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183k
5e861ba4-41a9-47d3-a357-eee8e261ee7d
Warm antibody haemolytic anemia is seen in :
Methyldopa
Penicillin
Quinine
Stibophen
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "quinine", "methyldopa" ]
63,505
dd47c443-bea8-4584-9e01-42dac385d8cf
A hypeensive patient presented with open-angle glaucoma. Drug of choice is to decrease the IOP is:
Latanoprost
Pilocarpine
Epinephrine
Timolol
3d
single
Timolol is a potent, non-selective beta receptor antagonist. It has no intrinsic sympathomimetic or membrane-stabilizing activity. It is used for hypeension, congestive hea failure, acute MI, and migraine prophylaxis. It is used in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma and intraocular hypeension. Its mechanism of action in treating open angle glaucoma is not precisely known; but the drug appears to reduce aqueous humour production through blockade of beta receptors on the ciliary epithelium. Ref: Westfall T.C., Westfall D.P. (2011). Chapter 12. Adrenergic Agonists and Antagonists. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "pilocarpine", "latanoprost", "epinephrine", "timolol" ]
63,509
81e61f89-e281-46a5-87d1-be624f9c9335
Best treatment of severe digitalis toxicity is
Potassium supplements
Diphenyl hydantoin
Quinidine
Fab fragments of digitalis antibody
3d
single
The primary treatment of digoxin toxicity is digoxin immune fab, which is an antibody made up of anti-digoxin immunoglobulinfragments. This antidote has been shown to be highly effective in treating life-threatening signs of digoxin toxicity such as hyperkalemia, hemodynamic instability, and arrhythmias. Fab dose can be determined by two different methods. First method is based on the amount of digoxin ingested whereas the second method is based on the serum digoxin concentration and the weight of the person. Other treatment that may be used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias until Fab is acquired are magnesium, phenytoin, and lidocaine. Magnesium suppresses digoxin-induced ventricular arrhythmias while phenytoin and lidocaine suppresses digoxin-induced ventricular automaticity and delay afterdepolarizations without depressing AV conduction. In the case of an abnormally slow hea rate (bradyarrhythmias), Atropine, catecholamines (isoprenaline or salbutamol), and/or temporary cardiac pacing can be used Refer kDT 6/e p499
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "quinidine" ]
63,514
036b304c-1cba-4a87-89bc-701934e56aa9
Drug of choice for round worm
Albendazole
Metronidazole
Praziquantal
Mebendazole
0a
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "albendazole", "mebendazole", "metronidazole" ]
63,553
0cca2a38-1a4f-41d1-9a0f-046d082d5a90
The reversal of neutromuscular blockade with d–T–C is done with –
Scoline
Neostimine
Atropine
Dantrolene
1b
single
null
Anaesthesia
null
[ "dantrolene", "atropine" ]
63,555
a41f4988-8d9b-4b72-b623-c67bb0935f41
Aseptic meningitis is caused by?
Indomethacin
Ibuprofen
Aspirin
Icatibant
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ibuprofen Medications Known to cause aseptic meningitis NSAIDsAntimicrobialsImmunomodulating agentsCommonibuprofenTrimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazoleMonoclonal antibody Intravenous IgGUncommonSulindac Naproxen Diclofenac RofecoxibSulfonamidesAzathioprineCauses of Acute Aseptic MeningitisInfectious cases|||BacterialViralo Lyme diseaseo Leptospirosiso Mycobacterium tuberculosis infectiono Subacute bacterial endocarditiso Parameningeal infection (epidural subdural abcess, sinus or ear infection)o Partially treated becterial meningitiso Echovirus infectiono Coxsackie virus infectiono Mumpso Herpes simplex virus type 2 infectiono HIV infectiono Lymphocytic choriomeningitiso Poliovirus infection
Medicine
Meningitis and Encephalitis
[ "indomethacin", "ibuprofen", "icatibant" ]
63,558
d35962bf-0864-4e6f-a563-0135f61fbf01
Drug of choice for Mycoplasma:
Cefadroxil
Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol
Azithromycin
3d
single
Azithromycin is the DOC for: Mycoplasma, cat scratch disease, legionella infections and chanchroid (caused by H-ducreyi)
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin", "azithromycin", "chloramphenicol" ]
63,566
181ecc05-7627-4120-9d16-68595392b004
A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anaesthesia as a day care case. lie wishes to resume his work after 6 hours. Which one of the following induction agents is preferred?
Propofol
Ketamine
Diazepam
Thiopentone sodium
0a
single
Propofol has replaced the barbiturates for induction of anesthesia in the ambulatory setting because of its orable recovery profile. Recovery after induction of anesthesia with propofol is faster than with the barbiturate compounds and is associated with low incidence of post operative nausea and vomiting. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K O Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 344; Miller&;s Anesthesia, 6th Edition, Pages 2602-3
Anaesthesia
All India exam
[ "ketamine", "diazepam", "propofol" ]
63,567
c0717c0c-2edb-4280-9e61-5aa507563400
The anticoagulant of choice for performing coagulation studies is -
EDTA
Heparin
Tri sodium citrate
Double oxalate
2c
single
The most commonly use anticoagulant for in vitro Coagulation Studies is Citric Acid.It is generally employed in the form of Sodium Citrate. In Vitro use of anticoagulants For coagulation studies-Sodium Citrate For Hematological studies-EDTA For estimation of ESR Wintrobes method-Double oxalate. Westergren method-Sodium Citrate.
Pathology
null
[ "edta" ]
63,570
529688f5-027b-4e8d-b3ed-13b0c42c8107
The best possible intervention for acute myocardial infarction is -
Streptokinase
Streptokinase and aspirin
Early primary coronary intervention
Streptokinase and heparin
2c
single
Ref : harrisons-manual-of-medicine-16th-edition pg no: 622-624 TREATMENT Initial Therapy Initial goals are to: (1) quickly identify if patient is candidate for reperfusion therapy, (2) relieve pain, and (3) prevent/treat arrhythmias and mechanical complications. * Aspirin should be administered immediately (162-325 mg chewed at presentation, then 162-325 mg PO qd), unless pt is aspirin-intolerant. * Perform targeted history, exam, and ECG to identify STEMI (1 mmST elevation in two contiguous leads or new LBBB) and appropriateness of reperfusion therapy , which reduces infarct size, LV dysfunction, and moality. * Primary PCI is generally more effective than fibrinolysis and is preferred at experienced centers capable of performing procedure rapidly , especially when diagnosis is in doubt, cardiogenic shock is present, bleeding risk is increased, or if symptoms have been present for 3 h. * Proceed with IV fibrinolysis if PCI is not available or if logistics would delay PCI 1 h longer than fibrinolysis could be initiated (Fig. 123-1). Dooo- needle time should be  30 min for maximum benefit. Ensure absence of contraindications before administering fibrinolytic agent. Those treated within 1-3 h benefit most; can still be useful up to 12 h if chest pain is persistent or ST remains elevated in leads that have not developed new Q waves. Complications include bleeding, reperfusion arrhythmias, and, in case of streptokinase (SK), allergic reactions. Heparin should be initiated with fibrinolytic agents other than SK ; maintain aPTTT at 1.5-2.0 control (50-70 s). * If chest pain or ST elevation persists 90 min after fibrinolysis, consider referral for rescue PCI. Later coronary angiography after fibrinolysis generally reserved for pts with recurrent angina or positive stress test. The initial management of NSTEMI (non-Q MI) is different . In paicular, fibrinolytic therapy should not be Additional Standard Treatment (Whether or not reperfusion therapy is undeaken): * Hospitalize in CCU with continuous ECG monitoring. * IV line for emergency arrhythmia treatment. * Pain control: (1) Morphine sulfate 2-4 mg IV q5-10min until pain is relieved or side effects develop ; (2) nitroglycerin 0.3 mg SL if systolic bp  100 mmHg; for refractory pain: IV nitroglycerin (begin at 10 g/min, titrate upward to maximum of 200 g/min, monitoring bp closely); do not administer nitrates within 24 h of sildenafil or within 48 h of tadalafil (used for erectile dysfunction); (3) -adrenergic antagonists * Oxygen 2-4 L/min by nasal cannula (maintain O2 saturation  90%). * Mild sedation (e.g., diazepam 5 mg PO qid). * Soft diet and stool softeners (e.g., docusate sodium 100-200 mg/d). * -Adrenergic blockers reduce myocardial O2 consumption, limit infarct size, and reduce moality. Especially useful in pts with hypeension, tachycardia, or persistent ischemic pain; contraindications include active CHF, systolic bp  95 mmHg, hea rate  50 beats/min, AV block,or history of bronchospasm. Administer IV (e.g., metoprolol 5 mg q5-10min to total dose of 15 mg), followed by PO regimen (e.g., metoprolol 25-100 mg bid). * Anticoagulation/antiplatelet agents: Pts who receive fibrinolytic therapy are begun on heparin and aspirin as indicated above. In absence of fibrinolytic therapy, administer aspirin, 160-325 mg qd, and low-dose heparin (5000 U SC q12h for DVT prevention). Full-dose IV heparin (PTT 2 control) or low-molecular-weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin 1 mg/kg SC q12h) followed by oral anticoagulants is recommended for pts with severe CHF, presence of ventricular thrombus by echocardiogram, or large dyskinetic region in anterior MI. Oral anticoagulants are continued for 3 to 6 months, then replaced by aspirin. * ACE inhibitors reduce moality in pts following acute MI and should be prescribed within 24 h of hospitalization for pts with STEMI--e.g., captopril (6.25 mg PO test dose) advanced to 50 mg PO tid. ACE inhibitors should be continued indefinitely after discharge in pts with CHF or those with asymptomatic LV dysfunction ; if ACE inhibitor intolerant, use angiotensin receptor blocker (e.g., valsaan or candesaan). * Serum magnesium level should be measured and repleted if necessary to reduce risk of arrhythmias.
