id
stringlengths
36
36
question
stringlengths
7
1.22k
opa
stringlengths
1
175
opb
stringlengths
1
247
opc
stringlengths
1
240
opd
stringlengths
1
195
cop
class label
4 classes
choice_type
stringclasses
2 values
exp
stringlengths
1
15k
subject_name
stringclasses
21 values
topic_name
stringclasses
840 values
found_keywords
sequencelengths
1
10
local_id
int64
4
183k
03731c53-a296-4365-9b9a-a2c7750a7996
Empirical antibiotic treatment in a suspected case of pneumonia who has received no antibiotics in the past three months to be managed on outpatient basis is -
Oral Clarithromycin
Oral fluoroquinolone
Oral beta lactam with injectable aminoglycoside
Oral linezolid
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oral Clarithromycin * As per the recommendations for empirical antibiotic management oral clarithromycin is the Empirical antibiotic treatment in a suspected case of pneumonia who has received no antibiotics in the past three months to be managed on outpatient basis.Empirical Antibotic Treatment of Community-Acquired PneumoniaOutpatientsPreviousuly healthy and no antibiotics in past 3 months* A macrolide (clarithromycin (500 mg PO bid) or azithromycin (500 mg PO once, then 250mg qd) or* Doxycycline (100mg PO bid)Comorbidities or antibiotics in past 3 months: select an alternative from a different class.* A respiratory fluoroquinolone or* A b-lactam .* A b-lactam plus a macrolide Inpatients, ICU* A b-lactam (cefotaxime (1-2 g IV q8h), ceftriaxone (2g IV qd), ampicilin-sulbactam (2g IV 48h)] plus* Azithromycin or a fluoroquinolone (as listed above for inpatients, non-ICU)Special ConcernsIf Pseudomonas is a consideration* An antipneumococal, antipseudomonal b - lactam (piperacilin/tazobactam (4-5 g IV q6h), meropenem (lg IV q8h)] plus either ciprofloxacin (400 mg IV q 12h) or levofloxacin (750mg IV qd)* The above b-lactams plus an aminoglycoside * The above b-lactams plus an aminoglycoside plus an antipneumococcal fluoroquinoloneIf CA-MRSA is a consideration* Add linezolid (600 mg IV q 12h) or vancomycin (lg IV q 12h).
Medicine
Respiratory
[ "clarithromycin", "linezolid" ]
154,395
6b15963f-56c3-4ba2-9aa7-43182f9e060d
Once weekly administration of which of the following antibiotics has prophylactic activity against bacteremia caused by M. avium complex in AIDS patients?
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Isoniazid
Rifabutin
0a
single
The regimen used for the treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex in AIDS patients is REC (Rifabutin, ethambutol and clarithromycin). These drugs are given once daily. Clarithromycin can be replaced with azithromycin which is long acting and can be administered once a week.
Pharmacology
Mycobacterial Diseases (TB, Leprosy and MAC)
[ "isoniazid", "azithromycin", "clarithromycin" ]
154,409
c5a4762e-895c-4ec6-8263-3cbc0a5f1784
Which of the following agents is not used in the treatment of Diabetic Macular Edema/Retinopathy?
Ruboxistaurim
Pyridazinoncs
Benfotiamine
Tamoxifen
3d
single
Delayed side effects of tamoxifen include infrequent pulmonary emboli or thrombosis, depression, retinopathy, corneal opacities and rare endometrial carcinomas. There have been repeated repos of ophthalmic complications from tamoxifen including irreversible retinopathy with seriously reduced visual acuity, refractile opacities, cystoid macular edema, retinal yellow white dots and keratopathy. Ref: Meyler's Side Effects of Endocrine and Metabolic Drugs By J. K. Aronson - Page 304; Medical toxicology By Richard C. Da - Page 524.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "tamoxifen" ]
154,414
1a1377b6-a447-48de-8166-998020dd476b
Which is the drug of choice for severe preeclampsia?
Labetalol
Metoprolol
A-methyldopa
Nifidipine
0a
single
Labetalol is the drug of first choice in severe preeclampsia. The main objective is to reduce the risk of severe hypeension and cerebral haemorrhage. Labetalol is given as 200-400 mg/day in 2 doses
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
[ "methyldopa", "metoprolol", "labetalol" ]
154,426
01ace0fb-d9ab-477a-8e17-26b5e2fcbede
Which antibiotic decreases absorption of iron ?
Sulfonamide
Tetracyclines
Erythromycin
Ciprofloxacin
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tetracycline Factors facilitating iron absorption - Acid, ascorbic acid (Vit C), amino acids containing SH radical, meat. All these are reducing substances which enhance conversion of Fe" to Fe" and thus improve absorption. Factors impending iron absorption - antacids, alkalies, phosphate (rich in egg yolk), phytates (in maize, wheat), tetracyclines, presence of other food in stomach.
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin", "ciprofloxacin" ]
154,440
6a7fda63-01d2-42bd-a4cf-604c06f0236c
Drug of choice for whooping cough
Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Rifampicin
Tetracyclin
1b
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "erythromycin", "azithromycin" ]
154,459
008c9036-a64c-4ca1-b7b6-ff285f3bb2e4
Pseudomembranous colitis is associated with:
Vancomycin
Lincomycin
Rovamycin
Clindamycin
3d
single
Clindamycin
Pharmacology
null
[ "vancomycin", "clindamycin" ]
154,468
7522e5c7-a03d-4daa-bd97-029aa983900a
An enterococcus (E. faecium) was isolated from a urine specimen (100,000 cfu/mL). Treatment of the patient with ampicillin and gentamicin failed. The most clinically appropriate action is
Do no further clinical workup
Suggest to the laboratory that low colony counts may reflect infection
Determine if fluorescent microscopy is available for the diagnosis of actinomycosis
Consider vancomycin as an alternative drug
3d
multi
These questions demonstrate commonly occurring clinical infectious diseases and microbiologic problems. Enterococci may be resistant to ampicillin and gentamicin. Vancomycin would be the drug of choice. However, laboratory results do not always correlate well with clinical response. The National Committee on Clinical Laboratory Standards recommends testing enterococci only for ampicillin and vancomycin.
Microbiology
Bacteria
[ "vancomycin", "gentamicin", "ampicillin" ]
154,470
a83e94cf-e44c-45d3-b326-0ad65ab3597d
Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine ?
Anemia
Peripheral neuropathy
Lactic acidosis
All
0a
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "zidovudine" ]
154,473
89f9ece9-ea72-42e8-9ec2-052c5f0d1d4b
Several weeks following a severe streptococcal sore throat, a 7-year-old boy develops acute glomerulonephritis with edema, hypeension, and hematuria. Which of the following best describes the propeies of the most likely causative organism?
Alpha hemolytic, lysed by optochin
Alpha hemolytic, not lysed by optochin
Beta hemolytic, can grow in 40% bile and 6.5% sodium chloride
Beta hemolytic, inhibited by bacitracin
3d
single
The most likely cause of glomerulonephritis following streptococcal sore throat is Streptococcus pyogenes. This is the only species in the Group A streptococci, and is characterized by beta hemolysis and inhibition by the antibiotic bacitracin. Streptococcus pyogenes sore throat can also be followed by rheumatic fever. Streptococcus pneumoniae is an example of an alpha hemolytic streptococcus that is lysed by optochin (1st Choice). Streptococcus mutans is an example of an alpha hemolytic streptococcus that is not lysed by optochin (2nd Choice). Enterococcus faecalis is an example of a beta hemolytic streptococcus that can grow in 40% bile and 6.5% sodium chloride (3rd Choice).
