id
stringlengths
36
36
question
stringlengths
7
1.22k
opa
stringlengths
1
175
opb
stringlengths
1
247
opc
stringlengths
1
240
opd
stringlengths
1
195
cop
class label
4 classes
choice_type
stringclasses
2 values
exp
stringlengths
1
15k
subject_name
stringclasses
21 values
topic_name
stringclasses
840 values
found_keywords
sequencelengths
1
10
local_id
int64
4
183k
d0fb884d-d7e5-46f7-9bf8-084de06c185c
Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives -
Erythromycin
Griseofulvin
Cimetidine
Disulfiram
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Griseofulvin o Contraceptive failure may occur if the following drugs are given concurrently :(a)Enzyme inducer -Enhances the metabolism of estrogen & progesterone.1. Phenytoin3. Carbamazepine5. Primidone2. Phenobarbitone4. Rifampicin6. Griseofulvin(b)Suppression of intestinal microflora - | enterohepatic circulation.1. Tetracyclines 2. Ampicillin
Pharmacology
Pharmacodynamics
[ "cimetidine", "erythromycin", "disulfiram", "griseofulvin" ]
61,277
b5ff096c-c258-4686-9319-b7105f52a461
Zileuton is -
5 lipooxygenase inhibitor
TX A2 inhibitor
Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Prostaglandins synthesis inhibitor
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5 lipooxygenase inhibitor 5-lipoxygenase inhibitoro 5-lipoxygenase involved in production of leukotrienes especially LTB4 (chemoattractant) and LTC4, LTD4 (Bronchoconstrictor). These are the most important mediators in bronchial asthma.o Zileuton inhibits 5-lip>>xygenase and thereby the production of leukotrienes. Therefore, Zileuton is useful in the treatment of asthma.
Pharmacology
Asthma
[ "zileuton" ]
61,295
c203faaa-e9a7-4a47-8d84-3389d96c79af
All of the following are amide class of local anesthetic except
Lignocaine
Mepivacaine
Prilocaine
Chlorprocaine
3d
multi
Chlorprocaine belong ester class of local anesthetics.
Pharmacology
null
[ "mepivacaine" ]
61,296
a44c79e7-d1ba-4188-a712-72f0f2cafc0c
.Drug of choice for alcohol withdrawal
Disulfiram
Chlormethazole
Chlordiazepoxide
Buspirone
2c
single
Treatment of alcohol dependence comprises 2 steps namely detoxification and de addiction DETOXIFICATION Detoxification implies removal of the toxic substance from the body, this can be done by using a drug similar to alcohol and thus benzodiazepine is chosen. This is the main drug used in treatment of alcohol withdrawal despite the problem being simple withdrawal, rum fits or delirium tremens IF LIVER FUNCTION IS WITHIN NORMAL LIMITS CHOOSE CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE, AS IT HAS A SIMILAR STRUCTURAL FORMULA LIKE ALCOHOL IF LIVER FUNCTION IS ABNORMAL CHOOSE LORAZEPAM, AS IT DOES NOT WORSEN LIVER DERANGEMENTS FRONT LOADING=====patient is loaded with benzodiazepines SYMPTOM TRIGGER=== benzodiazepines is offered only as and when the withdrawal symptom arises FIXED DOSAGE====== regular fixed dosage of benzodiazepine is given in divided doses and slowly tapered so that the patient is not on any drugs by the end of 2 weeks Ref.Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pf no.625
Anatomy
Substance abuse
[ "disulfiram", "chlordiazepoxide" ]
61,306
63e89499-85ee-4f71-b5a2-e11aa4073def
All of the following statements about trientine use in Wilson's disease are true except:
It is more potent than penicillamine.
It is used as an alternative to penicillamine in non-tolerant patients
It should not be administered with in two hours of iron supplementation
It can cause iron def anemia which is reversible by oral iron supplements
0a
multi
*Penicillamine is the most potent chelating agent useful in Wilson's disease. *Trientine is not as potent as penicillamine and was used in patients unable to tolerate penicillamine.However,now a days, trientine is preferred because of severe adverse effects of penicillamine. *Trientine cause fewer adverse effects other than mild anemia due to iron deficiency in few patients. Ref: KATZUNG 14TH ED.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "penicillamine" ]
61,308
b282fdcd-009a-40fe-8202-a694807c4266
Which of the following is not atypical antipsychotic:
Aripiprazole
Amoxapine
Clozapine
Zotepine
1b
single
Ans: B (Amoxapine) ]Amoxapine is tricyclic antdepressant- KDT 7th/455ATYPICAL ANTIPSYCHOTIC KDT7th/436ClozapineAripiprazoleRisperidone.OlanzapineQuetiapineZiprasidoneAmisulpirideZotepineAsenapine-Katzung 13th/494 73Paliperidone-Katzung 13th/494Sertindole- Katzung 13th/ 494
Pharmacology
C.N.S
[ "aripiprazole", "clozapine", "amoxapine" ]
61,323
86293e86-f351-4378-b39f-2b02cfc7f521
True about Erythema elevatum diutinum:
Chronic cutaneous fungal infection
Most common site of involvement is trunk
A cutaneous marker of glucagonoma
Dapsone is drug of choice
3d
multi
Ans. D. Dapsone is drug of choice.Erythema elevatum diutinum:a. Rare disease; unknown incidence.b. A chronic leukocytoclastic vasculitis typified by a distinctive clinical pattern.c. Symmetric, erythematous, violaceous, or yellow-brown papules/nodules/plaques.d. Most common sites of involvement are the extensor surfaces of the hands, fingers, elbows, knees, legs, and Achilles tendon. Trunk is usually spared.e. Co-occurring diseases include monoclonal paraproteinemias, lymphoproliferative disorders, chronic infection, autoimmune conditions, and connective tissue diseases.f. In the early stage of erythema elevatum diutinum (EED), nonspecific leukocytoclastic vasculitis is observed. In later stages, granulation tissue and fibrosis form with a diffuse mixed-cell infiltrate showing a predominance of neutrophils. The capillaries may still show deposits of fibrinoid material or merely fibrous thickening.g. Dapsone- and sulfone-based therapies are considered first-line treatment choices for EED
Skin
Miscellaneous
[ "dapsone" ]
61,336
7b12f5fd-0394-408e-8be7-09469106a099
Management of typical febrile seizures include all EXCEPT:
Sponging
Paracetamol or ibuprofen
Intermittent diazepam
Prophylactic phenobarbitone
3d
multi
Measures to lower temperature (in a child with fever) like paracetamol and sponging and intermittent prophylaxis with Diazepam or Clobazam are used in the treatment of typical febrile seizures.
Pediatrics
Febrile seizures
[ "paracetamol", "ibuprofen", "diazepam" ]
61,344
ad82e961-76a1-45fa-9501-68cdce6ed4e0
Omalizumab is used for
Ulcerative colitis
Crohn disease
Asthma
Psoriatic arthritis
2c
single
Ans. (c) Asthma
Pharmacology
Asthma
[ "omalizumab" ]
61,347
2191bbf2-1406-4a2f-87b0-595f47db7ffd
Atropine is useful in organophosphate poisoning because it
Reactivates Acetylcholineesterase
Competes with acetyl chloline release
Binds with both nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine
3d
multi
Atropine acts as an antagonist at muscarinic receptors. It has no activity on nicotinic receptor and do not interfere with the release of ACh Ref-KDT 6/e p106
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
[ "atropine" ]
61,375
b5a1de62-d167-4979-a0b5-a4c2a2335eb7
Which of the following drugs has both 5HT4 agonist and D2 antagonist property
Ondansetron
Metoclopramide
Benzhexol
Ibutilide
1b
multi
Metaclopramide is a prokinetic drug which is 5HT4 agonist and D2 antagonist used as antienetic.
Pharmacology
null
[ "ibutilide", "metoclopramide" ]
61,377
13fca785-3652-49f9-b960-6f8c35f3289c
Hepatitis is caused by:
Cyclopropane
Halothane
Isoflurane
Enflurane
1b
single
B i.e. Halothane
Anaesthesia
null
[ "enflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
61,404
72411e24-4463-4a05-93da-f59be4429ded
Myxedema coma is treated with?
Hydrocoisone
Liothyronine
Levothyroxine
All of the above
3d
multi
Since peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 is compromised in patients who are hypothyroid, combined replacement of T4 and T3 is recommended, for that we give :- - Liothyronine (active T3 derivative) - Levothyroxine T3 has a sho half-life and must be administered q8h. Patients presenting with myxedema coma/crisis may have adrenal insufficiency, and stress doses of IV steroids(hydrocoisone) must be administered along with initial thyroid replacement until adrenal function has been determined to be normal. Active rewarming should be done using space blanket
Medicine
Diseases of Thyroid
[ "liothyronine" ]
61,417
a809f187-f05a-4bda-bcdd-8da1e93ecbe4
Which of the following NSAIDs can cause hepatic necrosis if used in overdose?