Medicine
C.V.S
[ "streptokinase" ]
63,583
4f272916-9d92-48a2-a586-a71d130a7f1a
Which of the following drug reduces blood pressure by directly decreasing the hea rate:
Propanolol
Prazosin
Alpha methyl dopa
Nitroprusside sodium
0a
single
Propranolol is a non-selective beta blocker. It has a negative chronotropic effect (decreases hea rate) It decreases hea rate by blocking the beta1 receptors located on the hea. It also decreases renin production from JG cells of kidney decreasing BP (Ref- Essentials of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 8th Edition)
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "nitroprusside", "prazosin" ]
63,584
ae22418c-a28f-4b8a-aae2-55c481da66df
Which of the following drug is used for AML
Bevacizumab
Rituximab
Ozogamicin
Trastuzumab
2c
single
Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin is used in AML -It is directed against cd33 antibody Other drugs used in AML-Arsenic, tretinoin Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "rituximab" ]
63,593
df3030ca-d110-4d43-b9e2-391dd56069da
Most serious side effect of valproate is
Fulminant hepatits
Spina bifida
Weight gain
Thrombocytopenia
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fulminant hepatits Valproate Valproate acts by multiple mechanism : Prolongation of inactivated Na* channel. Inhibition of T type Ca' current. Inhibition of degradation of GABA by GABA transminase - facilitation of GABA mediated Cl- channel opening. Its most serious adverse effect is fulminant hepatitis especially in children below 3 years. Used during pregnancy, it has produced spina bifida and other neural tube defects. Uses (other than epilepsy) --> mania & bipolar illness, prophylaxis of migraine, trigeminal neuralgia, tardive dyskinesia. Adverse effect of Valproate Neurological - Ataxia, sedation,tremor Systemic- Hepatotoxicity, thromobocytopenia,GI irritation, weight gain, transient alopecia, hyperammonemia, pancreatitis,coagulation disorder.
Pharmacology
null
[ "valproate" ]
63,616
5b6fbe86-8652-4c61-a84e-5c7c8ee6d751
Which one of the following inhalational anesthetics is most likely to cause fluoride ion nephrotoxicity ?
Methoxyflurane
Enflurane
Halothane
Isoflurane
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methoxyflurane o Intrarenal metabolism of methoxyflurane and subsequent intrarenal production of fluoride ion is the significant cause of methoxyflurane renal toxicity.
Pharmacology
null
[ "methoxyflurane", "enflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
63,624
1ca7b390-aad5-4b5b-b45b-cbc3a4afb7ec
Drug of choice for non gonococcal urethritis is
Doxycycline
Tetracycline
Ciprofloxacin
Ceftriaxone
0a
single
i.e. (Doxycycline) : (715-KDT 6th) (1399-1249-CMDT-11) Drug of choice for Nongonococcal Urethritis trachomatis. Mvcoplasma genitaliumUreaplasmaUrealyticum)* Azithromycin (preferred and safe in pregnancy) lg single doseorDoxycycline (C/I in pregnancy) 100 mg BD for 7 daysorLevoflaxacin (C/I in pregnancy) 500 mg OD for 7 days* Diagnosis made by nucleic acid amplification of urine or swab specimen Drug of choice for Gonococcal Urethritis* Ceftriaxone (III generation cephalosporins) single dose 1/MorCefixime 400mg orally onceorCefpodoxime 200-400mg orally once
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "tetracycline", "ciprofloxacin", "doxycycline", "ceftriaxone" ]
63,638
d4cec9d0-dfeb-4067-b2c7-6dcc7ead1828
False about amoebic liver abscess
More common in 20- 40 years
More common in left lobe
Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment
Multiple abscess cannot be drained by aspiration
1b
multi
Ans. (b) More common in Left LobeRef: Sabiston 20th Edition Page 1451* Multiple abscess cannot be drained by aspiration. They need to be treated by antibiotics.* Amoebic liver abscess is MC in Right Lobe liver
Surgery
Liver
[ "metronidazole" ]
63,646
0a362e98-0c76-4c16-93df-f2db21f83d3e
Which of the following prostaglandin analogues is used in glaucoma ?
Misoprostol
Latanoprost
Enprostil
Rioprostil
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "misoprostol", "latanoprost" ]
63,652
2ec32224-58d6-4dc9-b2ba-d6ccad7e0b53
Long acting b2 sympathomimetic ?
Salmeterol
Orciprenaline
Penoterol
Pexbaterol
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Salmeterol o b2-agonistsused in Asthma 1.Sho acting --> Salbutamol, terbutaline 2. Long acting --> Salmeterol, formoterol
Pharmacology
null
[ "salmeterol" ]
63,670
060d30a9-871f-42e2-bc8e-7cbb81ac821c
Which of the following is not approved for treatment of leprosy
Ofloxacin
Minocycline
Azathioprine
Clarithromycin
2c
single
Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1334
Dental
Bacterial infections
[ "azathioprine", "clarithromycin", "minocycline", "ofloxacin" ]
63,671
6afd6346-11c7-4dde-a631-803681c8b2b5
Hepatic granulomas are seen with:
Halothane
Chlorpromazine
Sulfonamides
Methyldopa
2c
single
Morphologic alterations due to drugs may also include bridging hepatic necrosis (e.g., methyldopa), or hepatic granulomas (e.g., sulfonamides). Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2560
Medicine
null
[ "methyldopa", "chlorpromazine", "halothane" ]
63,686
a1a24c66-26e2-4e57-a51c-30f0744ad059
Bromocriptine is indicated in the following conditions except:
Prolactin – secreting adenomas
Prolactin deficiency
Amenorrhea -Galactorrhea
Acromegaly
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "bromocriptine" ]
63,702
c6ae4088-fe1e-4f81-921b-ebeee116feb3
Drug of choice for absence seizure is?
Clonezapam
Diazepam
Phenytoin
Valproate
3d
single
Ans. (d) ValproateRef. KDT 6/e, p 408
Pharmacology
D.O.C
[ "valproate", "phenytoin", "diazepam" ]
63,710
37e77be6-0934-423f-b398-d4cd04e70eb0
Which of the following is not the action of calcitriol?
Calcitriol increases the intestinal absorption of calcium
Calcitriol stimulates calcium uptake for deposition as calcium phosphate in the osteoblasts of bone
Calcitriol increases the excretion of calcium and phosphate through the kidney
Calcitriol action is similar to steroid hormones
2c
single
Calcitriol increases the intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate.  In the osteoblasts of bone,  calcitriol stimulates calcium uptake for deposition as calcium phosphate, Thus calcitriol is essential  for bone formation.  Calcitriol is also involved in minimizing the excretion of calcium and phosphate through the kidney, by decreasing their excretion' and enhancing reabsorption.   Calcitriol action is similar to steroid hormones. lt binds to a receptor in the cytosol and the complex  acts on DNA to stimulate the synthesis of calcium binding protein. Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-125
Biochemistry
null
[ "calcitriol" ]
63,715
83e0fab4-ab43-467c-a074-7e9bccbb68cf
A 45-year-old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 years ag0. She was treated for multiple bone metastasis with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluororacil for 6 months. She is complaining of exeion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, s1, s2 audible, s3, s5 gallop present. Her BP is 149/117 mm Hg, PR is 80/min, RR is 18/min. what is the most likely cause for her cardiac condition?