Microbiology
null
[ "bacitracin" ]
154,478
a31a9376-3dad-4b02-9e91-4b5c261a2e8d
A 50-year-old male presented to the ER with acute onset of chest pain which was retrosternal and radiated to the back along with dysphagia, regurgitation and heaburn. Patient gave history of similar episodes of chest pain in the past as well. Barium swallow and esophageal manometric studies were performed. ECG of the patient was normal. Manometry study revealed, 1. Aperistalsis in greater than 30% of the wet swallows with 20% of contractions being simultaneous 2. Amplitudes greater than 30 mm Hg in the distal three fifths of the esophagus Which of the following drugs can be used in the above condition to relieve the symptoms: -
Sildenafil
Botulinum
Octreotide
Terlipressin
0a
multi
This is a case of DES (Diffuse esophageal spasm). Normal ECG rules out MI. Diffuse esophageal spasm has a characteristic appearance of multiple simultaneous contractions causing a corkscrew appearance with segmentation. Multiple uncoordinated contractions in the third tracing from the distal esophagus is seen in manometry. Sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, is a smooth muscle relaxant that can lower the LES pressure and spastic contractions of the esophagus. Definitive treatment is myotomy guided by a manometric evidence.n
Unknown
Integrated QBank
[ "sildenafil", "octreotide" ]
154,496
7d40677f-9576-4706-873f-4d4ced62b9b7
Adrenal medulla secretes:
Sex hormones
Thyroid stimulating hormones
Epinephrine
Glucocoicoid
2c
single
Tyrosine - L-dopa - Dopamine - Noradrenaline - Adrenaline Coversion of Noradrenaline to Adrenaline requires the following enzyme - PNMT: Phenylethanolamine N- methyltransferase PNMT: Not present in sympathetic post ganglionic nerve fibers Therefore, sympathetic post-ganglionic nerve fibers release norepinephrine
Physiology
Endocrine System
[ "epinephrine" ]
154,505
f44e27ff-c5d5-40f5-bacb-82499af7aa5a
Which of the following drugs is not used in Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)?
Topiramate
Zonisamide
Carbamazepine
Valproate
2c
single
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) is a generalized seizure disorder of unknown cause that appears in early adolescence and is usually characterized by bilateral myoclonic jerks that may be single or repetitive.The myoclonic seizures are most frequent in the morning after awakening and can be provoked by sleep deprivation. Consciousness is preserved unless the myoclonus is especially severe.Carbamazepine useful in focal seizures.Ref: Harrison; 19th edition; Page no: 2544
Medicine
All India exam
[ "zonisamide", "topiramate", "carbamazepine", "valproate" ]
154,510
fdf6044b-94a1-48c6-ab0a-5aa4674687fa
Minimum dose of tetracycline which will show tooth discoloration and enamel hypoplasia:
5 mg/kg body weight
15 mg/kg body weight
30 mg/kg body weight
50 mg/kg body weight
3d
single
null
Dental
null
[ "tetracycline" ]
154,520
bcda69f9-f7c9-4eca-a002-0b1e4b913e7f
First trimester aboion uses all, except: TN 09
Mifepristone
Extra-amniotic ethacrydine lactate
Dilatation and evacuation
Suction evacuation
1b
multi
Ans. Extra-amniotic ethacrydine lactate
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "mifepristone" ]
154,524
c5917029-03dd-4d02-aee9-38a899a0c946
Antagonist of benzodiazepine is :
Naltrexone
Flumazenil
Naloxone
N–Acetyl–cysteine
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "naloxone", "naltrexone", "flumazenil" ]
154,525
fa78446a-b54f-4bd7-b9a7-f0bba2ae93c3
Drug which inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine into presynaptic membrane is
Cocaine
Lidocaine
Procaine
Botulinum toxin
0a
single
Cocaine and TCAs inhibit reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Anatomy
General anatomy
[ "lidocaine", "procaine" ]
154,526
42de0bc8-5d8f-42b4-8051-b45b8fb2d81b
Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis in HIV patients is:-
Acyclovir
Ganciclovir
Amantadine
Foscarnet
1b
single
Ganciclovir is an analogue of acyclovir which is the most active drugs against CMV. It is activated intracellularly by virus specific thymidine kinase and its triphosphate nucleotide inhibits viral DNA polymerase. CMV retinitis is treated by i.v. infusion of ganciclovir 10 mg/kg/day. This can prevent blindness in AIDS patients. Systemic therapy can be supplemented by intravitreal injection of ganciclovir.
Pharmacology
Anti-Viral Drugs
[ "foscarnet", "amantadine", "ganciclovir" ]
154,530
a3e90be8-15be-4179-a318-8a1d90fbb188
Which muscle relaxant has Maximum duration of action?
Atracurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Doxacurium
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doxacurium
Anaesthesia
null
[ "atracurium", "vecuronium", "rocuronium" ]
154,549
4ace216b-8baa-4c34-92ae-8b379824e907
Altered taste sensation is caused by-
Pefloxacin
Rifampicin
Ciprofloxacin
Captopril
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Captopril Adverse effects of ACE inhibitor Hypotension Cough Angioedma Teratogenecity Acute renal failure Hyperkalemia Rashes, Uicaria Dysguesia Granulocytopenia o Dysguesia is reversible loss or alteration of taste sensations. Cough and angioedema are due to elevated bradykinin, caused by inhibition of bradykinithubstance P metabolism in lungs.
Pharmacology
null
[ "captopril", "ciprofloxacin" ]
154,580
dc30030e-99f4-4c00-8102-43aa4aa07faf
Drug of choice in methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus -
Ceftriaxone
Ceftazidime
Ampicillin
Vancomycin
3d
single
Methicillin resistance in S. aureus is determined by the mecA gene, which encodes for resistance to all b-lactam drugs. If CA-MRSA infection is suspected, either linezolid or vancomycin should be added to the initial empirical regimen. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20th edition)
Medicine
Infection
[ "vancomycin", "ceftazidime", "ampicillin", "ceftriaxone" ]
154,588
dc2f4e23-621e-4172-9c3f-bb7952f86ac5
A 25-year-old man presents with acute, painless loss of vision in the right eye. The appearance of the optic nerve of the right eye is hyperemic. Of the entities listed, the most likely cause may include:
Vitamin BI2 deficiency
Ethambutol hydrochloride toxicity
Leber hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)
Dominant optic atrophy
2c
single
Leber hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON) Hereditary, toxic, and nutritional deficiency optic neuropathies commonly present with bilateral, insidious vision loss. In some cases, there can be asymmetry in visual acuity and visual fields. LHON often presents as acute or subacute unilateral vision loss that is followed within several months by vision loss in the fellow eye. The appearance of the optic nerve in LHON is characterized by a triad of circumpapillary telangiectasia, swelling of the nerve fiber layer around the disc, and absence of leakage on fluorescein angiography. LHON should be included in the diagnosis of acute unilateral vision loss from such disorders as optic neuritis and ischemic optic neuropathy.
Surgery
null
[ "ethambutol" ]
154,592
ebba500b-4667-42ee-af82-a31b08ec7e41
A 40 year old man has megaloblastic anemia and early signs of neurological abnormality. The drug most probably required is :
Folic acid
Iron sulphate
Erythropoietin
Vitamin B12
3d
single
Deficiency of vitamin B12 results in megaloblastic anemia and demyelination. It can cause subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord and peripheral neuritis.
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythropoietin" ]
154,603
d8e35357-c5be-4394-ac9b-c3f217afd2d2
True statement about Sevoflurane is
It is nephrotoxic at high doses
It has maximum risk of causing convulsions
It is cardiostable
It can cause fulminatnt hepatitis
0a
multi
Refer Goodman Gilman 11/e p 360 Sevoflurane is a general anesthetic used by inhalation route It is very good agent for children and asthmatic patients It can produce dose dependent hypotension and decrease in cardiac output It high doses it can release fluoride resulting min Nephrotoxicity
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
[ "sevoflurane" ]
154,626
ea51acab-3541-427f-951d-b75501c76044
Cause of methaemoglobinemia are all except :
Nitrites
Phenacetin
Sulfonamide
Phenytoin
3d
multi
D i.e. Phenytoin
Physiology
null
[ "phenytoin" ]
154,634
9488617f-4af4-41d2-83c6-5691ac1a531e
Most common drug used in Leprosy is:
Dapsone
Clofazimine
Ethionamide
Ofloxacin
0a
single
(Dapsone): Ref 709-KDT (752-KDT 6th)Classification of antileprotic drugs1. Sulfone - Dapsone - (DPS)2. Phenazine derivative - clofazimine3. Antitubercular drugs - Rifampin, Ethionamide4. Other antibiotics - Ofloxacin, Minocycline, clarithromycinDAPSONE: - Inhibition of PABA incorporation in to folic acid.* Simplest, oldest, cheapest, most active and most commonly used in leprosy..* RIFAMPIN: - Most important Bactericidial drug in leprosy* Clofazimine: - Dye with leprostatic and anti-inflammatory properties
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "clofazimine", "ethionamide", "ofloxacin", "dapsone" ]
154,636
c3201968-f49c-4db9-aa3c-62ace19d331e
Which of the following is least useful in Rx of "Overactive bladder"?