Diclofenac sodium
Acetaminophen
Indomethacin
Piroxicam
1b
single
Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) It is metabolized to N-acetyl paraaminobenzo quinoneimine (NAPQ) by microsomal enzymes. This metabolite has high affinity for sulfhydryl groups and can combine with the enzymes and other biomolecules resulting in hepatotoxicity characterized by hepatic necrosis. Normally acetaminophen is a safe drug because glutathione (contain sulfhydryl group due to presence of sulfur containing amino acid, cysteine) produced by the liver combines with NAPQ to detoxify it. However chronic alcoholics are predisposed to toxicity Acetaminophen toxicity can be decreased by providing sulfhydryl donors like N-acetylcysteine (antidote of choice).
Pharmacology
NSAIDs, Gout and Rheumatoid Ahritis
[ "piroxicam", "indomethacin", "diclofenac" ]
61,427
bf2ca2e2-85f4-483a-ab97-a40cfa5e3de3
All of the following lab tests can be used to distinguish Streptococcus mutans from other oral streptococci, except
Gram staining
Fermentation of mannitol and sorbital
Production of intracellular and extracellular adherent polysaccharide
Colony morphology on saliva agar
0a
multi
null
Microbiology
null
[ "mannitol" ]
61,446
13e71431-469a-48d2-82ad-4cb252144ead
Which of the following is not useful in the management of status epilepticus?
Lorazepam
Phenytoin
Phenobarbitone
Carbamazepine
3d
single
d. Carbamazepine(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2831-2856)Treatment of Status Epilepticus in ChildrenTimeDrug treatment0 minuteIV Access available: Inj Lorazepam-0.1mg/kg/IV (max 4mg) OR InjMidazolam 0.15-0.2mg/kg/IV (Max 5mg)IV access not available: Buccal Midazolam 0.3mg/kg (Max 5mg) OR PR Diazepam 0.5mg/kg (Max 10mg)5 minutesInj Lorazepam-0.1mg/kg/IV (max 4mg) OR Inj Midzolam-0.5-0.2mg/kg/IV (Max 5mg)10 minutesIV Phenytoin* 20mg/kg (Max: 100mg) in NS 1mg/kg/min (Max 50mg per min), OR Inj Fosphenytoin 20mgPE/kg, Rate: 3mgPE/kg, if no response to initial doseRefractory SE-even after 10min of phenytoin/fosphenytoin administrationIV Valproate 20-30mg/kg-IV max 6mg/kg/minute ORIV Phenobarbitone 20mg/kg in NS 1.5mg/kg/min; Repeat 10mg/kg if no response to initial dose ORIV Levetiracetam (If Liver disease/Metabolic disease/coagulopathy/on Chemotherapy)-20-30mg/kg5min infusier
Pediatrics
Central Nervous System
[ "lorazepam", "carbamazepine", "phenytoin" ]
61,447
dd5bea2f-bbe9-4d47-9c03-6ebcc5ac843c
Roopmati, A 56-year-old female with lymph-node-positive breast cancer was treated with systemic chemotherapy. Four weeks later, she developed frequent urination, suprapubic pain, dysuria, and hematuria. Which of the following could have prevented this patient's condition?
Folinic acid
Mesna
Dexrazoxane
Amifostine
1b
single
The patient described in the question has hemorrhagic cystitis caused by drugs like cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide. Hemorrhagic cystitis during therapy with cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide is caused by the urinary excretion of the toxic metabolite acrolein. This can be prevented by aggressive hydration, bladder irrigation, and administration of mesna, compound that binds acrolein in the urine.
Pharmacology
Cytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
[ "mesna" ]
61,488
7a14fd0e-18a1-45a6-b81b-99a7a3835926
An 86 yr old male complains of cough and blood in his sputum for the past two days. On admission, his temperature is 103deg F. physical examination reveals rales in his right lung, and x- ray examination shows increased density in the right middle lobe. A sputum smear shows many Gram positive coci, confirmed by sputum culture as penicillinase producing staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following agents should be given?
Ampicillin
Oxacillin
Carbenicillin
Ticarcillin
1b
single
Unlike the other listed drugs, oxacillin is resistant to penicillinase. The other four agents are broad-spectrum penicillins, while oxacillin is generally specific for Gram-positive microorganisms. Use of penicillinase resistant penicillins should be reserved for infections caused by penicillinase producing staphylococci.
Surgery
null
[ "ampicillin" ]
61,495
a0d5bd1e-35cf-40f6-8c59-e5f3b0e4f09a
All of the following drugs cause renal failure except?
Cephaloridine
Amphoterecin B
Cefoperazone
Gentamicin
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cefoperazone Cefoperazone is primarily excreted in bile -3 less nephrotoxic. o Amphotericin B, gentamycin and cephaloridine are highly nephrotoxic.
Pharmacology
null
[ "gentamicin", "cefoperazone" ]
61,500
46e64416-8320-432b-9140-1ce023a2eb4f
In Zollinger Ellison syndrome what is raised-
Insulin
VIP
Gastrin
Glucagon
2c
single
<p>Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *Timor secreted gastrin which stimulated gastrin production to its maximum capacity.</p>
Medicine
G.I.T
[ "glucagon" ]
61,504
65cc64f4-dedf-44ad-ac1d-59716a32eb0f
All are Antidepressants except -
Trazodone
Amitryptyline
Fluoxetine
Pimozide
3d
multi
Antidepressants Typical a)Tricyclic antidepressants i) NA + 5HT reuptake inhibitors Imipramine, Trimipramine, Amitriptyline, Clomipramine. Predominantly ii) NA reuptake inhibitors Desipramine, Nortriptyline, Amoxapine, Reboxetine. b)Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors:- Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertaline, Citalopram, Scitalopram.         B) Atypical :- Trazodone, Mianserine, Mitrazapine, Venalafaxin, Duloxetine, Tianeptine, Amineptine, Bupropion.        C) MAO inhibitors:- Tranylcypromine, Moclobemide, Clorgyline.
Psychiatry
null
[ "fluoxetine", "trazodone" ]
61,527
03b777b8-36ec-4c32-9db5-3f4349a9233f
Zolpidem-
Act on Benzodiazepine receptor 1 and 2
Action not reversed by flumazenil
Sedation is less than Diazepam
All
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sedation is less than diazepam Zolpidem Zolpidem is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic. o Hangover or withdrawl phenomena on discontinuation is less than BZDs less day time residual sedation. o It has only sedative and hypnotic effect; anticonvulsant, muscle relaxant and antianxiety effects are not evident.
Pharmacology
null
[ "flumazenil", "diazepam" ]
61,550
c036253b-fd69-4f2a-b5d7-68eaf7daa24f
A six year old child is admitted to the Paediatric ICU for seizures. He has been on tretment with Tacrolimus and Prednisolone. On investigations his blood urea is 68 mg/d1, Serum Sodium is 136 meq/1 likely cause of his seizures-
Uremia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Tacrolimus Toxity
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Tacrolimus Toxity Tacrolimus neurotoxicity is an established cause for 'seizures' and the most likely reason for seizures in this child. In hyponatremia, seizures usually develop when sodium levels decrease below 125 meq/L. In hypocalcemia, seizures develop when calcium level is below 6 mg/dl. Uremic seizures occur late after delirium, hallucinations and agitation.
Pediatrics
null
[ "prednisolone", "tacrolimus" ]
61,564
601c5c63-692e-414d-81ea-2843afd86151
After using transdermal nitroglycerin skin patches for 1 week, a patient with an 8-month history of chronic stable angina pectoris observes an increasing frequency of mild angina episodes during exertion. The patient has been conscientiously applying a new patch every morning immediately after removing the old one. The patient’s increased frequency of anginal attacks is most likely because of
A sudden onset of vasospastic angina
Engaging in vigorous exercise
Cellular tolerance to organic nitrates
Induction of cytochrome P450 enzyme by nitroglycerin
2c
single
Tolerance to organic nitrates may develop in a few days or less, depending on the dose and frequency of administration. Continuous exposure to nitroglycerin through use of a transdermal skin patch has frequently caused nitrate tolerance. A daily 10-to-14-hour drug ­free period will prevent nitrate tolerance. Nitrate tolerance is a cellular tolerance caused by depletion of sulfhydryl groups required for receptor signal trans­duction. The drug-free interval allows time for these groups to replenish before the next period of drug exposure. Nitrates are metabolized by hepatic nitro reductase, and there is neither evidence of cytochrome P 450 involvement nor of induction of this enzyme by drugs. Although the patient's symptoms could be caused by increased physical activity or onset of vaso­spasm, these are less likely causes in a patient with continuous nitroglycerin exposure. Vasospasm is also unlikely because the episodes occurred during ex­ertion.