Systolic dysfunction CHF
Drug induced cardiac toxicity
Metastatic cardiac disease
Pneumonia
1b
multi
Drug-induced cardiotoxicity is a major adverse effect that has been encountered for some clinically impoant drugs especially antineoplastic agents. This toxicity has previously led to the post-marketing withdrawal of numerous pharmacologically active drugs and limits the efficacy of other clinically useful ones Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1213
Medicine
C.V.S
[ "cyclophosphamide", "doxorubicin" ]
63,721
9da74a2c-a1bb-40cf-9367-a444d5cc2f8c
Which of the following is the allosteric activator of Acetyl-CoA carboxylase?
Malonyl-CoA
Acetyl-CoA
Citrate
Biotin
2c
multi
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase is active when it is polymerized. Citrate promotes its polymerization. Citrate is an indicator of high-energy status. Palmitoyl-CoA inhibits its polymerization.
Biochemistry
Fatty acid and synthesis
[ "biotin" ]
63,725
0fe91caa-7f24-46e7-a97f-764ee64223ac
A mother with 10 weeks pregnancy and who had previously delivered a baby with open neural tube defect which statement is true:
Sodium valproate causes open neural tube defect
Risk of recurrence is 10%
Amniocentesis should be done
Give multivitamin
0a
multi
null
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "valproate" ]
63,733
ed9aa231-d0b8-48f1-8de8-edf3ee8d9c06
Which of the following is not true about late onset Hemorrhagic disease of newborn (HDN)?
Begins between 2-7 days of life
Intracranial Hemorrhage is common
Biliary atresia can predispose
Warfarin therapy is associated
0a
multi
Ans. a (Begins between 2-7 days of life) (Ref Care of Newborn by Maherbansingh 6,th/336; Oski's Pediatrics - Pg. 468)As classified by Hathaway, hemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur in early, classic, and late forms.Early HDN presents in first 24 hrs of life generally with catstrophic bleeding. Classic vitamin K deficiency bleeding of the newborn is the most common type of hemorrhagic disease in newborns and classic HDN occurs between 2 and 7 days of life and usually presents as Gl bleeding. Vitamin K (0.5 to 1 mg) given IMIy at birth prevents classic hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, which occurs at 2-7 days of age. Late onset HDN occurs l-3months after birth and is asso with a high incidence CNS hemorrhage and motality.HDN (Hemorrhagic disease of newborn)FeaturesEarly HDNClassical HDNLate HDNOnset< 24 hoursUp to 1-7 days2-16 weeksPresentationConcealed bleedingBleeding from umbilical cord stump, nose, GIT and during surgery (e.g., circumcision)Bleeding more common from sites like intracranial; vessels, skin, mucous membrane, GIT, etcEtiologyIn utero vitamin K deficiency# Most common due to physiologic deficiency of vitamin K in newborns fed with breast milk.# Vitamin K content of human milk (15 mcg/L) is half that of the cow milk.# Predisposing factors are:- Chronic diarrhea,- Malabsorption,- Hepatic cholestasis (e.g. bililary atresia)- Long-term broad-spectrum antibiotics and- Mucovisidosis.- Warfarin therapy- Rare in formula-fed babies and those who have received inj. vitamin K at birth.- Mortality is 20% in late HDN.
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
[ "warfarin" ]
63,747
9bb599cf-38b9-4fba-b4a4-a643b09e8be9
A 53-year-old woman discovers a lump in her breast and physical examination confirms a mass in the lower, outer quadrant of the left breast. Mammography demonstrates an ill-defined, stellate density measuring 1 cm. Needle aspiration reveals malignant ductal epithelial cells. A modified radical mastectomy is performed. The surgical specimen reveals a firm irregular mass (arrows). Which of the following cellular markers would be the most useful to evaluate before considering therapeutic options for this patient?
Collagenase
Estrogen receptors
Galactosyltransferase
Lysosomal acid hydrolases
1b
multi
Over half of breast cancers exhibit nuclear estrogen receptor protein. A slightly smaller proportion also has progesterone receptors. Women whose cancers possess hormone receptors have a longer disease-free survival and overall survival than those with early-stage cancers who are negative for these receptors. The beneficial effects of oophorectomy on survival in patients with breast cancer led to the use of estrogen antagonists in the treatment of breast cancer. In general, antiestrogen therapy seems to prolong disease-free survival, particularly in postmenopausal and node-positive women. It also lowers the risk of cancer in the contralateral breast. The latter discovery has led to the use of antiestrogens as chemoprevention in women at high risk for developing breast cancer. None of the other choices are related prognostically to breast carcinoma.Diagnosis: Invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast
Pathology
Breast
[ "collagenase" ]
63,753
a02c84ff-4eb2-4c23-b1e9-3746271bdd09
Drug of choice in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is -
Ranitidine
Omeprazole
Antacids
β-blocker
1b
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "ranitidine", "omeprazole" ]
63,767
4bb76849-e503-4b4d-9e4e-95942b06104b
A 54-year-old obese man was diagnosed with NIDDM 1 year earlier. He was staed on glipizide and metformin. His other medications are propranolol and nifedipine for hypeension, and naproxen, which he began 2 weeks ago for severe osteoahritis. His BP is 154/92. His BUN is 29 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL; both had been normal 1 year earlier. Which medications are most likely responsible for the increase in BUN and creatinine?
Glipizide
Metformin
Naproxen
Nifedipine
2c
multi
The use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as naproxen, may cause a usually mild renal insufficiency, possibly related to a mild interstitial nephritis or glomerulonephritis. Risk of NSAID-induced renal damage is increased in the elderly and in patients with underlying renal disease. Glipizide a second-generation sulfonylurea, may predispose patients to hypoglycemia but is not associated with renal toxicity. Metformin does not induce renal damage but should be used cautiously in patients with underlying renal damage because of the possibility of developing lactic acidosis. Neither nifedipine nor propranolol has a tendency to adversely affect the kidneys. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg 348, 824t, 2630, 2630t
Medicine
Endocrinology
[ "propranolol", "metformin", "glipizide", "naproxen", "nifedipine" ]
63,769
9c6c488c-896c-4790-8731-b9067a77b87f
A 40 year old male, chronic smoker comes with acute epigastric discomfo, for past one hour. ECG showing ST segment elevation in inferior leads. What is the immediate intervention ?
Aspirin
Thrombolytic therapy
IV pantoprazole
Beta blockers
0a
single
Aspirin Antiplatelet therapy in the form of aspirin is administered in all patients with acute coronary syndrome. It brings down the moality rate at the same rate as thrombolytic therapy. Usually, aspirin is administered before the E.C.G but the presence of epigastric discomfo might have been responsible for delay in administration of aspirin.
Surgery
null
[ "pantoprazole" ]
63,773
5e321a6e-7302-451d-833d-b254f212fadc
A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of fatigue. In addition, she reports that her urine is very dark and "tea color" like, and today her partner commented that her eyes look yellow. Her past medical history is significant for myasthenia gravis for which she is taking azathioprine and pyridostigmine. Laboratory investigations reveal findings in keeping with autoimmune hemolytic anemia. The chest x-ray (CXR) reveals an anterior mediastinal mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
thymoma
nodular sclerosing Hodgkin disease
small cleaved cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma
teratoma
0a
multi
Thymic tumors may be associated with myasthenia gravis, red cell aplasia, polymyositis, hemolytic anemia, pemphigus, and agranulocytosis. There is also an association with immunodeficiency and thymoma. These patients have B-lymphocyte deficiency and bacterial infections and diarrhea. Erythroid aplasia may develop as well.
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
[ "azathioprine" ]
63,777
e6f6ae38-ae91-4a9f-8687-81d7196420b9
K+ sparing diuretic is :
Furosemide
Spironolactone
Thiazide
None
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "spironolactone", "furosemide" ]
63,784
cc5ffd90-0c31-4249-b297-7c9dc0abc167
All of the following are useful for treating acute bronchial asthma in children except?
100% Oxygen
Hydrocoisone
Salbutamol
Sodium Cromoglycate inhalation
3d
multi
Cromolyn sodium inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes and other mediators from sensitised mast cells exposed to specific antigens. It has no intrinsic anti-inflammatory, antihistamine, or vasoconstrictive effects.
Medicine
COPD and Asthma
[ "salbutamol" ]
63,785
8fe239b4-d7e5-4fed-8362-74a872589cea
Pyridoxine is given with which antitubcrcular drug?