Oxybutynin
Tolterodine
Duloxetine
Darifenacin
2c
single
Duloxitin is use in the treatment of stress incontinence.
Surgery
All India exam
[ "oxybutynin", "duloxetine", "tolterodine" ]
154,637
c2c5b28d-b0f7-40c7-9c82-a8fb3cf56dab
A young lady presents to your office with compalin of copious vagina discharge, but there is no cervical discharge on per speculum examination. which of the following should be given for the management?
Metronidazole and azithromycin
Metronidazole and doxycycline
Flacon only
Metronidazole and fluconazole
3d
single
Metronidazole 200mg 3 doses /day for 7days  A single dose of fluconazole 150mg is very effective.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "metronidazole", "azithromycin", "doxycycline", "fluconazole" ]
154,638
c3b5f937-92a6-4bca-95ff-f2183394706c
A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic after falling several times in the past few months. On examination, his most notable findings are an unstable, wide-based gait and marked retropulsion. He does have bradykinesia with masked facies and dysahria. You find no evidence of cogwheeling or resting tremor. His symptoms do not respond to levodopa/carbidopa. During the next few months, his eye movements are notable for the slowing of veical saccades and fast phases. What is the most likely diagnosis?
L-DOPA resistant PD
Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
Multiple system atrophy
Foville syndrome
1b
multi
Option A - Ruled out as resting tremors are absent & disease is ruled out as it is a ATYPICAL PARKINSONISM disease. Option B- since in the question its mentioned regarding the veical gaze of the patient, it's the most appropriate option. Option C- Ruled out as autonomic insufficiency isn't mentioned in the question. Option D- Manifestation of STROKE related to Pons with VIth nerve palsy.
Medicine
Raised ICP and Brain death
[ "carbidopa", "levodopa" ]
154,644
851071a2-ce97-49dd-a26e-776601566de3
Which of the following drugs can cause torsades'de pointers?
Quinidine
Lignocaine
Esmolol
Flecainide
0a
single
class 1A agents, class 3 antiarrythymic agents commonly produce torsades de pointes class 1 a- quinidine, disopyramide, procainamide class 1b agents doesnt produce torsades pointes-eg lidocaine, phenytoin, mexiletine, tocainide flecainide is class 1c REF.Essentials of Pharmacology KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "flecainide", "esmolol", "quinidine" ]
154,651
e2508ffd-15a6-4f00-a5e7-ae72b3e76c18
In cirrhotic ascites, which diuretic is preferred?
Furosemide
Acetazolamide
Spironolactone
Any of the above
2c
multi
uses of Spironolactone: Cirrhosis edema Aldosterone levels are generally high in cirrhosis. spironolactone is an antagonist for aldosterone. Thus it is paicularly employed in refractory edema caused due to ascites or cirrhoses 2. To counteract K+ loss due to thiazide and loop diuretics. 3. Hypeension: Used only as an adjuvant to thiazide to prevent hypokalaemia; has weak antihypeensive action of its own. 4. CHF: As additional drug to conventional therapy in moderate to severe CHF; can retard disease progression and lower moality ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6 th edition, page 570 )
Pharmacology
Kidney
[ "spironolactone", "furosemide", "acetazolamide" ]
154,663
cde420f3-bed9-43a0-9cc9-0ca287ad119d
Which of the following antimalarial drugs is a slow acting schizonticide?
Artemether
Mefloquine
Pyrimethamine
Quinine
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "quinine", "mefloquine" ]
154,665
52a8cf44-d2bb-44b4-a4ea-b6ce626a6383
Indicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as the first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease :
Sodium alginate + aluminium hydroxide gel
Omeprazole
Mosapride
Metoclopramide
1b
single
Increasing GI motility with prokinetic drugs (like metoclopramide and mosapride) or By decreasing gastric acid secretion with PPIs like omeprazole.
Pharmacology
null
[ "metoclopramide", "omeprazole" ]
154,671
6b881003-232a-436d-aaa8-2d3bec406ae6
A 7 yr old boy underwent neurosurgery for craniopharyngioma following which pituitary functions were lost. Which of the following hormone should be replaced first ?
Hydrocoisone
Thyroxine
Growth hormone
Prolactin
0a
single
Hydrocoisone is a coicosteroid mainly used for anti inflammatory action. It may have lot of side effects due to a neurosurgery. Hence, it should be first replaced after a surgery Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
Endocrinology
[ "thyroxine" ]
154,678
3e2c66e8-3180-4cbe-a219-58e471f4546b
Pepsin is a type of
Oxidoreductase
Ligase
Transferase
Hydrolase
3d
single
(D) Hydrolase# PEPSIN:> Pepsin is produced by the serous cells of the stomach as pepsinogen, the inactive zymogen or proenzyme.> Pepsin A is the most predominant gastric protease which preferentially cleaves peptide bonds formed by amino groups of phenylalanine or tyrosine or leucine.> Protease or Peptidase or Proteinase: is any enzyme that performs proteolysis; protein catabolism by hydrolysis of peptide bonds.> It break down the bonds by a process - hydrolysis and convert proteins into smaller chains - peptides or even smaller units - amino acids.> Pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin either by autocatalysis, brought about by other pepsin molecules or by gastric HCI (pH < 2).HYDROLASESPhospholipids-PhospholipaseLysophospholipidsLecithin - LysolecithinEnzymes Acting on Peptide Bonds:Exopeptidases-CarboxypeptidaseAiminoacidsEndopeptidase-Aminopeptidases(smallerpeptides)E.g.Pepsin > Removal of a fragment of polypeptide chain (44 amino acids in case of pig enzyme) makes the inactive enzyme active after attaining a proper conformation.> Pepsin is an acid-stable endopeptidase optimally active at a very low pH (2.0).> The active site of the enzyme contains two carboxyl groups, which are maintained at low pH.> Pepsin digestion of proteins results in peptides and a few amino acids which act as stimulants for the release of the hormone cholecystokinin from the duodenum.
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry)
[ "pepsin" ]
154,692
5974fb01-abf1-47f5-b19d-ac6705dcc527
Drug used for sympathectomy in experimental animals is ?
Guanethidine
Atropine
Diazoxide
Thebaine
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Guanethidine Guanethidine is used for experimental sympthectomy. Guanethidine a polar guanidine compound which is taken up into adrenergic nerve endings by active amine transpo and has three impoant facets of action : Displaces NA from storage granules stochiometrically. Inhibits nerve impulse coupled release of NA Engages and blocks NA uptake mechanism at the axonal membrane. It was used for sympathectomy in experimental animal.
