warfarin being oral anticoagulant is used as prophylaxis after valve replacement because of propensity of these pts. developing thromboembolism is higher. Rx- warfarin + Inj heparin -life time use Heparin is discontinued after five days where as warfarin is taken lifelong. As warfarin takes at least 5 days to show its effect. Note-with warfarin therapy INR monitoring should be done. | Pharmacology | FMGE 2019 | [
"warfarin"
] | 155,378 |
8b7a8f39-9807-4b50-ae66-80369a9e7cef | What is proposed mechanism of dissociative anesthesia effect of ketamine:- | Inhibition of thalmocoical pathway | Stimulation of limbic system | Both | None | 2c
| multi | Ketamine produces dissociative anesthesia which is characterized by a state wherein the patient is conscious (eg., eye opening, swallowing, muscle contracture) but unable to process or respond to sensory input. It acts as an antagonist at the phencyclidine site of the NMDA receptor. Ketamine functionally "dissociates" the thalamus (which relays sensory impulses from the reticular activating system to the cerebral coex) from the limbic coex (which is involved with the awareness of sensation). Though the patient may have intact corneal, cough, and swallow reflexes, they need not be protective. | Anaesthesia | Intravenous Anesthetic Agents | [
"ketamine"
] | 155,379 |
b397c823-d371-481c-b221-b3b3b5a4ce08 | Which antihypeensive is a prodrug and is coveed to its active form in brain? | Clonidine | Methyldopa | Minoxidil | Nitroprusside | 1b
| single | (Ref: KDT 6/e p547) Although both methyldopa and minoxidil are produrgs, conversion of methyldopa to a-methylnorepinephrine takes place in the brain whereas minoxidil is activated to minoxidil sulphate (by phase II reaction) in the periphery. | Anatomy | Other topics and Adverse effects | [
"methyldopa",
"nitroprusside",
"clonidine"
] | 155,380 |
83e5d0b5-e019-46b0-a218-7cca98fb56ba | False statement regarding phenytoin is:- | It is highly protein bound | Its half-life increases with increase in dose | It is a microsomal enzyme inducer | It follows zero order kinetics at lower doses | 3d
| multi | Most of the drugs which follow zero order kinetics, do so at higher plasma concentration including phenytoin PHENYTOIN It is a non sedating oral antiepileptic drug. Fosphenytoin is a water soluble prodrug of phenytoin that can be administered parenterally (i.v. or i.m.) for acute attack of seizures (status epilepticus). Fosphenytoincauses hyperphosphatemia in renal failure . ECG monitoring is must while administering fosphenytoin intravenously due to cardiotoxic effect . These drugs act by blocking the use dependent Na+ channels. Phenytoin is useful in GTCS and paial seizures. It can also be used as an anti-arrhythmic drug (class Ib) for the treatment of digitalis induced arrhythmia. This drug follows saturation kinetics (kinetics changes from first order to zero order at high doses, within therapeutic concentrations). Phenytoin from different manufacturers (different brands) have different bioavailability and therefore brand change can lead to toxicity or suboptimal levels. It is also a potent enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of various drugs. | Pharmacology | Epilepsy | [
"phenytoin"
] | 155,384 |
a6b54aff-5961-4f54-ba58-7d7985a910b4 | Antitubercular drug which is least hepatotoxic: September 2010 | Rifampicin | Pyrazinamide | Ethambutol | INH | 2c
| single | Ans. C: Ethambutol The single biggest problem with TB treatment is drug-induced hepatitis, which has a moality rate of around 5%. Three drugs can induce hepatitis: PZA, INH and RMP (in decreasing order of frequency). It is not possible to distinguish between these three causes based purely on signs and symptoms. | Pharmacology | null | [
"ethambutol"
] | 155,393 |
358cc29b-cc5c-45b0-92a1-21255eb707bf | Orange urine and tears are adverse effect of | Rifampicin | Isoniazid | Ethambutol | Pyrazinamide | 0a
| single | A. i.e. (Rifampicin) (742- KDT6th) (398- Lipincott's 3rd* Urine of patients taking Nitrofurantoin becomes dark brown due to its metabolites* Systemic administration of phenol gives - green colour to urineDrugAdverse- effectsCommentsEthambutolOptic neuritis** with blurred vision, red- green color blindnessEstablish baseline visual acuity and color vision test monthlyIsoniazidHepatic enzyme elevation, hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy*** Take base line LFT measurement* Clinically significant interaction with phenytoin* and anifungal agents (azols)PyrazinamideNausea, hepatitis, hyperuricemia**, rash joint ache, gout (rare)Take base line LFT and uric acid measurementRifampinHepatitis, GI upset, flue- like syndrome,**Take baseline LFT and CBC count, Warn patients that urine and tears may turn red- orange in color**StreptomycinOtotoxicity, nephrotoxicity**Do base line audiography and renal function tests* Red Man's Syndrome is caused by vancomycin (Fever, Urticaria and Intense flushing) | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | [
"ethambutol",
"isoniazid"
] | 155,395 |
a33b81ad-234a-44fb-bffe-e183528c805b | First step in management of raised intracranial pressure | Airway maintainance | Breathing | iv mannitol | Loading dose of epsolin | 0a
| multi | Answer- A. Airway maintainanceABC is followed i.e. Airway Breathing then Circulation is evaluated in order. | Surgery | null | [
"mannitol"
] | 155,409 |
0e3181d6-b911-4985-9c48-5a20b89e2c6c | Which of the following is LEAST useful in treatment of OCD? | Clomipramine | SSRIs | Cognitive behavioral therapy | Systematic desensitization | 3d
| single | SSRIs, Clomipramine and CBT are all first line treatment. Systematic desensitization is least effective of all. | Psychiatry | Neurotic, Stress Related and Somatoform Disorders | [
"clomipramine"
] | 155,416 |
560898ea-4bec-4998-b4e0-c8d7eb99084f | All of the following cause macrocytic anaemia,except - | Primaquine | Methotrexate | Trimethoprin | Azathioprine | 0a
| multi | null | Pathology | null | [
"methotrexate",
"azathioprine"
] | 155,442 |
adea7e09-5a75-454d-91df-88d3835167f7 | A 55-year-old female developed ESRD due to poorly controlled diabetes. She underwent dialysis 2-3 times a week. She was advised for kidney transplant which she received from cadaveric donor. She was put on immunosuppressive therapy with azathioprine, cyclosporine, methylprednisolone and anti-thymocyte globulin. Two weeks following the surgery, the patient was discharged on medications. 2 weeks later she presented to emergency with complaints of decreased urine output. On examination, her BP was noted to be 160/95 mm hg. The region of the graft is enlarged and is tender to touch. Lab investigations revealed serum creatinine of 4 mg/dl. Her differential diagnosis includes transplant rejection and drug toxicity. Which drug could be held responsible for the above clinical scenario? | Azathioprine | Cyclosporine | Methylprednisolone | ATG | 1b
| multi | Cyclosporine: Immunosuppressive agent with efficacy in human organ transplantation treatment of graft-versus-host (GVH) disease after hematopoietic stem cell transplantation treatment of selected autoimmune disorders. Cyclosporine act at an early stage in the antigen receptor-induced differentiation of T cells and blocks their activation. Cyclosporine binds to cyclophilin (immunophilins). Toxicities are numerous and include Nephrotoxicity hypeension, hyperglycemia liver dysfunction hyperkalemia Altered mental status Seizures hirsutism. Cyclosporine uses: Cadaveric transplantation of the kidney, pancreas, and liver, and useful in cardiac transplantation. With methotrexate: Prophylactic regimen to prevent GVH disease after allogeneic stem cell transplantation. Autoimmune disorders Uveitis rheumatoid ahritis psoriasis asthma. | Unknown | Integrated QBank | [
"azathioprine",
"cyclosporine",
"methylprednisolone"
] | 155,451 |
c28d5ab1-bd66-4974-a8be-6c4edc3e444f | Oral hypoglycemic which should be stopped prior to surgery under GA: | Pioglitazone | Metformin | Gliclazide | Glibenclamide | 1b
| single | null | Medicine | null | [
"pioglitazone",
"metformin"
] | 155,453 |
9da0b14a-e192-4e2f-aebb-f7766bfad918 | In a patient with chronic congestive cardiac-failure, all of the following drugs prolong survival except : | Metoprolol | Carvedilol | Enalapril | Digoxin | 3d