Rifampicin
INH
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
1b
single
(B) INH # INH (isoniazid) causes peripheral neuritis and can be prevented by pyridaxine (B6)> Peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid occurs in up to 2% of patients given 5 mg/kg. Isoniazid appears to interfere with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) metabolism.> Risk of isoniazid-related neurotoxicity is greatest for patients with preexisting disorders that also pose a risk of neuropathy, such as HIV infection; for those with diabetes mellitus, alcohol abuse, or malnutrition; & for those simultaneously receiving other potentially neuropathic medications, such as stavudine. These patients should be given prophylactic pyridoxine (25-50 mq/d)DrugSide effectsManagementIsoniazidHepatitisMonitor AST/limit alcohol consumption/monitor for hepatitis symptoms/educate patient/ stop drug at first symptoms of hepatitis (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, flulike syndrome) Peripheral neuritisAdminister vitamin B6 Optic neuritisAdminister vitamin B6/stop drug SeizuresAdminister vitamin B6
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
[ "ethambutol" ]
63,787
733d290e-53d3-41c7-9f2f-1060dc6f7f04
All of the following belong to the steroid receptor superfamily EXCEPT:
Vitamin D3 receptor
Thyroid receptor
Retinoid receptor
Epinephrine receptor
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "epinephrine" ]
63,797
11103210-467f-4030-87f2-5da3df79e02d
In carbamate poisoning all the following should be administered except :
Atropine
Aificial respiration
Gastric lavage
Oximes
3d
multi
D i.e. Oximes
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "atropine" ]
63,807
fab9425c-ee7f-4eb1-98fb-65514efe22c2
Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception is?
Norethisterone
Medroxyprogesterone
Oxytocin
Levonorgestrel
3d
single
Unprotected intercourse without regard to the time of the month carries an 8% incidence of pregnancy, an incidence that can be reduced to 2% by the use of emergency contraceptives within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. 0.75 mg levonorgestrel are now approved for postcoital contraception and are available over the counter for women aged >17 years. Levonorgestrel is more effective and is associated with fewer side effects than the combination estrogen-progestin regimens. Basically the methods used interfere with the physiological events before implantation, for e.g. inhibition or delaying of ovulation or interference with postovulatory events necessary for implantation & longevity of the blastocyst. REF : gynecology book of shaw 17th
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
All India exam
[ "oxytocin" ]
63,819
140058ea-8b99-4246-aa54-fc759156a3d2
A young women with secondary amenorrhea and galactorrhea. MRI shows a tumour of < lOmm diameter in the pituitary fossa. Treatment is:
Hormonal therapy for withdrawal bleeding
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Bromocriptine
3d
single
Answer is D (Bromocriptine): Secondary Amenorrhea and galactorrhea in a young women with evidence of microadenoma (tumor I Omm) in the pituitary fossa suggest a diagnosis of prolactinoma. Oral dopamine agonists (Dopamine or Cabergoline) are the treatment of choice for patients with prolactinomas.
Medicine
null
[ "bromocriptine" ]
63,825
18748c0d-adcd-4ee5-9a14-a478ad3c9352
Renin antagonist is
Losaan
Benazepril
Remikiren
Imidapril
2c
single
Direct renin antagonists are aliskiren, remikiren - could be used for HTN in the future- new drugs aliskiren- oral, remikiren- IV side effects- hypotension, hyperkalemia REF KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Kidney
[ "benazepril" ]
63,831
c8950bea-1586-416c-bb5b-e7e07a856359
Not an organophosphate: AFMC 12
Diazinon
Endrin
Malathion
Parathion
1b
single
Ans. Endrin
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "malathion" ]
63,833
c58768e0-a1ad-47af-97d2-12d40147876b
A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation of symptoms. On examination patient was conscious and ale, pulse was 110 beats/ min and bilateral wheeze present. All of the following are true in the management of the patient except:
I/V steroids
Inhalation with salbutamol
Permissible hypercapnia allowed
Non invasive ventilation is contraindicated
3d
multi
Management of COPD with acute exacerbation of symptoms Non-invasive ventilationwith tight-fitting face mask is used in the management of Type 2 Respiratory failure. E.g- Exacerbations of COPD. Supplemental oxygen- Abolishes this constriction, leading to improved ventilation/perfusion ratio. ?-? High flow oxygen isnottolerated as it leads to crusting, dryness and epistaxis. While continuous therapy is required for patients who show hypoxemia at rest, intermittent treatment during specific periods may be used for patients who demonstrate intermittent hypoxemia. Management according to severity of symptoms Grade A - Bronchodilators Grade B - LABA or LAMA - If fails - LABA + LAMA Grade C - LABA + LAMA + ICS Grade D - LABA + LAMA + ICS + Roflumilast, PDE -4 inhibition
Medicine
NEET Jan 2020
[ "salbutamol" ]
63,844
08f2c1f2-a92d-41d9-b639-0e0ff24cfb53
All of the following cause myocardial depression, except
Halothane
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
2c
multi
The hemodynamic stability seen with etomidate is caused by its lack of effect on the sympathetic nervous system and on the function of the baroreceptor. The minimal effect of etomidate on cardiovascular function sets it apa from other rapid-onset anesthetics. Etomidate has proven useful in patients with valvular or ischemic hea disease who are undergoing noncardiac surgical procedures and in patients with poor cardiac function. In patients receiving etomidate during induction of anesthesia, more hypeension and tachycardia occur after etomidate compared with propofol. The myocardial oxygen supply-to-demand ratio is well maintained. Myocardial contractility and cardiac output are usually unchanged. Etomidate lacks analgesic efficacy, however, and must be combined with an opiate to prevent hemodynamic peurbations during laryngoscopy and intubation. In the setting of hemorrhagic shock, etomidate has advantages for the induction of anesthesia. In contrast to other drugs, the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of etomidate were minimally altered in a pig model of hemorrhagic shock. Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "etomidate", "ketamine", "halothane", "propofol" ]
63,857
20c3a2b6-dfc9-45ea-bf2f-5d94bd7db4f9
Drug of first line choice in pregnancy with epilepsy except :
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
Levitiracetam
Sodium valproate
3d
multi
Considering the risk of teratogenicity of all Anti epileptic drugs Lamotrigine Levetiracetam Carbamazepine is the drug of first line choice Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 273.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
[ "valproate", "lamotrigine", "carbamazepine" ]
63,869
b7fb5cd7-39e9-4f4d-b9be-f8e51ee548b7
Which of following is a proton pump inhibitor ?
Magnesium carbonate
Ranitidine
Omeprazole
Sucralfate
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Omeprazole
Pharmacology
null
[ "ranitidine", "omeprazole" ]
63,886
13a738bf-8e15-4955-a8d0-732b29f34850
Peliosis hepatis is caused by all except-
Analgesics
Anabolic steroids
OC pills
Danazol
0a
multi
Peliosis hepatitis is a rare condition in which there is primarily sinusoidal dilatation. The liver contains blood-filled cystic spaces, either unlined or lined with sinusoidal endothelial cells. Peliosis hepatitis is associated with many diseases including cancer, TB, AIDS or post-transplantation immunodeficiency. It is also associated with exposure to anabolic steroids and rarely, oral contraceptives and danazol
Pathology
null
[ "danazol" ]
63,902
189a114c-1233-474c-87fd-1e5e5499865d
A 32-year-old woman is noted to be at 34 weeks of gestation. The uterine size is less than her weeks of gestation. An ultrasound is performed which reveals oligohydramnios with an AFI of 2.1 cm. Which of the following agent is responsible for this condition
Angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Lithium exposure
Phenytoin (phenytoin)
Oral hypoglycemic agent
0a
single
Oligohydramnios is found with fetal exposure to ACE inhibitors. Neonatal renal failure may also be noted. Lithium is associated with Epstein anomaly (a fetal hea malformation); Dilantin is associated with a fetal hydantoin syndrome of intrauterine growth retardation, microcephaly, and facial defects.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Anatomy of the female genital tract
[ "dilantin", "phenytoin" ]
63,904
f003e65a-8873-4bc5-8fbf-aac46de83b48
Which of the following anticancer drug causes nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect?
Imatinib
Irinotecan
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
3d
single
Cisplatin can result in three impoant adverse effects: Nephrotoxicity Ototoxicity Vomiting
Pharmacology
Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
[ "imatinib", "cisplatin" ]
63,918
29c47415-73ac-41ef-ae28-e09f692fbcdc
which of the following is a SNRI
duloxetine
seraline
citalopram
ironiazid
0a
single
SNRI * IMPOANCE Dual antidepressant like TCA but better than TCA has it has no dryness of mouth, hypotension, sedation * MECHANISM Inhibits the reuptake of both serotonin and dopamine * DRUGS VENLEFEXINE DESVENLEFEXINE DULOXETINE * USE Duloxetine===PAIN ASSOSIATED WITH DIABTIC NEUROPATHY and STRESS URINARY INCONTINENCE Milnacipran===Fibromyalgia * SIDE EFFECTS DIASTOLIC HYPEENSION DELAYED ORGASM WITHDRAWL SYNDROME ON DISCONTINUATION, hence should not be abruptly stopped. To try slow tapering Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 955
Psychiatry
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
[ "duloxetine", "citalopram" ]
63,934
0fe3cc40-3a3f-401b-90d2-f811071b45b2
Chronic active hepatitis seen in -
Methyldopa
Oestrogen
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
0a
single
Important drugs causing chronic hepatitis  → Isoniazid, Halothane, methydopa, oxyphenisatin.