Unknown
null
[ "nitroglycerin" ]
61,566
ff5ad51a-6108-4f87-af7f-4bad9310d142
In patient of head injury with rapidly increasing intracranial tension without haematoma, the drug of choice for initial management would be-
furosemide
Steroids
20 % Mannitol
Glycine
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
[ "lasix", "mannitol" ]
61,582
bb11b5be-4305-45cc-8b2c-8a595fd62d09
Enalapril is contraindicated in all of the following conditions except:
Diabetic nephropathy with albuminuria
Single kidney
Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Hyperkalemia
0a
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "enalapril" ]
61,599
70011b88-64df-4299-934d-1ce36fc6edcc
Which of the following is not a sporicidal agent?
Lysol
Formalin
Glutaraldehyde
Ethylene oxide
0a
single
Lysol and alcohol (ethyl and isopropyl alcohol) are used as disinfectants while formalin and glutaraldehyde act as sterilants. Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 33
Microbiology
general microbiology
[ "glutaraldehyde" ]
61,659
93f17ba3-6633-43d2-a3df-6d1c63f67823
Hallucination is the major side effect of :
Nitrous oxide.
Ketamine
Fentanyl
Chloroform
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ketamine", "fentanyl" ]
61,660
d0ac8bce-8165-48d0-9b02-ca8cae37ef67
Drug induced lupus can result from all the following, EXCEPT:
Penicillin
Phenytoin
Hydralazine
Hydrochlorothiazide
0a
multi
Penicillin is not known to cause drug induced lupus. Drugs most commonly associated with drug induced lupus are: Procainamide and hydralazine. Quinidine, isoniazid, methyldopa, minocycline and chlorpromazine are also involved. Other drugs that are probable causes includes anticonvulsants, statins, fluorouracil agents, terbinafine, antithyroid drugs and hydrochlorothiazide.
Pharmacology
null
[ "hydralazine", "phenytoin", "hydrochlorothiazide" ]
61,666
4aceed00-2cf2-467b-8d6a-11f1d2aa88e1
All are true about Cotrimoxazole, except
Resistance is delayed due to drugs in combination
Trimethoprim : Sulphamethoxazole = 1:5
Similar pharmacokinetics for both components
Trimethoprim increases absorption of Sulphamethoxazole
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Trimethoprim increases absorption of Sulfamethoxazole Cotrimoxazole - It is a fixed dose combination of Trimethoprim and Sulphamethoxazole.Important properties -Sulphamethoxazole and Trimethoprim have been selected for combination because both have nearly the same t 1/2- 10 hr. (Pharmacokinetics of both the drugs resemble each other closely).Optimal synergy in case of most organism is exhibited at a concentration ratio of Sulphamethoxazole 20: Trimethoprim 1 (This ratio is obtained in plasma when two are given in a dose ratio of 5:1)This occurs because trimethoprim has a larger volume of distribution than Sulfamethoxazole and attains lower plasma concentration.Trimethoprim adequately crosses blood brain barrier and placenta, while sulfamethoxazole has poor entry.Trimethoprim is more rapidly absorbed than Sulfamethoxazole (It does not affect absorption of Sulphamethoxazole)Trimethoprim is 40 % plasma protein bound, Sulphamethoxazole is 60% plasma protein bound.Resistance to the combination has been slow to develop compared to the resistance to either drug alone.
Pharmacology
Sulfonamide
[ "trimethoprim" ]
61,698
4ef46dc7-4fb7-4b86-8ffb-3b1cd2bf7c7b
Treatment of 42 year old obese man with blood glucose 450 mg, urine albumin 2+sugar 4+ketone 1+ is
Insulin
Glibenclamide
Glipizide
Metformin
0a
single
Answer is A (Insulin): Presence of sugar and ketones in urine and the presence of hyperglycemia (400 mg Glucose) suggests a diagnosis of Diabetic ketoacidosis. The treatment of choice in Diabetic ketoacidosis is Insulin.
Medicine
null
[ "glipizide", "metformin" ]
61,707
e8f81489-98bb-4200-999c-d3903dd55e35
Which IV anesthetic causes increased cerebral blood flow and cerebral metabolic rate? (E. REPEAT 2006)
Thiopentone
Etomidate
Ketamine
Propofol
2c
single
Ref: Ajar Yadov, Short Textbook of Anaesthesia, 1st edition. Page 76 and Miller Textbook of Anaesthesia, 6th editionExplanation:KETAMINECauses Dissociative anaesthesia.Phencyclidine derivative.NMD A receptor agonist.Dose-2 mg/kg.Anesthetic Propertieso Onset of Action: 30-60 secondso Early regain of consciousness after 15-20 min due to Redistributiono Elimination half life: 2-3 hourso Strong analgesic propertyo Metabolised in liver and products excreted in urine.o Not a muscle relaxant.Primary site of action - Thalamo-neo-cortical projections.Cardiovascular SystemIncreases arterial BP.Increases heart rate.Increases cardiac output.IV agent of choice in SHOCK.Respiratory SystemPotent bronchodilator.Good induction agent for asthmatics.Upper airway reflexes remain largely intact.Increases salivatory and tracheo bronchial secretions.Using glycopyrollate or atropine becomes necessary.Central Nervous SystemIncreases intracranial pressure and can precipitate seizures.Increases cerebral blood flow and cerebral metabolic rate.Emergence reactions:o These are seen at emergenceo Vivid dreamingo Illusions.o Extracorporeal experiences like floatingo Excitemento Confusiono Euphoriao Fear.Hallucinations:o Auditory and visual hallucinations (Most common side effect of ketamine)o Treated with benzodiazepine.Other SystemsEyeo Increase intraocular tensiono Pupils dilate moderatelyo Nystagmus.GITo Increases intragastric pressureo Salivary secretions increased.Muscluaro Increases muscle toneo Increased non-puposeful movements.DoseCan be given IV, IM. oral, rectal and intrathecal route.IV - 2 mg/kg.IM- 5-10 mg/kg.AdvantagesInduction agent of choice in:o Asthmaticso Shock.o Children (Now Sevoflurance is DOC).o Constrictive pericarditiso Cardiac tamponade.Can be used as SOLE agent.Can be used safely at remote places and in inexperienced hands since does not depress heart or respiration.Preferred agent when patient is in FUELSTOMACH (Preserves laryngo-pharyngeal reflexes).Contraindicated in:Head injury.ICSOL.Eye injury.Ophthal pathology.Ischemic heart disease.Vascular aneurysm.Psychiatric diseases.Drug addicts.Hypertensives.
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous General Anesthesia
[ "etomidate", "ketamine", "propofol" ]
61,712
224ade95-777b-4413-946f-299320b32346
Which of the following act on a-2 receptors -
Rhenylephrine
Mitodrine
Clonidine
Methoxomine
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clonidinea-2 agonistso These are:a) Apraclonidine and brimonidine are used in glaucoma.b) Dexmedetomidine is used as preanaesthetic medication and for sedation in critically ill/ventilated patient in ICU.c) Tizanidine is used as muscle relaxant in spaciticity.d) Clonidine and a methyldopa are used in hypertension. Other uses of clonidine are (i) preanaesthetic medication, (ii) diarrhea in diabetic neuropathy, (iii) analgesic, (iv) withdrawal syndrome of opoid, alcohol and nicotine, (v) prophylaxis of migrain, (vi) postmenopausal syndrome, (vii) suppression test for pheochromocytoma, and (viii) for treatment of ADHD.
Pharmacology
Pharmacodynamics
[ "clonidine" ]
61,720
6191369b-5a22-405c-a583-f010a3f041e7
Which of the following is False about Pentazocine ?
Decreased vomiting and constipation as compared to morphine
Risk of addiction is less than that with morphine
Risk of addiction is more than that with morphine
It is agonist antagonist
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Risk of addiction is more than that with morphine Pentazocine is agonist-antagonist with weak antagonistic and marked x agonistic action. Its profile of action is similar to morphine with the following difference : Analgesia is lower in efficacy than morphine and is different in character being mostly spinal (c1) Cardiac work is increased : It causes tachycardia & rise in BPdue to sympathetic stimulation and is better avoided in Coronary ischemia and Myocardial infarction. Sedation and respiratory depression is less than morphine. Vomiting is less frequent. Biliary spasm and constipation are less severe. Subjective effects are pleasurable and abuse liability is present although it is lower than that with morphine.