| multi | Answer is D (Digoxin) `Digitalis does not improve survival in patients with hea failure and sinus rhythm.' It reduces symptoms of hea failure and need for hospitalization. ACE inhibitors (Corvedilol and enalapril) and Betablockers (Metaprolol) prolong life. `ACE inhibitors improve symptoms and prolong life' -- Oxford handbook 5th/122 ACE inhibitors. | Medicine | null | [
"carvedilol",
"metoprolol",
"digoxin",
"enalapril"
] | 155,460 |
cd5c22b4-a3f2-418d-9205-5dac08509931 | Sumatriptan is used in : | Mania | Depression | Schizophrenia | Migraine | 3d
| single | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"sumatriptan"
] | 155,466 |
fb9bef3a-e21c-4528-a621-16ea352072db | A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency depament with occasional severe headaches, nausea, and vomiting. Blood pressure while sitting is 230/130 mmHg with a hea rate of 90 beats/min but on standing the blood pressure drops to 200/100 mmHg and the hea rate increases to 140 beats/min. A cardiovascular examination depicted tachycardia with normal S1, S2 sounds . The patient's lungs are clear. The optic discs are blurred, but there are no exudates or hemorrhages. Select appropriate treatment for such condition . | Labetalol | Nitroprusside | Phentolamine | Hydralazine | 2c
| single | If SBP gets reduced by >20mmHg & DBP get reduced by >10mmHg On change of posture=Postural or Ohostatic Hypotension * |HR * Headache+ HTN * In early phase, the BP will be elevated for few min-hours i.e. Episodic HTN * In late phase, the BP will show postural hypotension. All are Features of Pheochromocytoma [?] Phentolamine Option A & B- used in HTN encephalopathy (Unconsciousness, brisk reflexes) Option D- can l/t reflex tachycardia which ||HR | Medicine | Raised ICP and Brain death | [
"phentolamine",
"nitroprusside",
"hydralazine",
"labetalol"
] | 155,473 |
ae9be457-aa63-4fc6-a618-d569ddf8d81e | Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma? | Lanatoprost | Brimonidine | Acetazolamide | Dorazolamide | 2c
| multi | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acetazolamide | Pharmacology | null | [
"brimonidine",
"acetazolamide"
] | 155,477 |
31b94a39-0b25-4b5d-b16d-4c4bcaf57734 | All of the following drugs are useful for long-term treatment of congestive hea failure except: | Digoxin | Ramipril | Dobutamine | Spironolactone | 2c
| multi | Dobutamine is indicated only for the acute t/t of decompensated CHF. Cardiac glycosides (digoxin) can be used for acute treatment as well as maintenance therapy of CHF. ACE inhibitors and spironolactone are indicated only for chronic CHF. | Pharmacology | CHF, Angina Pectoris and Myocardial Infarction | [
"digoxin",
"ramipril",
"spironolactone",
"dobutamine"
] | 155,479 |
b82a0c78-76ef-4a95-8a2b-1cd2fd8fb267 | The drug that should be used for prophylaxis of close contacts of a patient suffering from meningococcal meningitis is: | Rifampicin | Dapsone | Erythromycin | Amikacin | 0a
| single | - Rifampicin, ceftriaxone and ciprofloxacin are used for the prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis. - Ceftriaxone is most effective drug for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis, however it is injectable drug. - Resistance to rifampicin has been repoed in many meningococci, so it is not preferred these days. - The drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis should be chosen as Ciprofloxacin > Rifampicin > Ceftriaxone | Pharmacology | Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors | [
"amikacin",
"erythromycin",
"dapsone"
] | 155,489 |
6bfa3814-6c14-42da-8b6a-096db4b5f607 | Treatment for acute attack of Hereditary angioneurotic edema | Ecallantide | Icatibant | Danazol | C1 INH Concentrate | 3d
| multi | C1 INH Concentrate - Treatment of choice. | Microbiology | null | [
"danazol",
"icatibant"
] | 155,490 |
94d4337a-499f-4163-a4b7-513e6de5b8e2 | Which acts on nuclear receptors | Glucocorticoids | Thyroxine | Progesterone | Insulin | 1b
| single | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thyroxine Hormones with intracellular receptors (Group I hormones)* Cytoplasmic :- Glucocorticoids (cortisol/cortisone), mineralocorticoids, androgens, progestins.* Nucleus :- Estrogen, Thyroid hormones (T3, T4), retinoic acid, Vitamin D (Calcitriol or 1,25 (OH)2 D3). | Physiology | Endocrinology and Reproduction | [
"thyroxine"
] | 155,498 |
919b0298-132f-4aaa-a3e6-c5582e48577a | Moraxella catarrhalis is resistant to which antibiotic? | Amoxicillin | Clarithromycin | Azithromycin | Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid combination | 0a
| single | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Amoxicillin Treatment of M. caterrahlis infection: M. catarrhalisrapidly acquired -lactamases during the 1970s and 1980s; antimicrobial susceptibility patterns have remained relatively stable since that time, with >90% of strains now producing -lactamase and thus resistant to amoxicillin. Most strains of M. catarrhalisare susceptible to amoxicillin and clavulanic acid combination, extended-spectrum cephalosporins, newer macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin), trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole, and fluoroquinolones. | Pharmacology | null | [
"azithromycin",
"clarithromycin"
] | 155,505 |
48293923-35a9-41ba-af99-ef72d021a590 | Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in patients with hypeension? | Ketamine | Propofol | Etomidate | Diazepam | 0a
| single | Ketamine produces a increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure in a dose dependent manner and thus it is mostly avoided in patients with a history of hypeension. Ref: Irwin and Rippe's Intensive Care Medicine 6th edition, Page 215 - 216; Goldfrank's Toxicologic Emergencies 8th edition, Page 1235 - 1236. | Anaesthesia | null | [
"etomidate",
"ketamine",
"diazepam",
"propofol"
] | 155,514 |
d377036b-c6b2-44a6-8399-39b051e03d86 | In a school, a child had abscess on lower leg. Swab taken revealed gram positive beta-hemolytic streptococci, and these were bacitracin sensitive. School physician observed that similar organism was isolated from throats of many other children. Which of the following is true statement with regards to this patient - | Difference in surface protein can differentiate the pathogenic bacteria from the pharyngeal culture bacteria. | Component C carbohydrate can differentiate the pathogenic bacteria from the throat culture bacteria. | MEG 3 positive are throat culture streptococci. | Depending on M protein, the cutaneous pathogenic bacteria can be differentiated from the pharyngeal culture bacteria | 3d
| multi | null | Microbiology | null | [
"bacitracin"
] | 155,520 |
44855ee7-0b35-45d0-a3df-1c0aa92f15a4 | A primigravida at term pregnancy is in labor and on escalating doses of inj oxytocin. CTG shows persistent declarations after each contraction. On pelvic examination, patient is fully dilated, veex is positioned at station above 0 with caput. What is the best management? | Increase oxytocin drop rate | Ventouse delivery | Outlet Forceps delivery | Caesarean delivery | 3d
| multi | The patient is showing persistent late type of decelerations suggestive of non-reassuring Fetal Hea status, therefore delivery must be expedited with either instrumental delivery or caesarean section Since an impoant prerequisite for outlet forceps or ventouse application is that the fetal skull should have reached the pelvic floor, and the station in question is above 0,so ideal management is emergency LSCS. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Caesarean section | [
"oxytocin"
] | 155,532 |
7face051-e8b0-431d-916e-8e894e2602cb | Which of the following is not used in acute attack of severe pain due to gout ? | Indomethacine | Colchicine | Febuxostat | Coicosteroids | 2c
| single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Febuxostat | Pharmacology | null | [
"colchicine",
"febuxostat"
] | 155,539 |
c677d36b-e32a-43cd-ae77-1437c9b22cad | Dapsone is NOT used in: March 2013 | Alopecia areata | Leprosy | Dermatitis herpetiformis | Malarial prophylaxis | 0a
| single | Ans. A i.e. Alopecia areata Alopecia areata (AA) Non-cicatricial/ non scaring alopecia Exclamation mark sign is characteristic Clinical presentation: Single or multiple circumscribed smooth patchy hair loss, most obviously on scalp but frequently involving any hair bearing skin like beard, eyebrows, eyelashes, with pathognomic "exclamation marks" and "going gray overnight" phenomenon AA is treated by: Minoxidil | Skin | null | [
"dapsone"
] | 155,540 |