Pathology
null
[ "methyldopa", "tetracycline", "erythromycin" ]
63,962
4af8654f-207f-4fbf-a482-d57a962c7c21
A 30-year-old G3P2 obese woman at 26 weeks' gestation with no significant past medical history states that diabetes runs in her family. Her other pregnancies were uncomplicated. The results of a 3-hour glucose tolerance test show the following glucose levels:* 0 (fasting): 90 mg/dL 1 hour: 195 mg/dL* 2 hours: 155 mg/dL 3 hours: 145 mg/dLAs a result, she is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. She is counselled to start diet modification and exercise to control her glycemic levels. 3 weeks after her diagnosis, she presents her values:* Fasting: 95 mg/dL 1 hr pp: 185 mg/dLWhat is the best management?
Continue diet modification
Start insulin
Repeat GTT
Start metformin
1b
single
Ans. is b, i.e. Start insulinRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 285In the question patients GTT showedFasting =90mg/dL (upper limit =95mg/dL, i.e. normal)1 hour pp =195mg/dL (upper limit =180mg/dL, i.e. abnormal)2 hour pp =155mg/dL (upper limit = 155, i.e. normal)3 hour pp =145mg/dL (upper limit = 140, i.e. abnormal)Thus 2 values are abnormal, i.e. patient is a confirmed case of gestational diabetes.As indicated, she was put on diet modification for 3 weeks and after 3 weeks, herFasting value =95mg/dL2 hour postprandial =180mg/dLRemember: Metabolic goals of diabetes areFasting <=95mg/dL2hourPP <=120mg/dLIf these goals are not achieved by diet alone, insulin should be started.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy
[ "metformin" ]
63,969
656f8deb-e83b-464f-b113-1a96c6925335
Bisacodyl is:
Bulk forming
Stool softner
Stimulant purgative
Osmotic purgative
2c
single
stimulant purgatives 1.diphenylmethane( bisacodyl,sodium picosulfate) 2. Anthraquinones(senna) 3.5HT4 antagonisr(prucalopride) 4.fixed oil(castor oil) ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION KD TRIPATHI PG NO .672
Pharmacology
Gastrointestinal tract
[ "bisacodyl" ]
63,970
a9e6c20f-6150-4f5c-8264-c80b31c32210
Which of the following drugs inhibit an enzyme in the prostaglandin synthesis ?
Aminocaproic acid
Aspirin
Aprotinin
Alteplase
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "alteplase" ]
63,982
11071c51-663c-41f7-9dc7-b58fa483ad04
Most common fixative used in electron microscopy -
Glutaraldehyde
Formalin
Picric acid
Absolute alcohol
1b
single
. Formalin
Pathology
null
[ "glutaraldehyde" ]
63,985
882dd7e1-e64a-4921-a0ac-ad7402d5cc8e
Drug of choice for idiopathic intracranial hypeension
Acetazolamide
Glycerol
Mannitol
Dexamethasone
0a
single
Idiopathic intracranial hypeension is treated with acetazolamide. It should not be given in first trimester, in rest of the peroids it is safe. This condition worsens during pregnancy due to weight gain. Reference : Harrison20th edition pg 2334
Medicine
C.N.S
[ "dexamethasone", "mannitol", "acetazolamide" ]
63,993
e3c8258e-c4cf-452d-9318-325decf432be
A widely used drug that suppresses cellular immunity, inhibits prostaglandin and leukotrine synthesis and increases the catabolism of IgG antibody is:
Cyclophosphamide
Prednisone
Cyclosporine
Infliximab
1b
single
(Ref: KDT 6/e p828, 838) Glucocoicids are powerful immunosuppresants. These inhibit both celelular and humoral immunity by: Decreasing the recruitment of immune cells. Catabolism of immunoglobulins.
Pharmacology
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "cyclophosphamide", "cyclosporine", "infliximab", "prednisone" ]
64,000
10ca3d78-8f20-4eae-95fd-550d46e9211a
Which of the following can reverse one or more smooth muscle effects of circulating histamine in humans?
Granisetron
Adrenaline
Ranitidine
Sumatriptan
1b
single
Adrenaline is a physiological antagonist of histamine. It reverses bronchoconstriction caused by histamine. Ranitidine is an H2 antagonist that decreases gastric acid secretion but has no effect on smooth muscles.
Pharmacology
null
[ "sumatriptan", "ranitidine" ]
64,007
2f71f7fb-a855-4cf0-a61f-f0afe52c8324
Longest acting beta blokeris -
Nodalol
Esmolol
Carvedilol
Acebnolol
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nodalol o Nodalol is longest acting b-blocker.o Esmolol is shortest acting b-blocker.Remembero Nodalol is longest acting b-blocker:o Esmolol is shortest acting b-blockero Acebutolol possesses all activities i.e., cardioselectivity, partial agonist activity, membrane stabilizing activity and lipid insolubility.o Beta blockers approved for treatment of CHF : Carvedilol (most widely used), metaproloL bisoprolol.o Carvedilol is b1+ b2- a1 adrenoreceptor blocker with a: b blocking property of 1 : 9. It produces peripheral vasodilatation due to a-l blockade as well as calcium channel blockade (direct effect),o Atenolol, sotalol and nodalol are primarily excreted by kidney - should not be given in renal failure,o Sotalol, penbutoloi and pindolol have almost 100% bioavailibility.o Penbutoloi has maximum oral absorption,o Carvedilol has maximum plasma protein binding.o Celiprolol has minimum plasma protein binding.
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
[ "carvedilol", "esmolol" ]
64,017
b2d19410-0950-48e5-b140-b997008cd2c0
The Antihypeensive which causes decreased Jibido and impotence is:
Atenolol
Enalapril
Prazosin
Diltiazem
0a
single
Atenolol
Pharmacology
null
[ "prazosin", "atenolol", "diltiazem", "enalapril" ]
64,027
3a452f76-6816-4807-b558-192290535d8f
Drug used for smoking cessation A/E-
Naltrexone
Bupropion
Buprenorphine
Methadone
1b
single
naltrexone produced several beneficial effects in the treatment of nicotine dependence. For the whole sample, naltrexone improved quit rates, increased time to first cigarette, reduced cigarettes smoked and smoking urge ratings, and lessened the amount of weight gained . In 1997, sustained-release bupropion was approved as the first non-nicotine medication for smoking cessation. The mechanism of action for this agent, originally marketed as an antidepressant, is thought to be due to its capacity to block neural reuptake of the neurotransmitters dopamine and norepinephrine, reducing cravings for nicotine and symptoms of withdrawal. Patients should initiate bupropion therapy 1 to 2 weeks before their quit date, staing with 150 mg once a day for 2 days, then increasing to 150 mg twice a day. The medication is staed before the quit date because steady-state therapeutic levels are reached after about 7 days of therapy. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1209
Medicine
Miscellaneous
[ "naltrexone", "methadone", "bupropion" ]
64,037
d2994789-407e-4e7b-a860-b51e20561f0e
Drug causing cataract-
Amikacin
Dexamethasone
Chloramphenicol
Penicillin
1b
single
Ans. is ;b' i.e., Dexamethasone o Corticosteroids (dexamethasone) can cause cataract.Types of CataractCausesPosterior subcapsularMyotoic dystrophy, wilson's disease, DM, Atopic dermatitis, Down's syndrome, Corticosteroids, Busulfan, Chloroquine, Trauma, Ionizing radiation, Galactosemia, Senile cataract, Infrared/heat cataract (glass-blower's or glass worker).Anterior subcapsularWilson's disease, DM, Down's syndrome, Trauma, Electric shock, Anticholinesterase, Amiodarone, Senile cataract, Galactosemia.Anterior capsularVoissious ring (Blunt trauma), Gold, Chlorpramazine,NuclearCigarette smoking, Congenital rubella, Ichthyosis, Galactosemia, Senile cataract, DM.CorticalStickler syndrome, Senile cataract, DMAnterior capsular (Polar)Penetration of cornea (Penetrating injury, ophthalmia neonatorum), Congenital cataractPosterior capsular (Polar)Congenital cataract
Ophthalmology
Acquired Cataract
[ "amikacin", "chloramphenicol", "dexamethasone" ]
64,044
5b3af4fa-a9eb-41bc-843c-733c9a81b476
Regarding lamotrigine, which of the following is a TRUE statement ?