Pharmacology
null
[ "atropine" ]
154,703
75b9c9d5-7e91-44b6-afc9-6ae20d2fcccd
Treatment for streptococcal necrotizing fascitis -a) Surgical debridement b) Penicillinc) Clindamycind) Metronidazolee) Vancomycin
ab
bc
acd
abc
3d
single
null
Microbiology
null
[ "vancomycin" ]
154,704
a67e6a63-ba49-45fd-bf67-4990cf4dcf9d
Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker:
Acebutol
Atenolol
Pindolol
Metoprolol
2c
single
Pindolol
Pharmacology
null
[ "atenolol", "metoprolol", "pindolol" ]
154,709
45f784d8-1068-4f75-b41a-1daa3b5cdd7d
Drug causing peptic ulcer are all except: (PGI Nov 2009)
KC1
Diclofenac
Cyclosporine
Clopidegrel
2c
multi
Ans: C (Cyclosporine) Drug Causing Peptic UlcerIngestion of NSAIDs (including aspirin) is the main cause' of gastric and duodenal ulcers that are not associated with H. pylori infection."Diclofenac :Gastric ulceration & bleeding are less common"- K.D.T. 6th/193The isoenzymes cyclo-oxygenase-1 and cyclo-oxygenase-2 are largely responsible for the mucosal protective and antiinflammatory effects respectively of NSAIDs. Therefore newer NSAIDs, such as celecoxih and rofecoxih. that are highly selective for cyclo-oxygenase-2, control inflammation with 'ess risk*--' of causing ulcers.The use of alternative medications such as paracetamol is the best way to prevent NSAID-associated ulcers'1. NSAIDs are now generally avoided in non-inflammatory conditions such as osteoarthritis. When NSAIDs are required a cyclo- oxygenase-2-selective drug is preferred.If an ulcerogenic NSAID has to be continued in a patient at risk then ulcer prophylaxis is indicated. Proton pump inhibitors and misoprostol are both effective in healing and preventing NSAID-associated ulcers. The former are generally preferred because they have fewer side-effects: misoprostol in particular tends to cause diarrhoeaTable (Harrison): Causes of Ulcers Not Caused by HelicobacterPylori and NSAIDsPathogenesis of Non-Hp and Non-NSAIDInfection Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus Hel i cobacter heil manniDrug/Toxin Bisphosphonates Chemotherapy Clopidogrel Q Crack cocaine GlucocorticoidsQ (when combined with NSAIDs) Mycophenolate mofetilQ Potassium chloride0 Miscellaneous Basophilia in myeloproliferative disease Duodenal obstruction (e.g., annular pancreas) Infiltrating disease Ischemia Radiation therapy Sarcoidosis Crohn's disease Idiopathic hypersecretory state
Pharmacology
Adverse Drug Effect
[ "cyclosporine", "diclofenac" ]
154,716
00287ac9-894b-4040-82b0-3d3cf00461b2
Periportal fatty infiltration of the liver is seen with-
Alcoholism
Viral hepatitis
Malnutrition
Tetracycline
2c
single
Causes of periportal fatty infiltration Low protein diet Total parenteral nutrition Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
Pathology
null
[ "tetracycline" ]
154,724
d435d0ca-d9e2-48c0-a4ee-a6135502ad85
Which drug has least extrapyramidal symptoms?
Aripiprazole
Loxapine
Fluphenazine
Chlorpromazine
0a
single
(Ref: KDT 8th ed. pg. 467)* Among given choice, least risk of EPS among atypicals is: ARIPIPRAZOLE.* Typicals always has high EPS.
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "fluphenazine", "chlorpromazine", "aripiprazole" ]
154,733
027fa9d0-0e6a-4519-9854-d61b3b3f49a1
Gynaecomastia may be associated with administration of-
Ranitidine
Cimetidine
Terfenadine
Omeprazole
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cimetidine Cimetidine (but not other H2blockers) o Has anti-androgenic action (by displacing DHT from receptor) o Increases plasma prolactin levels --> Galactorrhea in female o Inhibits degradation of Estradiol by liver. Therefore it cause gyaenecomastia, loss of libido, impotence & temporary decrease in sperm count. Other adverse effects of cimetidine o CNS effects --> confusional state (Delirium), restlessness, convulsions, coma, headache, dizziness, hallucination. o Bowel upset, rashes, dry mouth. o Bolus i.v. injection can cause histamine release --> arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. o Transient elevation of plasma aminotransferases. o Cimetidine inhibits several cytochrome P-450 isoenzymes --> inhibits metabolism of many drugs.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cimetidine", "ranitidine", "omeprazole" ]
154,748
71472b0a-ada2-4336-8f84-7452f7a846ba
Least diffusion coefficient is for :
Isoflurane
Enflurane
Halothane
N20
3d
single
D i.e N20
Anaesthesia
null
[ "enflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
154,750
a2ac093e-9b81-4c13-9c20-9948ffa93b60
Which of the following is not a pharmacological propey of Repaglinide?
Insulin Secretagogues
Reduces insulin resistance
Causes less hypoglycemia than sulfonylureas
Effectively reduced postprandial hyperglycemia
1b
single
Repaglinide: the first member of the group, was approved for clinical use in 1998. These drugs modulate B cell insulin release by regula ng potassium efflux through the potassium channels. It should be taken just before each meal in doses of 0.25-4 mg; hypoglycemia is a risk if the meal is delayed or skipped or contains inadequate carbohydrate.
Pathology
All India exam
[ "repaglinide" ]
154,755
12ccf10c-6594-4fb4-8422-27ba831fc4ca
Which of the following drugs is a direct inhibitor of clotting factor Xa?
Apixaban
Argatroban
Fondaparinux
Aspirin
0a
single
All the drugs ending with XA BAN are direct Xa inhibitor XaBlocker Impoant ones are :- (1) Rivaroxaban (2) Apixaban (3) Edoxaban (4) Betrixaban (b) Argatroban - Direct thrombin inhibitors. (synthetic non-peptide compound which binds reversibly to the catalytic site of thrombin but not to the substrate recognition site)Argatroban uses ---- Tx of Thrombosis and for PCI(PCI = Per cutaneous Intervention) in HIT patients (HIT= Heparin induced thrombocytopenia ) (c) Fondaparinux - Indirect thrombin inhitor. (Penta-saccharidewith specitic sequence that binds to AT -III with high affinity inducing an irreversible conformational change to selectively in actively factor Xawithout binding thrombin) Fondaparinux use - prophylaxis and Tx of DVT &PE(Pulmonary Embolism) as well as ACS (Acute coronary syndrome) (d)Aspirin - Thromboxane synthesis inhibitor Aspirin use - CAD (Coronary Aery Disease), Stroke.
Pharmacology
FMGE 2018
[ "fondaparinux", "apixaban" ]
154,761
49cc3f73-df06-46ff-b008-f891b4e05b61
Bone marrow depression is seen with chronic administration of -
Isoflurane
N2O
Ether
Halothane
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., N2O Nitrous oxide N2Oo It is colourless, odourless, heavier than air, nonirritating and noninflammable gas.o It is also called laughing gas.o MAC is 105% (least potent) - even pure N2O at 1 atmospheric pressure can not produce adequate anaesthesia.o It has good analgesic but poor muscle relaxant activity.o It is supplied under pressure in blue coloured steel cyclinders.o It has very low blood solubility - induction is quick and smooth with rapid recovery.o Second gas effect and diffusion hypoxia occur with N2O only.o N2O is generally used as a carrier and adjuvant to other anaesthetics - A mixture of 70% N2O + 25 - 30% O2 + 0[?]2 - 2% another potent anaesthetic is employed for most of the surgical procedures.o Entonox is a mixture of 50% N2O and 50% O2.o It has little effect on respiration, heart and BP.o It can cause bone marrow depression and vit B12 deficiency.o N2O is the only anaesthetic reported to produce hematologic toxicity and neurotoxicity with long term administration.o Both toxicides are the result of the interaction of N2O with vit B12.o Complete bone marrow failure can be expected after several days of continuous exposure.o Bone marrow changes are preventable by pretreating patients with large doses of folinic acid.o Other manifestations of vit B12 deficiency eg. megaloblastic anemia, subacute combined degeneration of cord may also occur.o Methemoglobinemia and laryngospasm may occur.o It is contraindicated in patients with air cavities like pneumothorax, pneumoperitoneum and volvulus - expansion and increase in pressure occur.
Anaesthesia
Complications Of Anaesthesia
[ "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
154,765
7c2d6218-1915-45af-890f-c270d2f8f894
All are used to shrink fibroids EXCEPT:
Estrogen
Danazol
Mifepristone
GnRH analogue
0a
multi
(Estrogen) (345-46-Shaw's 13th) (323-S14th)* Estrogen are used to control the bleeding not the shrinkage tumours:Medical treatment of Fibroids* Iron therapy for anaemia* Drugs used to control menorrhagia* RU 486 (Mifepristone) Dannazol, Gn Rh analogues (depot leuprolide or nafarelin) used to reduce the size of the tumour upto 50 - 80%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
[ "danazol", "mifepristone" ]
154,781
9de7b613-5c19-4846-878e-d7dd15f6e94b
Indicate the drug which does not improve lower esophageal sphincter tone or prevent gastroesophageal reflux, but is used as the first line treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease:
Sodium alginate+aluminium hydroxide gel
Omeprazole
Mosapride
Metoclopramid
1b
single
(Ref: KDT 6/e p648) Treatment of GERD can be acomplished by Increasing GI motility with prokinetic drugs (like metoclopramide and mosapride) or By decreasing gastric acid secretion with PPIs like omeprazole.