15e39b42-a520-4507-afc0-0dbf91b5088a | Neurotransmitter present in nigro-striatal pathway is:March 2012 | Acetylcholine | Dopamine | Epinephrine | GABA | 1b
| single | Ans: B i.e. DopamineNeurotransmittersCholinergic i.e.acetylcholine secreting neurons, are present in the pathway that emerges from cerebral coex to end in neostriatumDopaminergic neurons,are present in the nigro-striatal pathwayGABAergic fibres are present in pathway that connect cerebral coex to substantia nigra | Physiology | null | [
"epinephrine"
] | 155,601 |
f5a412a1-582f-4abb-9ccc-446f7c80e4d2 | A Patient presents with macroglossia and loss of tongue papilla. His hemoglobin (Hb) is 11.5 and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is 100. What should be the next step in investigating this patient? | B12 estimation | Brush biopsy of the lesion | Fluconazole treatment | Incision biopsy | 0a
| multi | Increased MCV (normal MCV = 79- 93.3), anemia (normal Hb = 12--16.2) and characteristic oral manifestation (macroglossia and Atrophy of Papillae) suggest the diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia. The next best step is to confirm the diagnosis by estimating vitamin B12 levels and folate levels. So B12 estimation is the single best answer of choice. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 602-03; Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 918-20; Manual of Practical Medicine By R Alagappan, 3rd Edition, Pages 327-29 | Medicine | null | [
"fluconazole"
] | 155,605 |
98b9bd56-4af4-43c9-baed-242e02fa62f0 | Which of the following does not have analgesic propey | Ether | Ketamine | Halothane | Morphine | 2c
| single | Refer KDT 6 /e p 372 Halothane and newer flourinated inhalation anesthestic agent are devoid of analgesic propey | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | [
"morphine",
"ketamine",
"halothane"
] | 155,611 |
6de6dd94-30b9-49c2-8df2-4b59526083d7 | A patient lalita present with dry mouth, pupillary dilation and warm skin, the likely drug toxicity is: | Organo-phosphorus | Carbamazepine | Lithium | Amytriptyline 1:1 | 3d
| single | D i.e. Amitryptiline Most tricyclic anti depressants eg. imipramine, amitryptiline have potent anticholinergic side effects. So atropine is not used in treatment of amitryptiline poisoningQ | Forensic Medicine | null | [
"carbamazepine"
] | 155,618 |
93716f30-8d2e-4829-861f-20d0c4ff1b59 | Urinary bladder spasmolytic having localanaesthetic propey? | Tamsulosin | Terazosin | Oxybutynin | Yohimbine | 2c
| single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Oxybutynin Oxybutynin this newer antimuscarinic has high affinity for receptors in urinary bladder and salivary glands alongwith additional smooth muscle relaxant and local anaesthetic propeies. | Pharmacology | null | [
"yohimbine",
"oxybutynin",
"terazosin",
"tamsulosin"
] | 155,623 |
1e959a44-ebca-4ef2-9593-28e4db404ac9 | Which of the following drugs is not hypoglycemic? | Ethosuxinide | Tolbutamide | Glibenclamide | Chlorpropamide | 0a
| single | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"chlorpropamide",
"tolbutamide"
] | 155,624 |
4d7f16c7-b471-434f-9892-76f6285b3831 | Pregnant,37 weeks of gestation has mild pains for 10 hours and cervix is persistently 1cm dilated and non-effaced. What will be the next appropriate management : | Sedation and wait | Augmentalion with oxytocin | Cesarean section | Amniotomy | 0a
| single | In primi, the latent phase is often long (about 8 hours) during which effacement occurs; the cervical dilatation averaging only 0.35 cm/hr. In multi, the latent phase is sho (about 4 hours) and effacement and dilatation occur simultaneously. Latent phase is the preparatory phase of the uterus and the cervix before the actual onset of labor. A latent phase that exceeds 20 hours in primigravidae or 14 hours in multiparae is abnormal. The causes include--(1) unripe cervix (2) malposition and malpresentation (3) cephalopelvic dispropoion and (4) premature rupture of the membranes. Management: Expectant management is usually done unless there is any indication (for the fetus or the mother) for expediting the delivery. Rest and analgesic are usually given. When augmentation is decided, medical methods are preferred. Amniotomy is usually avoided. Prolonged latent phase is not an indication for cesarean delivery. Ref : Dutta Obs 9e pg 376. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | General obstetrics | [
"oxytocin"
] | 155,639 |
19754025-703a-46db-b28e-6f64396c18f2 | A 44 year old businessman presents to a physician because of a markedly inflamed and painful right great toe.He states that he just returned from a convention, and had noticed increasing pain in his right foot during his plane trip home. Physical examination is remarkable for swelling and erythema of the right great toe as well as small nodules on the patient's external ear. Aspiration of the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the affected toe demonstrates needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals. Which of the following agents would provide the most immediate relief for this patient? | Allopurinol | Aspirin | Colchicine | Probenecid | 2c
| multi | The patient has gout, which is due to precipitation of monosodium urate crystals in joint spaces (notably the great toe) and soft tissues (causing tophi, which are often found on the external ears). Colchicine reduces the inflammation caused by the urate crystals by inhibiting leukocyte migration and phagocytosis secondary to an effect on microtubule assembly. Allopurinol and its metabolite, oxypurinol, inhibit xanthine oxidase, the enzyme that forms uric acid from hypoxanthine. Therapy with this agent should be begun 1-2 weeks after the acute attack has subsided. Aspirin competes with uric acid for tubular secretion, thereby decreasing urinary urate excretion and raising serum uric acid levels. At high doses (more than 2 gm daily) aspirin is a uricosuric. Probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are uricosuric agents, increasing the urinary excretion of uric acid, hence decreasing serum levels of the substance. Therapy with these agents should be begun 1-2 weeks after the acute attack has subsided. Ref: Grosser T., Smyth E. (2011). Chapter 34. Anti-inflammatory, Antipyretic, and Analgesic Agents; Pharmacotherapy of Gout. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | Pharmacology | null | [
"probenecid",
"allopurinol",
"colchicine"
] | 155,643 |
044ebe0e-def1-4743-81f8-0cd16788d932 | Which of the following is a mast cell stabilizer: September 2005 | Montelukast | Sodium chromoglycate | Cetrizine | Theophylline | 1b
| single | Ans. B: Sodium Chromoglycate Mast cell stabilizers are cromone medications used to prevent or control ceain allergic disorders. They block a calcium channel essential for mast cell degranulation, stabilizing the cell and thereby preventing the release of histamine and related mediators. Without intracellular calcium, the histamine vesicles cannot fuse to the cell membrane and degranulate. As inhalers they are used to treat asthma, as nasal sprays to treat hay fever (allergic rhinitis) and as eye drops for allergic conjunctivitis. Finally in oral form they are used to treat the rare condition of mastocytosis Cromoglicic acidicromolyrVcromoglycate/cromoglicate is traditionally described as a mast cell stabilizer, and is commonly marketed as the sodium salt sodium cromoglycate or cromolyn sodium. This drug prevents the release of inflammatory chemicals such as histamine from mast cells. | Pharmacology | null | [
"theophylline",
"montelukast"
] | 155,660 |
bbd90dcc-f431-4d11-ba5f-f7472173e999 | In MDR TB, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is resistant to: | Isoniazid + Ethambutol | Rifampcin + Ethambutol | Isoniazid + Rifampcin | Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide | 2c
| single | Mycobacterium tuberculosis resistant to Isoniazid + Rifampicin - MDR.TB
Mycobacterium.tuberculosis resistant to Isoniazid, Rifampicin and one of the Fluoroquinolone and any one of the second line drug used in Mycobacterium.tuberculosis - XDR.TB | Pharmacology | null | [
"ethambutol",
"isoniazid"
] | 155,666 |
45df68a1-368b-4542-9942-3e3b1e7d55dd | All the following drugs are used in acute anterior uveitis except | Pilocarpine | Atropine | Timolol | Propranolol | 0a