It is a dopaminergic agonist used in Parkinsonism
It acts by blocking NMDA type of glutamate receptors
It is a broad spectrum antiepileptic drug
It suppresses tonic-clonic seizures but worsens absence seizures
2c
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "lamotrigine" ]
64,054
4bac37db-4ba3-4277-bba4-b4619011b723
Osteoporosis is caused by all except -
Methotrexate
Glucocoicoids
Heparin
Estradiol
3d
multi
Medications causing osteoporosis are : * Aluminum (in antacids) * Anticoagulants (heparin) * Anticonvulsants * Aromatase inhibitors * Barbiturates * Cancer chemotherapeutic drugs * Cyclosporine A and tacrolimus * Depo-medroxyprogesterone (premenopausal contraception) * Glucocoicoids (>=5 mg/d prednisone or equivalent for >=3 months) * Gonadotropin-releasing hormone antagonists and agonists * Lithium * Methotrexate * Proton pump inhibitors * Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors * Tamoxifen (premenopausal use) * Thiazolidinediones (such as pioglitazone and rosiglitazone) * Thyroid hormones (in excess) * Parenteral nutrition Reference : page 2490 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition
Medicine
Endocrinology
[ "methotrexate" ]
64,056
cb12bc02-a296-4af1-a69d-12055c5248f8
Tranylcypromine (MAO Inhibitor) should be avoided with_____as it causes dangerous drug interaction:
Morphine
Amitriptyline
Alprazolam
Any of the above
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "morphine", "alprazolam", "amitriptyline" ]
64,088
deefe742-9484-4dc1-9b87-4cf317029eae
Which of the following anti-arrhythmic drug decreases the action potential duration in Purkinje fibers?
Quinidine
Flecainide
Amiodarone
Lignocaine
3d
single
Ans. d (Lignocaine) (Ref. KDT pharmacology 6th/pg.513)# The most prominent cardiac action of lidocaine is suppression of automaticity in ectopic foci. Enhanced phase-4 depolarization in partially depolarized or stretched PFs, and after depolarizations are antagonized, but SA node automaticity is not depressed.# The rate of 0 phase depolarization and conduction velocity in A-V bundle or ventricles is not decreased. Lidocaine decreases APD in PF and ventricular muscle, but has practically no effect on APD and ERP of atrial fibres. Atrial reentry is not affected. However, it can suppress reentrant ventricular arrhythmias either by abolishing one-way block or by producing two way block.# Lidocaine is a blocker of inactivated Na+ channels more than that of open state.Vaughan-Williams CLASSIFICATION OF ANTIARRHYTHMIC DRUGSIA# |Vmax at all heart rates and increases action potential duration# e.g., quinidine, procainamide, disopyramideIB# Little effect at slow rates on Vmax in normal tissue; | Vmax in partially depolarized ceils with fast response action potentials# Effects increased at faster rates# No change or | in action potential duration# e.g., lidocaine, phenytoin, tocainide, mexiletineIC# |Vmax at normal rates in normal tissue# Minimal effect on action potential duration,# e.g., flecainide, propafenone, moricizineClass II# |SA nodal automaticity, increase AV nodal refractoriness, and |AV nodal conduction velocity# Antisympathetic agents, e.g., propranolol and other ss-adrenergic blockersClass III# Agents that prolong action potential duration in tissue with fast-response action potentials# e.g., bretylium, amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilideClass IV# Calcium (slow) channel blocking agents# | conduction velocity and increase refractoriness in tissue with slow-response action potentials# e.g., verapamil, diltiazemDrugs that cannot be classified by this schema# Digitalis# Adenosine
Pharmacology
C.V.S
[ "amiodarone", "flecainide", "quinidine" ]
64,107
949d9f01-b803-4b1d-8b27-49371948a746
Which of the following do not crosses the blood brain barrier
Pralidoxime
Obidoxime
Diacetyl-monoxime
Physostigmine
0a
single
(Pralidoxime) (92, 83-KDT) (105-KDT 6th)Lipid soluble agents (physostigmine and organophosphates) have more marked muscarinic and CNS effects; stimulates ganglia but action on skeletal muscle is less prominentLipid insoluble agents (neostigmine and other quaternary ammonium compounds) produces more marked effect on the skeletal muscles (direct action on muscle end-plate cholinoceptors as well), stimulate ganglia, but muscarinic effects are less prominent. They do not penetrate CNS and have no central effects.Pralidoxime (quartenary nitrogen) it causes more marked reactivation of skeletal muscle. ChE than at autonomic sites and not at all in the CNS (does not penetrate)* Other oximes are obidoxime (more potent than pralidoxime) and diacetyl-monoxime (DAM). DAM lacks quaternary nitrogen and is lipophilic.
Pharmacology
A.N.S.
[ "pralidoxime", "physostigmine" ]
64,115
ab85ee6a-63db-4f36-891d-940f94b207a8
All are useful in management of severe clostridium difficle-infection, except
Vancomycin oral
Neomycin enema
IV metronidazole
Tigecycline
1b
multi
Answer- B. Neomycin enemaOral voncomycin plus intravenous metronidazole is the treatment of choice for patients with severe und complicated clostrdium dilificle infection (CDI)
Medicine
null
[ "metronidazole", "vancomycin" ]
64,121
451016c3-3421-4c3e-ad7f-c8ae9c64605e
Which of the following is not used in polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?
OC pills
Cyclical progesterones
Letrozole
Danazol
3d
single
Management of PCOS Irregular periods/Amenorrhea Rx Combined OC pills Progesterone only pills ( For 10 days - from 14th day/ mid cycle) Hirsutism Rx Anti Androgens OC pills containing progesterones with anti androgenic action Cosmetic Rx for hair : prevents depression. Infeility Rx Ovulation induction ( clomiphene, letrozole) Weight reduction Insulin sensitizers Metformin Inj Recombinant FSH Inj Gonadotropin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
[ "danazol", "letrozole" ]
64,125
4f8f47d1-9203-4a11-8edb-8eb520937b46
Which of the following is not associated with prolonged QT syndrome?
Romanowald syndrome
Jervell and Lange Neilsen syndrome
Encainide therapy
Lidocaine therapy
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lidocaine therapy* The Long QT syndrome refers to specific congenital or acquired abnormalities of repolarization that result in prolongation of the QT interval.* The significance of the long QT syndrome is its association with the development of a specific type of ventricular tachycardia called Torsades de points or polymorphic ventricular tachycardiaQ.* This arrythmia is characterized by# A wide complex tachyarrythmia with QRS complexes of varying axis and morphology that appear to rotate around the iso electric baseline.Conditions associated with prolonged QT syndromeCongenital* Romanowald syndrome* Jervell and lange Nielse syndrome* T/T = b Blockers--Normal hearingSensorineural hearingAcquired* Antiarrythmic drugs# IA# IC# III---Quinidine, procainamide, DisopyramideEncainide, FlecainideSotatol, Amiodarone* TCA'S* Antibiotics (macrolides, cotrimoxazole)* Terfenadine (when combined with macrolides or antifungal)Metabolic* Hypokalemia* Hypocalcemia* HypomagnesemiaT/T of acquired prolonged QT syndrome* Atrial or ventricular overdrive pacing* Magnesium
Medicine
C.V.S.
[ "lidocaine" ]
64,131
21e3aed5-7666-4fc2-9039-a4004ec4cca8
A farmer visiting a orchard gets unconscious, excessive salivation, constricted pupils and fasciculation of muscles, treatment started with-
Atropine
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Adrenaline
0a
single
The farmer in question is having organophosphate poisoning, for which atropine is the drug of choice.
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "atropine", "physostigmine", "neostigmine" ]
64,137
3ffd467c-f43d-4e9d-8c77-369fe6b3ffcf
A 41-year-old woman with glaucoma is treated with acetazolamide. Several weeks later the woman has an aerial pH of 7.34, an aerial PCO2 of 29mmHg, and a plasma HCO3- of 15 mEq/L. Which of the following abnormalities has this women most likely developed?
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Mixed acidosis
Mixed alkalosis
0a
single
The laboratory results indicate that the aerial pH, aerial PCO2, and plasma HCO3- concentrations are all low. These changes clearly demonstrate metabolic acidosis, which occurs commonly when a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is administered. The carbonic anhydrase enzyme attached to the brush border of the tubular epithelial cells normally catalyzes the dissociation of carbonic acid into water and carbon dioxide. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase prevents the removal of bicarbonate ions from the tubular fluid, which initially increases urine pH. The result is heavy spillage of bicarbonate in the urine, which is the hallmark of type 2 A (renal tubular acidosis). However, once the plasma levels of bicarbonate have decreased sufficiently, the bicarbonaturia ceases and the plasma HCO3- levels stabilize at a lower than normal level. Consequently, the urine pH falls typically to 4.5-5.0.