Pharmacology
null
[ "morphine", "pentazocine" ]
61,729
91377cd4-20a8-48c7-a96e-20190318dd03
Which of the following drugs is NOT excreted in bile :
Erythromycin
Ampicillin
Rifampicin
Gentamicin
3d
single
Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside and is excreted via renal route.
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin", "gentamicin", "ampicillin" ]
61,756
4be503e6-c158-484c-8551-8e0b38a793b9
Nephrolithiasis occurs with the toxicity to -
Ritonavir
Saquinavir
Indinavir
Nalfinavir
2c
single
The drugs commonly associated with renal damage in HIV patients are- Pentamidine, amphotericin, adefovir, cidofovir, tenofovir, foscarnet. cobicistat a component of several fixed drug cA formulations,inhibits renal tubular secretion of creatinine leading to increased serum creatinine levels without true decline in GFR. indinavir, atazanavir may form renal calculi Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 1438
Medicine
Kidney
[ "ritonavir", "saquinavir", "indinavir" ]
61,762
078fae76-162e-4c53-9c72-c922d8b461f7
Drug that can cause hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is :
Tertacycline
Erythromycin
Ampicillin
Rifampicin
1b
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin", "ampicillin" ]
61,767
7394c995-788b-4b03-a8a7-96dcc8e107a9
Analgesic effect of Paracetamol mediated by which receptor?
NK 1
BK1
Px23
TRPV1
3d
single
Ans. d. TRPV1Ref: David Golan 3rd E/P276Acetaminophen is conjugated with arachidonic acid to form N-arachidonoyl phenylamine which activates cannabinoid and TRPV1 receptors. This is postulated to be one of the mechanisms of analgesic effect seen with acetaminophen (paracetamol).Apart from this acetaminophen also inhibits prostaglandin synthesis which accounts for its analgesic effect.
Pharmacology
Prostaglandins
[ "paracetamol" ]
61,796
5e857eee-b8f3-496a-9a15-0d08d54bdc0d
Which of the following statements are True/False about Nephrotic syndrome in a child: 1. Minimal change Nephrotic syndrome accounts for 80-85% cases 2. Serum albumin level below 2.5g/dl 3. Cyclosporine and Azathioprine is mainstay of therapy 4. Pretreatment biopsy is done in all cases
1,2, True & 3,4 False
1,4, True & 2,3 False
3,4, True & 1,2 False
2,3 False & 1,4 True
0a
multi
Minimal change Nephrotic syndrome accounts for 80-85% cases of Nephrotic syndrome in a child. Serum albumin level i< 2.5g/dl (Hypoalbuminemia). Mainstay of therapy is coicosteroids. Pretreatment renal biopsy is not required to confirm the diagnosis in most patients. Renal biopsy is required only in patients with atypical features of onset (Age below 12 months or over 10 years, persistent hematuria, low blood C3, hypeension or impaired renal function. Ref: O P Ghai, 7th Edition, Page 451; Nelson, 17th Edition, Pages 1753-1756.
Pediatrics
null
[ "azathioprine", "cyclosporine" ]
61,827
27bad0d8-9c3b-4354-8480-6d64a30b0c43
HMG-CoA reductase is inhibited by ?
Cholestyramine
Gemfibrozil
Lovastatin
Clofibrate
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lovastatin
Pharmacology
null
[ "lovastatin" ]
61,829
23a97233-00da-4ec9-b347-4ebccd2ccd8e
Most commonly used NSAIDs in Rheumatic fever ?
Indomethacin
Phenylbutazone
Aspirin
Rofecoxib
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Aspirin(Ref: Textbook of clinical pediatrics p' 729)Treatment of Rheumatic fever:Drug of choice for treatment of RF is penicillin.Erythromycin is the drug of choice in penicillin allergic patient.Suppressive therapy:Coicosteroids or aspirin are given for suppressive therapy. Coicosteroids are indicated in presence of carilitis with or without CHF.Aspirin is preferred in absence of carditis.Duration of therapy is 12 week.
Pharmacology
null
[ "indomethacin" ]
61,831
67dabc1c-7423-45db-bc47-016cbdb1b150
Bone marrow depression is seen with –
Halothene
N2O
Ether
Isoflurane
1b
single
N2O can cause bone marrow depression and megaloblastic anemia (VitB12 deficiency).
Anaesthesia
null
[ "isoflurane" ]
61,833
fd331c59-288a-409f-a387-5b1d0b8333aa
Which of the following is used commercially for sterilization of disposable plastic items?
Autoclave
Glutaraldehyde
Ethylene oxide
Ethyl alcohol
3d
multi
Ethyl alcohol is used for sterilization of disposable plastic items. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 41
Microbiology
general microbiology
[ "glutaraldehyde" ]
61,836
b741c04f-f010-4f7f-9b13-679bd66846f1
Venoocclusive disease of the liver is caused by:
Cyclophosphamide
Melphalan
Both
None
2c
multi
Potential target for sinusoidal lining cells; when these are injured, such as by high-dose chemotherapeutic agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide, melphalan, busulfan) administered prior to bone marrow transplantation, venoocclusive disease can result. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2560
Medicine
null
[ "cyclophosphamide" ]
61,848
0342be5b-5913-4020-9737-850fe049258b
Anaerobic bacteria are intrinsically resistant to
Beta lactams
Aminoglycosides
Chloramphenicol
Metronidazole
1b
multi
(B) Aminoglycosides[?]Mechanism of Antibiotic ResistanceoIntrinsic (natural resistance) resistance:--Innate ability of a bacterial species to resist the activity of a particular antimicrobial agent through inherent structural or functional characteristics, allowing tolerance to a particular drug or antimicrobial class.-Intrinsic mechanisms of resistance are an innate characteristic of the microorganism and are transmitted to progeny vertically (i.e. during cell division)-Eg. Anaerobes are intrinsically resistant to aminoglycosides.INTRINSIC RESISTANCE IN BACTERIAOrganismsAntibioticsMechanismGram-positive bacteriaAztreonam (beta-lactam)Lack of penicillin binding protiens which can effectively bind aztreonamGram-negative bacteriaVancomycinLarge molecule of vancomycin is unable to penetrate outer membrane of G-ve bacteriaKlebsiella spp.Ampicillinb-lactmases produced by the bacteria destroy ampicillin before it reaches the PBP target.Stenotrophomonas maltophiliaImipenemb-lactamase produced by bacteria destroy imipenem before it bind with PBPLactobacillus & LeucomostocVancomycinUnable to bind with cell wall precursorPsudomonas aeruginosaSulfonamides, trimethoprim, tetracycline, chloramphenicolIn-effective intracellular concentrations of antibiotics due to lack of uptakeEnterococcus spp.AminoglycosidesLimited uptake of aminoglycosides by protein of electron transort chainb-lactam antibiotics like penicillin, cephalosporins & monobactamLack of penicillin binding proteins MECHANISMS OF RESISTANCE. Intrinsic Resistance. Analogous to innate (non-specific) human immunity. Examples: Obligate anaerobic bacteria to aminoglycosides; Gram (-ve) bacteria to vancomycin. Acquired Resistance. Analogous to specific action of human immunity. Bug, over time, develops resistance to specific mechanism of action- Mutation of resident genes, or Acquire new genes and incorporate into own DNA. Major problem with over-prescribing antibiotics.. Pt demands (stronger) antibiotic and practitioner gives in (viral URI, viral pharyngitis).. Selects for those organisms, with resistance, proliferation, further.n. Mechanism of Antibiotic Resistance:. Intrinsic (natural resistance) Resistance:. Innate ability of a bacterial species to resist the activity of a particular antimicrobial agent through inherent structural or functional characteristics, allowing tolerance to a particular drug or antimicrobial class.. Intrinsic mechanisms of resistance are an innate characteristic of the microorganism and are transmitted to progeny vertically (i.e., during cell division).. Eg., Anaerobes are intrinsically resistant to aminoglycosides.
Microbiology
Bacteria
[ "metronidazole", "chloramphenicol" ]
61,849
57d3a04b-b53e-4c4c-ace9-965023416798
Which of the following drugs does not cross the blood placental barrier:
Atropine
Glycopyrrolate
Physostigmine
Hyoscine hydrobromide.
1b
single
Glycopyrrolate is a quaternary ammonium compound and is thus water-soluble and to penetrate BBB.