| multi | A i.e. PilocarpineMiotics eg pilocarpine or other cholinergics are contraindicated in treatment of anterior uveitis Qas these increase chances of synechiae formation. It is also contraindicated in malignant glaucoma Q & post inflammatory glaucoma Q.Mydriatic-cycloplegic drugs eg. atropine Q, homatropine, cyclopentolate are most effective drugs during acute phase of anterior uveitis. These act byi) Gives rest to eye by relieving iris sphincter and ciliary muscle spasmQii) Prevents formation of synechiae & break already formed synechiaeiii) Reduce exudation by decreasing hyperemia & vascular permeability | Ophthalmology | null | [
"pilocarpine",
"propranolol",
"atropine",
"timolol"
] | 155,674 |
768da2f5-5b3e-4376-95c8-76c8fd202cea | Thrush: | Occurs only in elderly | Is caused by a gram -ve bacteria | Is seen clinically as a proliferative lesion | Responds to nystatin | 3d
| multi | null | Pathology | null | [
"nystatin"
] | 155,693 |
de3a7af3-911e-440a-b1e1-3e6b0bd91f62 | Staphylococcus aureus remains in the skin for longer period because of - | Catalase | Coagulase | Hyaluronidase | None | 2c
| multi | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyaluronidase Hyaluronidase breaks down the connective tissue and helps in the spread of infection. | Microbiology | null | [
"hyaluronidase"
] | 155,695 |
f9e25305-0cb6-491c-a618-484b6899c970 | Which of the following system is most sensitive to atropine | Respiratory mucosa | Hea | Pupil | Gastrointestinal motility | 0a
| single | Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed: Pg no:154 The endpoint for atropinization is dried pulmonary secretions. Tachycardia and mydriasis must not be used to limit or to stop subsequent doses of atropine | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | [
"atropine"
] | 155,702 |
67a40cc7-adc6-43f9-a7b3-7afd26986cfc | Systemic vascular resistance is twice that of normal, treatment should be | Adrenaline | Nor adrenaline | Sodium nitroprusside | Isoprenaline | 2c
| single | Increase in systemic vascular resistance means vasoconstriction, this is a vasodilator drugs like nitroprusside is given. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act as vasopressors whereas isoprenaline increases systolic blood pressure by acting on hea Refer kDT 7/e p567 | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | [
"nitroprusside"
] | 155,705 |
59ab2af9-63fe-4fa0-8f5e-643e02ae7132 | All of the following are topical steroids EXCEPT ? | Hydrocoisone valerate | Fluticasone propionate | Dexamethasone | Prednisolone | 3d
| multi | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prednisolone | Pharmacology | null | [
"prednisolone",
"dexamethasone"
] | 155,711 |
fb0be7c1-acad-44d4-9e14-03f01213b154 | A gardener comes with linear nodules on the hand for last one year , how will you treat the patient. | Amphotericin B | Griseofulvin | Ampicillin | Iodine | 3d
| single | Diagnosis is Rose gardener disease/ Sporotrichosis commonly seen in farmers, gardeners, florists etc. It is caused by Sporothrix schenckii (Thermally dimorphic) Fungi Fungus may produce a series of inflamed nodules along the line of lymphatic drainage (i. e. linear lesions). Three types: C/F Rx 1. Cutaneous Nodules Itraconazole 2. Lymphatic (MC) Linear nodules with Satellite lesions Itraconazole >Saturated Solution of KI (SSKI) S/E: Thyroid problem 3. Systemic Upper lobe of lung Amphotericin B | Dental | Fungal infections | [
"ampicillin",
"griseofulvin"
] | 155,740 |
b535ad27-035b-449d-b378-28f9718d4b36 | Which of the following inhalational agent is contraindicated in renal disease? | Methoxyflurane | Sevoflurane | Desflurane | Isoflurane | 0a
| single | Methoxyflurane produces inorganic fluoride, which was responsible for the sporadic incidence of nephrotoxicity (i.e., high-output renal failure) after prolonged anesthesia Basics of anesthesia 7e pg:95 | Anaesthesia | General anaesthesia | [
"methoxyflurane",
"isoflurane",
"sevoflurane",
"desflurane"
] | 155,759 |
0b982125-19e2-46b2-9e5c-54e69e7fd5c9 | Vitamin d true is | UVB converts it to active form | It enhances intestinal absorption of proteins | Vit D3 is crgocalciferol | Cholccalcifcrol is converted to calcitriol in liver | 0a
| multi | (A) UVB converts it to active formVitamin D refers to a group of fat-soluble secosteroids responsible for enhancing intestinal absorption of calcium, iron, magnesium, phosphate and zinc. In humans, the most important compounds in this group are vitamin D3 (also known as cholecalciferol) and vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol). Cholecalciferol and ergocalciferol can be ingested from the diet and from supplements. The body can also synthesize vitamin D (specifically cholecalciferol) in the skin, from cholesterol, when sun exposure is adequate (hence its nickname, the "sunshine vitamin").Synthesis from exposure to sunlight and intake from the diet generally contribute to the maintenance of adequate serumconcentrations. Evidence indicates the synthesis of vitamin D from sun exposure is regulated by a negative feedback loop that prevents toxicity, but because of uncertainty about the cancer risk from sunlight, no recommendations are issued by the Institute of Medicine, USA, for the amount of sun exposure required to meet vitamin D requirements. Accordingly, the Dietary Reference Intakefor vitamin D assumes no synthesis occurs and all of a person's vitamin D is from food intake, although that will rarely occur in practice. As vitamin D is synthesized in adequate amounts by most mammals exposed to sunlight, it is not strictly a vitamin, and may be considered a hormone as its synthesis and activity occur in different locations. Its discovery was due to effort to find the dietary substance lacking in rickets (the childhood form of osteomalacia).Beyond its use to prevent osteomalacia or rickets, the evidence for other health effects of vitamin D supplementation in the general population is inconsistent. The best evidence of benefit is for bone health. The effect of vitamin D supplementation on mortality is not clear, with one meta-analysis finding a decrease in mortality in elderly people, and another concluding no clear justification exists for recommending vitamin D. Because it found mounting evidence for a benefit to bone health, and though it had not found good evidence of other benefits, the FDA intends to begin requiring manufacturers to declare the amount of Vitamin D on Nutrition Facts labels, because they are now "nutrients of public health significance." It's also preparing to increase the minimum recommended Daily Value (DV) for Vitamin D from 15 micrograms to 20 micrograms.In the liver, cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) is converted to calcidiol, which is also known as calcifediol (INN), 25- hydroxycholecalciferol, or 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 -- abbreviated 25(OH)D3. Ergocalciferol (vitamin D2) is converted in the liver to 25-hydroxyergocalciferol, also known as 25-hydroxyvitamin D2-- abbreviated 25(OH)D2. These two specific vitamin D metabolites are measured in serum to determine a person's vitamin D status. Part of the calcidiol is converted by the kidneys to calcitriol, the biologically active form of vitamin D. Calcitriol circulates as a hormone in the blood, regulating the concentration of calcium and phosphate in the bloodstream and promoting the healthy growth and remodeling of bone. Calcitriol also affects neuromuscular and immune function. | Orthopaedics | Metabolic Bone Disease | [
"calcitriol"
] | 155,760 |
7294769c-d5ad-4e6d-83b8-9b2baa520337 | Orderal poison is? | Physostigmine | Digoxin | Cocaine | Atropine | 0a
| single | Ans. (a) PhysostigmineRef.:Medical Toxicology edited by Richard C. Dard 3rd ed/567 | Forensic Medicine | Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques | [
"digoxin",
"atropine",
"physostigmine"
] | 155,762 |
3dc58cfb-3856-4d05-9ee7-6a36f1d0a270 | A child, known case of bronchial asthma, presents with respiratory distress with respiratory rate of 48/min, can speak barely 2 words. Nebulized salbutamol was given and patient could speak a sentence hut there was a fall in SpO2 from 95% to 85%. What could be the possible explanation? | Ventilation perfusion mismatch because of increased dead space ventilation | Intra-thoracic shunting | Due to salbutamol | Faulty pulse oximeter | 0a