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "omeprazole" ]
154,794
3f034882-6b9b-4ecd-855e-8dee610936c7
Emergence Delirium is characteristic of ?
Midazolam
Ketamine
Thiopentone
Opioids
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ketamine o Ketamine produces emergence reaction during awakening from anaesthesia --> vivid dreaming, illusions, extracorporeal experiences, excitment, confusion, fear and euphoria --> contraindicated in psychiatric illness like schizophrenia.
Pharmacology
null
[ "ketamine", "midazolam" ]
154,804
49885cd2-df24-4697-a610-a2d677cd77b8
Which of the following increases during surgical stress?
Coisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Gastrin
0a
single
Stress hormones such as coisol and norepinephrine are released by the body in situations that are interpreted as being potentially dangerous. The hormone regulating system is known as the endocrine system. Coisol is believed to affect the metabolic system and norepinephrine is believed to play a role in ADHD as well as depression and hypeension.Glucagon, a peptide hormone secreted by the pancreas, raises blood glucose levels. Its effect is opposite that of insulin, which lowers blood glucose levels.Insulin is a peptide hormone, produced by beta cells of the pancreas, and is central to regulating carbohydrate and fat metabolism in the body. Insulin causes cells in the liver, skeletal muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the blood. In the liver and skeletal muscles, glucose is stored as glycogen, and in fat cells (adipocytes) it is stored as triglycerides.In humans, gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach (the poion of the stomach adjacent the pyloric valve), duodenum, and the pancreas.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-362
Physiology
Endocrinology
[ "glucagon" ]
154,808
b6f6344c-eb41-47c5-9589-d1d7d2b75a64
Misoprostol is an analogue of:
PGE1
PGE2
PGF2
PGI2
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "misoprostol" ]
154,811
efa912fc-d135-4e06-83a0-719b5480b863
Which anaesthetic gas is contraindicated in the presence of pneumothorax ?
Halothane
Isoflurane
Nitrous oxide
Chloroform
2c
single
null
Anaesthesia
null
[ "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
154,818
6ff422a1-73c9-4453-b82e-33451639c0f4
All of the following can cause SLE–like syndrome except:
Isoniazid
Penicillin
Hydralazine
Sulphonamide
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "hydralazine", "isoniazid" ]
154,828
7db17906-e8f4-462b-81a1-5e3fdc422c1f
A child was diagnosed as a case of pauci–immune crescentic glomerulonephritis. The treatment to be given in this child is –
Prednisolone + Cyclophosphamide
Methylprednisolone
Cyclophosphamide
Immumoglobins
0a
single
Panel-immune glomerulonephritis Pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is defined as the lack of anti-GBM antibodies or immune complex. It is a type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Causes are :- Idiopathic renal-limited crescentic glomerulonephritis (ANCA associated).  Microscopic PAN         Microscopic polyangitis             Wegner's gramdomatosis                                                                                         It is treated aggressively with glucocorticoids with or without cyclophosphamide or azathioprine
Pediatrics
null
[ "cyclophosphamide", "prednisolone", "methylprednisolone" ]
154,848
60a90f4e-fb83-4c32-ae2b-497ee4b58ad6
Antimitotic drugs of plant source is/are?
Vincristine
Isotretinoin
Bleomycine
Methotraxate
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vincristine
Pharmacology
null
[ "isotretinoin", "vincristine" ]
154,858
2380afde-689e-49bf-9141-7f2e35b157d6
In the treatment of severe bradycardia, all of the following can be the best modality of treatment except-
Atropine
Pacing
Isoproterenol
Diltiazem
3d
multi
atropine,pacing,isoproterenol can be used to increase hea rate in bradycardia diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used to reduce hea rate Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1456
Medicine
C.V.S
[ "diltiazem", "atropine" ]
154,867
300b7c29-d46b-4746-a108-b022a3feefe8
Induction agent of choice in day care surgery is :
Ketamine
Propofol
Methohexitone
Thiopentone sodium
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ketamine", "propofol" ]
154,877
7353f819-6bb7-42d7-b04c-8c47947c2c8d
Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody against IL-5
Omalizumab
Mepolizumab
Tocilizumab
Alemtuzumab
1b
single
Mepolizumab & Reslizumab are monoclonal antibodies against IL-5 used in bronchial asthma, which act by inhibiting recruitment of esinophils.
Pharmacology
null
[ "omalizumab", "tocilizumab", "mepolizumab" ]
154,894
4bf5e2a4-b20f-4004-85d0-c96b4fcc3189
Which one of the following drugs should be avoided in Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) Syndrome ?
Digoxin
Adenosine
Procainamide
Amiodarone
0a
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "amiodarone", "digoxin", "procainamide" ]
154,895
8691a81f-70ec-4627-bed5-60bc642571cd
A 37-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe heartburn with or without meals. She has a history of hypertension, which has been treated with captopril. She also has a history of Raynaud disease, multiple facial telangiectasias, and very taut skin on the dorsum of both hands. She has failed to obtain relief for her heartburn with large doses of antacids, or omeprazole. Esophageal manometry is ordered. Most likely results of this test is ?
Decreased esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
Decreased esophageal peristalsis and increased LES pressure
Increased esophageal peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
Increased esophageal peristalsis and increased LES pressure
0a
multi
This patient has the classic presentation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in association with scleroderma. These patients have the deposition of collagen in the body of the esophagus, as well as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). This results in the typical pattern of decreased esophageal peristalsis and the reduced ability of the LES to maintain its high pressures between swallowing. These patients are therefore at risk for severe GERD and subsequent complications of peptic stricture and Barrett's esophagus. Although there is no corrective therapy to improve esophageal motility or increase LES pressure, aggressive treatment is generally aimed at reducing acid production with the use of high doses of proton pump inhibitors. Nevertheless, many of these patients develop the long-term consequences of GERD.  Achalasia, in which impaired esophageal peristalsis is often accompanied by a lack of lower esophageal sphincter relaxation.
Unknown
null
[ "captopril", "omeprazole" ]
154,896
ca08ee13-d968-48f4-89da-16781b58edfb
Treatment of choice for prophylaxis in patients with repeated episodes of bipolar illness: March 2004
Lithium
Valproate
A + B
None of the above
2c
multi
Ans. C i.e. A + B Ref: Kumar and Clark's
Psychiatry
null
[ "valproate" ]
154,903
1294ba95-dae2-466b-96d1-c3ea02941fd6
Drug of choice for a child with first episode nephrotic syndrome is?
Cyclophosphamide
Prednisolone
Mycophenolate
Cyclosporine
1b
single
Drug of choice for a child with first episode nephrotic syndrome is oral prednisolone. Drug of choice for steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome is Levamisole, Steroid resistant Nephrotic syndrome are calcineurin inhibitors like Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus.
Pediatrics
Nephritic & Nephrotic Syndrome
[ "cyclophosphamide", "cyclosporine", "prednisolone" ]
154,904
6f17b679-e7d1-4c35-b3a9-66f71e3ab255
Drug of choice for attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity is: September 2009
Chlorpromazine
Clonidine
Imipramine
Methylphenidate
3d
single
Ans. D: Methylphenidate Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder/ ADHD/ AD/ HD is a neurobehavioral developmental disorder. It is primarily characterized by "the co-existence of attentional problems and hyperactivity, with each behavior occurring infrequently alone" and symptoms staing before seven years of age. ADHD is the most commonly studied and diagnosed psychiatric disorder in children, affecting about 3% to 5% of children globally. Stimulant medication are the most commonly prescribed medications for ADHD. The most common stimulant medications are the chain subsitituted amphetamine methylphenidate (currently, the drug of choice), dextroamphetamine and dexamohetamine. Atomoxetine, a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, may be an alternative for children who do not respond to stimulants.