Pharmacology
null
[ "atropine", "physostigmine" ]
61,852
4a1d6392-fe7c-4a82-a35a-e7df4314dc8f
Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission from mother to child, especially during breast feeding.
Nevirapine
Lamivudine
Stavudine
Abacavir
0a
multi
The intrapaum and postpaum Nevirapine regimen, with one dose to the mother at the onset of labour and one dose to the child within 72 hours, provides the most feasible intervention yet for developing countries.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical Illness Complicating Pregnancy
[ "lamivudine", "stavudine", "nevirapine" ]
61,884
a6acd9ef-46b5-4634-a15f-613fa5c48331
Stain used in staining fungal elements
Acid fast stain
Gram stain
Methenamine silver
All of the above
2c
multi
Fungal stains - LPCB (lactophenol cotton blue) GMS (Gomorii Methanamine silver) Calcofluor white (Fluorescent stain) Mucicarmine stain (used for capsule of cryptocus neoformans ) Indian ink staining ( used for capsule of cryptocus neoformans ) H&E (haematoxylin/eosin stain) PAS - Periodic acid Schiff.
Microbiology
General Microbiology Pa 1 (History, Microscopy, Stains and Structure and Physiology of Bacteria)
[ "methenamine" ]
61,899
1fd1c36c-7ca9-4e52-a94b-71e46df257ac
Which of the following is a prodrug?
Enalapril
Clonidine
Salmeterol
Acetazolamide
0a
single
ref; KD Tripathi pharmacology 6th edition (page no;24) prodrugs-Few drugs are inactive as such and need conversion in the body to one or more active metabolites. Enalapril is conveed to active form Enalaprilat other drugs do not need activation because they are active forms Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
[ "clonidine", "salmeterol", "acetazolamide", "enalapril" ]
61,900
12caa964-580d-4db1-b5b2-92ceeecb3f6b
One of the following caused nephrotoxicity -
Azathioprine
Cyclophosphamide
Mycophenolate mofetil
Tacrolimus
3d
single
Tacrolimus Tacrolimus is a macrolide immunosuppressant that is isolated from bacterium. It is used for the same purpose as cyclosporine i.e., it is being used to protect and treat liver and kidney grafts when conventional immunosuppressants fail. It suppresses the cell mediated immunity but it leaves patient with enough immunity to fight bacteria. Despite major differences in the chemical structure, tacrolimus and cyclosporine seems to have many effects in common:? It acts like cyclosporine Both the drugs inhibit the calcineurin pathways. Their adverse effect on kidney is indistinguishable i.e., - Tubular lesions - Aeriolopathy - Tufts like changes in glomeruli and vessels. Adverse effect of Azathioprine (Goodman Gilman 12th/e p. 1415) Bone marrow Suppression - Leucopenia (common) - Thrombocytopenia (less common) Increased susceptibility to infections Hepatotoxicity Alopecia G.I.toxicity Pancreatitis Increased risk of neoplasia Adverse effects of mycophenolate mofetil (Goodman Gilman 12th/e p1414) Gastrointestinal - Diarrhoes - Vomiting Hematological - Leucopenia - Anemia - Thrombocytopenia Sepsis associated with cytomegalovirus Adverse lipid profile Increased risk of malignancy and pancreatitis Abnormal liver functions tests - Hepatitis - Electrolyte disturbance Adverse effect of Leflunomide Diarrhoea (40%) Other gastrointestinal disturbances Allergic responses Alopecia Hypeension Leucopenia Abnormal liver function tests
Pharmacology
null
[ "azathioprine", "tacrolimus", "cyclophosphamide" ]
61,908
7480d814-3dcd-4dec-8dd3-cc4d94a7ffab
In Radionuclide imaging, the most useful radio-pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is: March 2011
Gallium-67
Technetium-sulphur-colloid
Technetium-99m
Technetium-99m linked to Methylene diphosphonate
3d
multi
Ans. D: Technetium-99m linked to Methylene diphosphonate Applications of Tc-99m includes bone imaging (99m Tc tagged phosphorous compounds) Scans used for: Hot spot in MI: Technetium scan Pancreatic scanning: Selenium 75 Parathyroids: Sestamibi scan Renal GFR estimation: Tc 99DTPA scan Vesicourethral reflex: MAG3 Tc 99 scan Thyroid scan: 1-131
Radiology
null
[ "gallium" ]
61,909
60e7ca9b-96b3-4b8a-beb9-fafad69d5457
All of the following can cause SLE like syndrome except aEUR'
INH
Penicillin
Hydralazine
Sulphonamide
1b
multi
Penicilin Drug induce SLE . Appearance of SLE like symptoms in association with intake of ceain drugs. . Common symptoms are fever, malaise. ahritis or intense ahralgias/ inyalgias, serositis and or rash. Some special points to note are ? . It is predominant in caucasians0 It has less famnale prediliction than SLE. It rarely involves kidneys or brainy. It is rarely associated with anti Ds DNAQ. . It is commonly associated with antibodies to histoneso. . It usually resolves over several weeksQ after discontinuation of the offending medication.
Surgery
null
[ "hydralazine" ]
61,911
9f3df065-adb8-4664-9132-3f3bd0f5af95
Which is not used in carcinoma prostate ?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Cyproterone acetate
Flutamide
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Conservative treatment
Surgery
null
[ "flutamide", "cyproterone" ]
61,922
903f0088-746d-4d47-acbc-2798bb88c253
True about Azathioprine is?
It has more anti tumor effect than immunosuppressant effect
It is not a prodrug
It selectively affects differentiation of T cells
It is a pyramidine antimetabolite
2c
multi
ANSWER: (C) It selectively affects differentiation of T cellsREF: KDT 6th ed p. 840AZATHIOPRINEPurine antimetaboliteMore marked immunosuppressant effect than antitumour effectIt's a prodrug and converted to more active 6-mercaptopurineSelectively inhibits T cell differentiation and function of T cellsMost important application - graft rejections/e - bone marrow suppression
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
[ "azathioprine" ]
61,928
bcd598cf-6339-4065-8bc9-65b18bedb61f
The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is effective against which of the following opportunistic infections in the AIDS patient?
Disseminated Herpes simplex
Cryptococcal meningitis
Pneumocystis jirovecii
Tuberculosis
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "trimethoprim" ]
61,946
c9ab8267-84ae-468c-903d-660488cd5f5f
All of the following are used in disinfection of faeces, EXCEPT:
Cresol
Formalin
Glutaraldehyde
Bleaching powder
2c
multi
Agents used for disinfecting faeces: DISINFECTANT % USED Bleaching powder 5 Phenol 10 Cresol 5 Formalin 10 Ref: Park 21st edition, page 119.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "glutaraldehyde" ]
61,948
428f9e31-1ce6-4ec7-9089-4b2abfc742ff
chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient depament with the help of an instrument shown below.To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect it is by?
70% alcohol for 5 min
2% glutaraldehyde for 20 min.
2% formaldehyde for 10 min.
1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min.
1b
single
The instrument shown in the picture above is an endoscope. Glutaraldehyde It is a high-level disinfectant most frequently used as a disinfectant for heat-sensitive equipment such as dialysis instruments, surgical instruments, suction bottles, bronchoscopes, endoscopes, ear, nose, and throat instruments,spirometry tubing, transducers, anesthesia and respiratory therapy equipment and reuse of laparoscopic disposable plastic trocars . For disinfection of Endoscopes/Bronchoscope,they should be soaked in Glutaraldehyde solution of around 2 % for 20 minutes after properly cleaning the scope. Glutaraldehyde is noncorrosive to metal and does not damage lensed instruments, rubber or plastics. It is also used as a tissue fixative in histology and pathology laboratories and as a hardening agent in the development of x-rays. Glutaraldehyde products are available in a variety of concentrations (solutions range in concentration from 2.4 - 3.4%) Ref : ananthanarayana 10th ed
Microbiology
All India exam
[ "glutaraldehyde" ]
61,954
2e9fb2ae-0c18-40f1-89e9-5a382dbd7dd8
Which of the following drugs is likely to damage the eighth cranial nerve when administered for a long period of time?
Ethambutol
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Streptomycin
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ethambutol", "isoniazid" ]
61,983
8fb45ac8-2422-4f07-b779-ae4cbd7f2fde
Ampicillin prophylaxis is given in -
Rectal surgery
Splenectomy
Head and neck surgery
Biliary surgery
0a
single
• Prophylactic antibiotics in biliary surgery are designed to reduce the incidence of postoperative wound infections. • The efficacy of antibiotics in the prevention of wound infections has been demonstrated with first, second and third generation cephalosporins, ampicillin associated with clavulanate, ureido-penicillins, aminoglycosides, sulfonamides and quinolones.