| multi | Ans. a. Ventilation perfusion mismatch because of increased dead space ventilation (Ref: aryoftermspz/g/vqmis match.htm)Ventilation perfusion mismatch because of increased dead space ventilation could be the possible explanation for the child of bronchial asthma presenting with respiratory distress with respiratory rate of 48/min, speaking barely 2 words hut patient could speak a sentence with a fall in SpO2, from 95% to 85% when nebulized salbutamol was given.Ventilation Perfusion MismatchA defect, which occurs in the lungs whereby ventilation (the exchange of air between the lungs and the environment) and perfusion (the passage of blood through the lungs) are not evenly matched, a finding typical of bronchial asthma.V/Q mismatch is the most common cause of hypoxemia and a component of most causes of respiratory failure.In a patient with V/Q mismatch, there will most likely be some areas of the lungs, which are better perfused that ventilated and some areas which are better ventilated than perfused. While this occurs to some degree in the normal lung, in V/Q mismatch, it is increased significantly to the point of being pathological.In asthma, bronchospasm, mucus plugs, inflammation and airway obstruction in general worsen ventilation disrupting the balance between ventilation and perfusion | Pediatrics | Disorders of the Respiratory Tract | [
"salbutamol"
] | 155,764 |
cfa09e2f-3d3e-4bf2-9a45-d10c2e6b8572 | All of the following drugs are used to prevent relapse after alcohol de-addiction except - | Acamprosate | Disulfiram | Naltrexone | Fluoxetine | 3d
| multi | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Fluoxetine Drugs used for alcohol dependence to prevent relapse are: a Naltrexane o Acamprosate o Ondansetron o Nalmefene o Disulfiram o Topiramate | Pharmacology | null | [
"disulfiram",
"naltrexone",
"fluoxetine"
] | 155,782 |
86f5a09d-f170-4889-99a5-4b54bdab8cf7 | Second generation anti-histaminics used in allergic rhinitis are | azelastine | Fexofenadine | Chlorpheniramine maleate | Desloratidine | 0a
| multi | Chlorpheniramine and promethazine are first generation anti-histaminics. | Pharmacology | null | [
"fexofenadine",
"chlorpheniramine"
] | 155,790 |
d734e151-67a1-4f44-be20-1811ce2d6256 | A drug is shown to activate dopaminergic D1 and D2 and adrenergic α and β1 but not β2 receptors. Which of the following can be the drug being talked about? | Dopamine | Dobutamine | Methoxamine | Phenylephrine | 0a
| single | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"phenylephrine",
"dobutamine"
] | 155,793 |
a2b1d6d7-e21d-490f-80d6-f4227fb8d456 | A patient taking ketoconazole and terfenadine both, is prone to - | Cardiac arrythmia | Toxicity of ketoconazole | Congestive cardiac failure | All of the above | 0a
| multi | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cardiac arrhythmia o Terfenadine causes blockade of delayed rectifier K+ channels in the hea at higher concentration and can cause Torsades De Pointes (Polvmorph ventricular tachcardia) --> Prolonged QT interval. Drugs inhibiting the metabolism of terfenadine by inhibiting CYP3AY enzyme, can precipitate ventricular arrythmia Erythromycin, clarithromycin, itraconazole, ketoconazole. | Pharmacology | null | [
"ketoconazole"
] | 155,807 |
236a5392-863a-4187-b7c1-a623c0a8231c | All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except : | Rifampicin | Digoxin | Chloroquine | Ethambutol | 0a
| multi | A i.e. Rifampicin Ethambutol, streptomycin & isoniazid are anti-tubercular agents that cause optic neuritis.Q Rifampicin does not cause optic neuritis. | Ophthalmology | null | [
"ethambutol",
"digoxin",
"chloroquine"
] | 155,808 |
39bf4a08-de56-4812-8dc3-c0d86f8f2d32 | Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract surgery? | Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine | One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery | Trimming of eyelashes | Use of intravitreal antibiotics | 0a
| single | "The only proven method of prophylaxis against postoperative endophthalmitis is sterile ophthalmic preparation using the povidone - iodine solution on the skin (5-10%) and in the conjunctival sac (5%)".
— F. Steinest. | Ophthalmology | null | [
"povidone"
] | 155,825 |
38a17ed8-096a-49ff-9107-4004a090320e | Amongst various treatment modalities for nocturnal enuresis, the relapse rates have been observed to be lowest for: | Desmopressin | Imipramine | Bell alarm systems | Oxybutinin | 2c
| single | Bell alarm system have lower relapse rates than other pharmacologic therapy like desmopressin, imipramine. 'Direct comparisons of bell and bed compared to pharmacologic therapy or the former because of lower relapse rates'. Ref: Nelson 18th Edition, Page 2250; A sho textbook of psychiatry- Niraj Ahuja 5th Edition, Page 176, 177 | Pediatrics | null | [
"desmopressin",
"imipramine"
] | 155,832 |
9c0ff211-0e33-4e63-a254-37aa3c88b72a | Azathioprine is used as | Immunosuppressant | Antigout drug | Anti-retro virus | Anti- cancer | 0a
| single | CompoundUseNucleoside analogueBromodeoxyuridineaStudy cell proliferationThymidine analogueAllopurinalAnti gout drugHypoxanthine analogueAzathiopineImmunosuppressantPurine analogue | Biochemistry | null | [
"azathioprine"
] | 155,853 |
42c34577-51af-4532-87e4-ae25f158bbde | A 3- year old boy is brought to the casualty by his mother with progressive shoness of breath for 1 day. The child has history of bronchial asthma. On examination , the child is blue, gasping and unresponsive What will you like to do first ? | Intubate | Administer 100 % oxygen by mask | Ventilate with bag and mask | Administer nebulised salbutamol | 1b
| single | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Administer 100% 02 by mask o The symptoms given by the child shows that he is suffering from life threatening asthma. o Presence of any of the following indicates life threatening Asthma. a) Cyanosis b) Silent chest c) Poor respiratory effects d) Altered sensorium e) Exhauston, fatigue f) PEFR < 30 % of predicted and 02 saturation of < 90 % Management of life threatening asthma (status asthmaticus) 1) Immediate O2 inhalation 2) Injection of terbutaline or adrenaline (s.c.) 3) Inhalation of salbutamol or terbutaline and ipratropium 4) Injection of hydrocoisone 10mg/kg. o After the above-mentioned steps an arrangement is made to transfer the patient to ICU. o Now, it must be clear that the first step in cases of life threatening asthma is to administer 02, then medications (salbutamol & Terbutaline) Mechanical ventilation is indicated only if these measures fail and the condition of the patient fuher deteriorates. | Pediatrics | null | [
"salbutamol"
] | 155,854 |
25d1efa3-4e9e-4c38-820e-e8cacb934bf2 | All of the following indications of vasopressin are based on stimulation of V2 receptors EXCEPT : | Central diabetes insipidus | Bed wetting in children | von–Willebrand's disease | Esophageal varices | 3d
| multi | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"vasopressin"
] | 155,862 |
2aea523d-79c9-4850-b37f-43f01549053f | Which of the following is associated with neutropenia? | Doxorubicin | Vinblastin | Cisplatin | Methotrexate | 3d
| single | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"methotrexate",
"doxorubicin",
"cisplatin"
] | 155,868 |
250fccc9-b463-4984-aa8a-c5bee7dc3f21 | A patient of schizophrenia was started on a new drug, three months later she complains of weight gain. What is the most likely dug? | Olanzapine | Amisulpride | Risperidone | Haloperidol | 0a
| single | All atypical antipsychotics can lead to weight gain and Clozapine is associated with maximum risk of causing weight gain followed by Olanzapine. As Clozapine is not given in the options, Olanzapine is the correct answer. | Psychiatry | null | [
"olanzapine"
] | 155,900 |
57ef3d8e-17ef-499c-a11d-886cf02840fa | Drug useful for gout : | Pyrazinamide | Rifampicin | Allopurinol | Naloxone | 2c
| multi | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"naloxone",
"allopurinol"
] | 155,910 |
b381a740-bd5a-41b3-8773-fbae8ae9dc8c | A 2-year-old child diagnosed provisionally with diphtheria and on examination she has greyish white membrane patch around her tonsils. The child has a 6-year-old sibling at home, who is fully immunized as per the schedule. What is the best measure to prevent disease in the sibling of the child | Full course of DPT | Booster dose of DPT | Nothing is required to be done | Prophylactic erythromycin to be given | 2c