Psychiatry
null
[ "chlorpromazine", "imipramine", "methylphenidate", "clonidine" ]
154,939
9265bbfb-9616-4de2-b2b0-2c43ef45387a
A 30 weeks pregnant multigravida was found to have high BP, proteinuria and pedal edema. The antihypeensive can be used to control BP in this patient is:
Guanethidine
Labetalol
Atenolol
Captopril
1b
single
Labetalol is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker and a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker and it is safe during pregnancy. The beta-blockade/alpha-blockade ratio is 7:1. It appears to lack teratogenicity and crosses the placenta in small amounts. Methyldopa, labetalol, or nifedipine are first-line antihypeensive agents in pregnancy. Among them, methyldopa is the first-line antihypeensive agent in pregnancy. Other antihypeensive medications used in pregnancy include metoprolol, prazosin, minoxidil, hydralazine, thiazide diuretics, and clonidine. Ref: Miller D.A. (2013). Chapter 26. Hypeension in Pregnancy. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "atenolol", "captopril", "labetalol" ]
154,942
0d33134b-6d10-4e95-b9eb-130be1d39da5
Strongest stimulus of lactation is by :
Metoclopramide
Post paum hemorrhage
Bromocripti ne
Suckling
3d
single
Suckling
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "metoclopramide" ]
154,948
3d974e42-d610-4a9b-8f70-edf5c1c4cd65
Features of liver damage are all except
Decreased factor VII levels
Raised prothrombin time
Conjugated as well as unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Decreased erythropoietin production
3d
multi
Ans. d (Decreased erythropoietin production). (Ref. Harrison's 18,h/Ch. 301., Robbins 6th/846, 1667)SIGNS OF LIVER FAILURE:# Intermediate metabolism of amino acids and carbohydrates# Synthesis and degradation of proteins and glycoproteins# Metabolism and degradation of drugs and hormones# Restriction of lipid and cholesterol metabolism# Coagulation factor# Bile, bile salts and impaired metabolism.
Medicine
G.I.T.
[ "erythropoietin" ]
154,953
b92c2758-e30f-484f-b7f2-f086afa7533b
Following are features of morphine withdrawl, except:
Piloerection
Insomnia
Discharge from nose
Constipation
3d
multi
Constipation
Psychiatry
null
[ "morphine" ]
154,965
68163ab9-795b-403d-aed3-c89e3b82cbd6
Most potent analgesic:
COX-2 inhibitor
Remifentanil
Morphine
Sufentanil
3d
single
Ref: Goodman & Gillman 13th ed. P 376* Fentanyl citrate and sufentanil citrate are congeners of fentanyl and are considered as potent analgesics* After systemic delivery:# Fentanyl is about 100 times more potent than morphine# Sufentanil is about 1000 times more potent than morphine* Time to peak analgesic effect after IV administration: 5 minutes* These drugs are well known to be used as epidural analgesic.
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "morphine", "sufentanil", "remifentanil" ]
154,984
abda6ac9-fa74-4a35-b75e-dedeb0c56673
A female patient with a mechanical heart valve who is taking warfarin informs you that she hopes to get pregnant in the near future. What advice do you give her regarding her antithrombotic medication during the anticipated pregnancy?
Continue with warfarin until the third trimester.
She should replace warfarin with aspirin at analgesic doses.
Discontinue all medications that affect the blood.
Replace warfarin with heparin.
3d
multi
Discontinuance of warfarin is appropriate during pregnancy because it is a known teratogen that causes bone dysmorphogenesis. The patient will need continued protection against thrombus formation, and heparin (or a related low molecular weight compound) is usually advised, despite the fact that the drug will require parenteral administration and can cause thrombocytopenia.
Pharmacology
Anti-Cancer
[ "warfarin" ]
154,998
5d739a5a-3864-4e86-b99b-d1d9f687f1a1
mood stabilzer used in the management of trigeminal neuralgia is
carbamezepine
valproate
lamotrigine
lithium
0a
single
Carbamazepine - USES - TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA - TEMPORAL LOBE EPILEPSY - SECOND LINE MOOD STABILIZER Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychitry, 11 th edition, pg no.935
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
[ "valproate", "lamotrigine" ]
155,012
c653ec61-c176-4b1c-952a-142d9ec20846
Alpha 1 blocker used for BHP is:
Tamsolusin
Prazosin
Oxazosin
Dolazoline
0a
single
Tamsolusin
Pharmacology
null
[ "prazosin" ]
155,014
c8b63608-1954-4ae1-8ab6-5ebedbb95f3c
Bronze baby syndrome is caused by:
Phototherapy
Phenobarbitone
Hemosiderosis
Chloramphenicol
0a
single
Bronze baby syndrome: is a dark, grayish brown skin discoloration mainly seen in infants with elevated conjugated bilirubin, as an adverse effect of phototherapy
Pediatrics
Neonatal Jaundice
[ "chloramphenicol" ]
155,036
644a2452-0ffb-456c-843d-1e0f210183b6
Oxalate crystals in urine is seen in: (PGI Dec 2006)
Ethylene glycol poison
Di glycol poison
Alcohol
Indinavir
0a
single
Ans: A (Ethylene glycol poisoning) Ethylene Glycol Poisoning# Ingestion of ethylene glycol (commonly used in antifreeze) leads to a metabolic acidosis and severe damage to the central nervous system, heart, lungs, and kidneys. The increased AG and osmolar gap are attributable to ethylene glycol and its metabolites, oxalic acid, glycolic acid, and other organic acids. Lactic acid production increases secondary to inhibition of the tricarboxylic add cycle and altered intracellular redox state.# Diagnosis is facilitated by recognizing oxalate crystals in the urine(r) the presence of an osmolar gap in serum, and a high-AG acidosis. If anti freeze containing a fluorescent dye is ingested, a Wood's lamp applied to the urine may be revealing. Treatment should not be delayed while awaiting measurement of ethylene glycol le%rels in this setting
Medicine
Toxicology
[ "indinavir" ]
155,054
92b573b9-f22d-45ff-8bc7-8fdd4e124978
A 48-year-old male presented to OPD with complaints of generalized swelling over face and legs. Lab repos show moderately increased albuminuria. He gives history of HTN and T2DM for 15 years which is improperly controlled. He is staed on cA preparations,which of following drug should not be prescribed to this patient?
Dolutegravir
Lamivudine
Emtricitabine
Tenofovir
3d
single
Albuminuria in presence of T2DM And HTN is pointing towards renal dysfunction Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF, commonly termed 'tenofovir') is the antiretroviral most commonly implicated in antiretroviral-induced nephrotoxicity. It is mainly metabolized and excreted by kidneys, therefore avoided in patients with renal dysfunction
Medicine
viral infection
[ "lamivudine", "dolutegravir", "emtricitabine" ]
155,066
449d128b-e935-4c62-a958-45501729944c
A 28 year old Raji was HbsAg positive during her first pregnancy 8 years ago. She was asymptomatic and had regular check ups with a Hepatologist. Rani is now 32 weeks pregnant with the following lab parameters : LFT Normal, HbsAg Positive, HbeAg Negative, HBV DNA 90,000 copies/ml. Her first child was given hepatitis B immunoglobulin and Vaccination soon after bih and the child is HBsAg negative. Which of the following statement is true about the current scenario?
Very high risk of hepatitis B transmission to the baby
Entecavir is safe in pregnancy and should be staed as early as possible to mother
Antiviral therapy against hepatitis B is contraindicated in pregnancy
The patient can be monitored without antivirals and the baby should be given immunoglobulin and active immunisation soon after delivery
3d
multi
The patient can be monitored without antivirals and the baby should be given immunoglobulin and active immunisation soon after delivery
Medicine
null
[ "entecavir" ]
155,076
5bf3aa0c-328c-4450-b0df-c6910e3798c1
Regarding sulpha group of drugs all the below statements are true, except:
Sulfonamide may cause Kernicterus in newborn
Sulfonamides are used in Norcardia infections
Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide
Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from GIT
3d
multi
Sulfasalazine is usaually absorbed from the small intestines. Only 10% of drug is absorbed remaining excreted unaltered in bowel. Hence, this drug acts locally in the intestine of patient with inflammatory bowel disease. Ref: Paul Beringer (2006), Chapter 90, "Antiinfectives", In the book, "Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy", Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, USA, Page 1631 ; KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 186, 643 ; Katzung 9th Edition, Page 591
Pharmacology
null
[ "sulfasalazine" ]
155,079
fd9b2009-a6e4-4479-b9c0-7e0fc3530ae3
Which of the following local anesthetic is a vasoconstrictor
Lidocaine
Procaine
Bupivacaine
Ropivacaine
3d
single
null
Surgery
null
[ "lidocaine", "ropivacaine", "bupivacaine", "procaine" ]
155,086
dfdb9eca-d73d-4d45-a382-fb677cdee025
A 53-year-old man presents to Casualty with severe chest pain. He has a history of angina. ECG shows ST elevation of 4 mm in leads V1 and V4 Thrombolysis has been done but pain and ECG findings are persisting 90 minutes after start of thrombolysis. What is the best management of this patient?