Pharmacology
null
[ "acetazolamide" ]
64,150
a43665e7-e6cc-4ef2-93e4-ddd2fa6f8554
Drug having very narrow therapeutic range is:
Lithium
Sertraline
Roboxetine
Dothiepin
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "sertraline" ]
64,153
02d0ce9b-5617-499a-b60e-def5510e4308
Dose of digoxin is NOT altered in :
Old age
Hepatic disease
Renal disease
Hypercalcemia
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' Hepatic disease Make it clear once and for all that Digitalis is the parent compound. Digitalis is applied as a collective term for the whole group and has come to mean a cardiac glycoside.Digoxin and digitoxin are two of the many types of cardiac glycoside.Digoxin is a polar glycoside, and is excreted by kidney, does not undergo hepatic metabolism. So does need not be altered in hepatic disease.Digitoxin undergoes hepatic metabolism and its dose has to be altered in hepatic disease.
Pharmacology
C.V.S
[ "digoxin" ]
64,164
733a578d-0b4a-426e-87a9-88b8160ce81a
Drug of choice for acute congestive glaucoma is -
1-2 % pilocarpine
Timolol
Levobunanol
Atropine
0a
single
Pilocarpine eyedrops should be staed after the IOP is bit lowered by hyperosomtic agents. At higher pressureiris sphincter is ischaemic and unresponsive to pilocarpine. Initially 2 percent pilocarpine should be administered every 30 minutes for 1-2 hours and then 6 hourly. Ref AK KHURANA 4TH EDITION PAGE NO 229
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
[ "pilocarpine", "atropine", "timolol" ]
64,191
5f82d64c-2435-4f27-bdff-cf429cfd1cb7
Drug of choice in depression in old person is -
Fluoxetine
Buspirone
Amitryptyline
Imipramine
0a
single
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRIs) like fluoxetine have very little anticholinergic side effects and hence, are generally safer drugs to use in elderly patients with cardiac disease or BPH.
Psychiatry
null
[ "fluoxetine", "imipramine" ]
64,192
37dc6cb5-3751-4cad-b050-55186fd90b40
A thiy five year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability. The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is:
Muscle Biopsy
CPK levels
Edrophonium test
EMG
2c
single
Answer is C (Edrophonium test): Edrophonium test is the most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis amongst the options provided. Proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability suggests a diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) test is a highly sensitive test with 85% sensitivity in ocular and 95% sensitivity in systemic myasthenia. The diagnosis of MG is highly probable if Edrophonium test is unequivocally positive. Note Conventional (EMG) is not a sensitive diagnostic test for MG. The conventional needle EMG is usually normal in patients with MG although ceain findings may indicate probability of MG. Conventional EMG evaluation in MG serves mostly in excluding other causes of weakness like motor neuron disease, neuropathy or myopathy
Medicine
null
[ "edrophonium" ]
64,193
ab513ae5-1567-42ef-9279-320653007c8c
A 28-year-old male complains of glare in both eyes. The cornea shows whorl-like opacities of the epithelium. He also gave a history of long-term treatment with amiodarone. The most likely diagnosis is –
Terrain's marginal degeneration
Cornea verticillata
Band shaped keratophathy
Arcus juvenalis
1b
multi
Whorl like corneal opacities in corneal epithelium, in a patient on amiodarone, suggests the diagnosis of corneal verticillata.
Ophthalmology
null
[ "amiodarone" ]
64,197
cd9b3666-9c9b-4afc-9ebc-cdb811984a02
The production of cervical mucus is stimulated by:
Progesterone
Estradiol
Estriol
Pregnenolone
1b
single
Thin copious cervical mucus in the mid cycle is indication of ovulation and is maximum on the 14th day of cycle. Intercourse in this time is more likely to result in a pregnancy as the sperms have easier access to the tube as the cervical mucus is thin which is facultative for easy sperm travel to the uterus. The first half of the menstrual cycle is characterised by increased estradiol levels and an increased amount of cervical mucous. Estradiol also makes it more thin and watery to allow sperm penetration. in the second half of menstrual cycle, which is progesterone dominant, cervical mucous becomes scanty, thick and opaque.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstruation, Abnormal Menstruation, Menopausal Physiology and forsight of conception
[ "estriol" ]
64,204
39fa80c4-dfad-4c6a-b2f8-849e313bc796
Chemotherapeutic Agent of Choice for the treatment of CML is:
Imatinib
Vincristine
Cyclophosphamide
Methotrexate
0a
single
Answer is A (Imatinib): Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) are the chemotherapeutic agents for choice in the management of CML. Tyrosine Kinase inhibitors target the 'constitutively active tyrosine kinase' implicated in the pathogenesis of CML. Although they do not cure the disease, these agents are able to achieve long term control of CML in the majority of patients. Most recent texts (Including Harrisons) recommend Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) as the initial treatment of choice for newly diagnosed CML reserving Allogeneic Stem Cell Transplantation (SCT) for those who develop Imatinib Resistance.
Medicine
null
[ "cyclophosphamide", "imatinib", "vincristine", "methotrexate" ]
64,205
ac11e5d1-75c3-4145-b516-81dac0221ecb
Which one has least mineralocorticoid activity ?
Cortisol
Prednisolone
Fludrocortisone
Methyl prednisolone
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "prednisolone", "fludrocortisone" ]
64,208
53ebb4ff-6c50-4412-a35f-4be65822d3f7
Which of the following is long acting sympathomimetics used in bronchial asthma ?
Salbutamol
Terbutaline
Bambuterol
Salmeterol
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "salmeterol", "terbutaline", "salbutamol" ]
64,209
52fcf978-e5b8-4127-9b8d-0675d472a484
Pink's disease is due to
Toxicity of silver
Toxicity of Mercury
Toxicity of Lead
Toxicity of Tetracycline
1b
single
null
Pathology
null
[ "tetracycline" ]
64,211
0643ccf9-9c8d-4481-9ae1-99ebb6db6d13
A 25 year old overweight female was given fentanyl-pancuronium anesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was conscious and ale but voluntary respiratory effo was limited. Her blood pressure and hea rate were normal. The likely diagnosis is:
Incomplete reversal of pancuronium
Pulmonary embolism
Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity
Respiratory depression
0a
multi
Patient with limited movement of the upper body and chest wall and limited respiratory effo after receiving a long acting muscle relaxant pancuronium is showing features of incomplete reversal from the effects of muscle relaxant drug. Factors affecting rate of recovery of neuromuscular activity after reversal depend upon: 1. Intensity of block - greater the intensity of block at the time or reversal longer the recovery of neuromuscular activity. 2. Dose. 3. Choice of neuromuscular blocking agent - Overall recovery of intermediate acting agents (atracuium, vecuronium, mivacurium, rocuronium) following same dose of anticholinesterase is more rapid and more complete than after pancuronium. 4. Age - recovery occur more rapidly with smaller doses of anticholinesterases in infants and children than adults. 5. Drug interactions 6. Renal failure. Ref: Neonatal Formulary : Drug Use in Pregnancy and the First Year of Life By Edmund Hey, Nohern Neonatal Network, Page 102; Clinical Anesthesia By Paul G. Barash, Page 465; Textbook of Pediatric Emergency Procedures By Christopher King, Page 422 ; Clinical Anesthesia By Paul G. Barash, Page 524; Respiratory Disorders for Lawyers By Norman John, Page 114
Anaesthesia
null
[ "pancuronium", "fentanyl" ]
64,216
7770e14c-81e6-4f5b-b11d-7acdb135134a
Pheochromocytoma predominantly secretes which hormone: September 2007
Serotonin
Epinephrine
Nor-epinephrine
Dopamine
2c
single
Ans. C: Nor-epinephrine Relative catecholamine levels also differ in pheochromocytomas. Most pheochromocytomas secrete norepinephrine predominantly, whereas secretions from the normal adrenal medulla are composed of roughly 85% epinephrine. Familial pheochromocytomas are an exception because they secrete large amounts of epinephrine. Thus, the clinical manifestations of a familial pheochromocytoma differ from those of a sporadic pheochromocytoma.
Medicine
null
[ "epinephrine" ]
64,217
813650d8-1ff7-4908-b157-1403e030f5e2
A 40 years old patient with liver dysfunction is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Lorazepam can be used for pre-anaesthetic medication in this patient without concern for excessive CNS depression because the drug is:
Selective anxiolytic like buspirone
Conjugated directly
Reversible by administration of naloxone
Forming several active metabolites
1b
single
(Ref: Katzung 6/e p450) Lorazepam and oxazepam are the benzodiazepines which are excreted from the body by glucuronide conjugation without phase 1 metabolism in the liver. So these can be used safely in hepatic dysfunction.