| multi | * For the contacts if the primary course of vaccination is less than 2 years- nothing is required* Vaccine is taken >2 years- 1 dose toxoid is required* Unimmunized contacts-antitoxin, active immunization, prophylactic penicillin or erythromycin and clinical observation for 1 week | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable Diseases | [
"erythromycin"
] | 155,929 |
fc080cf1-4751-4795-ae80-990a815b0c95 | The anticancer drug belonging to inorganic metal complexes? | Dacarbazine | Cisplatin | Methotrexate | Vincristine | 1b
| single | Cisplatin, oxaliplatin, carboplatin belongs to platinum coordination complexes.Cisplatin-Most emetogenic. Ref: Sharma and Sharma 2nd e/pg 849 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | [
"methotrexate",
"vincristine",
"cisplatin"
] | 155,930 |
4895e544-a201-4f7f-a7a7-06d444dac19b | Which drug inhibits both cyclooxygenase and lipooxygenase? | Aspirin | Indomethacin | Imidazole | BW755 | 3d
| multi | Ans. is 'd' i.e., BW 755 DrugEnzyme inhibitedAspirinIndomethacinImidazoleBW 755CorticosteroidsCyclooxygenaseCyclooxygenaseThromboxane synthetaseCyclooxygenase and lipoxygenasePhospholipase A2 | Pharmacology | Prostaglandins | [
"indomethacin"
] | 155,941 |
0252962e-a4fd-4919-9a2b-3dac85066195 | There is an outbreak of MRSA infection in a ward. What is the best way to control the infection | Vancomycin given emperically to all the patients | Fumigation of ward frequently | Washing hand before and after attending patients | Wearing mask before any invasive procedure in ICU | 2c
| multi | Hand washing, the oldest, simplest and most effective method of checking hospital cross an infection, which unfounately is often neglected. Ref: Ananthanarayan& Paniker&;s textbook of microbiology, 9th edition. | Microbiology | miscellaneous | [
"vancomycin"
] | 155,947 |
b6d95155-9307-4353-a6fa-f1d476b2510b | Which of the following anti-cancer drug is NOT 's'-phase specific: | Methotrexate | Mercaptopurine | Ifosfamide | Thioguanine | 2c
| single | Cytotoxic drugs are either cell cycle specific (CCS) or cell cycle nonspecific (CCNS). (a) Cell cycle nonspecific Kill resting as well as dividing cells, e.g. nitrogen mustard, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, carmustine, dacarbazine, busulfan, L-asparaginase, cisplatin, procarbazine, actinomycin D. (b) Cell cycle specific Kill only actively dividing cells. Their toxicity is generally expressed in S phase. However, these drugs may show considerable phase selectivity, e.g.- G1: Vinblastine. S : Mtx, cytarabine, 6-TG, 6-MP, 5-FU, hydroxyurea, mitomycin C, doxorubicin, daunorubicin. G2: Daunorubicin, bleomycin, etoposide, topotecan. M: Vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:830 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | [
"methotrexate"
] | 155,952 |
4c7ba2c2-b050-4ec4-af1a-e00d461ff72d | Shoest acting local anaesthetic | Procaine | Xylocaine | Bupivacaine | Chloroprocaine | 3d
| single | . | Anatomy | All India exam | [
"chloroprocaine",
"procaine",
"xylocaine",
"bupivacaine"
] | 155,963 |
7a4a7e23-8b00-42c3-8fd0-b132e0ff0dc5 | The following adverse drug reaction seen in colonoscopy view is due to | Cascara | Bisacodyl | Castor oil | Loperamide | 0a
| single | The picture shows Melanosis coli caused by Senna and cascara which are stimulant purgatives.bisacodyl usually cause hypokalemiaRef: KD Tripathi 7th ed pg 673 | Pharmacology | All India exam | [
"bisacodyl",
"loperamide"
] | 155,967 |
f2eab10f-dd28-49e6-8ee6-750c0f1b6644 | Zero order kinetics occur in following drug with high dose ? | Phenytoin and Theophylline | Digoxin and Propranolol | Amiloride and Probenecid | Lithium and Theophylline | 0a
| single | null | Pharmacology | null | [
"propranolol",
"theophylline",
"probenecid",
"phenytoin",
"digoxin"
] | 155,970 |
57a44469-fc94-4e51-8c17-e4a046532677 | A 26 year old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given till culture sensitivity result come? | Penicillin G | Ceftriaxone + metronidazole | Doxycycline | Cefotaxime + vancomycin | 3d
| single | Ans. (D) Cefotaxime + vancomycin(Ref: Harrison 18/e p3414)Antibiotics Used in Empirical Therapy of Bacterial Meningitis and Focal CNS InfectionsIndicationAntibioticInfants <3 monthsAmpicillin + Cefotaxime3 months to 55 yearsCefotaxime (Ceftriaxone) + VancomycinAdults >55 yearsAmpicillin + Cefotaxime (Ceftriaxone) + VancomycinHospital-acquired meningitis post-traumatic or post-neurosurgery meningitis, neutropenic patients, or patients with impaired cell-mediated immunityVancomycin + Cefepime | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy: General Principles | [
"vancomycin",
"cefotaxime",
"metronidazole",
"doxycycline",
"ceftriaxone"
] | 155,992 |
4d8a8eba-8ddc-4adf-9546-56ae2ad89ae4 | Drug used in ameliorative test for myasthenia gravis is | d-TC | Edrophonium | Pyridostigmine | Tacrine | 1b
| single | . | Pharmacology | All India exam | [
"edrophonium"
] | 156,000 |
e5022430-072e-4642-bb39-c756998637bc | Which of the following is true regarding intravenous administration of chemotherapy? | Subcutaneous extravasation of carmustine (BCNU) or 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) usually causes ulceration | Extravasation of doxorubicin rarely causes serious ulceration because the agent binds quickly to tissue nucleic acid | Serious and progressive ulceration can be expected following extravasation of vincristine or vinblastine | Problems of wound healing should be anticipated if systemic 5-FU therapy is begun less than 2 week postoperatively | 3d
| multi | Since chemotherapy is generally most effective in killing rapidly dividing cells, the rapidly dividing cells of a fresh surgical wound should be in jeopardy when chemotherapy is given in the early postoperative period. Each of the phases of normal wound healing is theoretically at risk from one or another class of chemotherapeutic agents. Immediately following wounding, inflammation and vascular permeability lead to fibrin deposition and polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN), monocyte, and platelet influx. Macrophages are attracted by the activated complement system. By the fourth day the proliferative phase begins, and for the next 20 days fibroblasts produce mucopolysaccharides and collagen. Cross-linking of the collagen fibers then continues for several months in the maturation phase. It seems logical to delay antineoplastic agents for 10-14 days unless there are compelling clinical indications (e.g., superior vena cava syndrome) for more urgent treatment. Administration of folinic acid simultaneously with methotrexate normalizes wound healing. Extravasation of chemotherapeutic agents during intravenous administration may result in severe ulceration and sloughing. The nature of the injury is largely related to the nucleic-acid binding characteristics of the agent. Those agents that do not bind to tissue nucleic acid (vincristine, vinblastine, nitrogen mustard, BCNU, 5-FU) generally cause only local damage from the immediate injury. These substances are quickly metabolized or inactivated, and usual patterns of wound healing can be expected. On the other hand, agents that bind the nucleic acid (doxorubicin, dactinomycin, mitomycin C, mithramycin, and daunorubicin) cause not only immediate toxic reaction in the tissues but, unless excised, continuing and progressive tissue damage. Though some authors have reported success with elevation and ice packs, most recommend surgical excision if there is severe pain, any sign of early necrosis, or significant blistering. | Surgery | Transplantation | [
"vincristine",
"doxorubicin",
"fluorouracil"
] | 156,005 |
4bd577c0-eb1c-48a1-86fd-70f03f00c6cb | Which of the following has cytoplasmic receptor | Epinephrine | Insulin | PSH | Coisol | 3d
| single | Coisol has cytoplasmic receptor Ref-KDT 6/e p280 | Anatomy | General anatomy | [
"epinephrine"
] | 156,034 |
46adb04e-0762-43c5-b555-95c2904e663a | A resident doctor sustained a needle stick injury while sampling blood of patient who is HIV positive. A decision is taken to often him postexposure prophylaxis. Which one of the following would be the best recommendation: | Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks | Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks | Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks | Zidovudine + Stavudine + nevirapine for 4 weeks | 2c
| single | Ans. (c) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks | Microbiology | null | [
"lamivudine",
"zidovudine",