Rescue PCI
Primary PCI
Delayed PCI
IV Abciximab
0a
single
Ans. A Rescue PCIRef: CMDT 2019 pg. 386The patient is having failure of thrombolysis. In case of failure of thrombolysis, rescue PCI is performed. Primary PCI is done for STEMI. Delayed PCI is done for NSTEMI and hence are ruled out.
Physiology
Nervous System
[ "abciximab" ]
155,100
4d08b1ed-f5c3-4d60-8c24-d363697d7d66
Which amide local anaesthetic causes allergy
Lignocaine
Articane
Benzocaine
Prilocaine
1b
multi
Articane is the only amide local anaesthetic agent metabolised by pseudocholinesterase, produces PABA thus causing allergy.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "benzocaine" ]
155,104
df0a364e-028c-440e-b61c-b8fb79d37919
ICATIBANT IS A ?
bradykinin B 1 antagonist
bradykinin B 2 antagonist
bradykinin B 3 antagonist
histamine receptor H3 antagonist
1b
single
Icatibant, New Bradykinin-Receptor Antagonist, in HAE Icatibant (Firazyr, Shire) synthetic selective decapeptide bradykinin B2 receptor competitive antagonist contains 5 non-natural amino acids to enhance resistance to peptidases Icatibant administered sc injection as single 30 mg peak concentration within 30 minutes, ref : kd tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "icatibant" ]
155,130
2bdf52c0-327e-4e2f-acea-73648a2a8c1d
A 55-year-old woman was admitted to the intensive care unit with severe lobar pneumonia and septic shock. She remained hypoxemic despite intubation, a high fraction of inspired oxygen, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When PEEP was increased further, she paradoxically became more hypoxemic and her blood pressure and central venous hemoglobin saturation fell. What would be your approach
Keep PEEP at the highest and give adrenaline
Initiate dobutamine and reduce PEEP to 5cm H2O
Increase PEEP further
Increase FiO2
1b
multi
High levels of PEEP can decrease cardiac output and tissue oxygen delivery with subsequent decreases in mixed and central venous oxygen content that contribute to impaired arterial oxygenation in patients with increased shunt fractions. So in this patient give dobutamine to correct hypotension and reduce PEEP so as to increase oxygenation.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "dobutamine" ]
155,143
31065b71-cacd-4766-ab02-9f93e0807b23
Which of the following drugs is contra-indicated in acute intermittent porphyria?
Thiopentone
Midazolam
Propofol
Etomidate
0a
single
Barbiturates are contra-indicated in acute intermittent porphyria. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "etomidate", "midazolam", "propofol" ]
155,151
0c2166d9-c644-4cf9-a1c5-6e1e653af19b
A 32-year old male with no past medical history is brought to the emergency department after being injured in a bomb blast. On examination he is suspected to have a splenic injury and is supposed to undergo an emergency laparotomy. Which of the following is the ideal anaesthetic agent of choice ?
Remifentanil
Morphine
Etomidate
Halothane
2c
single
Inducing agents of choice patients with hypotension are Ketamine and Etomidate :- (1) If the patient is hypertensive at the time of induction → Etomidate is preferable. (2) If the patient is normotensive or mild hypotensive → Either of two can be used. (3) If the patient is severely hypotensive → Ketamine is preferred.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "morphine", "halothane", "remifentanil", "etomidate" ]
155,164
8c4c66f9-8ca5-4af1-bf76-162954c50674
Delta cells of pancreas secretes
Glucagon
Insulin
Somatostatin
Pancreatic polypeptide
2c
single
Ans. (c) Somatostatin
Physiology
Pancreas
[ "glucagon" ]
155,182
687f89a2-ab71-4b49-a2bc-99ac61e19de5
Which of the following pair of drugs are metabolized by same Cytochrome enzyme
Omeprazole and Clopidogrel
Phenytoin and Tacrolimus
Paracetamol and Warfarin
Omeprazole and Warfarin
0a
single
Both are metabolized by CYP2C19.
Pharmacology
null
[ "clopidogrel", "tacrolimus", "omeprazole", "paracetamol", "phenytoin", "warfarin" ]
155,187
0092c918-83ea-4e0d-acf1-64bbcfc74021
Which of the following medications should be used for pheochromocytoma associated hypeension after phenoxybenzamine is staed?
Amlodipine
Propranolol
Nifedipine
Diltiazem
1b
single
Option B- in order to control tremors and palpitation complaints in the patient For Pheochromocytoma : (a+b) =Ideal management recommended protocol (b+a) = C/I
Medicine
Disorders of Adrenal Gland
[ "propranolol", "diltiazem", "amlodipine", "phenoxybenzamine", "nifedipine" ]
155,188
7d1f1e2f-423f-4aab-be37-c69f837211cc
Amphotericin B (Fungizone) IV is given to a client with aspergillosis, a fungal infection. In order to prevent its side effects, the nurse anticipate administering which of the following prior, except?
Hydrocortisone.
Ketoconazole.
Diphenhydramine.
Meperidine.
1b
multi
Azole antifungals (eg, ketoconazole) decreases the effectiveness of amphotericin b. Options A and C: Fever, shaking, chills, flushing, loss of appetite, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, headache, shortness of breath, or fast breathing may occur 1 to 3 hours after the infusion is started. Medications such as acetaminophen, diphenhydramine, corticosteroids such as hydrocortisone) may be necessary to prevent these side effects. Option D: Meperidine (25 to 50 mg IV) has been shown in some patients to decrease the duration of shaking chills and fever that may accompany the infusion of amphotericin B.
Medicine
null
[ "diphenhydramine", "ketoconazole" ]
155,192
a04d5ed2-9c9b-47bb-9e2e-ee7d95c3f1e8
All of the following are true about "Imiquimod" EXCEPT:
Direct antiviral activity
Indirect antiviral activity
Antitumor activity
It release cytokines
0a
multi
IMIQUIMOD: Mechanism of Action An unknown mechanism in treating actinic keratosis and external genital was; immune response modifier, stimulates the release of inflammatory cytokines and proliferation/migration of immune cells No direct antiviral activity Absorption Appears to be dependent on the area of application rather than the amount applied Peak plasma concentration (Aldara): 0.1-3.5 ng/mL Peak plasma concentration (Zyclara): 0.323 ng/mL Elimination Excretion: Urine USES: Actinic Keratosis Indicated for topical treatment of clinically typical, nonhyperkeratotic, nonhyperophic actinic keratoses on the face or scalp in immunocompetent adults Zyclara 2.5% or 3.75%: Apply qDay to the skin of affected area (either entire face or balding scalp) for two 2-week treatment cycles separated by 2-week no-treatment period Aldara 5%: Apply 2 times a week for 16 weeks to one defined treatment area (contiguous area <25 cm2); examples of dosing schedules include Monday and Thursday or Tuesday and Friday Superficial Basal Cell Carcinoma Target tumor should have maximum <2 cm diameter and be located on trunk (excluding anogenital skin), neck, or extremities (excluding hands and feet); treatment area should include 1 cm margin of skin around tumor Aldara 5%: Apply 5 times a week for 6 weeks to biopsy-confirmed superficial basal cell carcinoma and include 1 cm margin of skin around tumor External Genital Was Indicated for the treatment of external genital and perianal was/condyloma acuminata Zyclara 3.75%: Apply a thin film to the entire treatment area and rub in until the cream is no longer visible; may wash with mild soap and water after 8 hours of application; use 1 packet or 1 full actuation of the pump Aldara 5%: Apply 3 times a week until total clearance of was or for a maximum of 16 weeks; examples of application schedules are Monday, Wednesday, Friday or Tuesday, Thursday, Saturday; use 1 packet only for each application Bladder Cancer (Orphan) Orphan designation for the treatment of carcinoma in situ of the urinary bladder. Adverse Effects >10% Application site reaction (33%) UI (15%) Erythema (54-61%) Erosion (29-31%) Excoriation/flaking (18-25%) Edema (12-17%) Itching (20%) 1-10% Sinusitis (7%) Burning (6%) Headache (5%) Carcinoma squamous (4%) Diarrhea (3%) Bleeding (3%) Stinging (3%) Pain (3%) Eczema (2%) Induration (2%) Tenderness (2%) Irritation (2%) Back pain (1%) Fatigue (1%) Atrial fibrillation (1%) REF KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Immunomodulators
[ "imiquimod" ]
155,214
1b81e59f-0bb4-412e-9b1e-b6267bfd6bf2
Best uterine relaxation is seen with –
Chloroform
Nitrous oxide
Ether
Halothane
3d
single
All fluorinated inhalational agents (including halothane) can cause uterine relaxation. Traditionally, Halothane is considered as to posseses maximum uterine relaxant property.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "halothane" ]
155,218
175791c5-c987-45dd-838e-d01765b25045
Cholinergic drugs such as pilocarpine are routinely used to treat glaucoma. What is their mechanism of action in the eye that accounts for this ophthalmologic use?