Surgery
null
[ "ampicillin" ]
61,986
4a3b32a6-c419-411f-bcb7-4578fa58f6fd
Least diffusion coefficient is for –
Isoflurane
Enflurane
Halothane
N2O
3d
single
Amongst the given options, N2O has minimum diffusion coefficient.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "enflurane", "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
62,001
371cb325-898a-401b-ae8c-64a23b167a8b
A female, Lalita, aged 26 yrs accidentally takes 100 tablets of paracetamol. What is treatment of choice -
Lavage with charcoal
Dialysis
Alkaline diuresis
Acetyl cysteine
3d
multi
Gastric lavage and hemodialysis are used in paracetamol poisoning. But the treatment of choice is N-acetyl cysteine.
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "paracetamol" ]
62,014
42010f39-4ac1-45ca-a773-c3445d1da135
Glomerular feedback for decreased GFR is by
Increased vasopressin activity
Increased PCT permeability
Increase renin JG complex
Increase renal sympathetic activity
2c
single
Whenever blood flow to the kidney diminishes, renin is secreted and angiotensin is formed. The angiotensin causes widespread vasoconstriction and elevation of blood pressure consequent to greatly increased total peripheral resistance. A second effect, the increased secretion of aldosterone, results in retention of salt and water by the kidneys and therefore increased extracellular fluid volume, cardiac output, and aerial pressure. Additionally, the angiotensin acts directly on the kidneys to cause salt and water retention, which causes a long-term increase in aerial blood pressure.Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology, 23rd edition, page no: 669
Physiology
Renal physiology
[ "vasopressin" ]
62,024
ac858e42-e777-48ac-8359-a6ea5b1b6a7e
Which of the following drugs is useful for treatment of advanced prostrate cancer
Hydroxyurea
Cisplatin
Paclitaxel
Carboplatin
0a
single
Refer Harrinson 17th 638 The most significant advance in the therapy of sickle cell anemia has been the introduction of hydroxyurea as a mainstay of therapy for patients with severe symptoms Hydroxyurea (10-30 mg/kg per day) increases fetal hemoglobin and may also exe beneficial affects on RBC hydration, vascular wall adherence and suppression of the granulocyte and reticulocyte counts
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "paclitaxel", "carboplatin", "cisplatin" ]
62,029
ef543178-7f19-4f47-ae26-5ac24a7abe0b
Thalidomide is not used in :
HIV related neuropathy
Erythema nodosum leprosum
HIV related oral ulcer
Behcet's disease
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "thalidomide" ]
62,037
52739c3e-b48e-44ce-9949-9761f6efe2f9
A useful though temporary improvement in a patient's ischaemic foot can be attained by giving intravenously
10% Mannitol
10% Dextrose
Dextran 40
Dextran 100
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
[ "dextran", "mannitol" ]
62,076
36afb261-1a03-4dd8-bb90-d22ac5f558ce
Drug inhibiting the enzyme folate synthatase is ?
Sulfonamide
Clindamycin
Rifampicin
Norfloxacin
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sulfonamide SULFONAMIDES Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic and act by inhibiting folic acid synthesis by inhibiting enzyme folate synthatase. Bacteria synthesize their own folic acid of which para aminobenzoic acid (PABA) is a constituent - Sulfonamides, being structural analogues of PABA, inhibit bacterial folate synthase competitively. Sulfonamides are not effective in presence of pus and tissue extract because - (1) Pus contains purines and thymidine which decrease bacterial requirement for folic acid and (2) Pus is rich in PABA. Classsification Sho acting - Sulfadiazine, Sulfisoxaxole, Sulfamethizole, Sulfacystine. 2.Intermediate acting - Sulfamethoxazole. Long acting - Sulfadoxine, Sulfamethopyrazine. Topical Sulfonamides - Sulfacetamide sodium, Mafenide, silver sulfadiazine. Sulfonamide for RA and ulcerative colitis - Sulfasalazine. Adverse effects Most common adverse effects are due to hypersensitivity - Drug fever, Skin rashes, exfoliative dermatitis, Photosensitivity, uicaria, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea - Katzung 10th/e p. 764. Crystalluria, Hepatitis, hemolysis in G-6-PD deficiency, kernicterus in newborn are other side effects. Primary pathwary of metabolism of Sulfonamides is acetylation. The acetylated derivative is less soluble in acidic urine - may precipitate and cause crystalluria.
Pharmacology
null
[ "clindamycin" ]
62,111
1fea92b4-8c4b-47b7-b639-0dcb05bf2fc4
In AIDS, kaposi sarcoma may respond to
Interleuldn- 2 infusion
Azathioprine
Alpha interferon
Any of the above
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
[ "azathioprine" ]
62,114
04848895-f55a-4a79-a758-0dad285ab0e5
DOC for management of visceral Leishmaniasis:
Parenteral Sodium stibogluconate
Liposomal Amphotericin B
Miltefosine
Pentamidine
1b
single
Ref: Goodman & Gillman 13th ed. P 996* Drug of choice for visceral leishmaniasis: Liposomal Amphotericin B.# Note: AmpB can be used even during pregnancy# Side effect: Renal toxicity, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia* Other agents for management of leishmaniasis:# Sodium stibogluconate: Given parenterally 20mg/kg/day for 20 days in cutaneous disease and 28 days in visceral leishmaniasis. Due to increased resistance it has now become obsolete in India. At present oral preparation is available and shows better result.- Side effect: Pancreatitis, Hepatotoxicity, Bone marrow suppression, haemolytic anemia and renal failure# Pentamidine can be used in doses of 2-3mg/kg IV or IM daily or every second day for 4-7 doses to treat cutaneous leishmaniasis.- Side effect: Nephrotoxic, Hypoglycemia# Miltefosine: Oral agent. Can be used in visceral and cutaneous leishmaniasis.- Only oral preparation available. Teratogenic - Not used in pregnancy
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
[ "miltefosine", "pentamidine" ]
62,121
8ac4a14a-05e5-4bea-a19f-8f323a8217bd
Agent responsible for increasing factor VIII activity in haemophilia is
a) Epsilon amino caproic acid
b) Tranexamic acid
c) Avitene
d) Deamino D Arginine vasopressin
3d
single
null
Pathology
null
[ "vasopressin" ]
62,129
2439851a-44e3-4bbc-b848-5d50d2f25108
Sodalime circuit is not used in anaesthesia with:
Enflurane
Isoflurane
Trichloroethylene
Methoxyflurane
2c
single
Trichloroethylene
Anaesthesia
null
[ "methoxyflurane", "enflurane", "isoflurane" ]
62,136
935dfd00-3201-4d06-ac00-f0fce68cc51a
Which of the following directly inhibits insulin secretion?
Alpha2-adrenergic agonist
Beta2-adrenergic agonist
Cholecystokinin
Glucagon
0a
single
Alpha 2-receptor agonists directly inhibit pancreatic insulin secretion. Beta2-adrenergic agonists stimulate insulin secretion. Cholecystokinin is a hormone that not only causes gallbladder contraction, but also causes insulin secretion from the pancreas. Pancreatic glucagon release acts as a paracrine stimulus for insulin secretion. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 25. Overview of Gastrointestinal Function & Regulation. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e.
Physiology
null
[ "glucagon" ]
62,144
ad2df071-a64a-4cea-aaa4-d5044cd0a217
Which of the following factors is not an impoant risk factor for tubal ectopic?
A history of tubal surgery
Intrauterine device (IUD) use
In utero diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure
History of pelvic inflammatory disease
1b
single
Ectopic pregnancy results from various factors that interrupt the successful migration of the conceptus to the endometrium. The most impoant risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are history of tubal surgery, including tubal ligation, for prior ectopic pregnancy, infeility history of prior ectopic: increases risk 5 folds in utero diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure: causes congenital fallopian tube anomalies history of pelvic inflammatory disease, sexually transmitted disease peritubal adhesions: secondary to salpingitis, endometriosis, appendicitis SIN: salpingitis isthmica nodosa infeility: use of A: increases risk of atypical/ non tubal ectopic failed contraception: IUCD, sterilisation, progesterone only contraceptives. PLEASE NOTE IT IS FAILURE OF THESE CONTRACEPTIVE PRACTICES, AND NOT THE CONTRACEPTIVE PRACTICE IN ITSELF Intrauterine device (IUD) use are associated with reduce pregnancies and reduced ectopic rates, however, if there is a failure of the IUD and a pregnancy results, ectopic gestation is more likely as compared to normal population conceiving These are not very clear relations. Many other risk factors, including smoking and multiple lifetime sexual paners, are weakly associated with ectopic pregnancy .