"nevirapine",
"stavudine",
"indinavir"
] | 156,064 |
84d903d5-be58-4c04-b59d-08a4d1c147a0 | All are vasodilator except | Procaine | Lidocaine | Cocaine | Chloroprocaine | 2c
| multi | . | Anatomy | All India exam | [
"chloroprocaine",
"procaine",
"lidocaine"
] | 156,070 |
a2e365f7-25de-48f5-9266-7463416544a2 | Triple Marker test includes : | hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estriol | hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estradiol | hCG, PAPP-A, unconjugated estriol | Inhibin A, hCG & PAPP-A | 0a
| single | Ans. is 'a' i.e., hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estriol Triple Marker Test* This is a screening test done between 16 and 18 weeks of gestation, mainly to identify a mother who is at a high risk of having a fetus with trisomy 21. It involves estimation of 3 hormones: HCG, AFP, and unconjugated estriol (UE3).InterpretationTrisomyhCGAFPUE3Down syndrome (T 21)|||Edward syndrome (T 18)||| | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | [
"estriol"
] | 156,072 |
fafe5cfe-5a37-4f3a-b727-6c60c59fe09a | Scopolamine is used mostly in: | Hyperemesis gravidarum | Vomiting | Constipation | Motion sickness | 3d
| single | (Ref: Katzung's Pharma, 14th ed. pg. 135)* Scopolamine (hyoscine) is a prototypic muscarinic receptor antagonist and is one of the best agents for the prevention of motion sickness.* Scopolamine has many effects in the body including decreasing the secretion of fluids, slowing the stomach and intestines, and dilation of the pupils.* Scopolamine is also used to relieve nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with motion sickness and recovery 3 from anesthesia and surgery. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | [
"scopolamine"
] | 156,076 |
8e676f84-d9aa-4af3-b11c-557e8af7d5d3 | Flumazenil is - | Diazepam inverse agonist | Diazepam antagonist | Opioid antagonist | Opioid inverse agonist | 1b
| single | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Diazepam antagonist | Pharmacology | null | [
"flumazenil",
"diazepam"
] | 156,086 |
f47e6530-7928-427e-a7d5-7a906abbd7e2 | A person was brought to emergency depament and was diagnosed with Supra ventricular tachycardia and suddenly he became unstable. What is the next line of management? | Intravenous ibutilide | DC Cardioversion | Intravenous Diltiazem | Intravenous Flecainide | 1b
| single | Here in the question vital are unstable. So the best therapy will be DC cardioversion. Treatment for Supra Ventricular tachycardia: Amiodarone forstablepatients DC Cardioversion forunstablepatients. | Medicine | NEET Jan 2020 | [
"flecainide",
"diltiazem",
"ibutilide"
] | 156,093 |
640f1494-b535-413f-9efc-b9a6e0c2de6f | Both fenfluramine and phentermine | Produce central nervous system stimulation | Act to suppress appetite | Are effective in treating narcolepsy | Have been used in children with attention deficit disorders | 1b
| multi | . Both fenfluramine and phentermine have been successfully used, alone and in combination, for the treatment of obesity. They apparently reduce appetite by affecting the satiety centers in the hypothalamus. Whereas phentermine is a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant related to the amphetamines and is believed to act by releasing norepinephrine from CNS neurons, fenfluramine causes lethargy and sedation and acts by augmenting serotonin neurotransmission. For this reason, the drugs may be used together without causing excessive CNS stimulation or depression. | Pharmacology | All India exam | [
"fenfluramine"
] | 156,137 |
6f6741e4-6fa0-4171-a5f6-7a93a26d9883 | Treatment of choice of scabies in pregnancy ? | Ivermectin | Garna-benzen hexachloride | Permethrin | Garna-benzen hexachloride | 2c
| single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Permethrin 'Premethrin is the drug of choice for infants as well as pregnant and nursing women'. -- Evidence based dermatology Alternatives are benzyl-benzoate and crotamitone. Gamma benzen hexachloride and ivermectin are not recommended. | Skin | null | [
"ivermectin"
] | 156,170 |
fa1acbf7-00b5-4416-b2b6-0bf6dc4d67b5 | Relaxation of mesangial cells of the kidney is brought about by | cAMP | Endothelin | PGF2 | Vasopressin | 0a
| single | Substances causing relaxation of mesangial cells
- ANP
- Dopamine
- PGE2
- cAMP
Substances causing contraction of mesangial cells
- Endothelin
- Vasopressin
- PGF2
- Angiotensin II
- Norepinephrine
- PAF
- PDGF
- Thromboxane A2
- Leukotrienes C4, D4
- Histamine | Physiology | null | [
"vasopressin"
] | 156,172 |
194cb113-ba9a-45f1-aea2-3931adf421a3 | Small amount of atropine is added to diphenoxylate because | Suppress vomiting in gastro enteritis | Increase anti motility action | Block side effects of diphenoxylate | To decrease abuse of diphenoxylate | 3d
| multi | Atropine is an anti muscarinic drug diphenoxylate is an opoid drug which when given has propey of abuse hence atropine is added to it aas the anti muscarinic side effects of atropine will decrease the abuse of the drug. ReF:KDT 6/e p664 | Pharmacology | All India exam | [
"atropine"
] | 156,177 |
a7649429-c62e-458c-b0d0-a2e923c79846 | Severely injured patient with spinal fractrue and unconsciousness first thing to be done is | GCS scoring | Spinal stabilization by cervical collar | Mannitol drip to decrease ICT | Airway maintenance | 3d
| multi | D i.e. Airway maintenance Management of Polytrauma Patients / Life threatening conditions* The assessment of severely injured patient consists of four overlapping phases:1) Rapid primary evaluation2) Restoration of vital functions3) Detailed secondary evaluation and4) Definitive care* The ABC,s of trauma care identifies & treat life threatening conditions - and can be rememebered as Airway maintenanceQ, with cervical spine control. The cervical spine should be carefully protected at all time and not be hyperextended, hyper flexed or rotated to obtain a patent airway. A chin lift or jaw thurst maneuver should be used to establish an air way.BreathingQ with special emphasis on tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorx, flail chest with pulmonarycontusion & massive hemothorax.CirculationQDisability (neurological status) by Glasgow coma scaleExposure and environmental control (undress the patient but prevent hypothermia)= Fracture splintageQ . Recognition & splintage of major fracture, adequate immobilization of cervical spineQ, and proper handling of injured patient are essential to prevent fuher damage to theneurovsculr elements. As a general rule following measures should be taken:- The joints above & below the fracture should be immobilized. Splints can be improvised with pillows, blanket or clothing.- Immobilization does not need to be absolutely rigid.- Over bleeding should be temponaded with dressing & firm pressure- Tourniquet should be avoided, unless it is obvious that the patient's life is in danger. | Surgery | null | [
"mannitol"
] | 156,186 |
1e9a513f-0a52-4bda-92ab-8f27eb82ec98 | Male with erythematous patch over penis after taking an over the counter medicine. Causal drug is: | Azithromycin | Ofloxacin | Doxycycline | Aceclofenac | 3d
| single | Ans. D. AceclofenacRef: Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas and Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 7th/ed p498-99Explanation# Findings given in question are suggestive of 'fixed drug eruptions (FDE)'.# Among the given options ofloxacin, doxycycline and azithromycin are prescription only drugs hence most probably the answer is aceclofenac.# If in question 'over the counter' has not been mentioned then the answer will be doxycycline.# A FDE is an adverse cutaneous reaction to an ingested drug, characterized by the formation of a solitary (but at times multiple) erythematous patch or plaque.# If the patient is rechallenged with the offending drug, the FDE occurs repeatedly at the identical skin site (i.e., fixed) within hours of ingestion.# Usually asymptomatic. May be pruritic, painful, or burning.# Time to onset oflesion(s): Occur from 30 min to 8 h after ingestion of drug in previously sensitized individual.# Duration oflesion(s): Lesions persist if drug is continued. Resolve days to few weeks after drug is discontinued.* Tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline)* Sulfonamides, other sulfa drugs* Metronidazole, nystatin, salicylates, NSAIDs, phenylbutazone, phenacetin* Barbiturates* Oral contraceptives* Quinine (including quinine in tonic water), quinidine* Phenolphthalein* Food coloring (yellow): in food or medications | Pharmacology | Adverse Drug Effect | [