Reduction in the formation of aqueous humor
Blockade of adrenergic receptors to potentiate cholinergic effects
Alkalinization of aqueous humor
Improved drainage of aqueous humor
3d
single
Like other cholinergics with muscarinic action, pilocarpine improves the drainage of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber angle of the eye. The cholinomimetic effect results in contraction of the ciliary body and causes a change in its position. This altered position increases flow of aqueous humor through the trabecular network and into the canal of Schlemm, thus decreasing the intraocular pressure of glaucoma. Ref: Brown J.H., Laiken N. (2011). Chapter 9. Muscarinic Receptor Agonists and Antagonists. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "pilocarpine" ]
155,245
99c767c2-bde7-4e08-9e54-ec93630332d8
Drug of choice in delirium tremens is -
Diazepalm
Phenytoin
Chlordiazepoxide
Morphine
2c
single
Chlordiazepoxide is preferred over diazepam.
Psychiatry
null
[ "morphine", "chlordiazepoxide", "phenytoin" ]
155,258
4a892906-a105-424d-b963-549152241d63
Which one of the following drugs can reduce the efficacy of low dose oral contraceptive pill :
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Ampicillin
Rifampicin
3d
single
Rifampicin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "tetracycline", "ampicillin" ]
155,260
e29c2837-ae3d-4e9b-ab1e-d1e1462f5358
Drug of choice for generalized anxiety ?
3-blocker
Alprazolam
Buspirone
Phenytoin
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alprazolam Treatment of generalized anxiety Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice. Drugs in this group are diazepam, Lorazepam, Alprazolam, Oxazepam, chlordiazepoxide. Other drugs used are buspirone; TCA (amptriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine, desipramine); SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Sealine, Paroxetine, Citalopram); SNRIs (Venalafaxine), 13-blockers. Anticonvulsants with GABAergic propeies may also be effective against anxiety, e.g., Gabapentin, Oxcarbazepine, Tiagabine, pregabalin, and Valproate (divalporex).
Psychiatry
null
[ "alprazolam", "phenytoin" ]
155,271
e14f1a88-4afe-4ebd-ac48-02d55dc3b087
Drug not having any role in Acute Asthma is:
Ipratropium
Steroid
Salbutamol
Sodium Chromoglycate
3d
single
Sodium Chromoglycate Sodium Chromoglycate
Pharmacology
null
[ "ipratropium", "salbutamol" ]
155,280
718cc486-4e8a-4400-92f1-c479a4be7c1b
Drug of choice for cystitis ?
Amoxicillin
Chloramphenicol
Cotrimoxazole
Ciprofloxacin
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ciprofloxacin Fluroquinolones form the first line of drugs to be used against cystits. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone and so the most appropriate answer.
Pharmacology
null
[ "ciprofloxacin", "chloramphenicol" ]
155,283
753f7e8b-b92b-462c-8134-d4eab3a3e55d
Treatment for multiple sclerosis
Interferon alpha
Interferon beta
Infliximab
Interferon gamma
1b
single
Beta interferons. These medications are among the most commonly prescribed medications to treat MS. They are injected under the skin or into muscle and can reduce the frequency and severity of relapses Interferon alpha is used to treat various cancers (e.g., leukemia, melanoma, AIDS-related Kaposi's sarcoma). It is also used to treat virus infections Interferon-g 1b is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration to treat chronic granulomatous disease and osteoporosis This medication is used to treat ceain types of ahritis (rheumatoid ahritis, ahritis of the spine, psoriatic ahritis), ceain bowel diseases (Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis), and a ceain severe skin disease (chronic plaque psoriasis). Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345
Medicine
C.N.S
[ "infliximab" ]
155,297
d5e36578-bfe7-4155-a7d7-1ab91a0244a7
Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with:
Dipyridamole
Diltiazem
Propranolol
Verapamil
0a
single
There are two types of vessels in coronary circulaton – 1. Larger conducting arteries which run epicardially and send perforating branches. 2. Smaller resistance arterioles - These are perforating branches of conducting arteries. These arterioles supply blood to the endocardium.   During ischemia, adenosine (a local mediator) causes dilatation of resistance arterioles in the ischemic area only, the tone of resistance vessels of the nonischemic area does not change → the increased flow to the ischemic area.  Dipyridamole is a powerful coronary dilator; increases total coronary flow by preventing uptake and degradation of adenosine.  It dilates resistance vessels in the nonischemic zone as well → Diverts the already reduced blood flow away from ischemic zone - Coronary steal phenomenon.  It has no effect on larger conducting vessels (contrast nitrates which dilate larger conducting vessels and cause redistribution of blood towards ischemic zone).  Dipyridamole inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cAMP (by inhibiting phosphodiesterase) which potentiates PGI and interferes with aggregation.  It is not useful as an antianginal drug (due to coronary steal phenomenon), but can be used for prophylaxis of coronary and cerebral thrombosis in post-MI and post-stroke patients as well as to prevent thrombosis in patients with a prosthetic heart valve.
Pharmacology
null
[ "propranolol", "diltiazem", "verapamil" ]
155,301
e4db8a6b-f808-46f8-8507-5d0b31789591
Patient was given chloroquine & doxycycline for 7 days. Patient&;s fever decreases in 4 days but , peripheral smear showed occasional gametocytes of plasmodium falciparum. This type of drug resistance is -
R1 type
R2 type
R3 type
R4 type
1b
single
Types of Drug Resistance In defining criteria for resistance to the aminoquinolineantimalarial drugs, the WHO has described three grades of resistance following treatment (Low grade) R1 : Recrudescence of infection between 7 and 28 days of completing treatment following initial resolution of symptoms and parasite clearance. (High grade) R2 : Reduction of parasitaemia by > 75% at 48 hours but failure to clear parasites<br />within 7 days. R3 : Parasitaemia does not fall by >75% within 48 hours. (www.slideshare.net)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
[ "chloroquine", "doxycycline" ]
155,302
f470bc50-f939-4f1b-8a5e-22457c0639e8
Granulomatous hepatitis may be seen with :
Carbamazepine
Allopurinol
Phenylbutazone
All of the above
3d
multi
Answer is D (All of the above) Granulomatous Hepatitis has been implicated with the following drugs: PhenyIbutazoneQ Sulfimamides.Q INHQ AllopurinolQ QuinidineQ CarbamazepineQ
Medicine
null
[ "allopurinol", "carbamazepine" ]
155,311
468888e8-7c81-48b1-8753-1e1447a73081
A patient with HIV infection complains of rapidly progressive painless visual loss.Fundus shows exudates and haemorrhage especially along blood vessels. In this case, the treatment of choice would be-
Amphotericin B
Pentamidine
Acyclovir
Ganciclovir
3d
multi
null
Medicine
null
[ "ganciclovir", "pentamidine" ]
155,320