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Ectopic Pregnancy (Hello ! Where are you ?)
[ "diethylstilbestrol" ]
62,151
075bb453-8367-4a93-b46c-309459350392
Allopurinol potentiates the action of:
Coicosteroids
Probenecid
6-Mercaptopurine
Ampicilin
2c
multi
Allopurinol: used for chronic gout Reduces uric acid synthesis by competitively inhibiting xanthine oxidase Allopurinola Alloxanthine a noncompetitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION;KD TRIPATHI;PAGE NO 216
Pharmacology
Autacoids
[ "allopurinol", "probenecid" ]
62,154
6fec3e45-46c4-4b8b-986d-76379eb3cdc2
The following is true for the preservation of liver in case of poisoning except:
500 grams of liver is preserved in adults
Whole liver is preserved in infants
Gall bladder is also included in paracetamol poisoning
Liver is stored as a whole in container
3d
multi
The liver is removed from the body in the usual manner. About 500 grams poion is cut and preserved in another container of 1 litre capacity. In infants, whole liver is preserved. It is desirable to include the gallbladder, since some drugs are concentrated in the bile, such as paracetamol, barbiturates and opiates. The liver should always be sliced into pieces before placing it in the container, so that the preservative can exe its action more thoroughly.
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology - 1
[ "paracetamol" ]
62,160
2d39f983-1c71-4582-9852-18a51aaff1e3
The drug which blocks both H1 and 5ht2 receptor is
Phenoxybenzamine
Cyproheptadine
Ritanserin
Ondonsetron
1b
multi
Cyproheptadine is an antihistamine used to relieve allergy symptoms such as watery eyes, runny nose, itching eyes/nose, sneezing, hives, and itching. It works by blocking a ceain natural substance (histamine) that your body makes during an allergic reaction. Refer kDT 7/e p170
Anatomy
General anatomy
[ "phenoxybenzamine", "cyproheptadine" ]
62,165
429f19c0-927b-4ff7-ba68-c466c73b80a9
Cerebral metabolism and 02 consumption are increased by:
Propofol
Ketamine
Atracurium
Fentanyl
1b
single
B i.e. Ketamine
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine", "atracurium", "fentanyl", "propofol" ]
62,173
b1f6de7d-7cc4-4a90-82e1-21a21ba1be04
Which of the following drugs does not cause drug-induced hepatitis?
Isoniazid
Rifampidn
Ethambutol
Methyldopa
2c
single
Ans: C (Ethambutol) Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials in Pharmacology, 6th edition, pg 742 Explanation: Causes of Drug-Induced Hepatitis NSAIDs Amiodarone Anabolic steroids OCPs Chlorpromazine Erythromycin Halothane Methyldopa isoniazid Rifampicin Methotrexate Statins Sulfa drugs Tetracyclines Adverse Effects of Ethambutol Low visual acuity, defects in color vision and field defects due to optic neuritis Nausea Rashes Fever Neurological manifestations Hyperuricemia
Unknown
null
[ "ethambutol", "isoniazid", "methyldopa" ]
62,182
0e2c3d47-01bb-46a4-a03a-0cd5235b3dd0
Thyroid gland function is best monitored by which of the following:
Basal metabolic rate (BMR)
Thyroxine and tri–iodothyronine uptake
Level of thyroid stimulating hormone
Level of protein bound iodine
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "thyroxine" ]
62,193
5121b67d-c80c-4c95-b74b-edd4611911b5
A child developed methemoglobinemia after receiving local anaesthesia during a surgical procedure which was treated by the intravenous administration of methylene blue. Which of the following anaesthetic must have given in this child?
Procaine
Bupivacaine
Prilocaine
Lignocaine
2c
single
Prilocaine is an intermediate-acting amino amide. Prilocaine has the highest clearance of the amino-amide anesthetics, impaing reduced risk of systemic toxicity. It has propensity to induce methemoglobinemia, which results from accumulation of one its metabolites, oho-toluidine, an oxidizing agent. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. If necessary, it can be treated by the intravenous administration of methylene blue (1-2 mg/kg). Ref: Drasner K. (2012). Chapter 26. Local Anesthetics. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "procaine", "bupivacaine" ]
62,224
585dfd70-8592-499a-834e-6c1acb3ad8e0
A patient on lithium therapy is also suffering from hypeension. Which of the following antihypeensive drugs can cause toxicity when given along with lithium to this patient ?
Calcium channel blockers
Thiazide diuretics
Beta blockers
Clonidine
1b
single
Thiazide diuretics cause decrease sodium concentration in the body initially by acting on the DT, which inturn causes increased reabsorption of sodium as a compensatory feedback, thereby causes decreased excretion of lithium, leading to toxicity. This occurs because lithium and sodium excretion are treated in a similar fashion so increased reuptake of sodium implies that there is decreased excretion of lithium from the body leading to lithium toxicity
Pharmacology
Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia
[ "clonidine" ]
62,229
620ac247-b96b-4bf2-8d67-fa1c30f1f7e8
Chronic cough is a side effect of?
Captopril
Domperidone
Cimetidine
Celecoxib
0a
single
Ans. is `a' i.e., Captopril Captopril is an ACE inhibitor and chronic cough is a known side effect of ACE inhibitors. Adverse effects of ACE inhibitor Hypotension Cough Angioedma Teratogenecity Acute renal failure Hyperkalemia Rashes, Uicaria Dysguesia Gfanulocytopenia Dysguesia is reversible loss or alteration of taste sensations. Cough and angioedema are due to elevated bradykinin, caused by inhibition of bradykinin/substance P metabolism in lungs.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cimetidine", "captopril", "celecoxib" ]
62,273
4aeed05c-5c9f-4b5d-aaf0-1f40d154397d
A 38-year-old daily laborer has a hea rate of 44 on routine examination. What is the treatment?
Atropine
Cardiac pacing
Adrenaline
No treatment required
3d
single
Resting hea rates <60 beats/ min are very common in young healthy individuals and physically conditioned subjects. By definition, sinus bradycardia is a rhythm driven by the SA node with a rate of <60 beats/min; sinus bradycardia is very common and typically benign. A sinus rate of <40 beats/min in the awake state in the absence of physical conditioning generally is considered abnormal.Harrison 19e pg: 1468
Medicine
C.V.S
[ "atropine" ]
62,275
48777fcc-09c5-4a68-9211-ef2c4c8884c1
Drug (s) used in the treatment of multiple myeloma is/are -a) Bortezomibb) Melphalanc) Hydroxyoread) Ketoconazolee) Cyclophosphamide
abc
abe
cde
acd
1b
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "cyclophosphamide" ]
62,294
501fb7e3-b5df-4ff4-98f3-0d840aa07a38
Which of the following is true for thyrotoxicosis:
In Grave's disease antibodies are formed to TSH receptors which result in excessive thyroxine secretion
Hashimoto's thyroiditis occurs in young males
In primary hypothyroidism, decreased TSH levels are seen
In Grave's disease no antibodies are formed to TSH receptors which result in decreased thyroxine secretion
0a
multi
null
Surgery
null
[ "thyroxine" ]
62,306
e5eb084a-2019-483b-b5aa-4acf6ca8df32
Minipill containing 75 jag of desogestrel is used for contraception. Which of the following is its schedule of administration ?
Taken once a day pill for 3 months 7 days pill free interval
Taken once a day pill for 2 months 7 days pill free interval
Taken for 21 days with 7 days pill free interval
Taken for 28 days with no pill free interval
3d
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "desogestrel" ]
62,322
ff06eedd-bf7a-4b53-8f49-c8fcf9bdebb3
26 year old female patient wanted epidural for labor analgesia. She was given 12ml of 0.25% bupivacaine immediately after this she developed hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory difficulty. Which of the following explains condition of the patient.