"azithromycin",
"doxycycline",
"ofloxacin"
] | 156,198 |
1b059bd2-20df-4b23-bdc6-21b5fb27e678 | Leukotriene receptor antagonist used for bronchial asthama is | Zafirlukast | Zileuton | Cromolyn Sodium | Aminophylline | 0a
| single | Examples for leukotriene receptor antagonist are Montelukast and Zafirlukast ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY 8TH EDITON Page No :222 | Pharmacology | Respiratory system | [
"zileuton",
"zafirlukast",
"cromolyn"
] | 156,220 |
61d5dcb7-22f4-46e4-b2a4-044b7897d26e | Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is | Ketamine | Etomidate | Propofol | Thiopentone | 1b
| single | Synthesis of adrenal steroids (both mineral and glucocorticoids) is inhibited by etomidate. | Anaesthesia | null | [
"etomidate",
"ketamine",
"propofol"
] | 156,223 |
55bc3680-d6b6-465e-af4b-291c5d797c2c | DPP4 inhibitor requiring dose reduction in both liver and kidney failure | Linagliptin | Sitagliptin | Saxagliptin | Vildagliptin | 3d
| multi | Vildagliptin require and of both reductions in liver and kidney failure.Ref: KDT 7TH/275 | Pharmacology | All India exam | [
"sitagliptin"
] | 156,225 |
cb016b55-8a47-4111-86d5-294972ae5c3c | On exposure to air urine colour changes to olive green in poison in - | Carbolic acid | Cyclophosphamide | Phenopthalein | Ethelene glycol | 0a
| single | BLADDER AND KIDNEYS Blue- or green-colored urine Decreased urine output No urine output EYES, EARS, NOSE, MOUTH, AND THROAT Severe burns in the mouth and food pipe (esophagus) Yellow eyes STOMACH AND INTESTINES Abdominal pain - severe Bloody stools Diarrhea Nausea and vomiting - possibly bloody Stomach pain HEA AND BLOOD Low blood pressure Rapid hea rate LUNGS AND AIRWAYS Deep, rapid breathing Wheezing Trouble breathing (may be lifethreatening if inhaled) NERVOUS SYSTEM Coma (decreased level of consciousness and lack of responsiveness) Seizures Hyperactivity Lack of aleness (stupor) SKIN Blue lips and fingernails Burns Yellow skin WHOLE BODY Excessive thirst Heavy sweating Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 790 | Medicine | Toxicology | [
"cyclophosphamide"
] | 156,249 |
344bfd7c-15fd-4487-9135-6cf2b7587f05 | Cryoprecipitate is useful in? | Hemophilia A | Thrombosthenia | A fibrogenemi a | Warfarin reversal | 2c
| single | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Afibrogenemia Cryoprecipitate was originally developed for the treatment of hemophilia A. It is no longer the treatment of choice for that disorder because less infectious alternatives are available. At the present time, Cryoprecipitate is most often used for correction of hypofibrinogenemia in bleeding patients. | Pathology | null | [
"warfarin"
] | 156,270 |
91d7e986-4531-4f51-8fdf-37d8e046d56b | Treatment of choice for extended spectrum betalactamase producing enterococci | Amoxicillin-clavalunic acid | Piperacillin-Tazobactam | Ampicillin only | Ampicillin + Sulbactam | 1b
| single | Ans. b. Piperacillin-Tazobactam | Pharmacology | null | [
"ampicillin"
] | 156,272 |
92210f93-1821-4dd8-b730-c1d26416faad | A 5-year old child of severe nephrotic syndrome on treatment with tacrolimus, frusemide and prednisolone developed seizures. The investigations revealed:
Serum Na+ = 136 mEq/L
Blood urea = 78 mg/dL
Serum creatinine = 0.5 mg/dL
Serum albumin = 1.5 g/dL
Serum total Ca = 7.5 mg/dL
Urine albumin = 2g
What is the likely cause of symptoms in this baby? | Hypocalcemia | Tacrolimus toxicity | Uremia | Hyponatremia | 1b
| single | To get to the answer, we will look at the options one by one.
Hypocalcemia
Serum calcium in this boy is 7.5 mg/dL. Hypocalcemia can result in seizures but the level should be very low. Further, if we correct calcium with serum albumin, it will come in normal range. Corrected calcium level in the serum can be calculated by adding 0.8 mg/dL With every 1.0 g/dL decrease in serum albumin below the normal value of 4.0 g/dL. Hence, in this patient, corrected serum calcium level will be
7.5 + 0.8 x (4.0 - 1.5) = 9.5 mg/ dL
It is in the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and thus cannot be the cause of seizures in this person.
Uremia
Although blood urea is elevated (78 mg/dL as compared to normal value of 15-40 mg/dL) but serum creatinine is normal (0.5 mg/dL). For diagnosis of uremia, serum creatinine must be 3 times the normal value. Thus, uremia cannot be the answer.
Hyponatremia
Serum sodium is at lower normal value (136-152 mEq/L). For causing seizures, serum sodium should be less than 125 mEq/L. Therefore, this option can also be ruled out.
Tacrolimus toxicity
This child is on tacrolimus therapy. It is a known neurotoxin and can cause seizures. It also can cause renal failure. Further by ruling out other options, the most likely cause seems to be tacrolimus toxicity. | Pharmacology | null | [
"prednisolone",
"tacrolimus"
] | 156,278 |
358ed04c-e086-43be-8dcb-fa3f4e18f566 | A patient requires mild cholinomimetic stimulation following surgery. Physostigmine and bethanechol in small doses has significantly different effect on which of the following | Gastric secretion | Neuromuscular junction | Sweat glands | UreterAl tone | 1b
| multi | Refer katzung 11e p 98 Bethanechol Acts on muscarinic receptors only whereas is physostigmine increases acetylcholine,thus can stimulate both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. Neuromuscular junction contains in Nm receptors, thus will be affected by physostigmine and not with bethanechol. | Pharmacology | Autonomic nervous system | [
"bethanechol",
"physostigmine"
] | 156,287 |
8d35b530-55cb-485b-81e7-f7aaf1b1a28a | A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased sweating. What is the next best step - | Lytic cocktail | Atropine | Antevenom | Local xylocaine infiltration | 0a
| multi | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lytic cocktail o Lytic cocktail contains promethazine + pethidine + chlorpromazine. o Lytic cocktail therapy alone or in combination with steroids is useful in the treatment of peripheral circulatory failure in scorpion sting. | Pediatrics | null | [
"xylocaine",
"atropine"
] | 156,289 |
5cf3b365-0b2c-4d89-8153-c16336b5b07b | An unconcious patient of head injury comes in casualty. On examination shows raised intracranial pressure. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated: | Thiopentone | Propofol | Ketamine | Etomidate | 2c
| single | C i.e. Ketamine Ketamine causes increase in all pressure i.e. intracranial, intraocular, intragastric and intravascular (Blood) pressure. So it is not used in raised ICT/IOT & Hypeension as it may increase the pressure to morbid levels. | Anaesthesia | null | [
"etomidate",
"ketamine",
"propofol"
] | 156,290 |
3e0adfef-5961-4fa9-9eb0-8e6cfccdc2ed | Methylphenidate is the DOC for - | Autism | ADHD | Dyslexia | Pervasive disorder | 1b
| single | Ans. is 'b' i.e., ADHD Drugs used for ADHDCNS StimulantsOther drugso Methylphenidate (DOC)o D exmethylphenidateo Dextroamphetamine oro Dextroamphetamine + amphetamineo Modafmilo Atomoxetineo Bupropiono Venlafaxineo a-agonists (clonidine, guanfacine | Social & Preventive Medicine | Mental Health | [
"methylphenidate"
] | 156,303 |
ee85d7ee-994e-4c6e-9619-3a6e96e3dfe9 | Sunder, a young male was diagnosed as suffering from acute myeloid leukemia. He was staed on induction chemotherapy with Anticancer drugs. Induction regimen was successful. Two months later, he presents to OPD with swelling of both the feet and breathlessness on climbing the stairs. He also complains the he had to wake up many times because of breathlessness. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms? | Cisplatin | Methotrexate | Doxorubicin | Vincristine | 2c
| multi | Anthracyclines (daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin and idarubicin) can cause severe cardiotoxicity manifesting as dilated cardiomyopathy and arrhythmias. Anthracycline chemotherapeutic agents form free radicals in the myocardium. Their most severe side effect is a cumulative dose related dilated cardiomyopathy. It presents with symptoms of left and right ventricular CHF. | Pharmacology | Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs | [
"methotrexate",
"vincristine",
"doxorubicin",
"cisplatin"
] | 156,304 |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.