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "naloxone", "lorazepam" ]
64,219
d3c86792-1307-4098-b09e-ab86cb8710c0
In anti retroviral therapy, Zidovudine should not be combined with :
Lamivudine
Nevirapine
Didanosine
Stavudine
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "lamivudine", "stavudine", "nevirapine", "zidovudine" ]
64,223
79a399b5-42be-4dee-a827-0c777746ec15
Which of the following does not cause hyperprolactinemia: September 2007
Levodopa
Bromocriptine
Chlordiazepoxide
Pituitary tumour
1b
single
Ans. B: Bromocriptine Bromocriptine is used in the management of hyperprolactinemia. Drugs that may cause hyperprolactinemia include the following: Dopamine-receptor antagonists (e.g., phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, risperidone, metoclopramide, sulpiride, pimozide) Dopamine-depleting agents (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine) Isoniazid anazol Tricyclic antidepressants Monoamine antihypeensives Verapamil Estrogens Antiandrogens Cyproheptadine Opiates H2-blockers (cimetidine)
Pharmacology
null
[ "chlordiazepoxide", "bromocriptine", "levodopa" ]
64,229
e2e3bebf-614c-41b5-a434-0c382936ae64
Which of the following drugs act through heptahelical (serpentine) receptors ?
Insulin
Estrogen
Local anaesthetics
Salbutamol
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "salbutamol" ]
64,230
a88cf6e2-d7e1-4510-bb50-6a259fb5d3e7
The most serious complication of clomiphene therapy for induction of ovulation is :
Bone marrow depression
Hyperstimulation syndrome
Secondary amenorrhea
Multiple pregnancy
1b
single
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is the most dreaded complication of Clomiphene (discussed in detail in chapter 9 on infertility).
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "clomiphene" ]
64,238
dcf167e8-dd71-4379-ba4f-8865725871be
Which among the following topical agent used in burns can cause acidosis
Silver sulfadiazine
Mafenide acetate
Silver Nitrate
Povidone Iodine
1b
single
Mafenide cause acidosis, by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase.
Surgery
null
[ "povidone" ]
64,246
59cc9467-e05b-48d0-8b9b-e131c736963d
Best local anaesthetic for ophthalmic surgery is
Tetracaine
Prilocaine
Procaine
Bupivacaine
3d
single
The choice of local anaesthetic for ocular surgery variesBut lidocaine (2%) and bupivacaine (0.5-0.75%) are used most commonlyGenerally the use of 1:1 mixture of 2% lidocaine (Xylocaine) and 0.50% bupivacaine along with adrenaline and hyaluronidase in facial, retrobulbar and peribulbar blocks is common(Refer: stoelting's pharmacology and physiology in anaesthetic practice, 5th edition, pg no.294)
Anaesthesia
All India exam
[ "procaine", "bupivacaine" ]
64,270
227036ac-0b6c-4fdc-922d-ce95fdb0dd24
Which is of the following is used in investigating a parathyroid pathology?
CT scan
Gallium scan
Thallium scan
T.C thallium subtraction scan
3d
multi
Gallium scan is used for tumors. Thallium scan is used to study myocardial perfusion.
Radiology
null
[ "gallium" ]
64,282
5cce7626-4d1f-4633-915c-3956db83a24a
Not used in treatment protocol of hodgkin's lymphoma
VinCristine
Vinblastine
Bleomycin
doxorubicin
0a
single
Ref: Katzungy 14th ed. pg. 970; Harrison, 17th ed. pg. 699Preferred regimen for Hodgkins and Non-hodgkins lymphomaHodgkins lymphoma (ABVD)Non-hodgkin's lymphomaA: Adriamycin (Doxorubicin)B: BleomycinV: VinblastinD: DacarbazineR: RituximabC: CyclophosphamideH: Hydroxdaunorubicin (doxorubicin)O: Oncovin (vincristine)P: Prednisolone
Pharmacology
Anti-Cancer
[ "vincristine", "adriamycin" ]
64,295
2c862625-d67b-497b-a114-e4e34eb4e905
Beta-adrenoceptor blocking agent that should be avoided in patients with renal failure is ?
Atenolol
Metoprolol
Propranolol
Esmolol
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Atenolol
Pharmacology
null
[ "propranolol", "atenolol", "metoprolol", "esmolol" ]
64,301
436a1a7a-a49d-4ddf-bbbe-a6ce0bfd1567
Food reduces the oral bioavailability of the following angiotensin conveing enzyme inhibitors Except
Enalapril
Captopril
Ramipril
Fosinopril
0a
multi
All mentioned options are ACE inhibitors but Enalapril is marketed as an injectable preparation and not used as an oral preparation. It offers ceain advantages, as it is more potent, absorption not affected by food and has longer duration of action. (REF. Essentials of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, page no - 485)
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "captopril", "ramipril", "enalapril" ]
64,327
5d4ba5fe-1be5-447c-8270-2cf8678c4f82
For treatment of extended drug resistance which of the following drugs are used EXCEPT?
Rifampicin
INH
Moxifloxacin
Capreomycin
0a
multi
Ans. is 'A' RifampicinMDR-TB is defined as resistance to at least both INH and rifampicin. Previously it was classified as Category IV under DOTS (DOTS-PLUS).The treatment is given in two phases, the intestive phase (IP) and the continuation phase (CP). The total duration of treatment for regimen for MDR-TB is 24-27 months, depending on the IP durationRegimen is :-Intensive phase (6-12 months) : Seven drugs : Capreomycin, PAS, moxifloxacin, high dose INH, clofazimine, Linezolid, amoxyclay.Continuation phase (18 months) : Six drugs : PAS, moxifloxacin, high dose INH, clofazimine, linezolid, amoxyclay.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "moxifloxacin" ]
64,333
a05ef6ce-c1d1-44a7-a9c7-4b30f993628b
A schizophrenic patient has no interest in social contacts or vocational rehabilitation. His affect is flat, and he speaks very little and spends most of his day sitting in front of the TV, unwashed and unshaven. He has some chronic, delusions of persecution, but these do not impact his functioning as much as the previous symptom. Which of the following anti psychotics. Would-tie most appropriate to use in treating this patient?
Molindone
Haloperidol decanoate
Chlorpromazine
Olanzapine
3d
single
The schizophrenic patient in the question manifests a prevalence of negative symptoms (flat affect, abulia, lack of motivation). Two antipsychotic medications have been proved to be effective for negative symptoms: clozapine and olanzapine. However, due to clozapine's high risk for agranulocytosis, its use is limited to refractory cases of schizophrenia, severe tardive dyskinesia, and psychotic symptoms in patients with Parkinson's disease.
Unknown
null
[ "chlorpromazine", "olanzapine" ]
64,336
1e97effc-78e6-49e7-aa9e-55ea03ac132b
Fastest acting drug on the lepra bacilli is :
Rifampicin
Dapsone
Kanamycin
Clofazimine
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "clofazimine", "dapsone" ]
64,365
f4209cdf-80cc-4cf4-9547-c6d228ad8db8
In patients with Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
ABL gene on Chr. 22 is trans-located to BCR gene on Chr.9
The fusion gene bcr-abl forms a protein with tyrosine kinase activity
Splenomegaly is unusual
Philadelphia chromosome positive patients respond poorly to Imatinib
1b
single
Ans. (b) The fusion gene bcr-abl forms a protein with tyrosine kinase activity(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 616-618)a. FALSE, as ABL gene is on chr9q while BCR is on chr22qb. The fusion gene bcr-abl forms a protein with tyrosine kinase activity: TRUEc. FALSE; Massive splenomegaly is a feature of CMLd. FALSE; as response to Imatinib is good in patients with Philadelphia chromosome +ve
Pathology
Misc. (W.B.C)
[ "imatinib" ]
64,378
8d9454d0-cfda-4bb3-81f4-0922d4f3e050
The following statements regarding streptokinase are true, except:
It is a protein produced by streptococci.
Its complex with plasminogen is inhibited by aIpha2-anti plasmin.
It may rarely produce anaphylaxis
It is initially given as a loading dose.
1b
multi
Streptokinase is a 47-kDa protein produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci. It forms a stable complex with plasminogen, which is not inhibited by antiplasmih. A large loading dose is given intravenously to overcome antibodies that may be formed from prior streptococcal infections. Being a foreign protein it may rarely cause anaphylaxis.
Surgery
null
[ "streptokinase" ]
64,409