Vasovagal attack
Systemic toxicity
Total spinal anaesthesia
Drug allergy
2c
multi
Total spinal is one of the dreaded complication of epidural anaesthesia. Accidental puncture of dura, while giving epidural will cause whole volume (10-20ml) of drug to enter subarachnoid space. This can reach upto cranium producing total spinal block.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "bupivacaine" ]
62,338
85634722-b39a-4781-b955-8dd5a9166e54
A patient Geeta began taking alendronate and she was advised to take a large amount of water and remain in the standing position for at least half an hour till she had the first meal of the day. These instructions were given to reduce the risk of:
Cholelithiasis
Constipation
Erosive esophagitis
Osteonecrosis
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "alendronate" ]
62,351
dcb5c229-b154-4e45-94d6-739a48346049
Drugs causing AKI except
Diclofenac
Amphotericin B
Amoxicillin
Aminoglycosides
2c
multi
Drugs causing AKI are Aminoglycosides Iodinated contrast PPI'S, NSAID's Cisplatin Angiotensin receptor blockers and ace inhibitors. Cyclosporine. Rifampicin Acyclovir Methotrexate Calcineurin inhibitors ref:HARRISON 20 th edition pg no. 2099 tab 304-1,2101 fig 304.3
Medicine
Kidney
[ "diclofenac" ]
62,382
b19bb025-5949-464f-bfaa-dbccaf1c5201
Anaesthetic drug which possess proconvulsive activity and is used in electroconvulsive therapy is:
Propofol
Methohexital
Ketamine
Thiopentone
1b
single
Methohexital is the anesthetic of choice in patients undergoing electroconvulsive therapy as it can produce burst suppression of the EEG. It can increase ictal activity and can cause seizures in these patients.
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
[ "ketamine", "propofol" ]
62,395
03277791-aafd-4b7b-92d0-a5c015d9b285
The following serum levels: calcium- 7.8 mg/ dL, 25 hydroxy vitamin D is high, 1 a-hydroxylase levels are low. Which drug shall be the most appropriate for treatment of this condition?
Calcitriol
Phosphate supplementation
Calcifediol
Vitamin D3
0a
multi
The above scenario is of vitamin D dependent rickets type 1. VITAMIN D DEFICIENCY RICKETS Autosomal recessive Presents as childhood rickets | Calcium and | activity of 1a hydroxylase Do not respond to conventional doses of vitamin D. Rx- Calcitriol (0.25-0.5 mcg daily).
Orthopaedics
Metabolic Disorders of Bone
[ "calcitriol" ]
62,396
714bc0e6-ce90-4f2f-93e3-c7445942125e
First Local anesthetic to be used for spinal block:
Cocaine
Procaine
Prilocaine
Lignocaine
0a
single
Cocaine was the first local anesthetic to be used for regional anaesthesia. In 1884, Austrian ophthalmologist Karl Koller (1857-1944) instilled a 2% solution of cocaine into his own eye and tested its effectiveness as a local anesthetic by pricking the eye with needles. His findings were presented a few weeks later at annual conference of the Heidelberg Ophthalmological Society. The following year, William Halsted (1852-1922) performed the first brachial plexus block. Also in 1885, James Leonard Corning (1855-1923) injected cocaine between the spinous processes of the lower lumbar veebrae, first in a dog and then in a healthy man. His experiments are the first published descriptions of the principle of neuraxial blockade. On August 16, 1898, German surgeon August Bier (1861-1949) performed surgery under spinal anesthesia in Kiel. Following the publication of Bier's experiments in 1899, a controversy developed about whether Bier or Corning performed the first successful spinal anesthetic.
Anaesthesia
Regional Anesthesia
[ "procaine" ]
62,406
ae0c08d1-8f64-49a0-8928-e03d32c53b3a
Nephrotoxic agent is
Methoxy flurone
Isoflurone
Halothane
N20
0a
single
A i.e. Methoxy flurane
Anaesthesia
null
[ "halothane" ]
62,409
04255310-9874-4fcc-bf6d-a55767c1c76f
Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia ?
Hydrocoisone
Prednisolone
Fludrocoisone
Dexamethasone
3d
single
These patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia require lifelong treatment.Patients with salt wasting and virilizing forms should be treated with hydrocoisone(10-15 mg/m2/day)and fludrocoisone (0.1mg/day).After completion of growth ,synthetic glucocoicoid preperations( dexamethasone,prednisolone)can be used. Reference: OP Ghai,essentiL paediatrics,8 th edition,page no 527
Pediatrics
Endocrinology
[ "prednisolone", "dexamethasone" ]
62,415
e9d47f1a-5e47-4485-aa9e-b7b72d3dc6e9
Which of the following drugs is not antifungal?
Capofungin
Undecylenic acid
Ciclopirox
Clofazimine
3d
single
D i.e., Clofazimine Capsofungin, an echinocandin, is a cell wall antagonist that blocks glucan synthetase. It's an intravenous drug used in treatment of aspergillosis or candidosis (resistant species). Ciclopirox and undecylenic acid are antifungal but clofazimine is not.
Skin
null
[ "clofazimine" ]
62,426
392537b9-cacc-40e6-b981-97a2a9653f95
Carbon dioxide fixing reaction requires
Biotin
Alanine
Pantothenic acid
Serine
0a
single
Biotin-Independent Carboxylation ReactionsCarbamoyl phosphate synthetase, which isthe stepping stone for urea and pyrimidinesynthesis (Step 1, Fig. 14.13).Addition of CO2 to form C6 in purine ring.Malic enzyme, conveing pyruvate to malateGluconeogenesis1. Pyruvate Carboxylase ReactionPyruvate in the cytoplasm enters the mitochondria.Then, carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate is catalysed by a mitochondrial enzyme, pyruvate carboxylase (Fig. 9.24). It needs the co-enzymes biotin and ATP.Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 415
Biochemistry
Respiratory chain
[ "biotin" ]
62,433
ed031f92-6ca9-4d78-8a0d-8f4e026557e7
In angle-closure glaucoma, treatment given to the fellow eye is:
Pilocarpine eyedrops
Atropine
Laser iridectomy
Trabeculoplasty
2c
single
C i.e. Laser iridectomy
Ophthalmology
null
[ "pilocarpine", "atropine" ]
62,434
0fd23eec-eeb4-46cc-b52c-74c18762ee1e
Mechanism of action of Theophylline in Bronchial Asthma include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Phosphodiesterase inhibition
Adenosine Receptor antagonism
Increased Histone Deacteylation
Beta-2 Receptor stimulation
3d
multi
Theophylline has no action on beta 2 receptor. It is a methyxanthine, which cause bronchodilation mainly by increasing the cAMP levels, by inhibiting the phosphodiesterase enzyme. Mechanism of action of theophylline includes: 1) Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal and cardiac muscle. 2) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase 3) Blockage of adenosine receptor. Adenosine cause bronchoconstriction, dilate cerebral vessels and inhibit gastric secretion and cardiac pacemaker. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 201 - 204.
Pharmacology
null
[ "theophylline" ]
62,438
46136a3b-8734-4ff2-b14d-27afa8f7f831
True about Pityriasis rubra pilaris?
Isolated patches of normal skin found
Occurs mainly in adults
Common in females
Oral cyclosporine is drug of choice
0a
multi
Pityriasis rubra pilaris Definition: Heterogeneous group of disorders that have circumscribed follicular keratoses, branny scale and an orange-red erythema. C/F: It shows an equal sex incidence. Bimodal age distribution with peaks in the first and fifth decades. Lesion: Erythematous follicular hyperkeratosis giving a 'nutmeg grater' appearancee. Mainly seen over the elbows, knees, wrists and back of fingers. Pt. presents with well defined salmon red or orange-red dry scaly plaques. Islands of normal skin are present, the so called 'islands of sparing'. Associated disorders: Leukaemia Metastatic carcinoma Treatment: Topical : Coicosteroids + Salicylic acid (if thickening). In the erythrodermic phase: Acitretin or Isotretinoin are used.
Dental
Lichen planus and Other papulosquamous disorders
[ "cyclosporine" ]
62,446
4645956b-ffde-4470-86b8-d0424d6a6bb0
True about 1 year old child with PDA is-
Symptoms similar to Aoo pulmonary window
Chances of spontaneous closure high
Indomethacin may help in closure
Endocarditis is rare
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Symptoms similar to aoopulmonary window Before comparing the symptoms of PDA & Aoopulmonary window let me discuss the C/F of PDA. o Patent ductus aeriosus is a communication between pulmonary aery and Aoa after fetal life. PDA results in left to right shunt from the aoa to the pulmonary aery. The flow occurs both during systole and diastole as a pressure gradient is present throughout the cardiac cycle between the 2 great aeries. This flow of blood results in continuous murmur it is usually heard at 2nd left interspace. In patients with large left to right shunt a low pitched mitral mid diastolic murmur is audible at the apex, owing to the increased volume of blood flow across the mitral valve. o There are other conditions which can produce systolic and diastolic murmur in the pulmonary area such as Aoopulmonary window defect.
Pediatrics
null
[ "indomethacin" ]
62,447
64255e98-7069-477b-9922-2ec50b55839b
True about acarbose are all, except:
Controls both pre and post prandial hyper
It decreases fibrinogen level
It is an alpha glucosidase inhibitor
It delays progression of diabetes
0a
multi
Controls both pre and post prandial hyper
Pharmacology
null
[ "acarbose" ]
62,475